Biology F4 Review Summary Note

Points To Remember
Coordination : Process through which two or more organs interact and

complement the functions of one another surrounding the brain.
Action potential : A sudden change in the electrical charges in the plasma
membrane of a nerve ®bre.
Aqueous humour : The thin watery ¯uid that occupy space between lens
and cornea in eye.
Blind spot : A spot on ratina which is free from rods and cones and lack
the ability for vision.
Cerebrospinal ¯uid : An alkaline ¯uid present in between inner two layer
of meninges, surrounding the brain and spinal cord.
Cerebellum : A part of hind brain that controls the balance and posture of
the body.
Cochlea : A spirally coiled part of internal ear which is responsible for
hearing.
Corpus callosum : A curved thick bundle of nerve ®bres that joins two
cerebral hemisphere.
Depolarisation : A condition when polarity of the plasma membrane of
nerve ®bre is reversed.
Endolymph : The ¯uid ®lled within membranous labyrinth.
Ecustachian tube : A tube which connect ear cavity with the pharynx.
Fovea : An area of highest vision on the ratina which contain only cones.
Meninges : Three sheets of covering of connective tissue wrapping the brain.
Grey Matter : This shows many convolutions which increase the amount
of vital nerve tissue.
Medula oblongata : Posterior most part of the brain which is continuous
with spinal cord and control respiration, heart rate,swallowing,vomiting.
Neural Control and Coordination 185

Pons : Thick bundles of ®bres on the ventral side of brain below cerebellum.
Foramen magnum : A big aperture in the skull posteriorly through which
spinal cord emerges out.
Spinal cord : A tubular structure connected with medulla oblongata of brain
and situated in the neural canal of the vertebral column, covered by meninges.
Synaptic cleft : A narrow ¯uid ®lled space which separates two membranes
of the two neurons at the synapse.
Synaptic vesicles : These are membrane bound vesicles in the axoplasm of
the axon terminal and these store neurotransmitter.
Neurotransmitter : These are chemicals stored in synaptic vesicles, diffuse
to reach the membrane of next neuron for its stimulation.
Synapse : A physiological junction between axon of one neuron and dendrite
of next neuron.
CNS—Central neural system
PNS—Peripheral neural system
ANS—Autonomic neural system
Neural System
Central neural System Peripheral neural System
Brain Spinal cord Cranial nerve Spinal nerve

12 pairs 31 pairs
Nerve ®bres of PNS
Afferent ®bres Tansmit impulse Efferent ®bres Transmit impulse

from Tissue/organ to CNS from CNS to Peripherel tissue/organ
Division of PNS
Somatic neural System Automatic neural system Transmit

Relays impulse from CNS impulse from CNS to involuntary
to Skeletal muscle Organ and smooth muslces
186 Biology Class - 11

Cell body = Cytoplasm with nucleus, cell organelles and
Nissl’s granules
Parts of Neuron Dendrites = Short ®bres which branch rapidly and project
out of cell
Axon = Single, long ®bre, branched at distal endit
(Refer ®g. 21.1, page 317, NCERT - Biology, Class-XI)
Bulti = : One axon and tw or more dentrites
: Found is cerebral Cortex
Neuron Bipolar = : One axon and one dendrite
: Found in ratina of eye
Unipolar = : Cell body with axon only
: Found usually in the embryonic stage
Conduction of nerve impulse along axon
Polarised membrane/Resting Potential
In resting phase when neuron is not conducting an impulse, the axonal
membrane is called polarised. This is due to difference in concentration of ions
across the axonal membrane.
At Rest :
 Axoplasm inside the axon contain high conc. of K+ and low conc. of Na+.
 The ¯uid outside the axon contain low conc. of K+ and high conc. of Na+.
As a result the outer surface of axonal membrane is positively charged and
inner surface is negatively charged. The electric potential difference across the
resting plasma membrane is called resting potential.
Action Potential : When a neve ®bre is stimulated, the permeability of
membrane to Na+ is greatly increased at the point of stimulus (rapid in¯ux of
Na+) and hence polarity of membrane is reversed and now membrane is said to
be depolarised. The electric potential difference across the plasma membrane at
that site is called action potential, which infact termed as nerve impulse.
Depolarisation is very rapid, so that conduction of nerve impulse along the
entire length of axon occurs in fractions of second.

Transmission of Impulses at Synapse
(i) At electrical synapses : Here the membrane of pre and post-syneptic neuron
are in very close proximity. Electric current can ¯ow directly from one neuron
into other across these synapses, like impule conduction along a single axon.
(ii) At chemical synapses : Here the membrane of pre and post-syneptic neuron
are separated by ¯uid ®lled space called synaptic cleft. Neurotransmitter are
involved here.
When an impulse arrives at the axon terminal, it stimulates the movement of
the synaptic vesicles towards membrane and they fuse with the plsama membrane
and release their neurotransmitter in the syneptic cleft. These chemicals bind to
speci®c receptors, present on the post-syneptic membrane. Their binding opens
ion channels and allow the entry of ion which generate new potential in post
synaptic neuron.
Human brain : Human brain is the major portion of central neural system.
Which is well protected by the skull.
The brain is surrounded by three cranial meninges—
(i) Duramater—outer alyer
(ii) Arachnoid—middle layer
(iii) Piamter—Inner layer-remain incontact with brain
Parts of Brain
Fore brain Mid brain Hind brain

(a) Cerebrum (a) Cerebellum
(b) Thalamus (b) Pons
(c) Hypothalamus (c) Medulla oblongata
Functions of pars of brain :
Cerebrum : Centre of intelligence, memory and imagination, reasoning,
judgement, expression of will power.
Thalamus : Acts as relay centre to receive and transmit general sensation
of pain, touch and temperature.
Hypothalamus : Centre for regulation of body temperature, urge for eating
and drinking.
Midbrain : Responsible to coordinate visual re¯exes and auditory re¯exes.
Cerebellum : Maintains posture and equilibrium of the body as well as
coordinates and regulates voluntary movement.

Pons : Relays impulses between medulla oblongata and cerebral hemisphere
and between the hemisphere of cerebrum and cerebellum. It also heps to regulate
breathing.
Medulla oblongata : Centre that control heart beat, breathing, swallowing,
salivation, sneezing, vomitting and coughing.
Re¯ex action : It is spontaneous, autonomic and mechanical response to
a stimulus that occurs at the level of spinal cord, without involvement of brain.
Re¯ex arc : The ¯ow of nerve along the speci®c during re¯ex action. It
consist of—
(a) A receptor
(b) An Afferent neuron (sensory neuron)
(c) An inter neuron
(d) An efferent neuron (motor neuron)
(e) An effector organ
Sensory neuron
Stimulus Response
(REFLEX - ARC) Inter neuron of spinal cord
Receptor Effector organ
motor neuron
Organ of Sight-Eye
Layer Component Function
1. External layer Sclera Protects and maintain shape of the
eye ball
Cornea Outermost transparent portion of
eye which allows light to enter
2. Middle layer Choroid Absorb light and prevent light from
being re¯ected within the eye ball.
Ciliary body Holds lens, regulate shape of the
lens.
Iris Control amount of light entering.
3. Inner layer Retina Vision in dim light, colour vision,
vision in bright light. Sends the
image to brain through optical
nerves.
(Refer-Fig. 21.6, Page 323 NCERT-Biology, Class XI)

Organ of Hearing–Ear
Portion of the ear Component Function
1. External ear Pinna Collect sound waves
External Direct sound waves towards ear drum,
auditory canal ear wax prevents the entry of foreign
bodies.
2. Middle ear Tympanic Acts as resonator that reproduces
membrane the vibration of sound.
Ear ossicles Transmit sound waves to internal ear.
Eustachian tube Helps in equalising the pressure
of either side of ear drum.
3. Internal ear Cochlea Hearing organ.
Vestebular Balancing of body.
apparatus
(Refer Fig. 21.7, page 325-NCERT-Biology, Class XI)
Questions
Very Short Answer Questions (1 mark each)

1. Name the ¯uid present in membranous labyrinth.
2. Name the area of ratina where only cones are densly packed.
3. Name the inner most meninges of the brain.
4. To which part of the brain communication and memory are associated ?
5. Name the bundle of ®bres that connect two cerebral hemisphere in human
being.
6. Name the photo pigment present in the rod cells.
7. Why can impulses ¯ow only inone direction ?
8. Where is hypothalamus located in the brain ?
9. Which cells are responsible for scotopic vision ?
Short Answer Questions-I (2 marks each)
10. Distinguish between electrical synapses and chemical synapses.
11. What is iris ? Give the function of iris.
12. What is organ of corti ? Where is it located ?
13. Differentiate between cerebrum and cerebellum.
14. What is synapse ? Name its two types.

15. Fill in the blanks in the different columns A to D :
Part/Organ Function
Pinna ........(A).........
........(B)......... Equalise the pressure on either side of ear drum.
Cone cells ........(C).........
........(D)......... regulate amount of light to pass into the eye.
16. why are grey matter and white matter contained in human nervous system
named so ?
Short Answer Questions-II (3 marks each)
17. Observe the diagram given right and answer the following questions :
(i) Label the parts A and B.

(ii) Give the function of C and D.
(iii) Name the layers which wrap this organ.
18. What is a synapse ? How does the nerve impulse cross the chemical
synapse ?
19. Give the function of the following :
(i) Cerebrum (ii) Hypothalamus (iii) Mid brain
20. What is meant by re¯ex action ? Name the components of a re¯ex arc in
correct sequence from receptor upto effector. Support your answer by a
diagram.
21. Draw a diagram of V.S. of human eye and label the following :
Iris, Ratina, Cornea, Blind spot, Ciliary body and Vitreous chamber.

Long Answer Qeustions (5 mark each)
22. Describe in detail, how conduction of never impulse takes place through a
nerve ®bre.
Answers
Very Short Answers (1 mark each)

1. Endolymph
2. Fovea
3. Piamater
4. Cerebrum
5. Corpus callosum
6. Rhodopsin
7. Because each synapse allows impulse to cross it in a single direction.
8. At the base of thalamus.
9. Rods
Short Answers-I (2 marks each)
10. Refer NCERT text book, Class XI Page no. 319.
11. Refer NCERT Text book, Class XI Page no. 323.
14. Junction between two nerves Chemical synapse and electrical synapse
15. (A) To collect sound waves (B) Eustachina tube
(C) Colour vision (D) Iris
16. Refer NCERT book, Page no. 321.
Short Answers-II (3 marks each)
17. (i) A : Cerebrum
B : Corpus callosum
(ii) C : Balancing of body and maintain posture
D : Vomiting , coughing, breathing, salivation or any other correct answer
(anyone).
(iii) Piameter, arachnoid and duramater.

Short Answer (5 mark)
22. Refer NCERT Text book, Class XI Page no. 317 and 318.


Human eye : The sense organ that helps us to see.
• Located in eye sockets in skull.
• Diameter of eye ball – 2.3 cm
Parts of Human Eye

Cornea : It is the outermost, transparent part. It provides most of the
refraction of light.
Lens : It is composed of a fibrous, jelly like material. Provides the focused
real and inverted image of the object on the retina. This is convex lens that
converges light at retina.
Iris : It is a dark muscular diaphragm that controls the size of the pupil.
Pupil : It is the window of the eye. It is the central aperture in iris. It regulates
and controls the amount of light entering the eye.
Retina : It is a delicate membrane having enormous number of light sensitive
cells.
Far point : The maximum distance at which object can be seen clearly is far
point of the eye. For a normal adult eye, its value is infinity.
Near point or Least distance of distinct vision

The minimum distance at which objects can be seen most distinctively
without strain.
• For a normal adult eye, its value is 25 cm.
• Range of human vision – 25 cm to infinity.
Accomodation : The ability of the eye lens to adjust its focal length is called
accommodation. Focal length can be changed with the help of ciliary muscles.
The Human Eye and the Colourfur world 1

Ciliary muscles Ciliary muscles
↓ ↓
Relaxed Contract
↓ ↓
Lens thin Lens thick
↓ ↓
Focal length increases Focal length decreases
The Structure of human eye
Myopia (Near sightedness)

• A myopic person can see nearby objects clearly but cannot see distant
objects clearly.
• Image is formed in front of retina.
Causes of Myopia
• Excessive curvature of eye lens
• Elongation of eye ball
Correction
Use of concave lens of appropriate power.
2 Science Class - 10 (SA - II)

(a) In a myopic eye, image of distant object is formed in front of the retina
(and not on the retina)
(b) The far point (F) of a myopic eye is less than infinity
(c) Correction of myopia. The concave lens placed in front of the eye forms
a virtual image of distant object at far point (F) of the myopic eye.
Hypermetropia (Far sightedness)

• Affected person can see far objects clearly but cannot see nearby objects
clearly.
• The near point of the eye moves away.
• Image is formed behind the retina.
Causes of Hypermetropia
• Focal length of the eye lens becomes too long.
• Eye ball becomes too small.

Correction
Use of convex lens of suitable power can correct the defect.
Presbyopia (Old age Hypermetropia)

It is the defect of vision due to which an old person cannot see the nearby
objects clearly due to loss of power of accomodation of the eye.
• The near-point of the old person having presbyopia gradually recedes
and becomes much more than 25 cm away.
Causes
• Gradual weakening of ciliary muscles.
• Diminishing flexibility of eye lens.
Correction
• Use of convex lens of suitable power.
• Sometimes a person may suffer from both myopia and hypermetropia.
• Such people require bifocal lens for correction.
Advantage of the eyes in front of the face
• It gives a wider field of view.
• It enhances the ability to detect faint objects.
• It provides three dimensional view.

CHECK YOUR KNOWLEDGE
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. What type of lens is used to correct (a) Hypermetropia, (b) Myopia ?
2. Name the defect of vision in which the eye-lens loses its power of
accommodation due to old age.
3. What is the far point of a person suffering from myopia ?
4. What is the other name of old age hypermetropia ?
5. You friend can read a book perfectly well but cannot read the writing on
black-board unless she sits on the front row in class. Is she short-sighted or
long-sighted ?
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Differentiate between Hypermetropia and Myopia.
2. What is presbyopia ? Write two causes of this defect. Name the type of lens
which can be used to correct presbyopia.
3. The near point of a person suffering from hypermetropia is at 50 cm from
his eye. What is the nature and power of the lens needed to correct this
defect ?
4. How is the amount of light entering the eye controlled ?
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. (a) What happens to the size of pupil of our eye in (i) dim light, (ii) bright
light ?
(b) Name the cells on the retina sensitive to (i) bright light, (ii) dim light.
2. (a) Draw a simple diagram of the human eye and label clearly the cornea,
iris, pupil, ciliary muscles, eye lens, retina and optic nerve.
(b) Describe the working of the human eye with the help of the above
diagram.
3. What is short sightedness ? State the two causes of short-sightedness. With
the help of ray diagrams, show :
(a) the eye defect short sightedness.
(b) correction of short sightedness by using a lens.

Hints to Long Answer Type Questions
1. (a) (i) Increases (ii) Decreases

(b) (i) Cones (ii) Rods
2. Labelled diagram of eye
3. A person can see nearby objects clearly but cannot see distinct objects
clearly.
Reason :
(a) Elongation of eye ball.
(b) Excessive curvature of eye lens.
Diagram of myopic eye and correction using concave lens.
Prism : It is a pyramidal piece of glass with two triangular bases and three
rectangular lateral surfaces.
Angle of Prism : The angle between two adjoining lateral surfaces.
Refraction through a glass prism
Angle of deviation (d) : It is the angle between incident ray and emergent
ray.

When white light is passed through a glass prism, it splits into its seven
constituent colours to form a band of seven colours. This phenomenon is called
dispersion.
Spectrum : The band of seven colours formed due to dispersion of white
light is called spectrum.
Acronym : It is a group of alphabets that represent sequential colours in
spectrum.
VIBGYOR
1
Angle of deviation ∝
wavelength
• Red is the least deviated colour as it has largest/longest wavelength.
• Violet is the most deviated colour as it has smallest wavelength in visible
spectrum.
Q. Why spectrum is formed when white light is passed through a glass
prism ?
Ans. Each colour has a definite wavelength and for each wavelength the
angle of deviation differs. Red is the least deviated and violet is the most deviated
colour so different colours deviate at different angles to form spectrum.

Issac Newton was the first person who proved that sunlight is made up of
seven colours :
(i) He passed sunlight through a glass prism to form a band of seven
colours.
(ii) He tried to split the colours further by putting another prism ahead of
the prism forming spectrum but he failed to obtain more colours.
(iii) He formed a spectrum from sunlight and placed an identical but inverted
prism in front of prism forming the spectrum. All the seven colours
combined by the inverted prism and emerged as white light.
Q. What is referred as white light ?
Ans. Any light that forms a spectrum similar to that of sunlight is referred
as white light.
Total Internal Reflection

When light enters obliquely from a denser medium to a rarer medium and the
angle of incidence exceeds critical angle, the light reflects in the denser medium.
This is called internal reflection.
Conditions necessary for Internal Reflection

(i) Light should enter obliquely from a denser to a rarer medium.
(ii) The angle of incidence should exceed critical angle, the light reflects in
the denser medium.
Critical angle : The angle of incidence for which the angle of refraction is 90º.
Rainbow : It is a natural spectrum appearing in the sky after rain showers.

• Rainbow is observed in the direction opposite to the sun.
• Three phenomenon which are involved in rainbow formation are :
(a) Dispersion
(b) Refraction
(c) Internal reflection
Some water droplets remain suspended in air after rain. These droplets behave
as glass prism. When light enters the rain drop, it first refracts and disperses.
Then it reflects internally and again refracts as it come out of the drop and the
seven colours reach the eye of observer in form of rainbow.
Atmospheric Refraction : The refraction by different layers of atmosphere

is called atmospheric refraction.
(i) Apparent flickering of objects placed behind a hot object or fire.
(ii) Stars near the horizon appear slightly higher than their actual position.
(iii) Advanced sunrise and delayed sunset.
(iv) Apparent flattering of sun’s disc.
(v) Twinkling of stars.
(i) An object placed behind the fire or a hot surface appears to flicker when
seen through the air .
The air above hot surface becomes hot and rises. The space is occupied
by cool air. The refractive index of hot air is less than that of cool air. So, the
physical condition of the medium are not constant. Due to changing Refractive
Index (RI) of medium, the light appears to come from different directions.
It results in fluctuation in apparent position of object.

(ii) Stars when seen near the horizon appear slightly higher than their
actual position due to atmospheric refraction.
The refractive index of earth’s atmosphere in general increases from top to

bottom. So, the light coming from a star near the horizon has to travel from rarer
to denser medium and it bends towards the normal. As a result the star appears
higher.
(iii) Advanced sunrise
The sun appears about two minutes earlier than actual sunrise and the sun
remains visible for about two minutes after actual sunset.
When the sun is below horizon, the rays have to pass from rarer to denser
medium. So rays bend towards the normal. As a result the sun appears higher
than its actual position.
(iv) Twinkling of stars

Stars are very far from us, so they behave as point source of light. Since the
physical conditions of the earth’s atmosphere are not constant the light from
stars appears to come from different directions. This results in fluctuation of
apparent position of star.
The amount of light coming from stars also vary due to changing Refractive
Index of atmosphere.

The star appears bright when more light from star reaches our eyes and the
same star appears dull when less amount of light reaches our eyes.
Both these effects are responsible for twinkling of stars.
Q. Why do planets not twinkle ?
Ans. The planets are much closer to the earth and are thus seen as extended
source. If we consider a planet as a collection of a large number of point-sized
sources of light, the total variation in the amount of light entering our eye from
all individual point sized sources will average out to zero and will nullify the
twinkling effect.
Scattering effect : Spreading of light in various directions by colloid
particles.
1
Scattering ∝
wavelength
Tyndall effect : When light passes through a colloid its path becomes visible.
This is called Tyndall effect.
E.g.,
(i) Path of light becomes visible when light enters a dark and dusty room
through a slit or ventilator.
(ii) Path of light becomes visible when light passes through dense canopy
of trees in a forest.
The colour of scattered light depends on the size of scat-

tering particles
(i) If particles are very fine, they scatter mainly the blue colour of light
(shorter wavelength).
(ii) Medium sized particles scatter mainly the red colour (longer wavelength).
(iii) Even larger particles scatter all the colours of light that is why it appears
white.
• Wavelength of red light is about 1.8 times to that of blue light.

Q. Why danger signs are made in red colour ?
Ans. Red is the least scattered colour. It is least scattered by fog and smoke
and can be seen in the same colour over a long distance. So, danger signs are
made in red colour.

Q. Why the colour of sky appears blue on a clear day ?
Ans. The upper layer of atmosphere contains very fine particles of water
vapours and gases. These particles are more effective in scattering of light of
shorter wavelength mainly blue than larger wavelength. So, the sky appears blue.
Q. How does the sky appear to an astronaut in the space or to a passenger
of jet plane flying at high altitude ?
Ans. The sky would appear dark to an astronaut in the space as scattering is
not very prominent at such high altitude due to absence of particles.
Q. Why clouds appear white ?
Ans. Clouds are formed by water vapours. Water vapours condense to form
water droplets due to larger size of droplets, all colours of light are scattered and
clouds appear white.
Q. Why colour of sun appear red during sunrise and sunset ?
Ans. While sunset and sunrise, the colour of the sun and its surrounding
appear red. During sunset and sunrise, the sun is near horizon and therefore
the sunlight has to travel larger distance in atmosphere. Due to this most of the
blue light (shorter wavelength) are scattered away by the particles. The light
of longer wavelength (red colour) will reach our eye. This is why sun appear
red in colour.
QUESTIONS

1. Which of the two is scattered more easily – light of shorter wavelength or
light of longer wavelength ?
2. What is the near and far point of a normal eye ?
3. State two effects produced by the scattering of light by the atmosphere.
4. What is tyndall effect ?
5. Which light has longer wavelength – red light or blue light ?
6. What do you understand by dispersion of light ?
7. As light rays pass from air into a glass prism, are they refracted towards or
away from the normal ?

1. Why do stars twinkle at night ?
2. Describe the formation of rainbow in the sky with the help of a diagram.
3. Why the sun appear red while sunset and sunrise ? Explain.
4. Why do stars seem higher than they actually are ? Illustrate your answer with
the help of a diagram.

1. What is atmospheric refraction ? What causes atmospheric refraction ?
2. Draw a neat and labelled diagram of the experimental set-up for observing
the scattering of light in a colloidal solution of sulphur to show how the sky
appears blue and the sun appears red at sunrise and sunset.
qq

Points To Remember
Cell cycle : The sequence of events by which a cell duplicates its genome,
synthesises the other constituents of the cell and eventually divides into two
daughter cells.
Interphase
Phases of cell cycle
M Phase (Mitosis phases)
Interphase : (Resting Phase)

 G1 Phase : Cell metabolically active and grows continuously but does not
replicate DNA
 S Phase : DNA synthesis occurs, DNA content increases from 2C to 4C, but
the number of chromosomes remains same i.e., 2n.
 G2 Phase : Proteins are synthesised in preparation for mitosis while cell
growth continues.
M Phase (Mitosis Phase) : Starts with nuclear division, corresponding to
separation of daughter chromosomes (karyokinesis) and usually ends with division
of cytoplasm, (cytokinesis).
Quiescent stage (G0) In adult animals cells that do not divide and exit G1
phase to enter an inactive stage called G0. Cells at this stage remain metabolically
active but do not proliferate.
Cell Cycle and Cell Division 85

e.g., Heart cells
Mitosis
Since the number of chromosomes in the parent and progeny cells is the
same, it is called as equational division. Mitosis is divided into four sub stages.
1. Prophase : (i) Replicated chromosomes, each consisting of 2 chromatids,
condense and become visible.
(i) Microtubules are assembled into mitotic spindle.
(iii) Nucleolus and nuclear envelope disappear.
(iv) Centriole moves to opposite poles.
2. Metaphase : (i) Spindle ®bres attached to kinetochores (small disc-shaped
structures at the surface of centromere) of chromosomes.
(ii) Chromosomes line up at the equator of the spindle to form metaphase
plate.
3. Anaphase : (i) Centromeres split and chromatids separate.
(ii) Chromatids move to opposite poles due to shortening of spindal ®bres.
4. Telophase : (i) Chromosomes cluster at opposite poles.
(ii) Nuclear envelope assembles around chromosomes clusters’.
(iii) Nucleolus, Golgi Complex, E.R. reforms.
Cytokinesis : Is the division of protoplast of a cell into two daughter cells
after karyokinesis (nuclear division)
Animal Cytokinesis :
Appearance of furrow in plasma membrane which deepens and joins in the
centre, dividing cell cytoplasm into two.
Plant cytokinesis : Formation of new cell wall begins with the formation
of a simple precursor — cell plate which represents the middle lamella between
the walls of two adjacent cells.
 When karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis, a multinucleated condition
arises. This is called syncytium.
Significance of Mitosis :
1. Growth-addition of cells.
2. Maintenance of surface/volume ratio. Maintain Nucleo–cytoplasmic ratio.
3. Maintenance of chromosomes number.
4. Regeneration.

5. Reproduction in unicellular organisms, lower plants and some insects.
6. Repair and wound healing.
7. Vegetative reproduction in plants takes place by mitosis.
Meiosis :
 Specialised kind of cell division that reduces the chromosomes number by
half. hence it is called reductional division.
 Occurs during gametogenesis in plants and animals.
 Involves two sequential cycles of nuclear and cell division called Meiosis I
and Meiosis II.
 It results in 4 haploid daughter cells.
 Interphase occurs prior to meiosis which is similar to interphase of mitosis
except the S phase is prolonged.
Meiosis I
Prophase I : Subdivided into 5 phases.
(i) Leptotene :
 Chromosomes make their appearance as single stranded structures.
 Compaction of chromosomes continues.
(ii) Zygotene :
 Homologous chromosomes start pairing and this process of association
is called synapsis.
 Chromosomal synapsis is accompanied by formation of synaptone-mal
complex.
 Complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes is
called bivalent or tetrad.
(iii) Pachytene : Crossing over occurs between non-sister chromatids of
homologous chromosomes. The enzymes involved in the process is
‘recombinase’. Recombination between homologous chromosomes is
completed. Exchange of genetic material.
(iv) Diplotene : Dissolution of synaptonemal complex occurs and the recombined
chromosomes separate separate from each other except at the sites of crossing
over. These X-shaped structures are called chaismata. In oocytes of some
vertebrates diplotene can last for month or years.
(v) Diakinesis : Terminalisation of chaismata.
 Chromosomes are fully condensed and meiotic spindles assembled.
 Nucleolus disappear and nuclear envelope breaks down.
Metaphase I : Bivalent chromosomes align on the equatorial plate.
 Microtubules from opposite poles of the spindle attach to the pair of
homologous chromosomes.
Anaphase I : Homologous chromosomes, separate while chromatids remain
associated at their centromeres.
Telophase I :
 Nuclear membrane and nucleus reappear.
 Cytokinesis follows (diad of cells).
Interkinesis : Stage between two meiotic divisions, (meiosis I and meiosis II)
generally short lived.
Meiosis II: (It resembles the normal mitosis).
Prophase II
 Nuclear membrane disappears.
 Chromosomes again become compact.
Metapahse II
 Chromosomes align at the equator.
 Microtubules from opposite poles of spindle get attached to kinetochores of
sister chromatids.
Anaphase II
 Simultaneous splitting of the centromere of each chromosome, allowing
them to move towards opposite poles of the cell.

Telophase II
 Two groups of chromosomes get enclosed by a nuclear envelope.
 Cytokinesis follows resulting in the formation of tetrad of cells i.e., 4 haploid
cells.
Significance of Meiosis
1. Format ion of gametes : In sexually reproducing organisms.
2. Genetic variability : Variations are very important for evolution.
3. Maintenance of chromosomal number : By reducing the chromosome
number in gametes. Chromosomal number is restored by fertilisation of
gametes.

Questions
Very Short Answer Questions (1 mark each)
1. What are kinetochores ?
2. Name the term used for the stage between two meiotic divisions.
3. Why is mitosis called equational division ?
4. Name the stage of meiosis during which synaptonemal complex is formed.
5. What is Go phase of cell cycle ?
6. Where does mitosis take place in plants and animals ?
Short Answer Questions-I (2 marks each)
7. Differentiate between cytokinesis of plant and animal cell.
8. What is chaismata ? State its signi®cance.
9. Differentiate between chromatin and chromatid.
10. Give the terms for the following :
(a) The period between 2 successive mitotic divisions.
(b) Cell division in which chromosome number is halved.
(c) Phase in cell cycle where DNA is synthesised.
(d) Division of nuclear material.
11. What happens during S phase of interphase ?
12. Distinguish between metaphase of mitosis and metaphase I of meiosis.
13. What will be the DNA content of a cell at G1 after S and G2 if the content
after M phase is 2C.
Short Answer Questions-II (3 marks each)
14. Differentiate between mitosis and meiosis.
15. List the signi®cance of mitosis.
16. Describe the following :
(a) Synapase
(b) Bivalent
(c) Leptotene
Long Answer Questions (5 marks each)
17. With the help of labelled diagram, explain the following :
(a) Diplotene
(b) Anaphase of mitosis
(c) Prophase I of meiosis
18. What is cell cycle ? Explain the events occuring in this cycle.
19. With the help of labelled diagrams, explain various stages of mitosis cell
divsion.
20. (a) Write a note on signi®cance of meiosis.
(b) Differentiate between anaphase 1 of meiosis and Anaphase of mitosis.
(c) In which phase of interphase duplication of DNA will occur ?
Answers
Very Short Answers (1 mark each)

1. Small disc-shaped structure at the surface of the centromeres.
2. Interkinesis.
3. The chromosomes number is daughter cells is equal to that of the parent.
4. Zygotene.
5. Cells which enter a stage where they are Metabolically active but no longer
proliferate.
6. Plant – Meristematic tissue; Animals–somatic cells.
Short Answers-I (2 marks each)
7. Refer ‘Points to Remember’.
9. Chromatin Chromatid :
(a) Diffuse, deep staining hereditary material longitudinally split half of a
chromosome, light staining hereditary material.
(b) Metabolically inert Metabolically active.
10. (a) Interphase
(b) Meiosis
(c) S phase
(d) Karyokinesis
11. Refer ‘Points to Remember’ :
Metaphase Metaphase I
(a) Chromosome align along (a) Bivalent chromosomes arrange
the equator of the cell along the equatorial plane.
(b) Figure 10.2 (b) page 165, Text (b) Figure 10.3, meta phase I page 169,
Book of Biology for Class XI NCERT Text Book of Biology for
Class XI.

Short Answers-II (3 marks each)
13. G1 – 2C, S 1 – 4C, G2 – 4C
14. Mitosis Meiosis
(a) Occurs in Somatic cells (a) Occurs in germ cells

(b) Number of chromosomes (b) Number of chromosomes reduces
remain same in daughter cells to half in daughter cells.
(c) No exchange of genetic (c) Exchange of genetic material occurs
material due to crossing over
(d) Involve single division (d) Involve two successive division

Long Answer (5 mark each)
17. Refer ‘Points of Remember’.
20. (a) Refer ‘Points of Remember’
(b) Refer ‘Points of Remember’.
(c) During A phase or synthesis phase.

Blastula : A stage of embryogenesis which comes after morula and has a
hollow ¯uid ®lled space called blastocoel.
Gestation Period : A period between fertilisation of ovum and the birth of
a baby.
Implantation : Fixing of ernbryo/fertilized egg in uterus. It leads to
pregnancy.
Menarche : The beginning of ®rst menstruation in female on attaining
puberty.
Menopause : Permanent ceasation of menstrual cycle in female. It occurs
between the age 45 to 50 years in human female.
Ovulation : Process of release of mature ovum (Secondary oocyte) from the
ovary.
Parturition : Process of delivery of the foetus (Child birth), through birth
canal.
Puberty : A stage at which immature reproductive system of boy or girl
becomes mature. Period of puberty is 10-14 years in girls and 13-16 years in
boys.
Spermiogenesis : Transformation of spermatids into sperms.
Spermiation : A process by which spermatozoa are released from the
seminiferous tubules.
Spermatogenesis : Process of formation of sperm from male germ cell in
the testes.
Lactation : The ¯uid secreted by mammary glands soon after birth is
called colostrum.It contains proteins, lactose and antibodies (e.g.IgA). This
provides nutrition and help the new born baby to develop resistance for healthy
development.
Human Reproduction 17
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Ootid (Ovum) : A haploid cell formed by meiotic division of a secondary
oocyte, espicially the ovum, as distinct from the polar bodies.
Cleavage : The mitotic division in which the zygote undergoes to form
morula and then blastocyst.
Insemination : The process in which the male transfers the sperms into the
genital tract of the female.
Leydig Cells : (Interstitial Cells)—Present in connective tissue outside the
seminiferous tubules. They are endocrine in nature and produce androgens e.g.
testosterone.
Sertoli Cells : (nurse cells) : Present in the lumen of the seminiferous
tubules. They provide nutrition and help in differentiantion of cells undergoing
spermatogenesis. They also secrete ABP (Androgen Binding Proteins) and
inhibin.
Accessory Male Genital Glands :

• Seminal Vesicles—Produce seminal ¯uid which forms 60-70% of semen.
The ¯uid activates the sperms and have fructose, citrate, inositol and
proteins for nutrition of sperms.
• Prostate Gland : The gland secretes thin, milky and alkaline secretion
which neutralises the acidic secretion in female vagina.
• Cowper’s Gland : (Bulbourethral gland)—helps in secretion of mucus
which provides lubrication of urinogenital tract.
Menstrual Cycle
Spermatogenesis : Process of formation of sperms in testis.
Germinal epithelium 46 (2n)
differentiation Mitosis
Spermatogonia 46 (2n)
Mitosis
Primary spermatocyte 46 (2n)
Ist Meiotic division
Secondary spermatocyte 23 (n)
2nd meiotic division
Spermatid 23 (n)
Spermiogenesis
Spermatozoa/sperm 23 (n)
Oogenesis : Process of formation of ova in ovary.
Germinal epithelium 46 (2n)
Fetal life Oogonia

mitosis, defferentiation
Primary oocyte 46 (2n)
(At puberty) First polar body Ist meiotic division completed

23 (n) prior to ovulation
Secondary oocyte 23 (n)
Second polar body

23 (n)
Ovum 23 (n)
Phases of Menstrual Cycle : Menstrual phase, Follicular (Proliferative)
Phase, ovulatory phase and Luteal (secretory) phase
Fertilisation : Process of fusion of sperm with ovum
Site of fertilisation in human female : Ampullary—isthmic junction.
Secretion of acrosome helps the sperm entry into cytoplasm of ovum through
zona pellucida and plasma membrane. Sperm entry induce the completion of the
2nd meiotic division of secondary oocyte.
Ovum 23 (n)
Secondary oocyte
Second Polar body
Sperm
cleavage Morula
zygote Blastomere Blatocyst
Ovum Falliopian tube Uterns
Outer layer Trophoblast get attached to endometrium
Blastocyst
Inner layer Inner call mass Embryo
Placenta : An intimate connection between foetus and uterine wall of the
mother to exchange materials.
Function : Nutrition, Respiration, Excretion, as barrier, Endocrine function,
shock absorber.
Placenta as Endocrine tissue : Placenta Produces several hormones such as
Estrogen, hCG, hPL, Progesterone.
In late phase of pregnancy—relaxin hormone is released by ovary.
Progesterone is called ‘Pregnancy hormone’.
Embryonic Development : (at various month of pregnancy) After 1 month
= Heart, 2 months = Limbs and digits, 3 months = External genital organ, 5
months = First movement, 6 months = body covered with ®ne hairs, eye lid, eye
lashes, 9 months = Fully developed and ready for delivery.
Questions
VSA (I Mark)
1. Failure of testes to descend into sacrotal sacs leads to sterility. Why ?
2. How many sperms will be produced from 10 primary spermatocytes and
how many eggs will be produced from 10 primary occytes ?
3. In ovary which structure transforms as corpus luteum and name the hormone
secreted by corpus luteum ?
SA - I (2 Marks)
4. In the given ®gure, give the name and functions of parts labelled A and B.
5. Given below is an incomplete ¯ow chart showing in¯uence of hormone on

gametogenesis in male, observe the ¯ow chart carefully and ®ll in the blank
A, B, C and D.
Pituitary
LH FSH
Leydig cell C Name the cell
Name of A stimulate secretion

harmone of some factors
Name the B D Name the

process process
stimulated
6. Give reason for the following :
(a) The ®rst half of the menstrual cycle is called follicular phase as well as
proliferative phase.
(b) The second half of the menstrual cycle is called luteal phase as well as
secretory phase.
7. What is meant by L.H. Surge ? Write the role of L.H.
SA-II (3 Marks)
8. Study the ¯ow chart given below. Name the hormones involved at each stage
and in human female.
9. Three of the steps of neuro endocrine mechanism in respect of parturition are

mentioned below.
Write the missing steps in proper sequence.
(a) Signals originate from fully developed foetus and placenta.
(b) ........................................ .
(c) ........................................ .
(d) Oxytocin causes strong uterine contraction
(e) Uterine contraction stimulates further secretion of oxytocin.
(f) ......................................... .
10. (a) Read the graph given below. Correlate the ovarian events that take place
in the human female according to the level of the pituitary hormone
during the following day.
(i) 10th – 14th days (ii) 14th – 15th days

(iii) 16th – 23th days (iv) 25th – 29th days
(If the ovum is not fertilised)
(b) What are the uterine events that follow beyond 29th day if the ovum is not
fertilised.
11. T.S. of mammalian testis revealing seminiferous tubules show different types
of cell.
(i) Name the two types of cells of germinal epithelium.
(ii) Name of cells scattered in connective tissue and lying between
seminiferous tubules.
Differentiate between them on the basis of their functions.
LA (5 Marks)
12.
Study the ®gure given :
(i) Pick out the name the cells that undergo spermiogenesis.
(ii) Name A, B, C and F.
(iii) Give ploidy of B and E.
(iv) Mention the function of ‘F’ cell.
Answers
VSA (I Mark)
1. High temperature of abdomen kills the spermatogenic tissue of the testes, so
no sperm are formed.
2. 40 sperms, 10 eggs.
3.  Follicular cells of empty Graa®an follicle.
 Progesterone.
SA - I (2 Marks)
4. A = Trophoblast – Gets attached to endometrium and draws nutritive material
material secreted by uterine endometrium gland.
B = Inner cell mass – Differentiates as Embryo.
5. A = Testosterone; B = Spermatogenesis
C = Sertoli cells; D = Spermiogenesis
6. (a) During this phase, primary follicles transform into Graa®an follicle
under FSH stimulation. Graa®an follicles secrete Estrogens with
stimulate enlargement of Endometrium of uterus.
(b) During this phase, Corpus luteum is fully formed and secretes large
quantity of Progestrone.
7. LH surge refers to maximum level of luteihising hormone living middle of
menstrual cycle. LH couses ovulation.
SA-II (3 Marks)
2. LH
8. Hypothalamus 1. GnRH Anterior pituitary
3. FSH
4. Progesterone 5. Estrogen
9. (b) Foetal ejection re¯ex
(c) The re¯ex triggers release of oxytocin
(f) Expulsion of the baby out through birth canal.
10. (a) (i) Gonadotropins and FSH increase
(ii) LH attains peak level but FSH decrease
(iii) LH and FSH level decrease
(iv) LH remains low and FSH increases.
(b) After 29th day there is a mentrual ¯ow involving discharge of blood and
cast off endometrium lining.
11. (i) Germinal epithelium have two types of cells. 1. Spermatogonium.

2. Sertoli cells
(ii) Leydig’s cell or Interstitial cells.

Functions
Spermatogonium undergoes meiotic division leading to sperm formation.
Sertoli cell : Nourishes germ cells
Leydig cell : Synthesise and Secrete hormone androgen.
LA (5 Marks)
12. (i) D—Spermatids
(ii) A—Spermatogonium; B—Primary spermatocyte
C—Secondary spermatocyte F—Sertoli cells
(iii) B—Diploid E—Haploid
(iv) Provide nourishment to germ cells.

Autogamy : When pollen grains of a ¯ower are transferred from anther to
stigma of the same ¯ower.
Coleorhiza : A protective sheath of radicle in monocot seed.
Coleoptile : A protective sheath of plumule in monocot seed.
Perisperm : It is diploid persistent nucellus e.g. Black, Paper, Beet.
Nucellus : Multicellular tissue in the centre of ovule in which embryo sac
is present.
Viability of Seed : Ability of seed to retain the power of germination.
Micro-sporangium (Pollen sac) :
Outermost layer =
Epidermis
Second layer =
Endothecium
Middle layer =
2–4 layers of cells
Innermost layer =
Tapetum [Nourishes the developing Pollen grains
(Microspores)]
Microsporogenesis : Process of formation of micropores from a pollen
mother cells.
 outerwall (Exine) – Thick, hard, made of sporopollenin

Pollen grain   innerwall (Intine) – Thin, made of cellulose and Pectin
(Male  cells – a vegetative cell (large in size) and a generative cell
gametophyte) (small in size)
Sporopollenin is one of the most resistant organic substance. It is not affected
by high temperature, strong acids or alkali. No enzyme can degrade it.
Pollen Products : Pollen grains are rich in carbohydrates, proteins and
unsaturated fats. Their consumption is believed to increase performance of athlete
and horses. They are used in the form of tablets and syrups.
Pollen Viability : Pollens of wheat and rice remain viable for 30 minutes.
Pollens of same other plants may remain viable for several months. Pollens can
be cryopreserved in liquid nitrogent (– 196°C) in pollen banks.
Pollen of carrot grass ( Parthenium), Chenopodium, Amaranthus etc. may
cause pollen allergy.
Megasporogensis : Process of formation of haploid megaspores from
megaspore mother cells
Megasporangium (Ovule) :
 The ovule is a small structure attached to the placenta by means of a stalk
called funicle.
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 7

 The point of attachment of the body of the ovule to the funicle is known as
hilum. The main body of the ovule is composed of paranchymatous cells
known as nucellus.
 Each ovule has one or two protective integument, which encircle the ovule
except at the tip having small opening called micropyle.
 Opposite to micropylar end is chalazal end
Generally a single embryosac or female gametophyte located in nucellus.
 Cells of nucellus have abundant reserve food material and provide nourishment
to the developing embryo.
6. Female gametophyte (embryo sac) : In a majority of ¯owering plant

one of the megaspore is functional while other three degenerate, (monosporic
development)
 The functional megaspore develops in embryo sac.
 The nucleus of the functional megaspore (n) undergoes three successive
mitotic cell division which result the formation of eight nucleate stage of
embryo sac (free nuclear division).
 The cell wall formation starts at eight nuclear stages. Three cells are grouped
together at micropylar end to form the egg apparatus (2 synergids + 1 egg
cell).
 Three cells are grouped at chalazal end, called antipodal cells.
 The remaining 2 nuclei are polar move to the centre of embryo sac, called
central cell.
Thus, typical agniospermic embryo sac at maturity is 8 nucleate and 7 celled.
Kind of Pollination : Autogamy, Geitonogamy and Zenogamy

Agents of Pollination : (a) Biotic Agents— Bees, ¯ies, butter¯ies, waspa,
moths, ant, birds, beetles, rodents, reptiles and some primates, etc.
(b) Abiotic Agents—Wind and water.
In some plants like oxalis, viola e.t.c. have two types of ¯owers :
1. Chasmogamous Flower
Flower remain open after maturity self pollination and cross pollination both
can take place.
2. Cleistogamous Flower
Flower remain closed throughout their life. So only self pollination occurs.
Outbreeding Devices : (i) Non synchronisation of pollen release and stigma
receptivity. (ii) Self-incompatibility (iii) Monoecius or dioecious plants (iv)
Position of anthers and stigma in such a way that pollen cannot come in contact
of stigma of same ¯ower.
Pollen—pistil interaction :
 This pistil has the ability to recognize the pollen, whether it is right type
(Compatible) or of the wrong type (incompatible).
 If it is compatible then the pistil accepts the pollen.
 The pollen grains germinate on stigma to produce pollen tubes. The contents
of the generative cell (or the two male gametes in those species whose pollen
is liberated in the three celled stage), move into the pollen tube.

 Pollen tube grows through the tissue of stigma and style by secreting enzyme
and enters the ovule, through micropyle via one of the synergid. Filiform
apparatus guides the entry of Pollen tube.
Double Fetilisation : The pollen tube releases to male gamete into the
cytoplasm of synergid. One male gamete move towards eggcell and other male
gamete towards the central cell.
 Syngamy : One male gamete + Egg cell  Zygote (2n)
 Triple Fusion : Second male gamete + 2 polar nuclei  PEN (3n)
 Since two types of fusion takes place in embryo sac, hence it is called as
double fertilisation.
Post Fertilisation Events :
(i) Endosperm and embryo development
(ii) Maturation of ovule & ovary
Fate of Floral Parts
Ovary (2n)  Fruit
Ovary Wall (2n)  Pericarp
Ovule (2n)  Seed
Outer Integument (2n)  Testa
Inner integument (2n)  Tegmen
Zygote (2n)  Embryo
Primary Endosperm Cell (3n)  Endosperm
Sepals  Fall down
Petals  Fall down
Stamens  Wither away
Stigma, style  Wither away
Nucellus  Consumed/may be present
as Perisperm
Synergids  Degenerate
Antipodal Cells  Degenerate
Development of Endosperm : The primary endosperm cell (PEC) in embryo
sac devide again and again, and form triploid endosperm. The cells of endosperm
are ®lled with reserve food material which is used for nourishment of the embryo
during its development and also for the yound seedling at the time of germination.
Development of Embryo : Embryo formation start after certain amount of
endosperm is formed. Following are the stages in development of a dicotyledon
embryo.
Zygote  Pro-embryo  Globular  Heart Shaped  Mature embryo
embryo embryo
13. Dicot Embryo : A typical dicot embryo consist of an embryonal axis and
two cotyledons. The portion of embryonal axis above the level of cotyledons is
the epicotyl and the portion below the level of cotyledons is hypocotyl.
Monocot Embryo : Monocot (Rice, Maize etc.) has one cotyledon called
Scutellum. The embryonal axis has the radicle and root cap enclosed by a sheath
called Coleorrhiza.
The upper end (epicotyle) has plumule which is covered by hollow foliar
structure called the coleoptile.
Polyembryony : Occurrence of more than one embryo is a seed, is knowan
as polyembryony e.g. Orange, lemon, onion, mango, groud nut. It may be due to
presence of more than one egg cell in the embryo sac or more than one embryo
sac in the ovule.
Reasons of polyembryony : It is due to fertilisation of more than one egg
cell in an ovule. The condition develop when an embryo sac contains more than
one egg cell or ovule contain more than one embryo sac.

Seed : After fertilisation ovule mature into seed.
Non albuminous seed : Those seeds in which no residual endosperm is found

because it is completely consumed during development of the embryo.
eg. pea, gram, ground nut.
Albuminous Seed : Those seeds, which retain a part of the endosperm because
endosperm is not completely consumed by developing embryo.
eg. maize, wheat, sun¯ower, castor
Seed Dispersal : Seeds are dispersed to new habitat through agent like water,
wind and animals.
Apomixis : Apomixis is a form of asexual repduction that mimics sexual
reproduction where seeds are formed without fertilisation.
Advantages of Apomictic Seed :
 No segregation of characters in hybrid progeny
 These seeds can be used to grow crop year after year
 These are economical as hybrid seed are not used to grow crops year after
year.
Parthenocarpic fruits : The fruits which are formed (developed) without
fertilisation are known as parthenocarpic fruit. Such fruits are seedless eg. Banana.
This phenomenon of development of fruit without fertilisation is known as
parthenocarpy.
Questions
VSA 1 Mark
1. Give the scienti®c name of a plant with came to India as a contaminant
with imported wheat and causes pollen allergy.
2. Which characteristic of water pollinated species of pollen grains protect
them from water.
3. Why are pollen grains produced in enormous quantity in maize ?
4. In some species of Asteraceae and grasses, seed are formed without fusion
of gametes. Mention the scienti®c term for such of reproduction.
5. If the diploid number of chromosomes in an angiospermic plant is 16. Mention
number of chromosomes in the endosperm and antipodal cell.
SA-I 2 Marks
6. Fruits generally develops from ovary, but in few species thalamus
contributes to fruit formation.
(a) Name the two categoris of fruits.
(b) Give one example of each.
7. Among the animals, insects particularly bees are the domiant pollinating
agents. List any four characteristic features of the insect pollinated ¯ower.
8. Differentiate between geitonogamy and xenogamy.
9. In the given ®gure 1 of a dicot embryo, label the parts (A) and (B) and give
their function.
10. Name the pars A, B, C and D of the anatropous ovule (Figure 2) given above.
11. Given below is an incomplete ¯ow chart showing formation of gamete in
angiospermic plant. Observe the ¯ow chart carefully and ®ll in the blank A,
B, C and D.

Flower
Carpel Stamen
 
Structure arising A Anther with pollen sac
from placenta  
Name of deploid B C Name of nutritive tissue
cell  
Megaspore D Name of haploid cell
12. Even though each pollen grain has two male gametes. Why are at least 10
pollen grains and not 5 pollen grains required to fertilise 10 ovules present
in a particular carpel ?
SA-II (3 Marks)
13. Continued self pollination lead to inbreeding depression. List three devices,
which ¯owering plant have developed to discourage self pollination ?
14. Differentiate between microsporogenesis and megasporogenesis. What type
of cell division occurs during these events ? Name the structure formed at the
end of these two events.
LA (5 Marks)
15. (a) Draw the embryo sac of a ¯owering plant and label the parts :
(i) Which guides the entry of pollen tube ?
(ii) Which develops into endosperm ?
(iii) Which fuses with male gamete to form zygote ?
(b) What will be the fate of antipodal cells atfer fertilisation ?
(c) Name the cell that develops into embryo Sac. How many embryo sacs are
formed from one megaspore mother cell.
Answers
VSA (1 Mark)
1. Parthenium hysterophorus (carrot grass)
2. Presence of mucilagenous covering
3. To ensure pollination because Maize is pollinated by wind.
4. Apomixis
5. Chromosomes in endosperm and 8 chromosomes in antipodal cells.
SA-I (2 Marks)
6. Two categories of fruits are :
(i) True fruits e.g., Mango
(ii) False fruit e.g., Apple
7. (i) Flowers are large
(ii) Colourful petals of ¯owers
(iii) Presence of fragnance
(iv) Rich in nectar
8. Geitonogamy Xenogamy
1. Transfer of pollen grains from the Transfer of Pollen grains from anther
anther to stigma of another ¯ower to Stigma of different plant.
of the same plant.
2. Does not provide opportunity for Provide opportunity for genetic
genetic recombination. recombinations
9. A = Plumule – To form shoot system
B = Cotyledons – Storage of food
10. A = Micropyle, B = Outer integument, C = Nucellus, D = Embryo sac
11. A = Ovule/megasporangium, C = Tapetum
B = Megaspore mother cell, D = Pollen grains
12. Because only one male gamete is involved is syngamy, i.e., fusion of male
gamete with egg cell.

SA-II (3 Marks)
13. (a) Release of pollen and stigma receptivity is not synchronised in some
species
(b) Anther and stigma are at different position/heights in some plants
(c) Self-incompatibility (a genetic mechanism).
14.  Microsporogenesis—Process of formation of microspore from a Pollen
mother cell.
 Megasporogenesis—Process of formation of megaspore from megaspore
mother cell.
 Meiotic division in both.
Microsporogenesis results in the formation of pollen grain while
megasporogenesis results in the formation of megaspore.
15. (a) Refer to ®gure 2.8(c) page 26 NCERT book.
(i) Filliform apparatus (ii) Central cell (iii) Egg cell
(b) They degenerate after fertilization.
(c) Functional megaspore, one megaspore develops to form one embryo sac.

Allele : Various or slightly different forms of a gene, having same position
on the two homologous chromosomes.
Phenotype : The observable or external characteristics of an organism.
Genotype : The genetic constitution of an organism.
Monohybrid cross : A cross between two individuals of species, considering

the inheritance of single pair of contrasting character e.g., a cross between pure
tall (TT) and Dwarf (It)
Dihybrid cross : A cross between two individuals of a species, considering

the inheritance of two pairs of contrasting traits/characters e.g., a cross between
Round and Yellow (RRYY) and wrinkled and green (rryy) seed.
Aneuploidy : The phenomenon of gain or loss of one or more chromosome(s),

that results due to failure of separation of homologous pair of chromosomes
during meiosis.
Trisomy : The condition in which a particular chromosome is present in

three copies in a diploid cell/nucleus.
Male heterogamety : When male produces two different types of gametes/

sperms e.g., In human beings X and Y.
Female Heterogamety : When female produces two different types of

gametes/ova, e.g., female bird produces Z and W gametes.
Principles of Inheritance and Variation 33
Gregor Mendel Conducted controlled breeding experiment on garden pea
(pisum sativum) with a single trait. It is called monohybrid cross.
Parent Tall Dwarf
(Homozygous) (Homozygous)
TT tt
¯ ¯
Gametes T t
Crossed
F1 Generation Tt Tall (heterozygous)

Sel®ng Tt × Tt
T t
F2 generation T TT Tt
Tall Tall
t Tt tt
Tall Dwarf
Tall homozygous (TT) – 25% Pure

Tall heterozygous (Tt) – 50% Hybrid.
Dwarf homozygous (tt) – 25% Pure.
Law of Dominance : When two individuals of a species differing in a pair of
contrasting characters/traits are crossed, the trait that appears in the F 1 generation
is dominant and the alternate from that remain hidden, is called recessive.
Law of Segregation (law of purity of gametes) : The members of allelic
pair that remained together in the parent, segregate/separate during gamete
formation and only one of the factors enters a gamete.
Law of Independent Assortment : In the inheritance of two pairs of
contrasting characters (dihybrid cross) the factors of each pair of characters
segregate independently of the factors of the other pair of characters.
Test Cross : When offspring or individual with dominant phenotype, whose
genotype is not known, is crossed with an individual who is homozygous
recessive for the trait, this cross is know as test cross.
Test cross is done to determine whether the individual parent exhibiting
dominant traits is homozygous or heterozygous.
Flower colour is Violet (Dominant phenotype, Genotype is unknown)
Genotype may be WW or Ww
Example :
Violet × White
WW ww homozygous
recessive
w w
Case 1 W Ww Ww
Violet Violet
W Ww Ww
Violet Violet
Here, all owers are violet
If all the off spring dominant trait, it indicate that individual under test is
homozygoes (WW) for dominant trait.
Case 2
Violet × White
Ww ww homozygous
recessive
w w
W Ww Ww
Violet Violet
w ww ww
White White
50% owers are violet
50% owers are white
ratio Ww : ww
1 : 1
If a test cross gives 50% offspring showing dominant trait and 50% showing
recessive traits, it indicates that individual parent under test is heterozygous
(Ww) for dominant trait.
Incomplete dominance : It is the phenomenon where none of the two
contrasting alleles is dominant but express themselves partially when present
together in a hybrid and somewhat intermediate stage is seen.
Example : In plant snapdragon or Antirrhinum species, when plants with red
ower (RR) are crossed with plant having white ower (rr) the hybrid F1 plants
(Rr) bear pink ower. When the F1 hybrid with pink ower are self pollinated or
crossed themselves, they produce red, pink and white ower in ratio of 1 : 2 : 1
in F2 generation.
P Red- owered plant × White owered plant
RR rr
Gametes R r
F1 generation Rr All pink ower

Pink × Pink
Rr Rr
R r
F2 generation R RR Rr
Red Pink
r Rr rr
Pink White
Phonotypic ratio Red : Pink : White

1 : 2 : 1
RR : Rr : rr
Genotypic ratio 1 : 2 : 1
In incomplete dominance, phenotypic ratio is equal to the genotypic ratio.
Multiple Allelism : It is a phenomenon in which a single character is
governed by more than two alleles.
Example :
 ABO blood groups are controlled by gene I
 ‘I’ has three alleles—IA, IB, and i.
IA and IB alleles produce slightly different form of sugar present on plasma
membrane of red blood cells.
 In allele ‘i’ do not produce any sugar.
 In any diploid individual only two alleles can be found. So multiple
alleles can be detected only in a population.
Co-dominance : The alleles which do not show dominance recessive
relationship and are able to express themselves independently when present
together are called co-dominant alleles and this phenomenon is known as
codominance. Example : Human blood groups.
There are 3 different alleles, 6 different genotypes control 4 different type of
sugar Phenotypes :
Blood Group Genotype Types of Sugar
A IAIA, IAi A
B IBIB, IBi B
AB IAIB, both A & B
O ii No sugar alleles
In humans, blood group AB shows co-dominance as both the alleles I A and

IB express themselves fully in presence of each other.
Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance : Proposed by Sutton and Boveri. The
pairing and separation of a pair of chromosomes would lead to the segregation
of a pair of factors they carried. They united the knowledge of segregation with
Mendelian principles.
 Linkage- is the tendency of genes on a chromosome to remain together.
 Linked genes occur in the same chromosome.
 They lie in linear sequence in the chromosome - There is a tendency to
maintain the parental combination of genes except for accessional
choosers.
 Strength of linkage between genes is inversely proportional to the
distance between the two.
Recombination : is the generation of non-parental gene combinations to
the offsprings.Tightly linked genes show very low recombination frequency.
Loosely linked genes show higher recombination frequency.
The frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same chromosome
is a measure of distance between genes and is used to map the position of genes
on the chromosome.
Linkage and Recombination.

T. H. Morgan carried out several dihybrid crosses in Drosophila melanogastor.
Two of them are given below :
Cross–I : Yellow-bodied and white eyed females crossed with brown-bodied,
red eyed males (wild type)
 F1 Progeny intercrossed and F2 generation ratio deviated from 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(two genes didn’t segregate independently)
 The parentel combinations were 98.7% and recombinats were 1.3%
Conclusion : The two genes (body colour and eye-colour) are tightly
linked ; results in less crossing over and less no. of non-parental progeny.
Cross-II : White bodied female with miniature wings and yellow-bodied
male with normal wings (wild type) were crossed.
 The parental combinatios were 62.8% while the recombinants
were 37.2%.
Conclusion : The two genes (body colour & wing’s size) are loosely-
linked ; results in more crossing over and more no. of non-parental progeny.
Chromosomal basis of sex Determination :

(i) XY-XY type - Female homogametic i.e. XX and male heterogametic i.e.
XY in Drosophila, humans.
(ii) XX-XO type—All eggs bear additional X chromosome, Males have
only one X chromosome besides autosomes whereas females have a
pair of X chromosomes e.g., grasshoppers.
(iii) ZW-ZZ type—The females are heterogametic and have one Z and one
W chromosome. The males are homogametic with a pair of Z
chromosomes besides autosomes e.g., birds.
(iv) ZO-ZZ type—Females are heterogametic and produce 2 types of
eggs - (A + Z) and (A + O). The males are homogametic with all the
sperms having (A + Z) e.g. moths and butter ies.
here A = auto some
Sex determination in honey Bee : In Honey bee fertilized eggs develop into
female (Queen or Worker) While unfertilized egg develops into male (drone) by
parthenogensis, the males have half no. of chromosomes a female. The males are
haploid (16-chromosomes), females are diploid (32-chromosomes).
There are three types of individuals :

1. Queen — diploid • developed from fertilized egg
• functional Female
2. Worker — diploid • developed from fertilized egg
• non-functional female
3. Drone — haploid • developed from unfertilized egg
(male) parthenogenetically
• functional Male.
Pedigree Analysis
A record of inheritance of certain genetic traits for two or more generation
presented in the form of diagram or family tree is called pedigree.
Usefulness of Pedigree Analysis
1. It is useful for genetic counsellors to advice intending couples about the
possibility of having children with genetic defects like haemophilia,
thalassemia etc.
2. It is helpful to study certain genetic trait and ®nd out the possibility or
absence or presence of that trait in homozygous or heterogygous condition
in a particular individudal.
Mendelian disorders
These are mainly determined by a alternation or mutation in single genes.
1. Haemophilia : Sex linked recessive disease which is transmitted from
unaffected carriers female to male progeny. A single protein is affected
which is a part of the cascade of proteins involved in the clotting of blood.
Xh Y. affected male
Xh X. carrier female
The heterozygous female for haemophila may transmit the disease to her
sons. The possibility of a female suffering from the disease is extremely
rare (only when the mother of the female is a carrier is Xh X and father
is haemophilic i.e. Xh Y.
2. Sickle-cell anaemia : This is an autosome linked recessive trait. This
defect is caused by substitution of glutamic acid by valine at the 6th
position of the beta globin chain of the haemoglobin molecule. The
mutant Hb molecule undergoes polymerisation under low oxygen tension
whichresults change in shape of RBC from biconcave disc to elongated sickle
like structure. The disease is controlled by a pair of allele, HbA and HbS
HbA HbA. Normal – 25% HbS HbS sufferer – 25%
HbA HbS. Apparently unaffected/carriers – 50%
HbAHbS × HbA HbS

Carrier Carrier
HbA HbS
HbA HbAHbA HbAHbS
HbS HbAHbS HbSHbS
Phenylketonuria : Inbron error of metabolism, autosomal recessive trait.

Affected individual lacks an enzyme that converts amino acid phenylalanine into
tyrosine. Phenylalanine is accumulated and converted into phenylpyruvic acid
which accumulates in brain resulting in mental retaradation.
Thalassemia : Thalassemia is autosome linked recessive disease. This
disorder caused by defers in the synthesis of globin chain. Thalassemia is of two
types—Alpha ( ) Thalassemia, Beta ( ) Thalassemia.
 In alpha Thalassemia production of alpha globin chain is affected. This
Thalassemia is controlled by genes HBA1 and HBA2 located on
chromosome 16th of each parent. Thalassemia occurs due to mutation or
deletion of one or more of the four genes.
 In Beta Thalassemia production of (-globin chain is affected, this
thalassemia is controlled by gene HBB located on 11th chromosome of
each parent. It occurs due to one or both HBB genes
 In Thalassemia very few globin is synthesized and is quantatative problem
whereas in sickle cell anaemia there is a synthesis of incorrectly
functioning globin and is a qualitative disorder.
These are caused due to absence or excess of one or more chromosomes.
Colour blindness : Colour blindness is sex-linked recessive trait in
which a person fails to distinguish red and green colour. The gene for normal
vision is dominant. The normal genes and its recessive alleles are carried by
x-chromosome.
XC XC — Colour blind female
X XC — Carrier female
XC Y — Colour blind male
Y Chromosome of male do not carry any gene for certain vision.
Inheritance Pattern in Colour Blindness

Father Mother Son Daughter
Pheno- Geno- Pheno- Geno- Pheno- Geno- Phen- Geno-

type type type type type type type type
Normal XY Normal XX
Normal XY Carrier XCX
Colour-blind XCY Carrier XCX
Normal XY Colour-blind XCXC Colour-blind XCY Carrier XCX
Colour- XCY Normal XY Normal XY Carrier XCX
blind
Colour- XCY Carrier XCX Colour- XCY Colour- XCXC
blind blind blind
Normal XY Carries XCX
Inheritance Pattern in Haemophilia
Father Mother Son Daughter
Pheno- Geno- Pheno- Geno- Pheno- Geno- Phen- Geno-

type type type type type type type type
Normal XY Haemopholic XhXh Haemophilic XhY Carrier XhX
Normal XY Carrier Xh X Normal XY Normal XX
Haemophilic XhY Carrier XhX
Haemop- Xh Y Carrier XhX Normal XY Carrier XhX
hilic Haemophilic XhY Haemop- XhXh
hilic
Haemop- Xh Y Normal XX Normal XY Carrier XhX
hilic
Chromosomal Disorder :
1. Down’s syndrome : Trisomy of chromosomes number 21. (2n + 1)
Affected individual is short statured with small round head, furrowed
tongue, partially open month, broad palm. Physical, psychomotor and
mentaly retarded.
2. Klinefelter’s syndrome : extra copy of X chromosome ; karyotype XXY.
Affected individual has overall masculine development with famine
characters like gynaecomastia (development of breast) and is sterile
44 autosomes + xxy = 47 chromosomes
3. Turner’s syndrome : has absence of one X chromosome i.e. 45 with XO.
Affected females are sterile with rudimentary ovaries and lack secondary
sexual characters.
44 autosomes + x = 45 chromosomes
Pleiotropy
The ability of a gene to have multiple phenotypic effects because it in uences
a number of characters simultaneously is known as pleiotropy. The gene having
a multiple phenotypic effect because of its ability to control expression of a
number of characters is called pleiotropic gene. E.g. in Garden Pea, the gene
which controls the ower colour also controls the colour of seedcoat and presence
of red spot in the leaf axis.
The disorder phenylketonuria shows pleiotropy.
Polygenic Inheritance
It is a type of inheritance controlled by three or more genes in which the
dominant alleles have cumulative effect with each dominant allele expressing
a part of the trait, the full being shown only when all the dominant alleles are
present.
E.g., Kernel colour in wheat, skin colour in human beings, height in humans,
cob length in maize etc.
In polygenic inheritance, a cross between two pure breeding parents produces
an intermediate trait in F1. In F2 generation, apart from the two parental types,
there are several intermediates (gradiations, show a bell shaped curve). F 1
hybrid form 8 kinds of gametes in each sex giving 64 combination in F2 having
7 phenotypes.
Polygenic inheritance skin tone

3 loci : each has two possible alleles : Aa, Bb, Cc, each capital allele adds
one unit of darkness, each lower case allele adds nothing. Parents produce F 1
offsprings with intermediate tone.
Offspring can have tone darker or lighter than either parent

Questions
VSA (I Mark)
1. Name the base change and the amino acid change, responsible for sickle cell
anaemia.
2. Name the disorder with the following chromosome complement.
(i) 22 pairs of autosomes + X X Y
(ii) 22 pairs of autosomes + 21st chromosome + XY.
3. A test is performed to know whether the given plant is homozygous
dominant or heterozygous. Name the test and phenotypic ratio of this test for
a monohybrid cross.
SA-I (2 Marks)
4. Identify the sex of organism as male or female in which the sex chromosome
are found as (i) ZW in bird (ii) XY in Drosophila (iii) ZZ in birds, (iv) XO in
grasshopper.
5. The human male never passes on the gene for haemophilia to his son. Why
is it so ?
6. Mention four reasons why Drosophila was chosen by Morgan for his
experiments in genetics.
7. Differentiate between point mutation and frameshift mutations.
SA-II (3 Marks)
8. A woman with O blood group marries a man with AB blood group
(i) Work out all the possible phenotypes and genotypes of the progeny.
(ii) Discuss the kind of dominance in the parents and the progeny in this
case.
9. Give reasons for success of Mendel.
10. In Mendel’s breeding experiment on garden pea, the offspring of F 2
generation are obtained in the ratio of 25% pure yellow pod, 50% hybrid
green pods and 25% green pods State (i) which pod colour is dominant (ii)
The Phenotypes of the individuals of F1 generation, (iii) Workout the cross.
LA (5 Marks)
11. A dihybrid heterozygous round, yellow seeded garden pea (Pisum sativum)
was crossed with a double recessive plant.
(i) What type of cross is this?
(ii) Work out the genotype and phenotype of the progeny.
(iii) What principle of Mendel is illustrated through the result of this cross?
Answers
VSA (1 Mark)
1. GAG changes GUG, Glutamic acid is substituted by valine.
2. (i) Klinefetter’s Syndrome (ii) Down’s syndrome
3. Test cross 1 : 1.
SA-I (2 Marks)
4. (i) Female (ii) Male (iii) Female (iv) Male
5. The gene for haemophilia is present on X chromosome. A male has only one
X chromosome which he receives from his mother and Y chromosome from
father. The human male passes the X chromosome to his daughters but not to
the male progeny (sons).
6. (i) Very short life cycle (2-weeks)
(ii) Can be grown easily in laboratory
(iii) In single mating produce a large no. of ¯ies.
(iv) Male and female show many hereditary variations
(v) It has only 4 pairs of chromosomes which are distinct in size and shape.
7. Point Mutations : Arises due to change in a single base pair of DNA e.g.,
sickle cell anaemia.
Frame shift mutations : Deletion or insertion/duplication/addition of one or
two bases in DNA.

SA-II (3 Marks)
8. (i) Blood group AB has alleles as IA, IB and O group has ii which on cross
gives the both blood groups A and B while the genotype of progeny will
be IAi and IBi.
(ii) IA and IB are equally dominant (co-dominant). In multiple allelism, the
gene I exists in 3 allelic forms, IA, IB and i.
9. (i) He used large samples for his experiments.
(ii) He selected only pure breeding varieties.
(iii) He choose the character which had distinctive contrasts.
(iv) He selected pea plant which can be cross-bred as well as self bred.
(v) Use of statistical methods and law of probability.
10. (i) Green pod colour is dominant
(ii) Green pod colour
(iii) Parents GG (green) X gg (yellow)
Gametes G g
F1 generation Gg (Hybrid green)
Gametes G g X G g
F2 generation GG Gg Gg gg
Phenotypic ratio 3 : 1
Genotypic ratio 1 : 2 : 1
LA (5 Marks)
11. (i) It is a dihybrid test cross
(ii) Parent RrYy (Round Yellow) rryy (Wrinkled green)
Gametes RY , Ry , rY , rY , × ry
Gametes RY Ry rY ry
F1 progeny RrYy Rryy rrYy rryy

Round, Round and wrinkled, wrinkled,
Yellow green yellow green.
Phenotypic ratio 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
Genotopic ratio 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
F2 Progeny
Phonotypic ration Round : Round : Wrinkled : Wrinkled

yellow green yellow green
Genotypic ratio 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(iii) Principle of Independent Assortment.



Ecology : A branch of science that studies interactions among organisms
and their physical environment. Ecology is basically concerned with four levels
of biological organisation— Organisms, population, communities and biomes.
Ramdeo Mishra is called as the Father of Ecology in India.
Organisms : Organisms form the basic unit of study in ecology.
Species : Organisms with similar features and the potential to interbreed
among themselves and produce fertile offspring, constitute a species.
Populations : Population is a group of individuals of the same species,
inhabiting in a given area. Interspeci®c competition for basic needs operate
among the individuals of population.
Biological Community : Biological community is constituted by an
assemblage of the populations of all different species that live in an area and
interact with each other. A biotic community has a distinct species composition
and structure.
Ecosystem : Is a biological system in nature and composed of a biotic
community integrated with its physical (abiotic) environment through the
exchange of energy and recycling of the nutrients.
Biomes : Biomes is a very large unit, constituting of a major vegetation type
and associate fauna found is a speci®ed zone. Annual Variations is the intensity,
duration of temperature and precipitation account for the formation of major
biomes like desert, rain, forest and Tundra.
Major Biomes of India : Tropical rain forest, deciduous forest, desert, sea
coast. Regional and local variations within each biome lead to formation of a
wide variety of habitats.
Habitat : Habitat is the place where an organism lives.
Niche : The ecological niche of an organism represents the range of conditions
that it can tolerate the resources it utilises and its functional role in the ecological
system. Each species occupies a distinct niche and no two species occupy the
same niche.
Organisms and Population 131
Biosphere : It is the sum total of all the biomes on the earth.
Environment : Environment is a sum total of all biotic and abotic factors that
surround and potentially in¯uence an organism. Temperature, water, light and soil
are the major abiotic factors.
Major Abiotic factors

1. Temperature : It signi®cantly affects the (a) Latitudinal and Attitudinal
distribution of organisms (b) Enzyme kinetics and basal metabolism.
Eurythermal : Organisms which can tolerate and thrive a wide range of
temperatures e.g. : Mammals, birds.
Stenothermal : Organisms which can tolerate and thrive a restricted narrow
range of temperature. e.g. : Polar bears, penguins.
2. Water : Quantity and quality of water signi®cantly affects the distribution of
organism, pH, Salinity and chemical composition is important to aquatic organisms.
Euryhaline : Organisms which tolerate a wide range of salinites e.g. Salmon.
Stenohaline : Organisms which are restricted to a narrow range of salinites
e.g. : Shark.
3. Light : Light affects signi®cantly the production in autotrophs,
photoperiodism and behavioural and physiological adaptations in organisms living
in low in intensities. For example dense forest with tall canopied trees and at the
depth of oceans. It also affects diurnal and seasonal variations.
4. Soil : Soil is an important factor affecting the distribution of organisms.
Properties of soil like grain size, mineral content, percolation, pH are signi®cant
in distribution of plants and animals.
5. Homeostasis : Is the ability of an organism to maintain consistent internal
environment (for e.g. constant body temperature).
Population Attributes :
A population has certain attributes that an individual does not possesses.
Important characterstics of a population are :
(i) Population density : Population density of a species is the number of
individuals of a species per unit area or volume
Number of individual in a region (N)
Population density =
Number of unit area in a region (S)
(ii) Birth rate or Natality Rate : It is expressed as the number of births per
thousand individuals of a population per year

(iii) Death rate or Mortality rate : It is expressed as the number of deaths
per thousand individual of a populations during a given period.
(iv) Sex ratio : It is expressed as the number of females per 1000 males of a
population in given time.
Response to Abiotic Factors

(i) Regulators : Some organisms are able to maintain homeostastis
by physiological (Some times behavioural) means which ensures body
temperature, constant osmotic concentration. All birds and mammals, a very
few lower vertebrates and invertebrates are regulators (Thermoregulation and
osmoregulation). For example, human beings maintain their body temperature
by sweating in summer and shivering during winter season. Plants do not have
such mechanisms to maintain internal temperatures.
(ii) Conformers : Majority of animals and nearly all plants cannot maintain
a constant internal environment. Their body temperature changes with the
ambient temperature. In aquatic animals the osmotic concentration of the body
¯uids change with that of the ambient water and osmotic concentration. Some
species have evolved the ability to regulate, but only over a limited range of
environmental conditions, beyond which they simply conform.
(iii) Partial regulators : Hairs on the body acts as heat insulator. Surface
area and volume ratio. In smaller organisms the surface area is large as compared
to the volume. But in large animal this ratio is small. So, the larger animals
effectively controls the body temperature.
(iv) Migration : The organisms can move away temporarily from the stressful
habitat to a more comfortable area and return when stressful period is over.

(v) Suspend : The organisms may avoid the stress by escaping in time. Bears
go into hibernation during winter (winter sleep). Some snails and ®sh go into
aestivation in summer (summer sleep).
Diapause (Stage of suspended development) in zooplankton, thick walled
spores in bacteria, fungi and lower plants.
Age Pyramids of Populations : A population at any given time is composed
of individuals of different ages. If the age distribution is plotted for the population,
the resulting structure is called an age pyramid. The shape of the pyramids re¯ects
the growth status of the populations. Whether (a) it is growing (expanding) (b)
Stable or (c) Declining. The pyramids for human population (males and females)
are presented below :
Population Growth : If ‘N’ is the population density at time t’ then its

density at time t + 1 is : Nt + 1 = Nt + [B + I) – (D + E)]
Immigration : Number of individuals of the same species that have come

into the habitat from elsewhere during a given period.

Emigration : Number of individuals of the population who have left the
habitat and gome elsewhere during a given time period.
Growth Models : The two growth models are :
(i) Exponential growth model : If food and space for a population are
unlimited and each species has the ability to grow, then the population grows in
exponential or geometric fashion.
Exponential Growth Equation is Nt = N0ert
Where,
Nt = Population density after time t
N0 = Population density at time zero
r = intrinsic rate of natural increase
e = the base of natural logarithms (2.71828)
Exponential growth : ‘J’ shape curve is obtained.
 When resources are not limiting the growth.
 Any species growth exponentially under unlimited resources conditions

can reach enormous population densities in a short time.
 Growth is not so realistic.

(ii) Logistic growth model : A population growing in a habitat with limited
resources (food and space) shows logistic growth :
Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth is described by the following equations :
dN/dt = rN (K-N / K)
Where, N = Population density at time t
r = Intrinsic rate of natural increase
K = Carrying capacity
Logistic Growth (Sigmoid curve is obtained)
 When resources are limiting the Growth.
 Resources for growth for most animal populations are ®nite and become
limiting.
 The logistic growth model is a more realistic one.

Population Interactions :
Predation : Interaction between species involving killing and consumption
of prey is called predation. The species which eats the other is called the predator
and the one consumed is termed as the prey. The predator keeps check on prey
population. The reduction in predator population may lead to increase in prey
population.
 Predators play important roles in ecosystem :
(a) Transfer of energy across trophic levels.
(b) Keep prey population under control : The invasive prickly pear cactus
was brought under control by introduction of a cactus-feeding predator
(moth) in Australia.
 Biological pest control methods : Used in agricultural are based on the
ability of predator to regulate prey population.
 Maintain species diversity in a community.
Examples of Predation :
(i) Biological control methods to control pests
(ii) Carnivorous animals like tiger eating deers, snake eating frog
(iii) Insectivorous plants like Nepenthes, Drosera, Utricularia

Competition : In this ®tness of one species is signi®cantly lower in presence
of another species.
Gause’s Competitive Exclusion Principle : Two closely related species
competing for the same resources cannot co-exist inde®nitely and the
competitively inferior one will be eliminated.
Parasitism : Parasitism is a kind of relationship between two species in
which one derives its food from the other (host). Parasitism also involves shelter,
in addition to food obtained by a parasite. Parasites may be ectoparasites or
endoparasites. Ectoparasites live on the surface of their host while endoparasites
live inside the body of the host.
Examples of Parasitism
(i) Cuscuta growing on shoe ¯ower plant
(ii) Head lice and humans
(iii) Ascaris, Taenia, Plasmodium causing diseases in humans
Example of Brood parasitism

(i) Koel laying its eggs in crow’s nest.
Mutualism : In mutualism both the interacting species are bene®ted mutually.
It is also known as symbiosis.
Examples of Mutualism
(i) Mycorrhiza living in roots of higher plants
(ii) Rhizobium in root nodules of legumes
(iii) Algae and fungi in lichens
(iv) Orchid Ophrys and bee for pollination
Co-evolution : (1) Fig species and wasp. Female wasp uses the fruit as an
Oviposition (egg-laying) and also uses the developing seeds within the fruits
for nourishing its larvae. Wasp pollinates the ®g in¯orescence while searching
for egg laying site, in return ®g offers developing seeds as food for developing
larvae. (2) Mediterranean orchid Ophrys and bee.
Amensalism : Interaction between two different species, in which one
species is harmed and the other is neither bene®ted nor harmed.

Example of Amensalism
(i) Penicillium whose toxin kills many bacteria is neither bene®tted nor
harmed
Commensalism : This is the interaction in which one species is bene®ted
and the other is neither harmed nor bene®ted under normal conditions.
Examples of Commensalism
(i) Clown ®sh living among tentacles of sea anemone
(ii) Pilot ®sh (Remora) accompanies sharks
(iii) Orchid growing on mango tree
(iv) Sea anemone on the shell of hermit crab
(v) Barnacles on back of whales
(vi) Egret and grazing cattle
Questions
VSA (1 Mark)
1. Fresh water animals are unable to survive for long in sea water. Give reason.
2. Calculate the death rate if 6 individuals in a laboratory population of 60

frui¯ies died during a particular week.
3. An organism has to overcome stressful condition for a limited period of time.

Which strategies can it adopt to do so ?
4. What do phytophagous insects feed on ?
SA-I (2 Marks)
5. Differentiate between stenohaline and euryhaline organisms.
6. List four features which enable the Xeric plants to survive in the desert
conditions.
7. How do stenothermal organisms differ from eurythermal organisms ?
8. Why do clown ®sh and sea anemone pair up ? What is this relationship called ?

SA-I (3 Marks)
9. How will you measure population density in following cases ?
(i) ®sh in a lake
(ii) tiger census in a national park
(iii) single huge banyan tree with large canopy.
LA (5 Marks)
10. What is attitude sickness? What its causes and symptoms ? How does human
body try to overcome altitude sickness ?
11. Orchid ¯ower, Ophrys co-evolves to maintain resemblance of its petal to
female bee. Explain how and why does it do so ?
Answers
VSA (I Mark)
1. Due to osmotic problems
2. 6/60 = 0.1 individuals per fruit¯y per week.
3. (i) Migration
(ii) Suspension of active life by hibernation/aestivation/spore formation.
4. Plant sap and other parts of the plant.
SA-I (2 Marks)
5. Euryhaline : Organisms tolerant in wide range of salinities.
Stenohaline : Organisms tolerant to narrow range of salinities.
6. (i) thick cuticle
(ii) Stomata in deep pits
(iii) Stomata closed during day time
(iv) leaves modi®ed into spines (CAM photosynthetic pathway).
7. Eurythermal : Organisms that can tolerate and thrive in wide range of

temperatures
Stenothermal : Organisms restricted to a narrow range of temperature.

8. Clown ®sh lives in tentacles of sea Anemone and gets protection from
predators.
Interaction-commensalism.
SA-II (3 Marks)
9. (a) ®sh caught per trap.
(b) number per unit area
(c) percentage cover in biomass.
10. Breathlessness at high attitudes.
Cause : Low atmospheric pressure at high altitudes due to which body does
not get enough oxygen.
Symptoms : Nausea, fatigue and heart palpitations. Body adapts by :
(a) increasing red blood cell production
(b) decreasing binding af®nity of haemoglobin
(c) by increasing breathing rate.
11.  employs ‘sexual deceit’
 one petal bears uncanny resemblance to female of the bee.
 Male bee is attracted to what it perceives as a female ‘pseudo-copulates,’

during which pollen dusted on male bee’s body.
 Male bee transfers pollen to another ¯ower when the same been
pseducopulates with another ¯ower.
 Ophrys does so because pollination success will be reduced unless it

co-evolves with female bee.


HUMAN REPRODUCTION 17
CHAPTER 3
HUMAN REPRODUCTION
MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Choose the incorrect statement from the following:

a. In birds and mammals internal fertilisation takes place
b. Colostrum contains antibodies and nutrients
c. Polyspermy is prevented by the chemical changes in the egg surface
d. In the human female implantation occurs almost seven days after
fertilisation
2. Identify the wrong statement from the following:

a. High levels of estrogen triggers the ovulatory surge.
b. Orgonial cells start to proliferate and give rise to functional ova in
regular cycles from puberty onwards.
c. Sperms released from seminiferous tubules are poorly motile /
non-motile.
d. Progesterone level is high during the post ovulatory phase of
menstrual cycle.
3. Spot the odd one out from the following structures with reference to the
male reproductive system:
a. Ret testis
b. Epididymis
c. Vasa efferentia
d. Isthmus
4. Seminal plasma, the fluid part of semen, is contributed by.

i. Seminal vesicle
ii. Prostate
iii. Urethra
iv. Bulbourethral gland
(a) i and ii (b) i, ii and iv (c) ii, iii and iv (d) i and iv
18 BIOLOGY, EXEMPLAR PROBLEMS
5. Spermiation is the process of the release of sperms from:

a. Seminiferous tubules
b. Vas deferens
c. Epididymis
d. Prostate gland
6. Mature Graafian follicle is generally present in the ovary of a healthy

human female around stet:
a. 5 – 8 day of menstrual cycle
b. 11 – 17 day of menstrual cycle
c. 18 – 23 day of menstrual cycle
d. 24 – 28 day of menstrual cycle
7. Acrosomal reaction of the sperm occurs due to:

a. Its contact with zona pellucida of the ova
b. Reactions within the uterine environment of the female
c. Reactions within the epididymal environment of the male
d. Androgens produced in the uterus
8. Which one of the following is not a male accessory gland?

a. Seminal vesicle
b. Ampulla
c. Prostate
d. Bulbourethral gland
9. The immature male germ cell undergo division to produce sperms by the
process of spermatogenesis. Choose the correct one with reference to above.
a. Spermatogonia have 46 chromosomes and always undergo meiotic
cell division
b. Primary spermatocytes divide by mitotic cell division
c. Secondary spermatocytes have 23 chromosomes and undergo
second meiotic division
d. Spermatozoa are transformed into spermatids
10. Match between the following representing parts of the sperm and their
functions and choose the correct option.
Col. A Col. B
A. Head i. Enzymes
B. Middle piece ii. Sperm motility
C. Acrosome iii. Energy
D. Tail iv. Genetic material
options:
a. A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
b. A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
c. A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
d. A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
11. Which among the following has 23 chromosomes?

a. Spermatogonia
b. Zygote
c. Secondary oöcyte
d. Oögonia
12. Match the following and choose the correct options:

A. Trophoblast i. Embedding of blastocyst in the endome
trium
B. Cleavage ii. Group of cells that would differentiate
as embryo
C. Inner cell mass iii. Outer layer of blastocyst attached to the
endometrium
D. Implantation iv. Mitotic division of zygote
Options:
a. A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
b. A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
c. A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
d. A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
13. Which of the following hormones is not secreted by human placenta?

a. hCG
b. Estrogens
c. Progesterone
d. LH
14. The vas deferens receives duct from the seminal vesicle and opens into
urethra as:
a. Epididymis
b. Ejaculatory duct
c. Efferent ductule
d. Ureter
15. Urethral meatus refers to the:

a. Urinogenital duct
b. Opening of vas deferens into urethra
c. External opening of the urinogenital duct
d. Muscles surrounding the urinogenial duct
16. Morula is a developmental stage:

a. Between the zygote and blastocyst
b. Between the blastocyst and gastrula
c. After the implantation
d. Between implantation and parturition
17. The membranous cover of the ovum at ovulation is:

a. Corona radiata
b. Zona radiata
c. Zona pellucida
d. Chorion
18. Identify the odd one from the following:

a. Labia minora
b. Fimbriae
c. Infundibulum
d. Isthmus
1. Given below are the events in human reproduction. Write them in correct
sequential order.
Insemination, gametogenesis, fertilisation, parturition, gestation,
implantation
2. The path of sperm transport is given below. Provide the missing steps in
blank boxes.
3. What is the role of cervix in the human female reproductive system?
4. Why are menstrual cycles absent during pregnancy.
5. Female reproductive organs and associated functions are given below

in column A and B. Fill the blank boxes.
6. From where the parturition signals arise-mother or foetus? Mention the

main hormone involved in parturition.
7. What is the significance of epididymis in male fertility?
8. Give the names and functions of the hormones involved in the process of
spermatogenesis. Write the names of the endocrine glands from where
they are released.
9. The mother germ cells are transformed into a mature follicle through
series of steps. Provide the missing steps in the blank boxes.
10. During reproduction, the chromosome number (2n) reduces to half (n)
in the gametes and again the original number (2n) is restored in the
offspring, What are the processes through which these events take place?
11. What is the difference between a primary oöcyte and a secondary oöcyte?
12. What is the significance of ampullary–isthmic junction in the female

reproductive tract?
13. How does zona pellucida of ovum help in preventing polyspermy?
14. Mention the importance of LH surge during menstrual cycle.
15. Which type of cell division forms spermatids from the secondary
spermatocytes?
1. A human female experiences two major changes, menarche and

menopause during her life. Mention the significance of both the events.
2. a. How many spermatozoa are formed from one secondary

spermatocyte?
b. Where does the first cleavage division of zygote take place?
3. Corpus luteum in pregnancy has a long life. However, if fertilisation does

not take place, it remains active only for 10-12 days. Explain.
4. What is foetal ejection reflex? Explain how it leads to parturition?
5. Except endocrine function, what are the other functions of placenta.
6. Why doctors recommend breast feeding during initial period of infant

growth?
7. What are the events that take place in the ovary and uterus during
follicular phase of the menstrual cycle.
8. Given below is a flow chart showing ovarian changes during menstrual

cycle. Fill in the spaces giving the name of the hormones responsible for
the events shown.
9. Give a schematic labelled diagram to represent oögenesis (without

descriptions)
10. What are the changes in the oogonia during the transition of a primary
follicle to Graafian follicle?
LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS
1. What role does pituitary gonadotropins play during follicular and

ovulatory phases of menstrual cycle? Explain the shifts in steroidal
secretions.
2. Meiotic division during oogenesis is different from that in

spermatogenesis. Explain how and why?
3. The zygote passes through several developmental stages till implantation,

Describe each stage briefly with suitable diagrams.
4. Draw a neat diagram of the female reproductive system and label the
parts associated with the following (a) production of gamete, (b) site of
fertilisation (c) site of implantation and, (d) birth canal.
5. With a suitable diagram, describe the organisation of mammary gland.

SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS 9
CHAPTER 2
SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN
FLOWERING PLANTS
1. Among the terms listed below, those that of are not technically correct
names for a floral whorl are:
i. Androecium
ii. Carpel
iii. Corolla
iv. Sepal
(a) i and iv, (b) iii and iv (c) ii and iv (d) i and ii.
2. Embryo sac is to ovule as _______ is to an anther.

a. Stamen
b. Filament
c. Pollen grain
d. Androecium
3. In a typical complete, bisexual and hypogynous flower the arrangement

of floral whorls on the thalamus from the outermost to the innermost is:
a. Calyx, corolla, androecium and gynoecium
b. Calyx, corolla, gynoecium and androecium
c. Gynoecium, androecium, corolla and calyx
d. Androecium, gynoecium, corolla and calyx
4. A dicotyledonous plant bears flowers but never produces fruits and

seeds. The most probable cause for the above situation is:
a. Plant is dioecious and bears only pistillate flowers
b. Plant is dioecious and bears both pistillate and staminate flowers
c. Plant is monoecious
d. Plant is dioecious and bears only staminate flowers.
5. The outermost and innermost wall layers of microsporangium in an

anther are respectively:
a. Endothecium and tapetum
b. Epidermis and endodermis
c. Epidermis and middle layer
d. Epidermis and tapetum
6. During microsporogenesis, meiosis occurs in:

a. Endothecium
b. Microspore mother cells
c. Microspore tetrads
d. Pollen grains.
7. From among the sets of terms given below, identify those that are
associated with the gynoecium.
a. Stigma, ovule, embryo sac, placenta
b. Thalamus, pistil, style, ovule
c. Ovule, ovary, embryo sac, tapetum
d. Ovule, stamen, ovary, embryo sac
8. Starting from the innermost part, the correct sequence of parts in an

ovule are,
a. egg, nucellus, embryo sac, integument
b. egg, embryo sac, nucellus, integument
c. embryo sac, nucellus, integument, egg
d. egg, integument, embryo sac, nucellus.
9. From the statements given below choose the option that are true for a
typical female gametophyte of a flowering plant:
i. It is 8-nucleate and 7-celled at maturity
ii. It is free-nuclear during the development
iii. It is situated inside the integument but outside the nucellus
iv. It has an egg apparatus situated at the chalazal end
(a) i and iv, (b) ii and iii (c) i & ii (d) ii & iv
10. Autogamy can occur in a chasmogamous flower if:

a. Pollen matures before maturity of ovule
b. Ovules mature before maturity of pollen
c. Both pollen and ovules mature simultaneously
d. Both anther and stigma are of equal lengths.
11. Choose the correct statement from the following:

a. Cleistogamous flowers always exhibit autogamy
b. Chasmogamous flowers always exhibit geitonogamy
c. Cleistogamous flowers exhibit both autogamy and geitonogamy
d. Chasmogamous flowers never exhibit autogamy
12. A particular species of plant produces light, non-sticky pollen in large

numbers and its stigmas are long and feathery. These modifications
facilitate pollination by:
a. Insects
b. Water
c. Wind
d. Animals.
13. From among the situations given below, choose the one that prevents
both autogamy and geitonogamy.
a. Monoecious plant bearing unisexual flowers
b. Dioecious plant bearing only male or female flowers
c. Monoecious plant with bisexual flowers
d. Dioecious plant with bisexual flowers
14. In a fertilised embryo sac, the haploid, diploid and triploid

structures are:
a. Synergid, zygote and primary endosperm nucleus
b. Synergid, antipodal and polar nuclei
c. Antipodal, synergid and primary endosperm nucleus
d. Synergid, polar nuclei and zygote.
15. In an embryo sac, the cells that degenerate after fertilisation are:
a. Synergids and primary endosperm cell
b. Synergids and antipodals
c. Antipodals and primary endosperm cell
d. Egg and antipodals.
16. While planning for an artificial hybridization programme involving

dioecious plants, which of the following steps would not be relevant:
a. Bagging of female flower
b. Dusting of pollen on stigma
c. Emasculation
d. Collection of pollen
17. In the embryos of a typical dicot and a grass, true homologous structures
are:
a. Coleorhiza and coleoptile
b. Coleoptile and scutellum
c. Cotyledons and scutellum
d. Hypocotyl and radicle.
18. The phenomenon observed in some plants wherein parts of the sexual
apparatus is used for forming embryos without fertilisation is called:
a. Parthenocarpy
b. Apomixis
c. Vegetative propagation
d. Sexual reproduction.
19. In a flower, if the megaspore mother cell forms megaspores without

undergoing meiosis and if one of the megaspores develops into an embryo
sac, its nuclei would be:
a. Haploid
b. Diploid
c. A few haploid and a few diploid
d. With varying ploidy.
20. The phenomenon wherein, the ovary develops into a fruit without
fertilisation is called:
a. Parthenocarpy
b. Apomixis
c. Asexual reproduction
d. Sexual reproduction
1. Name the component cells of the ‘egg apparatus’ in an embryo sac.
2. Name the part of gynoecium that determines the compatible nature of

pollen grain.
3. Name the common function that cotyledons and nucellus perform.
4. Complete the following flow chart

Pollen mother cell → Pollen tetrad → Pollen grain
5. Indicate the stages where meiosis and mitosis occur (1, 2 or 3) in the
flow chart.
Megaspore mother cell Megaspores Embryo sac Egg
6. In the diagram given below, show the path of a pollen tube from the
pollen on the stigma into the embryo sac. Name the components of egg
apparatus.
7. Name the parts of pistil which develop into fruit and seeds.
8. In case of polyembryony, if an embryo develops from the synergid and

another from the nucellus which is haploid and which is diploid?
9. Can an unfertilised, apomictic embryo sac give rise to a diploid embryo?

If yes, then how?
10. Which are the three cells found in a pollen grain when it is shed at the
three celled stage?
11. What is self-incompatibility?
12. Name the type of pollination in self-incompatible plants.
13. Draw the diagram of a mature embryo sac and show its 8-nucleate,
7-celled nature. Show the following parts: antipodals, synergids, egg,
central cell, polar nuclei.
14. Which is the triploid tissue in a fertilised ovule? How is the triploid
condition achieved?
15. Are pollination and fertilisation necessary in apomixis? Give reasons.
16. Identify the type of carpel with the help of diagrams given below:
(a) (b)
17. How is pollination carried out in water plants?
18. What is the function of the two male gametes produced by each pollen
grain in angiosperms.
1. List three strategies that a bisexual chasmogamous flower can evolve to

prevent self pollination (autogamy).
2. Given below are the events that are observed in an artificial hybridization
programme. Arrange them in the correct sequential order in which they
are followed in the hybridisation programme.
(a) Re-bagging (b) Selection of parents (c) Bagging (d) Dusting the pollen
on stigma (e) Emasculation (f) Collection of pollen from male parent.
3. Vivipary automatically limits the number of offsprings in a litter. How?
4. Does self incompatibility impose any restrictions on autogamy? Give

reasons and suggest the method of pollination in such plants.
5. In the given diagram, write the names of parts shown with lines.
6. What is polyembryony and how can it be commercially exploited?

7. Are parthenocarpy and apomixis different phenomena? Discuss their
benefits.
Hint: Yes, they are different. Parthenocarpy leads to development of seedless
fruits. Apomixis leads to embryo development.
8. Why does the zygote begin to divide only after the division of Primary
endosperm cell (PEC)?
9. The generative cell of a two-celled pollen divides in the pollen tube but
not in a three-celled pollen. Give reasons.
10. In the figure given below label the following parts: male gametes, egg
cell, polar nuclei, synergid and pollen tube
1. Starting with the zygote, draw the diagrams of the different stages of
embryo development in a dicot.
2. What are the possible types of pollinations in chasmogamous flowers.

Give reasons.
3. With a neat, labelled diagram, describe the parts of a mature angiosperm

embryo sac. Mention the role of synergids.
4. Draw the diagram of a microsporangium and label its wall layers. Write
briefly on the role of the endothecium.
5. Embryo sacs of some apomictic species appear normal but contain

diploid cells. Suggest a suitable explanation for the condition.
CHAPTER 6
MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

1. In a DNA strand the nucleotides are linked together by:

a. glycosidic bonds
b. phosphodiester bonds
c. peptide bonds
d. hydrogen bonds
2. A nucleoside differs from a nucleotide. It lacks the:

a. base
b. sugar
c. phosphate group
d. hydroxyl group
3. Both deoxyribose and ribose belong to a class of sugars called:

a. trioses
b. hexoses
c. pentoses
d. polysaccharides
4. The fact that a purine base always paired through hydrogen bonds with
a pyrimidine base leads to, in the DNA double helix:
a. the antiparallel nature
b. the semiconservative nature
c. uniform width throughout DNA
d. uniform length in all DNA
5. The net electric charge on DNA and histones is:

a. both positive
b. both negative
c. negative and positive, respectively
d. zero
U
M NIT II:
UNIT II: SSTRUCTURAL
OLECULAR BASIS OFO
TRUCTURAL INHERITANCE
ORGANISATION IN P
RGANISATION IN PLANTS AND A
LANTS AND ANIMAL
NIMALS 37
6. The promoter site and the terminator site for transcription are located at:
a. 3' (downstream) end and 5' (upstream) end, respectively of the
transcription unit
b. 5' (upstream) end and 3' (downstream) end, respectively of the
transcription unit
c. the 5' (upstream) end
d. the 3' (downstream) end
7. Which of the following statements is the most appropriate for sickle cell
anaemia?
a. It cannot be treated with iron supplements
b. It is a molecular disease
c. It confers resistance to acquiring malaria
d. All of the above
8. One of the following is true with respect to AUG

a. It codes for methionine only
b. It is also an initiation codon
c. It codes for methionine in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
d. All of the above
9. The first genetic material could be:

a. protein
b. carbohydrates
c. DNA
d. RNA
10. With regard to mature mRNA in eukaryotes:

a. exons and introns do not appear in the mature RNA
b. exons appear but introns do not appear in the mature RNA
c. introns appear but exons do not appear in the mature RNA
d. both exons and introns appear in the mature RNA
11. The human chromosome with the highest and least number of genes in
them are respectively:
a. Chromosome 21 and Y
b. Chromosome 1 and X
c. Chromosome 1 and Y
d. Chromosome X and Y
12. Who amongst the following scientists had no contribution in the

development of the double helix model for the structure of DNA?
a. Rosalind Franklin
b. Maurice Wilkins
c. Erwin Chargaff
d. Meselson and Stahl
13. DNA is a polymer of nucleotides which are linked to each other by 3’-5’
phosphodiester bond. To prevent polymerisation of nucleotides, which
of the following modifications would you choose?
a. Replace purine with pyrimidines
b. Remove/Replace 3' OH group in deoxy ribose
c. Remove/Replace 2' OH group with some other group in deoxy
ribose
d. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’
14. Discontinuous synthesis of DNA occurs in one strand, because:

a. DNA molecule being synthesised is very long
b. DNA dependent DNA polymearse catalyses polymerisation only
in one direction (5’ → 3’)
c. it is a more efficient process
d. DNA ligase has to have a role
15. Which of the following steps in transcription is catalysed by RNA

polymerse?
a. Initiation
b. Elongation
c. Termination
d. All of the above
16. Control of gene expression takes place at the level of:

a. DNA-replication
b. Transcription
c. Translation
d. None of the above
17. Regulatory proteins are the accessory proteins that interact with RNA
polymerase and affect its role in transcription. Which of the following
statements is correct about regulatory protein?
a. They only increase expression
b. They only decrease expression
c. They interact with RNA polymerase but do not affect the expression
d. They can act both as activators and as repressors
U
M NIT II:
OLECULAR BASIS OFO
ORGANISATION IN P
LANTS AND ANIMAL
NIMALS 39
18. Which was the last human chromosome to be completely sequenced:

a. Chromosome 1
b. Chromosome 11
c. Chromosome 21
d. Chromosome x
19. Which of the following are the functions of RNA?

a. It is a carrier of genetic information from DNA to ribosomes
synthesising polypeptides.
b. It carries amino acids to ribosomes.
c. It is a constituent component of ribosomes.
d. All of the above.
20. While analysing the DNA of an organism a total number of 5386

nucleotides were found out of which the proportion of different bases
were: Adenine = 29%, Guanine = 17%, Cytosine = 32%, Thymine = 17%.
Considering the Chargaff’s rule it can be concluded that:
a. it is a double stranded circular DNA
b. It is single stranded DNA
c. It is a double stranded linear DNA
d. No conclusion can be drawn
21. In some viruses, DNA is synthesised by using RNA as template. Such a

DNA is called:
a. A-DNA
b. B-DNA
c. c DNA
d. r DNA
22. If Meselson and Stahl's experiment is continued for four generations in

bacteria, the ratio of 15N/15N: 15N/14N: 14N/14N containing DNA in the
fourth generation would be:
a. 1:1:0
b. 1:4:0
c. 0:1:3
d. 0:1:7
23. If the sequence of nitrogen bases of the coding strand of DNA in a

transcription unit is:
5' - A T G A A T G - 3',
the sequence of bases in its RNA transcript would be;
a. 5' - A U G A A U G - 3'
b. 5' - U A C U U A C - 3'
c. 5' - C A U U C A U - 3'
d. 5' - G U A A G U A - 3'
24. The RNA polymerase holoenzyme transcribes:

a. the promoter, structural gene and the terminator region
b. the promoter, and the
c. the structural gene and the terminator regions
d. the structural gene only.
25. If the base sequence of a codon in mRNA is 5'-AUG-3', the sequence of

tRNA pairing with it must be:
a. 5' - UAC - 3'
b. 5' - CAU - 3'
c. 5' - AUG - 3'
d. 5' - GUA - 3'
26. The amino acid attaches to the tRNA at its:

a. 5' - end
b. 3' - end
c. Anti codon site
d. DHU loop
27. To initiate translation, the mRNA first binds to:

a. The smaller ribosomal sub-unit,
b. The larger ribosomal sub-unit
c. The whole ribosome
d. No such specificity exists.
28. In E.coli, the lac operon gets switched on when:

a. lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
b. repressor binds to operator
c. RNA polymerase binds to the operator
d. lactose is present and it binds to RNA polymerase
1. What is the function of histones in DNA packaging?

2. Distinguish between heterochromatin and euchromatin. Which of the
two is transcriptionally active?
U
M NIT II:
OLECULAR BASIS OFO
ORGANISATION IN P
LANTS AND ANIMAL
NIMALS 41
3. The enzyme DNA polymerase in E.coli is a DNA dependent polymerase

and also has the ability to proof-read the DNA strand being synthesised.
Explain. Discuss the dual polymerase.
4. What is the cause of discontinuous synthesis of DNA on one of the

parental strands of DNA? What happens to these short stretches of
synthesised DNA?
5. Given below is the sequence of coding strand of DNA in a transcription

unit
3 'A A T G C A G C T A T T A G G – 5’
write the sequence of
a) its complementary strand
b) the mRNA
6. What is DNA polymorphism? Why is it important to study it?
7. Based on your understanding of genetic code, explain the formation of

any abnormal hemoglobin molecule. What are the known consequences
of such a change?
8. Sometimes cattle or even human beings give birth to their young ones
that are having extremely different sets of organs like limbs/position of
eye(s) etc. Comment.
9. In a nucleus, the number of ribonucleoside triphosphates is 10 times

the number of deoxy x10 ribonucleoside triphosphates, but only deoxy
ribonucleotides are added during the DNA replication. Suggest a
mechanism.
10. Name a few enzymes involved in DNA replication other than DNA
polymerase and ligase. Name the key functions for each of them.
11. Name any three viruses which have RNA as the genetic material.
1. Define transformation in Griffith's experiment. Discuss how it helps in

the identification of DNA as the genetic material.
2. Who revealed biochemical nature of the transforming principle?
How was it done?
3. Discuss the significance of heavy isotope of nitrogen in the Meselson
and Stahl’s experiment.
4. Define a cistron. Giving examples differentiate between monocistronic

and polyeistronic transcription unit.
5. Give any six features of the human genome.
6. During DNA replication, why is it that the entire molecule does not open
in one go? Explain replication fork. What are the two functions that the
monomers (d NTPs) play?
7. Retroviruses do not follow central Dogma. Comment.
8. In an experiment, DNA is treated with a compound which tends to place

itself amongst the stacks of nitrogenous base pairs. As a result of this,
the distance between two consecutive base increases. from 0.34nm to
0.44 nm calculate the length of DNA double helix (which has 2×109 bp)
in the presence of saturating amount of this compound.
9. What would happen if histones were to be mutated and made rich in

acidic amino acids such as aspartic acid and glutamic acid in place of
basic amino acids such as lysine and arginine?
10. Recall the experiments done by Frederick Griffith, Avery, MacLeod and
McCarty, where DNA was speculated to be the genetic material. If RNA,
instead of DNA was the genetic material, would the heat killed
strain of Pneumococcus have transformed the R-strain into virulent
strain? Explain.
11. You are repeating the Hershey-Chase experiment and are provided with
two isotopes: 32P and 15N (in place of 35S in the original experiment). How
do you expect your results to be different?
12. There is only one possible sequence of amino acids when deduced from
a given nucleotides. But multiple nucleotides sequence can be deduced
from a single amino acid sequence. Explain this phenomena.
13. A single base mutation in a gene may not ‘always’ result in loss or gain
of function. Do you think the statement is correct? Defend your answer.
14. A low level of expression of lac operon occurs at all the time. Can you
explain the logic behind this phenomena.
15. How has the sequencing of human genome opened new windows for
treatment of various genetic disorders. Discuss amongst your classmates.
16. The total number of genes in humans is far less (< 25,000) than the
previous estimate (upto 1,40,000 gene). Comment.
17. Now, sequencing of total genomes getting is getting less expensive day
by the day. Soon it may be affordable for a common man to get his
genome sequenced. What in your opinion could be the advantage and
disadvantage of this development?
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18. Would it be appropriate to use DNA probes such as VNTR in DNA finger
printing of a bacteriaphage?
19. During in vitro synthesis of DNA, a researcher used 2’, 3’ – dideoxy

cytidine triphosphate as raw nucleotide in place of 2’-deoxy cytidine.
What would be the consequence?
20. What background information did Watson and Crick have made available
for developing a model of DNA? What was their contribution?
21. What are the functions of (i) methylated guanasine cap, (ii) poly-A “tail”
in a mature on RNA?
22. Do you think that the alternate splicing of exons may enable a structural
gene to code for several isoproteins from one and the same gene? If yes,
how? If not, why so?
23. Comment on the utility of variability in number of tandem repeats during

DNA finger printing.
1. Give an account of Hershey and Chase experiment. What did it

conclusively prove? If both DNA and proteins contained phosphorus
and sulphur do you think the result would have been the same?
2. During the course of evolution why DNA was chosen over RNA as genetic
material? Give reasons by first discussing the desired criteria in a
molecule that can act as genetic material and in the light of biochemical
differences between DNA and RNA.
3. Give an account of post transcriptional modifications of a eukaryotic

mRNA.
4. Discuss the process of translation in detail.
5. Define an operon. giving an example, explain an Inducible operon.
6. ‘There is a paternity dispute for a child’. Which technique can solve the
problem. Discuss the principle involved.
7. Give an account of the methods used in sequencing the human genome.
8. List the various markers that are used in DNA finger printing.
9. Replication was allowed to take place in the presence of radioactive

deoxynucleotides precursors in E.coli that was a mutant for DNA
ligase. Newly synthesised radioactive DNA was purified and strands
were separated by denaturation. These were centrifuged using

density gradient centrifugation. Which of the following would be a
correct result?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
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CHAPTER 5
PRINCIPLE OF INHERITANCE AND

VARIATION
1. All genes located on the same chromosome:

a. Form different groups depending upon their relative distance
b. Form one linkage group
c. Will not from any linkage groups
d. Form interactive groups that affect the phenotype
2. Conditions of a karyotype 2n ± 1 and 2n ± 2 are called:

a. Aneuploidy
b. Polyploidy
c. Allopolyploidy
d. Monosomy
3. Distance between the genes and percentage of recombination shows:

a. a direct relationship
b. an inverse relationship
c. a parallel relationship
d. no relationship
4. If a genetic disease is transferred from a phenotypically normal but carrier

female to only some of the male progeny, the disease is:
a. Autosomal dominant
b. Autosomal recessive
c. Sex-linked dominant
d. Sex-linked recessive
5. In sickle cell anaemia glutamic acid is replaced by valine. Which one of

the following triplets codes for valine?
a. G G G
b. A A G
c. G A A
d. G U G
6. Person having genotype IA IB would show the blood group as AB. This is
because of:
a. Pleiotropy
b. Co-dominance
c. Segregation
d. Incomplete dominance
7. Z Z / ZW type of sex determination is seen in:

a. Platypus
b. Snails
c. Cockroach
d. Peacock
8. A Across between two tall plants resulted in offspring having few dwarf
plants. What would be the genotypes of both the parents?
a. TT and Tt
b. Tt and Tt
c. TT and TT
d. Tt and tt
9. In a dihybrid cross, if you get 9:3:3:1 ratio it denotes that:

a. The allels of two genes are interacting with each other
b. It is a multigenic inheritance
c. It is a case of multiple allelism
d. The allels of two genes are segregating independently.
10. Which of the following will not result in variations among siblings?
a. Independent assortment of genes
b. Crossing over
c. Linkage
d. Mutation
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11. Mendel’s Law of independent assortment holds good for genes situated
on the:
a. non-homologous chromosomes
b. homologous chromosomes
c. extra nuclear genetic element
d. same chromosome
12. Occasionally, a single gene may express more than one effect. The
phenomenon is called:
a. multiple allelism
b. mosaicism
c. pleiotropy
d. polygeny
13. In a certain taxon of insects some have 17 chromosomes and the others
have 18 chromosomes. The 17 and 18 chromosome-bearing organisms
are:
a. males and females, respectively
b. females and males, respectively
c. all males
d. all females
14. The inheritance pattern of a gene over generations among humans is

studied by the pedigree analysis. Character studied in the pedigree
analysis is equivalent to:
a. quantitative trait
b. Mendelian trait
c. polygenic trait
d. maternal trait
15. It is said that Mendel proposed that the factor controlling any character
is discrete and independent. This proposition was based on the:
a. results of F3 generation of a cross.
b. observations that the offspring of a cross made between the plants
having two contrasting characters shows only one character
without any blending.
c. self pollination of F1 offsprings
d. cross pollination of parental generations
16. Two genes ‘A’ and ‘B’ are linked. In a dihybrid cross involving these two
genes, the F1 heterozygote is crossed with homozygous recessive parental
type (aa bb). What would be the ratio of offspring in the next generation?
a. 1 : 1 : 1: 1
b. 9:3:3:1
c. 3:1
d. 1:1
17. In the F2 generation of a Mendelian dihybrid cross the number of

phenotypes and genotypes are:
a. phenotypes - 4; genotypes - 16
b. phenotypes - 9; genotypes - 4
c. phenotypes - 4; genotypes - 8
d. phenotypes - 4; genotypes - 9
18. Mother and father of a person with ‘O’ blood group have ‘A’ and ‘B’ blood
group respectively. What would be the genotype of both mother and
father?
a. Mother is homozygous for ‘A’ blood group and father is
heterozygous for ‘B’
b. Mother is heterozygous for ‘A’ blood group and father is
homozygous for ‘B’
c. Both mother and father are heterozygous for ‘A’ and ‘B’ blood
group, respectively
d. Both mother and father are homozygous for ‘A’ and ‘B’ blood group,
respectively
1. What is the cross between the progeny of F1 and the homozygous

recessive parent called? How is it useful?
2. Do you think Mendel’s laws of inheritance would have been different if

the characters that he chose were located on the same chromosome.
3. Enlist the steps of controlled cross pollination. Would emasculation be

needed in a cucurbit plant? Give reasons for your answer.
4. A person has to perform crosses for the purpose of studying inheritance

of a few traits / characters. What should be the criteria for selecting the
organisms?
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5. The pedigree chart given below shows a particular trait which is absent
in parents but present in the next generatoin irrespective of sexes. Draw
your conclusion on the basis of the pedigree.
6. In order to obtain the F1 generation Mendel pollinated a pure-breeding

tall plant with a pure breeding dwarf plant. But for getting the F2
generation, he simply self-pollinated the tall F1 plants. Why?
7. “Genes contain the information that is required to express a particular

trait.” Explain.
8. How are alleles of particular gene differ from each other? Explain its
significance.
9. In a monohybrid cross of plants with red and white flowered plants,

Mendel got only red flowered plants. On self-pollinating these F1 plants
got both red and white flowered plants in 3:1 ratio. Explain the basis
of using RR and rr symbols to represent the genotype of plants of
parental generation.
10. For the expression of traits genes provide only the potentiality and the
environment provides the opportunity. Comment on the veracity of the
statement.
11. A, B, D are three independently assorting genes with their recessive alleles
a, b, d, respectively. A cross was made between individuals of Aa bb DD
genotype with aa bb dd. Find out the type of genotypes of the offspring
produced.
12. In our society a woman is often blamed for not bearing male child. Do
you think it is right? Justify.
13. Discuss the genetic basis of wrinkled phenotype of pea seed.
14. Even if a character shows multiple allelism, an individual will only have
two alleles for that character. Why?
15. How does a mutagen induce mutation? Explain with example.
1. In a Mendelian monohybrid cross, the F2 generation shows identical

genotypic and phenotypic ratios. What does it tell us about the nature
of alleles involved? Justify your answer.
2. Can a child have blood group O if his parents have blood group ‘A’ and
‘B’. Explain.
3. What is Down’s syndrome? Give its symptoms and cause. Why is it that
the chances of having a child with Down’s syndrome increases if the age
of the mother exceeds forty years?
4. How was it concluded that genes are located on chromosomes?
5. A plant with red flowers was crossed with another plant with yellow
flowers. If F1 showed all flowers orange in colour, explain the inheritance.
6. What are the characteristic features of a true-breeding line?
7. In peas, tallness is dominant over dwarfness, and red colour of flowers

is dominant over the white colour. When a tall plant bearing red flowers
was pollinated with a dwarf plant bearing white flowers, the different
phenotypic groups were obtained in the progeny in numbers mentioned
against them:
Tall, Red = 138

Tall, White = 132
Dwarf, Red = 136
Dwarf, White = 128
Mention the genotypes of the two parents and of the four offspring types.
8. Why is the frequency of red-green colour blindness is many times higher

in males than that in the females?
9. If a father and son are both defective in red-green colour vision, is it
likely that the son inherited the trait from his father? Comment.
10. Discuss why Drosophila has been used extensively for genetical studies.
11. How do genes and chromosomes share similarity from the point of view
of genetical studies?
12. What is recombination? Discuss the applications of recombination from
the point of view of genetic engineering.
13. What is artificial selection? Do you think it affects the process of natural
selection? How?
14. With the help of an example differentiate between incomplete dominance

and co-dominance.
15. It is said, that the harmful alleles get eliminated from population over a
period of time, yet sickle cell anaemia is persisting in human population.
Why?
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1. In a plant tallness is dominant over dwarfness and red flower is dominant

over white. Starting with the parents work out a dihybrid cross. What is
standard dihybrid ratio? Do you think the values would deviate if the
two genes in question are interacting with each other?
2. a. In humans, males are heterogametic and females are homogametic.

Explain. Are there any examples where males are homogametic
and females heterogametic?
b. Also describe as to, who determines the sex of an unborn child?
Mention whether temperature has a role in sex determination.
3. A normal visioned woman, whose father is colour blind, marries a normal
visioned man. What would be probability of her sons and daughters to
be colour blind? Explain with the help of a pedigree chart.
4. Discuss in detail the contributions of Morgan and Sturvant in the area

of genetics.
5. Define aneuploidy. How is it different from polyploidy? Describe the

individuals having following chromosomal abnormalities.
a. Trisomy of 21st Chromosome
b. XXY
c. XO
CHAPTER 13
ORGANISMS AND POPULATIONS

1. Autecology is the:
a. Relation of a population to its environment
b. Relation of an individual to its environment
c. Relation of a community to its environment
d. Relation of a biome to its environment
2. Ecotone is:
a. A polluted area
b. The bottom of a lake
c. A zone of transition between two communities
d. A zone of developing community
3. Biosphere is:
a. a component in the ecosystem
b. composed of the plants present in the soil
c. life in the outer space
d. composed of all living organisms present on earth which interact
with the physical environment
4. Ecological niche is:

a. the surface area of the ocean
b. an ecologically adapted zone
c. the physical position and functional role of a species within the
community
d. formed of all plants and animals living at the bottom of a lake
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5. According to Allen’s Rule, the mammals from colder climates have:

a. shorter ears and longer limbs
b. longer ears and shorter limbs
c. longer ears and longer limbs
d. shorter ears and shorter limbs
6. Salt concentration (Salinity) of the sea measured in parts per

thousand is:
a. 10 – 15
b. 30 – 70
c. 0 –5
d. 30 – 35
7. Formation of tropical forests needs mean annual temperature and mean

annual precipitation as:
a. 18 – 25°C and 150 – 400 cm
b. 5 – 15°C and 50 – 100 cm
c. 30 – 50°C and 100 – 150 cm
d. 5 – 15°C and 100 – 200 cm
8. Which of the following forest plants controls the light conditions at the
ground?
a. Lianas and climbers
b. Shrubs
c. Tall trees
d. Herbs
9. What will happen to a well growing herbaceous plant in the forest if it is

transplanted outside the forest in a park?
a. It will grow normally
b. It will grow well because it is planted in the same locality
c. It may not survive because of change in its micro climate
d. It grows very well because the plant gets more sunlight
10. If a population of 50 Paramoecium present in a pool increases to 150

after an hour, what would be the growth rate of population?
a. 50 per hour
b. 200 per hour
c. 5 per hour
d. 100 per hour
11. What would be the per cent growth or birth rate per individual per hour
for the same population mentioned in the previous question
(Question 10)?
a. 100
b. 200
c. 50
d. 150
12. A population has more young individuals compared to the older

individuals. What would be the status of the population after some years?
a. It will decline
b. It will stabilise
c. It will increase
d. It will first decline and then stabilise
13. What parameters are used for tiger census in our country’s national
parks and sanctuaries?
a. Pug marks only
b. Pug marks and faecal pellets
c. Faecal pellets only
d. Actual head counts
14. Which of the following would necessarily decrease the density of a

population in a given habitat?
a. Natality > mortality
b. Immigration > emigration
c. Mortality and emigration
d. Natality and immigration
15. A protozoan reproduces by binary fission. What will be the number of

protozoans in its population after six generations?
a. 128
b. 24
c. 64
d. 32
16. In 2005, for each of the 14 million people present in a country, 0.028
were born and 0.008 died during the year. Using exponential equation,
the number of people present in 2015 is predicted as:
a. 25 millions
b. 17 millions
c. 20 millions
d. 18 millions
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17. Amensalism is an association between two species where:

a. one species is harmed and other is benefitted
b. one species is harmed and other is unaffected
c. one species is benefitted and other is unaffected
d. both the species are harmed.
18. Lichens are the associations of:

a. bacteria and fungus
b. algae and bacterium
c. fungus and algae
d. fungus and virus
19. Which of the following is a partial root parasite?

a. Sandal wood
b. Mistletoe
c. Orobanche
d. Ganoderma
20. Which one of the following organisms reproduces sexually only once in
its life time?
a. Banana plant
b. Mango
c. Tomato
d. Eucalyptus
1. Species that can tolerate narrow range of temperature are called ______.
2. What are Eurythermic species?
3. Species that can tolerate wide range of salinity are called ______.
4. Define stenohaline species.
5. What is the interaction between two species called?
6. What is commensalism?
7. Name the association in which one species produces poisonous

substance or a change in environmental conditions that is harmful to
another species.
8. What is Mycorrhiza?
9. Emergent land plants that can tolerate the salinities of the sea are called.
10. Why do high altitude areas have brighter sunlight and lower temperatures
as compared to the plains?
11. What is homeostasis?
12. Define aestivation.
13. What is diapause and its significance?
14. What would be the growth rate pattern, when the resources are
unlimited?
15. What are the organisms that feed on plant sap and other plant parts
called?
16. What is high altitude sickness? Write its symptoms.
17. Give a suitable example for commensalism.
18. Define ectoparasite and endoparasite and give suitable examples.
19. What is brood parasitism? Explain with the help of an example.
1. Why are coral reefs not found in the regions from west Bengal to Andhra
Pradesh but are found in Tamil Nadu and on the east coast of India?
2. If a fresh water fish is placed in an aquarium containing sea water, will

the fish be able to survive? Explain giving reasons.
3. Why do all the fresh water organisms have contractile vacuoles whereas
majority of marine organisms lack them?
4. Define heliophytes and sciophytes. Name a plant from your locality that
is either heliophyte or sciophyte.
5. Why do submerged plants receive weaker illumination than exposed

floating plants in a lake?
6. In a sea shore, the benthic animals live in sandy, muddy and rocky
substrata and accordingly developed the following adaptations.
a. Burrowing
b. Building cubes
c. Holdfasts / peduncle
Find the suitable substratum against each adaptation.
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7. Categorise the following plants into hydrophytes, halophytes,

mesophytes and xerophytes. Give reasons for your answers.
a. Salvinia
b. Opuntia
c. Rhizophora
d. Mangifera
8. In a pond, we see plants which are free-floating; rooted–submerged;

rooted emergent; rooted with floating leaves. Write the type of plants
against each of them.
Plant Name Type
a. Hydrilla _____________
b. Typha _____________
c. Nymphaea _____________
d. Lemna _____________
e. Vallisnaria _____________
9. The density of a population in a habitat per unit area is measured in

different units. Write the unit of measurement against the following:
a. Bacteria _______________
b. Banyan _______________
c. Deer _______________
d. Fish _______________
10.
3
2
1
a. Label the three tiers 1, 2, 3 given in the above age pyramid.

b. What type of population growth is represented by the above age
pyramid?
11. In an association of two animal species, one is a termite which feeds on

wood and the other is a protozoan Trichonympha present in the gut of
the termite. What type of association they establish?
12. Lianas are vascular plants rooted in the ground and maintain erectness
of their stem by making use of other trees for support. They do not
maintain direct relation with those trees. Discuss the type of association
the lianas have with the trees.
13. Give the scientific names of any two microorganisms inhabiting the
human intestine.
14. What is a tree line?
15. Define ‘zero population growth rate’. Draw a age pyramid for the same.
16. List any four characters that are employed in human population census.
17. Give one example for each of the following types.
a) Migratory animal
b) Camouflaged animal
c) Predator animal
d) Biological control agent
e) Phytophagous animal
f) Chemical defense agent
18. Fill in the blanks
Species A Species B Type of Interaction Example
+ – _______ _______
+ + _______ _______
+ _______ Commensalism _______
19. Observe the set of 4 figures A, B, C and D and, answer the following
questions
i. Which one of the figures shows mutualism?
ii. What kind of association is shown in D?
iii. Name the organisms and the association in C.
iv. What role is the insect performing in B?
Fig. (A) Fig. (B)

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Fig. (C) Fig. (D)
1. Comment on the following figures: 1, 2 and 3:
A, B, C. D, G, P, Q, R, S are species
2. An individual and a population has certain characteristics. Name these

attributes with definitions.
3. The following diagrams are the age pyramids of different populations.

Comment on the status of these populations.
Post reproductive
Reproductive
Pre-reproductive
A B C
4. Comment on the growth curve given below.

Population density (N)
dN = rN K-N
dt K
Time (t)
5. A population of Paramoecium caudatum was grown in a culture

medium. After 5 days the culture medium became overcrowed with
Paramoeium and had depleted nutrients. What will happen to the
population and what type of growth curve will the population attain?
Draw the growth curve.
6. Discuss the various types of positive interactions between species.
7. In an aquarium two herbivorous species of fish are living together and

feeding on phytoplanktons. As per the Gause’s Principle, one of the
species is to be eliminated in due course of time, but both are surviving
well in the aquarium. Give possible reasons.
8. While living in and on the host species, the animal parasite has evolved
certain adaptations. Describe these adaptations with examples.
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9. Do you agree that regional and local variations exist within each biome?
Substantiate your answer with suitable example.
10. Which element is responsible for causing soil salinity? At what

concentration does the soil become saline?
11. Does light factor affect the distribution of organisms? Write a brief note
giving suitable examples of either plants or animals.
12. Give one example for each of the following:

i. Eurythermal plant species _______________
ii. A hot water spring organism _______________
iii. An organism seen in deep ocean trenches _______________
iv. An organism seen in compost pit _______________
v. A parasitic angiosperm _______________
vi. A stenothermal plant species _______________
vii. Soil organism _______________
viii. A benthic animal _______________
ix. Antifreeze compound seen in antarctic fish _______________
x. An organism which can conform _______________

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Points To Remember

Coordination : Process through which two or more organs interact and

Neural Control and Coordination 185

Central neural System Peripheral neural System

Brain Spinal cord Cranial nerve Spinal nerve

Afferent ®bres Tansmit impulse Efferent ®bres Transmit impulse

Somatic neural System Automatic neural system Transmit

186 Biology Class - 11

Neural Control and Coordination 187

Fore brain Mid brain Hind brain

188 Biology Class - 11

Neural Control and Coordination 189

Very Short Answer Questions (1 mark each)

190 Biology Class - 11

(i) Label the parts A and B.

Neural Control and Coordination 191

Very Short Answers (1 mark each)

192 Biology Class - 11

Neural Control and Coordination 193

Parts of Human Eye

Near point or Least distance of distinct vision

The Human Eye and the Colourfur world 1

The Structure of human eye

Myopia (Near sightedness)

2 Science Class - 10 (SA - II)

Hypermetropia (Far sightedness)

The Human Eye and the Colourfur world 3

Presbyopia (Old age Hypermetropia)

4 Science Class - 10 (SA - II)

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

The Human Eye and the Colourfur world 5

1. (a) (i) Increases (ii) Decreases

Refraction through a glass prism

6 Science Class - 10 (SA - II)

The Human Eye and the Colourfur world 7

Total Internal Reflection

Conditions necessary for Internal Reflection

8 Science Class - 10 (SA - II)

Atmospheric Refraction : The refraction by different layers of atmosphere

The Human Eye and the Colourfur world 9

The refractive index of earth’s atmosphere in general increases from top to

(iv) Twinkling of stars

10 Science Class - 10 (SA - II)

The colour of scattered light depends on the size of scat-

• Wavelength of red light is about 1.8 times to that of blue light.

The Human Eye and the Colourfur world 11

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

12 Science Class - 10 (SA - II)

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

The Human Eye and the Colourfur world 13

Interphase : (Resting Phase)

Cell Cycle and Cell Division 85

Cell Cycle and Cell Division 87

 Microtubules from opposite poles of spindle get attached to kinetochores of

them to move towards opposite poles of the cell.

 Cytokinesis follows resulting in the formation of tetrad of cells i.e., 4 haploid

Cell Cycle and Cell Division 89

Very Short Answers (1 mark each)

Cell Cycle and Cell Division 91

14. Mitosis Meiosis

(a) Occurs in Somatic cells (a) Occurs in germ cells