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FIITJEE – JEE (Main)

Batches: 12th Studying & 12th Pass


PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
Mock Test – III
QP Code:
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300

▪ Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
▪ Please read the instructions carefully. You ar e allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

Important Instructions:
A. General Instructions
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue / Black Ball Point Pen. Use of
pencil is strictly prohibited.
2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out
the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.
3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 75 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
5. This question paper contains Three Parts.
6. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
7. Each Part has only one section: Section - A.
8. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be provided for rough
work.
9. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in any
form, are not allowed.
10. Use Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars / marking responses on Side-1 and Side-2 of the
Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
11. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
any electronic device, etc. except the Admit Card inside the examination hall / room.
12. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room / Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
13. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.

B. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.

(i) Section-A (01 – 20, 26 – 45, 51 – 70) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

Section-A (21 – 25, 46 – 50, 71 – 75) contains 15 Numerical based questions, the answer of which
maybe positive or negative numbers or decimals and each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer. There is no negative marking.

Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) :_____________________________________

Enrolment Number :_________________________________________________________

Batch :________________________ Date of Examination : ________________________

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JEEM Mock Test-III

PART – I: PHYSICS
Section – A: Single Correct Answer Type

This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. A block of mass m is slowly carried on a inclined plane by a


force F which always acts along the tangent to the plane. If the B

co-efficient of friction between the block and incline be , then 2


work done by force of friction while carrying block from bottom
F
of the plane to the top will be: h
m
(A) dependent on the actual shape of the path between point A 1
and B. A 

(B) will have a total positive value


(C) will not change if force F is not applied along the tangent to the plane always.
(D) independent of the actual shape of the path between points A and B.

2. Block are moving as shown. The ratio v1 / v 2 is


sin 1
(A)
sin 2
sin 2
(B)
sin 1
cos 2 1 2
(C)
cos 1 A v1 B v2
cos 1
(D)
cos 2
ab 2
3. An experiment measures quantities a, b, c and X is calculated from X = . If the
c3
percentage errors a, b c are  1 %,  3 % and  2 % respectively, the percentage error
in X can be
(A)  13 % (B)  7 % (C)  4 % (D)  1 %

4. The escape velocity of an object projected from the surface of a given planet dependents
on
(A) mass of the object (B) direction of projection
(C) mass of the planet (D) all of the above
Space for rough work

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JEEM Mock Test-III

5. An assembly of identical spring mass systems is


placed on a smooth horizontal surface as shown.
Initially springs are non deformed and masses just k
k
touch each other. The left mass is displaced to the
M M
left and right mass is displaced to the right by equal
and small distances and released. The collisions are
elastic. The time period of the oscillation of the
system is
2M M M M
(A) 2 (B) 2 (C) 2 (D)
k 2k k k

y
6. Two identical sources P and Q emit waves in same phase and of
same wavelength. Spacing between P and Q is 3. The maximum
distance from P along the x–axis at which a minimum intensity P x
occurs is given by
Q
(A) 6.58 (B) 2.25 (C) 8.75 (D) 0.55

D1
5
7. In the figure shown below, chose the correct answer.
(A) Voltage across D2 is 20 Volt.
(B) Voltage across D1 is 20 Volt. D2
(C) Current through diode D1 is 4A.
+ −
(D) Current through diode D1 is 0 A.
20V

8. A ferromagnetic substance when heated beyond curie temperature becomes


(A) diamagnetic. (B) ferromagnetic. (C) nonmagnetic. (D) paramagnetic.

9. A lens is placed between a source of light and a wall. It forms images of area A1 and A2
on the wall, for its two different positions. The area of the source of light is
A + A2
(A) (A1A2)1/2 (B) 1
2
−1 2
 1 1   A1 + A 2 
(C)  +  (D)  
 A1 A 2   2 
 

10. For what value of R will the current in galvanometer 5


be zero ?
(A) 7  + +
– R –
(B) 5 
(C) 15  17V 19V
G
(D) 85/2 
Space for rough work

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JEEM Mock Test-III

11. In a pure semiconductor the number of conduction electrons is 6  1019 /m3. The number
of holes in a sample of 1 cm  1 cm  1 mm are
(A) 6  1013 (B) 6  1012 (C) 6  1015 (D) 6  1016

12. The final image formed by the microscope is


(A) real and magnified (B) real and diminished.
(C) virtual and diminished . (D) virtual and magnified.

13. The efficiency of a Carnot cycle is 1/6. If on reducing the temperature of the sink by
650C, the efficiency becomes 1/3, the initial temperatures between which the cycle is
working are
(A) 390 K, 325 K (B) 780 K, 325 K (C) 390 K, 162 K (D) 300 K, 100 K

1 1
14. vs graph for a spherical mirror is shown in the 1/v
v u
figure. The focal length of the mirror will be
(A) 5 cm  1 −1 1 −1 
(B) –5 cm  2 cm ; cm 
 3 
6
(C) cm
5 1/u
6
(D) − cm
5

15. In a radioactive reaction an unstable nucleus A


dis-integrates into a stable nucleus B. But A is
generated at a constant rate of q nucleus per second.
Then at steady state number of nucleus of A will be –1 
q (sec ) A B
q (Parent (Daughter
(A) q (B) Nucleus) Nucleus)


(C) q –  (D)
q

16. In a hypothetical system a particle of mass m and charge –3q is moving around a very
heavy particle having charge q. Assuming Bohr’s model to be true to this system, the
orbital velocity of mass m when it is nearest to heavy particle is
3q2 3q2 3q 3q
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 o h 4 o h 2oh 4 o h

17. An electron of mass m starts moving in region magnitude of having uniform electric field
E. Let the time taken to move a particular distance be t. The rate of change of
wavelength with time is given by
eh h eEh eh
(A) (B) 2
(C) (D)
mEt meEt mt 2
mEt 2
Space for rough work

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JEEM Mock Test-III

1
18. Dimension of , where symbols have their usual meaning, are
0 0
(A) L−1T  (B) L−2T−2  (C) L2T−2  (D) LT−1 

19. Two balls A & B both of mass m & connected by a light A


inextensible string of length 2 . Whole system is on a
frictionless horizontal table. Ball B is given a velocity u (as 
shown) ⊥r to AB. The velocity of ball A just after the string
becomes taut is u
B

u 3 u 3 u
(A) (B) u 3 (C) (D)
4 2 2

20. Choose the correct statement from the following:


(A) Good reflectors are good emitters of thermal radiation
(B) Burns caused by water at 100oC are more severe than those caused by steam at
100oC
(C) Burns caused by water at 100oC are equally severe to those caused by steam at
100oC
(D) If the earth did not have atmosphere, it would become intolerably cold

Section – A
Numerical based questions

21. A body is projected from the top of a tower with an initial velocity of 10 ms –1 horizontally
(Assume g = 10 ms–2). Find the distance (in m) of the body from the point of projection
after two seconds is:

22. A vessel contains a mixture of one mole of oxygen and two moles of nitrogen at 300 K.
Find the ratio of average rotational kinetic energies per O2 molecule to per N2 molecule

23. A ball falls from rest from a height h onto a floor, and rebounds to a height h/4. Find the
coefficient of restitution between the ball and the floor

24. A beam of light wavelength 600 nm from a distant source falls on a single slit 1.00 mm
wide and the resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 2 m away. Find the
distance
(in mm) between the first dark fringes on either side of the central bright fringe is

25. In a pure semiconductor the number of conduction electrons is 6  1019 /m3. If the number
of holes in a sample of 1 cm  1 cm  1 mm are 6 × 10n then find the value of ‘n’.
Space for rough work

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JEEM Mock Test-III

PART – II: CHEMISTRY


Section – A: Single Correct Answer Type

This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

26. What should be the lowest equivalent mass of H3PO3 in acid-base reactions?
(A) 48 (B) 41 (C) 27.33 (D) 21.25

27. The bond angle of which species has the maximum value?
(A) SO24− (B) NO2+ (C) NO3− (D) BF4−

28. Gases P Q R S
‘a’ in atm2 L2 mol-2 6 4 8 4
‘b’ in L mol–1 4 2 5 3
Which of following gas can be easily liquefied?
(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S

29. Which of following reaction can produce the highest amount of heat?
(A) NH4OH + HCl ⎯⎯ →NH4Cl + H2O
(B) HCl + NaOH ⎯⎯ →NaCl + H2O
(C) HCN + NH4OH ⎯⎯
→NH4CN + H2O
(D) CH3COOH + KOH ⎯⎯
→ CH3COOK + H2O

30. Which of following compound is more acidic than OH

(A) OH (B) OH

OCH 3 CH3
(C) OH (D) OH

C2H5
CH3
Space for rough work

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JEEM Mock Test-III

31. CH 2COONa
CH 2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
Kolbes electrolysis
Products
CH 2COONa
The major organic product of above reaction is:

(A) (B)

(C) CH3 – CH = CH2 (D)

32. Hg( OCOCH )


Q ⎯⎯⎯⎯ CH3 − CH = CH2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ →P
B2H6 ,THF 3 2 2 ,H O
OH− ,H O 2 2
NaBH4

→ R (Major product )
+
⎯⎯⎯⎯
H2O/H

Which of following two compounds are not isomers?


(A) P and Q (B) Q and R (C) P and R (D) None of these

33. Which of following compound does not react with NaBH4?


(A) O (B) O

O
(C) O O (D) O

34. Which of following compound does not evolve any gas on heating?
(A) NaNO3 (B) NaHCO3
(C) Na2SO4 (D) CH3COONa/sodalime

35. Which of following compound forms cross-linked silicones?


CH3 Cl

(A) H3C - Si - Cl (B) CH 3 - Si - Cl

CH3 Cl
Cl CH3

(C) Cl - Si - Cl (D) CH 3 - Si - CH 3

Cl CH3
Space for rough work

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36. Which of following two gases can cause depletion of ozone layer?
(A) CF2Cl2 and CF4 (B) NO and NO2 (C) CH4 and CH3Cl (D) CO and CO2

37. Which of following oxide can absorb maximum amount of oxygen?


(A) NO (B) N2O (C) N2O3 (D) N2O5

38. The van’t Hoff factor of Al2(SO4)3 at a particular concentration of solution is 2. What is it’s
degree of dissociation?
(A) 0.12 (B) 0.15 (C) 0.5 (D) 0.25

39. At pH = 4, an amino acid, NH 2 - CH - COOH exists as:

CH3
(A) (B) NH 2 - CH - COO
NH 3 - CH - COO

CH3 CH3
(C) (D) NH 2 - CH - COO
NH 3 - CH - COOH

CH3 CH 2

40. How many optical isomers are possible for fructose?


(A) 16 (B) 12 (C) 8 (D) 10

41. Which complex contains maximum no. of electrons in the t2g orbitals?
(A) [Fe(CN)6]3– (B) [FeF6]3– (C) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (D) [Fe(CN)6]4–

42. Which of following compounds can be distinguished by NH3 solution?


(A) Be(OH)2 and Mg(OH)2 (B) Al(OH)3 and Cu(OH)2
(C) Cr(OH)3 and Cu(OH)2 (D) Al(OH)3 and Fe(OH)3

43. Which can absorb the highest amount of CH3I molecules?


(A) (CH3)3N (B) (C2H5)3N (C) (C2H5)2NH (D) CH3CH2NH2

44. Zn(s) | Zn2+(C1) || H+(C2) | H2(g) | Pt(s)


In the above electrochemical cell, ECell will be equal to EoCell , if
(A) C1 = C2 (B) C2 = C1 (C) C1 = C2 (D) C2 = 2C1

45. How many maximum no. of complete void(s) is/are located on one body diagonal of a
FCC unit cell?
(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 5
Space for rough work

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JEEM Mock Test-III

Section – A
Numerical based questions

46. What is the sum of the principal and azimuthal quantum numbers of the unpaired
electron of chlorine?

47. The solubility product(Ksp) of a salt XY2 is 4  10–8. What will be the molarity of the anion
of the salt in it’s saturated solution?

48. How many Cl = O bonds are present in Cl2O7?

2 2 7( )
NaCl ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → ( A ) ⎯⎯⎯ → (B) ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → ( C)
K Cr O s NaOH dil.H2SO4
49. Conc.H2SO4 H2O2

Determine total number of atoms in per unit formula of (A), (B) and (C).

50. 3 g of acetic acid is mixed in 250 mL of 0.1 M HCl. This mixture is now dilute to 500 mL.
20 mL of this solution is now taken in another container ½ mL of 5 M NaOH is added to
this. Find the pH of this solution.
space for rough work

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JEEM Mock Test-III

PART – III: MATHEMATICS


Section – A: Single Correct Answer Type

This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

51. If A and B are two sets such that n ( A  B) = 36, n ( A  B) = 16 and n ( A B) = 15, then
n (B ) is equal to
(A) 21 (B) 31 (C) 20 (D) 52

1
52. If  = 2, then the set of points (x, y) satisfying x + iy =  − lie on

(A) circle (B) ellipse (C) parabola (D) hyperbola

53. If a, b are the roots of x2 + px + 1 = 0 , and c, d are the roots of x2 + qx + 1 = 0 , the value
of E = ( a − c )(b − c )(a + d)(b + d) is
(A) p2 − q2 (B) q2 − p2 (C) q2 + p2 (D) pq

If A and B are two square matrices of the same order, then ( A + B ) = A 2 + 2AB + B2 can
2
54.
hold if and only if
(A) AB = BA (B) AB + BA = 0 (C) AB  0 (D) AB = 0

55. A committee of at least three members is to be formed from a group of 6 boys and 6 girls
such that it always has a boy and a girl. The number of ways to form such a committee is
(A) 211 − 26 − 13 (B) 212 − 27 − 35 (C) 211 − 27 − 35 (D) 212 − 27 − 13

The coefficient of the middle term in the binomial expansion of (1 + x ) and of (1 − x )


4 6
56.
is the same if  equals
3 10 5 3
(A) − (B) (C) − (D)
10 3 3 5

n n

r = f (n ) , then  ( 2r − 1)
4 4
57. Let is equal to
r =1 r =1

(A) f ( 2n) − 16f (n) (B) f ( 2n) − 7f (n)


(C) f ( 2n − 1) − 8f (n) (D) f ( 2n − 1) − 4f (n)

58. In an arithmetic progression of 16 distinct terms, with a1 = 16, the sum is equal to square
of the last term. The common difference of the A.P. is
8 −4 −8 −8
(A) (B) (C) (D)
15 5 5 15
Space for rough work

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f (1 − h) − f (1)
59. Let f ( x ) = 3x10 − 7x8 + 5x6 − 21x3 + 3x2 − 7 . The value of lim is
h→0 h3 + 3h
50 22 53
(A) (B) (C) 13 (D)
3 3 3

1
60. Let g = f −1 and f ' ( x ) = then g' ( x ) is equal to
1 + x4

( ( )) ( )
−1
4 −1
(A) 1 + g ( x ) (B) 1 + ( f ( x ) ) (C) 1 + ( f ( x ) ) (D) 1 + ( g ( x ) )
4 4 4

If the tangent to the curve x3 − y2 = 0 at ( m2 , −m3 ) is parallel to y = −


1
61. x − 2m3 , then the
m
value of m2 is
1 1 2 −2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 6 3 3

The equation of the tangent to the curve y = ( 2x − 1) e ( ) at the point of its maximum is
2 1− x
62.
(A) y = 1 (B) x = 1 (C) x + y = 1 (D) x − y = −1

63. Let f and g be two polynomials then  ( f ( x ) g" ( x ) − f " ( x ) g ( x ) ) dx is equal to (ignoring
the constant of integrations)
f (x)
(A) (B) f ' ( x ) g ( x ) − f ( x ) g' ( x )
g' ( x )
(C) f ( x ) g' ( x ) − f ' ( x ) g ( x ) (D) f ' ( x ) g' ( x ) + f ' ( x ) g ( x )

x2 
t f ( t ) dt = sin x − x cos x − for all x  R ~ 0 then the value of f   is
x
64. If e 2 6
1 3
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) − (D)
2 2

65. Let A (h, k), B (1, 1) and C (2, 1) be the vertices of a right A (h, k)

angled triangle with AC as its hypotenuse. If the area of


the triangle is 1, then the set of values which k can take is
given by:
(A) 1, 3 (B) 0, 2
(C) −1, 3 (D) −3, − 2

B (1, 1) C (2, 1)

Space for rough work

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66. A variable chord of the circle x2 + y2 − 2ax = 0 is drawn through the origin. Locus of the
centre of the circle drawn on this chord as diameter is
(A) x2 + y2 + ax = 0 (B) x2 + y2 + ay = 0 (C) x2 + y2 − ax = 0 (D) x2 + y2 − ay = 0

67. If the line kx + y = 4 touches the parabola y = x − x2 , then the point of contact is
(A) (–2, 2) (B) (2, –2) (C) (–2, 6) (D) (2, –6)
68. Let P (3, 2, 6) be a point in space and Q be a point on the line
( ) ( )
r = ˆi − ˆj + 2kˆ +  −3iˆ + ˆj + 5kˆ . Then the value of  for which the vector PQ is parallel
to the plane x − 4y + 3z − 1 = 0 is
1 −1 1 −1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 4 8 8

69. Given a = ˆi + ˆj − k,
ˆ b = −ˆi + 2jˆ + kˆ and c = −ˆi + 2jˆ − kˆ . A unit vector perpendicular to both
a + b and b + c is
2iˆ + ˆj + kˆ ˆi + ˆj + kˆ ˆi + ˆj + kˆ
(A) (B) (C) k̂ (D)
6 3 3
70. If the standard deviation of numbers 2, 4, 5 and 6 is a constant  , then the standard
deviation of the numbers 4, 6, 7 and 8 is
(A)  + 2 (B) 2 (C)  (D) 2
Section – A
Numerical based questions

71. The number of real solutions of 3x 2 + x + 5 = x − 3 is


72. The system of equations
x + y + z =  − 1
x + y + z =  − 1
x + y + z =  − 1
has no solution then  equals to

dy
73. If = y + 3  0 and y ( 0 ) = 2, then y (log2) is equal to
dx
74. If e1,e 2 are the eccentricities of the hyperbola 2x2 − 2y2 = 1 and the ellipse x2 + 2y2 = 2
respectively then e1e 2 is equal to

75. Let f : −1, 2 → 0,  be a continuous function such that f ( x ) = f (1 − x ) for all x   −1, 2 . Let

R1 =  x f ( x ) dx,, and R 2 be the area of the region bounded by y = f ( x ) , x = −1 and x = 2


2

−1

and the x – axis such that R2 = R1 then value of  is equal to


Space for rough work

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