RESTORATIVE DENTISTRY AND COMMUNITY DENTISTRY

Shade AE if the answer is not in the choices given.

1. The ability of the handpiece to withstand lateral pressure on the revolving tool without decreasing its
speed or reducing its cutting efficiency is called:
A. vibration B. torque C. amplitude D. heat production E. pressure

2. Most commonly used modification in an onlay preparation for teeth that exhibit the split-tooth
syndrome:
A. collar preparation C, slot preparation
B. skirt preparation D. facial and lingual surface groove extension

3. The occlusal marginal enamel for an inlay restoration:

A. 30 degrees B. 40 degrees C. 140 degrees D. 90 degrees E. none of these,

4. A retention groove whose length is in a longitudinal plane and in dentin:

A. skirt B. slot C. lock D. collar E. none.

5. A retention groove whose length is in a transverse plane and in dentin:

A. skirt B. slot C. lock D. collar E. none.

6. Why is a matrix for a Class II dental amalgam restoration extended occlusally to the cavity preparation?
A. It serves as a guide to determine the completed restoration.
B. It allows for overfilling the amalgam.
C. It prevents escape of the amalgam during condensation

7. The reduction of which of the following represents the most significant advantage of acid-etch
technique?
A. Microleakage C. Setting shrinkage of the matrix
B. Pulpal irritation D. Coefficient of thermal expansion

8. After the dentist has completed an etching procedure on a Class III composite preparation, the
preparation becomes contaminated with saliva. In response, the dentist should do which of the
following?
A. Blow away the saliva with air, then proceed.
B. Rinse away the saliva with water, dry the preparation, then proceed
C. Wipe away the saliva with a cotton pellet, rinse the preparation with water, dry it with air, then
proceed
D. Rinse away the saliva with water, dry the preparation with air, then repeat the etching
procedure.

9. To ensure better thermal and protective insulation of the pulp during a capping procedure, calcium
hydroxide should be:
A. applied to a thickness of 3.0mm D. placed in all cavity preparations
B. covered with a stronger base E. preceded by application of a cavity varnish
C. preceded by application of a zinc phosphate cement

10. A dentist is preparing tooth #27 for an occlusal amalgam restoration. Once the ideal outline form and
depth have been established, the dentist notice that caries remains on the facial, pulpal and lingual walls
of the preparation. The next step in treatment is to:
A. extend the outline form C. remove the caries with a spoon excavator
B. remove the caries with a larger round bur D. place CAOH over caries

11. A dentist inadvertently sealed a small carious lesion in the occlusal surface of a maxillary first molar.
This would most likely result in:
A. arrested caries C. discoloration of the tooth
B. extension of caries D. increased microleakage

12. A Class II cavity preparation in a primary molar for dental amalgam restoration will not require a
gingival bevel, because the enamel rods in the area incline:
 A. Facially B. Lingually C. gingivally D. occlusally E. vertically

13. Duration of treatment regimens affect patient compliance. The severity of disease perceived by the
patient affects patient compliance.
A. Both statements are true C. The first statement is true, the second is false.
B. Both statements are false D. The first statement is false, the second is true.

14. An evaluation of which of the following represents the most important aspect in shade selection (for the
restoration to match an existing dentition)?
A. Hue B. value C. chroma D. size E. shape

15. Tooth bleaching affects a color change in which of the following tooth parts?
A. Dentin only C. Both dentin and enamel
B. All of the enamel D. Only the surface of enamel

16. Which of the following is the least likely to cause rampant caries in geriatric patients?
A. Poor oral hygiene C. A decreased salivary flow
B. A change in the oral microflora D. The side effects of medication

17. During the preparation of a Class II cavity, which of the following permanent teeth pulp horns will be
the most subject to accidental exposure?
A. Distofacial of a maxillary first molar. C. Distofacial of a mandibular first molar.
B. Facial of a mandibular first premolar. D. Lingual of a mandibular first premolar.

18. A posterior tooth under a heavy occlusal load has cusps undermined with caries. The restorative material
of choice would be:
A. cast gold C. composite resin
B. silver amalgam D. direct filling gold E. both A & B

19. The proper zone of a gas-air blowpipe flame used for melting casting gold alloys is:
A. the reducing zone C. the oxidizing zone
B. the zone closed to the nozzle D. a combination of oxidizing and reducing zone.

20. The rate at which carious destruction of dentin progresses tends to be slower in older adults than in
young persons because of the:
A. change in pH of saliva with aging C. increase in intertubular organic content
B. generalized dentinal sclerosis with aging D. decrease in sugar consumption of older adults.

21. Which of the following is the most effective way to reduce injury to the pulp during a restorative
procedure?
A. Prepare dentin with slow-speed burs.
B. Use anesthetics without vasoconstrictors
C. Minimize dehydration of the dentinal surface.
D. Keep the dentinal surface clean by frequent irrigation.

22. A composite restoration is wider than the diameter of the light tip of the curing unit. In this situation, the
restoration is cured by:
A. moving the tip over the surface for the required time
B. placing the tip stepwise over each area and exposing each area for the required time.
C. Positioning the tip far enough from the surface to illuminate the entire surface
D. Centering the tip on the surface and curing the entire restoration from this position.

23. How should the margins of a dental amalgam restoration be trimmed?

A. By carving along the margins with a sharp instrument that rests on the tooth surface.
B. By carving from the restoration to the tooth with a sharp instrument.
C. By carving from the tooth to the restoration with a sharp instrument
D. By burnishing from the tooth to the restoration until the amalgam is trimmed to the margin.

24. The dentist adjusts the shade of a restoration using a complementary color. This procedure will result in
A. increased value B. decreased value C intensified color D. increased translucency
25. In preparing Class I cavity for dental amalgam, the dentist will diverge the mesial and distal walls
toward the occlusal surface. This divergence serves to:
A. Prevent undermining of the marginal ridges.
B. Provide convenience form
C. Resist the forces of mastication
D. Extend the preparation into areas more readily cleansed.

26. Bonding of composite restorative materials to dentin depends on:

A. difunctional coupling agents C. etching with dilute phosphoric acid
B. dehydration of the dentin D. covalent bonding

27. In a Class V amalgam preparation for an incipient lesion, the ideal internal form of the preparation has
which of the following features?
A. The axial wall is flat. C. The mesial and distal walls converge.
B. The occlusal and gingival walls converge D. The axial wall is uniformly deep into dentin.

28. A newly condensed amalgam restoration seems to chip away when being carved. What is the likely
cause of this problem?
A. A low-copper alloy was used.
B. Moisture contamination occurred.
C. The alloy was incompletely wetted with mercury.
D. The amalgam was not condensed with the recommended pressure.
E. The amalgam was condensed after its working time elapsed.

29. The dentist bevels the gingival margins of a gold onlay preparation. This process serves each of the
following, except:
A. to remove loose enamel rods C. to facilitate finishing
B. to minimize marginal opening D. to minimize the need for gingival extension

30. Each of the following is a reason for beveling a preparation for restoration with composite resins,
except:
A. To expose more inorganic tooth structure
B. To increase the surface area of enamel for etching
C. To expose the ends rather than the sides of enamel rods
D. To enhance the enamo-resin marginal seal.

31. Which of the following is most related to the initiation of caries in the elderly?
A. Erosion C. gingival recession
B. Attrition D. a defective restoration

32. What is the major difference between a Class V cavity preparation for amalgam and one for composite
resin by the acid-etch technique?
A. Depth C. convenience form
B. position of retention points D. angulation of the enamel cavosurface margins.

33. The copal resin varnish that is placed in the cavity preparation before the amalgam is condensed
provides:
A. sealing of the margins for the lifetime of the restoration
B. long-term sealing of several years duration
C. short-term sealing of the margins
D. no sealing of the margins

34. Visible light curing units are most hazardous to the

A. Retina B. lens C. cornea D. iris

35. Which of the following is the best methods for evaluating centric occlusion on a newly placed onlay
restoration?
 A. Shim stock C. Patient feedback
B. Articulating paper D. Occlusal indicator wax

36. Which of the following is the most likely postoperative complication of bleaching a tooth that has not
been adequately obturated?
A. Fracture D. Chronic apical periodontitis
B. Discoloration E. External cervical root resorption
C. Acute apical periodontitis

37. For most effective cutting and long usefulness of a tungsten carbide bur, it should be:
A. rotating slowly before contacting the tooth.
B. Rotating rapidly before contacting the tooth.
C. Placed in contact with the tooth before starting
D. Rotating rapidly before entering into the oral cavity.

38. An indispensable factor in the etiology of dental caries is:

A. pH of saliva
B. poor oral hygiene D. malformation of tooth structure
C. salivary amylase activity E. activity of oral microorganisms

39. Which of the following factors contribute the greatest amount of retention to the onlay restoration?
A. near parallel axial wall C. cusp reduction and contrabevels
B. flat pulpal and gingival walls D. proximal cavosurface margin bevels

40. Most detrimental to the strength of a posterior tooth in cavity preparation is an increase in:
A. axial depth C. gingival depth
B. pulpal depth D. faciolingual width E. mesiodistal dimension of the cavity.

41. Which of the following is most related to turbulence of molten gold in the casting process?
A. Venting C. temperature of the ring
B. volume of metal D. placement of sprue E. position of the ring

42. Class V cavities are found in:

A. premolars and molars only
B. proximal surfaces of premolars and molars
C. pits in lingual surfaces of anterior teeth
D. the occlusal 2/3 of facial and lingual surfaces of molars
E. the gingival 1/3 of facial and lingual surfaces of anterior and posterior teeth

43. Streptococcus murtans is considered to be a principal etiologic agent of caries because it produces
organic acids and it:
A. forms a gelatinous matrix C. metabolizes substrate from saliva
B. derives energy from constituents D. lives symbiotically with Lactobacillus acidophilus

44. In a Class III composite preparation, retention should be placed:

A. in the axial wall C. entirely in dentin
B. at the DEJ D. at the expense of facial and lingual walls, but not the axial wall

45. The position of mesial and distal cavity margins in a Ferrier Class V direct filling gold restoration
should be:
A. in an easily cleansable area D. perpendicular to the gingival margins
B. parallel to the long axis of the tooth E. just past the extent of the carious lesions
C. at the respective line angles of the tooth

46. An ion-releasing composite material that reduces secondary caries formation at the margin of a
restoration by inhibiting bacterial growth:
A. ceromers C. flowable composites
B. ormocers D. smart composites E. compomers

47. Thin extensions of facial and lingual proximal margins of an onlay preparation:
 A. Collar B. slot C. locks D. skirts E. coves

48. Contain acidic functional groups that can participate in an acid/base

reaction following polymerization of the resin molecule:
A. composite resin B. compomers C. glass ionomers D. giomers

49. Refers to a laminated restoration using glass ionomer to replace dentin and composite resin to replace
enamel.
A. composite veneers C. sandwich technique
B. labial veneers D. laminates E. none of these.

50. The gingival-to-occlusal divergence of the cavity walls for class II inlay cast metal restoration :
A. 2-3 degrees C. 2-5 degrees
B. 2-4 degrees D. 2-5 degrees E. 3-5 degrees.

51. In determining the caries rate for older adults, an epidemiologist usually uses the DMFT index, because
it can be difficult to ascertain why teeth are missing.
A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related
C. The statement is correct, but the reason is not
D. The statement is not correct, but the reason is accurate
E. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.

52. The following are purposes of fluoride varnish, except;

A. promote mineralization of the tooth C. retard cavity formation
B. reserve the process of cavity formation D. decrease pH level E. none of the above

53. Water irrigation devices in oral health regimens are useful in:
A. eliminating plaque C. diluting bacterial products
B. reducing periodontal pockets D. eliminating gingival inflammation

54. A timed series of service activities requiring physical, human and financial resources to achieve health
policy objectives;
A. Civic action C. outreach program
B. Dental mission D. health program E. public program

55. It describes the chain of superiors from the highest to the lower ranks;
A. Centralization C. scalar principle
B. Span of control D. administration E. autonomy

56. It is today’s design for tomorrow’s action;

A. Planning B. coordination C. objective D. strategy E. action

57. The maximum production with the least coast with available resources;
A. Principle of allocations C. principle of administration
B. Principle of management D. principle of efficiency E. both A & D

58. In conducting health education, it involves 2 or more teachers working cooperatively with certain group
of students on a subject matter.
A. Developmental method C. discussion method
B. Team teaching method D. lecture method E. both A & C

59. Freedom of control from others in matters affecting the quality of work.
A. Autonomy C. authority
B. esprit de corps D. discipline E. projection

60. Nutritional disposal, food establishments, transportation, community education and housing are the
factors under;
A. health related socio-economic factors C. population analysis
B. health status D. health resource analysis E. none of the above
61. Measures taken before the disease occurs to reduce susceptibility;
A. tertiary prevention B. secondary prevention C. primary prevention D. any of the three.

62. Methods of imposing people’s values & judgment of what is important on the raw data;
A. limited resources C. priority determination
B. allocation D. both A & C E. none of these

63. They are involved in the treatment and care of a patient when extensive disease is involved;
A. para-dental professional C. dental hygienists
B. dental assistant D. dental auxiliaries E. all of these.

64. The Magna Carta of Public Health Worker;

A. RA 4419 B. RA 7305 C. RA 7530 D. RA 572 E. none of these

65. “In union there is strength” is the principle of;

A. autonomy C. esprit de corps
B. organization D. dental health E. centralization

66. This model was developed with the specific intention of addressing noncompliance issues in behavior
that results in negative health consequence.
A. Self-care motivational model C. behavioral learning model
B. Contemporary community health model D. Fayol’s model E. none of the above

67. Optimal level of fluoride in drinking water:

A. 7-12ppm B. 0.7-1.2ppm C. 0.07-0.12ppm D. 0.7-12ppm

68. It is the laying down of foundation of the organization by bringing together several leaders to have a
better understanding of the community.
A. Mobilization C. core grouping
B. Training D. area selection E. setting up an organization

69. The following are the physical characteristics of a community, except:

A. size B. location C. gender D. occupational groupings

70. The S for the supportive factor of primary health care program refers to:
A. success of primary health care C. strengthening intersectoral collaboration
B. sanitation of community D. safe water supply

71. It is the adjustment of the fluoride content of a community’s water supply to an optimal level for the
prevention of dental caries.
A. fluoride supplements C. fluoride mouthrinse program
B. school water fluoridation D. none of these E. all of these.

72. It is a set of educational economic and environmental incentives to support behavioral changes that lead
to a better level of health .
A. health promotion C. preventive dentistry
B. public health D. all of these E. none of these.

73. Refers to the measures taken to diagnose a disease that is already present:
A. tertiary prevention C. secondary prevention
B. pathogenesis D. prepathogenesis E. primary prevention

74. Are activities that are aimed at the early diagnosis and prompt treatment of disease in order to prevent
sequelae.
A. tertiary prevention C. secondary prevention
B. pathogenesis D. prepathogenesis E. primary prevention.

75. Detained analysis of the working of the organization:

A. standing order C. organizational chart
B. records D. budgeting E. procedure manual.
76. It is a scientific discipline concerned with the application of statistical method of problems in biology
and medicine:
A. public health C. statistics
B. biostatistics D. sampling E. none of these

77. It is concerned in making estimates, predictions, generalizations, conclusions about a population based
on information from a sample.
A. descriptive statistics C. inferential statistics
B. inscriptive statistics D. differential statistics E. none of these.

78. It is the study of the distribution and frequency of disease and injury in human populations and those
factors making groups susceptible to disease and injury:
A. epidemiology C. descriptive epidemiology
B. dental epidemiology D. experimental epidemiology E. none of these.

79. It is most often used in studies to determine the etiology of a disease:

A. experimental epidemiology C. descriptive epidemiology
B. analytical epidemiology D. epidemiology E. none of these

80. It is commonly used in the area of occupational health hazards:

A. retrospective follow-up studies C. prospective cohort study
B. case control study D. epidemiology E. none of these

81. It measures the acid forming ability of microorganisms present in saliva or oral tissue:
A. dental caries activity C. pH test
B. susceptibility test D. both A & B only E. A & C only

82. Proportion of a population affected with a disease at a given point in time:

A. incidence B. rate C. ratio D. prevalence E. none of these.

83. The T for supportive factor of primary health care program:

A. training and help manpower development
B. treatment of common diseases and injuries
C. both A & B
D. none of these.

84. The CPTIN index assessment is based on the evaluation of specified index teeth for:
A. gingival inflammation C. presence of supra/-subgingival calculus
B. depth of periodontal pockets D. both A & B E. all of the above.

85. An index which use a dichotomous scoring system:

A. CPTIN B. NIDR-GI C. GI D. PI E. none of these.

86. Fluorosis index was formulated by:

A. Greene and Vermillion C. Gayford
B. Dean D. Hussy E. none of them.

87. ART was pioneered in the mid 80’s in:

A. Africa B. Germany C. Thailand D. Zimbabwe E. Pakistan

88. An index that measure the number of surfaces and teeth affected by dental caries:
A. RCI B. GI C. DMF D. UTN E. PI

89. An index that is designed to be repeated following patient oral hygiene education:
A. OHI-S B. PHP-M C. PI D. GI E. none of these.

90. This index assess pockets, bleeding, plaque, retentive factors and periodontal treatment needs:
A. CPTIN B. GI C. PI D. OHI-S E. none of these.
 91. It is a continuing effort to imbibe community life by removing legal and social barriers that impose
segregation to a group of people.
A. Entry into Community C. Community Study
B. Area Selection D. Integration E. both C & D.

92. It is an objective mathematical description of a diagnosis based on carefully determined criteria under s
specified conditions.
A. indices B. prevalence C. incidence D. epidemiology E. none of these.

93. It is used to delineate disease patterns in community.

A. dental epidemiology C. descriptive epidemiology
B. experimental epidemiology D. epidemiology E. none of these.

94. All are under analytical epidemiology, except:

A. cohort study
B. establishes a relationship between a factor and a disease
C. prevalence
D. all of the choices
E. none of these.

95. The effectivity date of the Magna Carta of Public Health workers:
A. April 26, 1992 C. April 17, 1992
B. march 26, 1992 D. March 17, 1992 E. Jan. 28, 1992.

96. The following are the values to be adopted by a public health workers:
A. just C. service to mankind
B. humane D. both A & B E. all of the above.

97. It is commonly used in the area of occupational health hazards:

A. retrospective follow-up studies C. prospective cohort study
B. case control study D. epidemiology E. none of these.

98. Process of putting the plan into operation:

A. implementation C. monitoring
B. evaluation D. revision E. planning.

1. If marginal ridge is severely weakened due to excessive extension into it, the preparation outline
should:
A. include the buccal surface
B. remain unaltered D. not include the proximal surface
C. include the proximal surface E. include the lingual surface

2. Retention form for composite resin restoration is achieved by:

A. etchant
B. adhesion to enamel D. mechanical undercuts
C. adhesion to dentin E. all of these

3. What type of setting reaction is common to all glass ionomer materials?

A. polymerization C. acid-base
B. oxidation-reduction D. all of those mentioned

4. Secondary dentin may be formed:

A. after direct pulp capping is done
B. as a result of trauma during cavity preparation
C. in response to function
D. in response to caries

5. This type of caries usually involves even the mandibular incisors:

A. recurrent caries C. remaining caries
B. acute caries D. none of those mentioned
6. Prophylactic odontotomy is:
A. preparation and restoration after caries has begun
B. a routine procedure on all patients
C. enlargement of small defects which are filled with amalgam as preventive measure
D. reshaping of grooves
E. none of those mentioned.

7. Beveling for inlay preparation serves the following useful purposes:

A. produces a stronger enamel wall
B. permits a marginal seal in slightly undersized castings
C. provides marginal metals more easily burnished and adapted
D. assists in seating gingival margins of inlay
E. all of those mentioned.

8. If gold foil has been exposed to too high a temperature or has been heated too long, it is:
A. workable C. under annealed
B. not brittle D. over annealed E. none of these

9. The binder used in investment powder for casting metals is:

A. silicate C. calcium sulfate dehydrate
B. calcium sulfate hemihydrate D. sodium chloride

10. Good oral hygiene and fluoridation will least protect which of the following?
A. proximal smooth surfaces
B. inaccessible areas D. groove defects
C. facial smooth surfaces E. none of those mentioned

11. A bevel is contraindicated on the cavosurface of a class I dental amalgam cavity preparation.
Which of the following explains why?
A. this type of margin is prone to microleakage
B. the cavosurface bevel makes burnishing more difficult
C. a thin flange of amalgam restorative material might fracture
D. as the tooth undergoes natural attrition, the amalgam margin can abrade

12. The most important consideration for pulp protection in restorative technique is:
A. an adequate protective base
B. complete removal of caries
C. thickness of remaining dentin
D. proper sealing of the remaining dentin

13. If gold has a fineness of 750, it has how many carats?

A. 14 B. 16 C. 18 D. 20 E. 24

14. Which of the following factors is MOST related to the initiation of senile caries?
A. erosion B. attrition C. pulpal fibrosis D. gingival recession

15. Preparation of class I cavity for the reception of amalgam, direct filling gold and gold inlay have in
common:
A. divergence of the buccal and lingual walls occlusally
B. divergence of the mesial and distal walls occlusally
C. convergence of the buccal and lingual walls occlusally
D. undercutting the mesial and distal walls.

16. The advantage of methyl methacrylate unfilled restorative is that:

A. it can be finished smoothly C. it is non-irritating to the pulp
B. it has a low degree of flow D. it has a high degree of wear resistance

17. The term “autopolymerizing” as applied to acrylic restorations would indicate that they are:
A. self-curing
B. heat is required to induce polymerization
C. they are self-curing without heat formation
 D. polymerization shrinkage occurs toward the cavity wall
E. polymerization shrinkage is compensated for by the proper technique of application

18. Extension for prevention is directly related to:

A. removal of unsupported enamel on the proximal surface of a class III cavity prep
B. depth of the axial wall of a class III cavity
C. elimination of all carious dentin beyond the average depth of the pulpal wall of a class I
cavity
D. the outline of the cavity

19.Pin failure may occur in any one of the following five reasons. Which of these failures occur most
frequently with cemented pins?
A. fracture of the dentin
B. failure at the cement-dentin interface
C. fracture of the pin
D. failure at the pin-restorative material interface
E. fracture of the restorative material

20. When utilizing self-threading, friction-locked pins for the retention of amalgam, it is generally
agreed that the pin should extend about equally into the dentin and the alloy. The recommended pin
depth is:
A. 1 mm B. 2 mm C. 3 mm D. 4 mm E. 4.5 mm

21. In the principle of tooth preparation, parallelism of the walls in the preparation is in consideration
of:
A. outline form C. retention form
B. resistance form D. removal of caries E. debridement

22. We can make 2 separate cavities in the occlusal surface of 16 because:

A. of the oblique ridge C. of the marginal ridge
B. of the transverse ridge D. all of the above

23. Aside from initial penetration into the cavity, the round bur is:
A. used for extension C. used for creation of undercuts
B. used for excavation D. a&b E. b&c

24. The components of resin based composites principally responsible for its improved physical
properties is:
A. the resin matrix C. the coupling agent
B. the filler particles D. the modifiers E. all of those mentioned

25. The mercury-alloy ratio in amalgam after condensation should be approximately: a. 3 to 2 b. 5

to 3 c. 8 to 5 d. 1 to 1

26. This refers to deformation of amalgam under load over time:

A. corrosion B. fatigue C. creep D. contraction E. expansion

27. The recommended condensation pressure of amalgam for proper adaptation into the tooth
preparation Is ____ per increment of amalgam
A. 2-4 lbs B. 3-5 lbs C. 4-6 lbs D. 5-7 lbs E. 6-8 lbs

28. The ideal tooth reduction for indirect inlay/ onlay per cusp is:
A. 1-1.5 mm B. 1.5 - 2 mm C. 2-2.5 mm D. 2.5-3 mm E. any of the above

29. The advantage of friction-locked and self-threading pins are: 1. they require no luting agent 2.
they are more retentive than luting pins 3. they require less depth of pin channels than luting
pins 4. they are readily bent after insertion
A. 1,2&3 B. 1,2&4 C. 2,3&4 D. 1,3&4 E. all of those mentioned

30. The best surface finish in a composite restoration is created by:

A. the mylar matrix with no additional finish
B. the 12-fluted finishing bur D. the lubricated cuttle disks
 C. the silica grit disks E. finishing strips

31. Acid etching procedures with a resin system help in: 1. retaining the resin 2. improving the color
matching 3. preventing thermal exchange 4. preventing microleakage 5. providing a clean
enamel surface
A. 1.2.3 B.1.3.5 C. 1,4,5 D. 2,4,5 E. all of those mentioned

32. The following are causes of diastemas between teeth, except:

A. heredity C. prominent labial frenum
B. periodontal disease D. tongue thrusting E. none of those mentioned

33. The golden proportion or Euclid's element states that a smile, when viewed from the front is
considered to be esthetically pleasing if each tooth in that smile (starting from the midline) is
approximately___ of the size of the tooth immediately mesial to it.
A. 30 % B. 40% C. 50% D. 60% E. 70%

34. To create the illusion of narrowness, the mesiofacial and distofacial line angles and
developmental depressions on labial surfaces of maxillary anteriors are placed:
A. farther apart C. at the midline
B. closer together D. all of these E. none of the choices

35. The most commonly used type of grasp in holding hand instruments is:
A. pen grasp C. modified pen grasp
B. palm and thumb grasp D. modified palm and thumb grasp

36. It provides a means of artistic expression that feeds on creativity and imagination which improve
self-image and enhance self-esteem of patients.
A. esthetics B. tooth preparation C. restoration D. none of those mentioned

37. Non-carious tooth damages include the following, except:

A. caries B. attrition C. abrasion D. abfraction E. fractures

38. This damage to the tooth results from trauma:

A. caries B. attrition C. abrasion D. fractures E. abfraction

39. Indicated preparation design for root surface caries (non-enamel areas) and moderated to large
classes I and II restoration:
A. bevelled conventional C. conventional design
B. modified preparation D. box only E. slot preparation

40. The radiographic appearance of a proximal carious lesion is:

A. larger than the actual lesion
B. smaller than the actual lesion
C. an accurate reproduction of the size of the lesion
D. variable depending upon the exposure time and development process.

41. The second number in a three-number instrument formula is:

A. the blade width C. the blade angle
B. the blade length D. cutting edge angle E. none of those mentioned

42. Finishing of enamel margins at the gingival cavosurface on a cavity prepared for amalgam is:
A. accomplished by removing all unsupported enamel rods or prism
B. not indicated because of poor tensile strength of amalgam
C. accomplished by creating a steep bevel
D. not required in the gingival area.

43. How many point angles are there in a class II mesiocclusal cavity preparation?
A. 6 B. 8 C. 9 D. 10 E. 11

44. Retention form for composite restoration is achieved by:

A. a chemical bond with the tooth C. mechanical undercuts
B. adhesion to enamel and dentin D. a & b E. b & c
45. Activators of direct filled resins are: 1. tertiary amines 2. bezoin methyl ether 3. benzoyl
peroxide 4. hydroquinone 5. camphorquinone
A. 1 & 2 B. 1, 2, &3 C. 2 & 3 D. 3, 4 &5 E. 4 & 5

46. Condensation time for amalgam should be finished within 4 minutes after trituration because:
A. the final sett takes place within 5 minutes
B. beyond this time, the residual mercury retention is markedly increased
C. the excess will be more easily removed
D. studies indicate that this is the most efficient working time
E. all of these

47. Compared to unfilled resins, composite resins have:

A. less solubility
B. greater color stability D. greater working time
C. greater compresive strength E. smoother surface finish

48. One of the principal advantages of cast gold restoration is its:

A. aesthetic qualities
B. pulp protection because of thermal insulating qualities of the cementing medium
C. ability to inhibit recurrent caries
D. ability to restore anatomic form
E. all of these

49. Extending the cavity margin should:

A. depend on the dentist’s desire
B. continue until all supported enamel has been reduced
C. Meet any lateral spread of caries
D. continue until all carious lesions are removed
E. all of these

50. The interim restoration of choice for placement between completion of the cavity prep and the
seating of an indirect composite inlay restoration is:
A. zinc-oxide eugenol
B. zinc phosphate
C. .polycarboxylate cement
D. an acrylic inlay cemented with non-eugenol cement.

51. A combination of educational, organizational, economic and environmental supports for behavior
conducive to health.
A. health education C. dental health
B. community dentistry D. health promotion E. dental health education

52. The most current approach that emphasize the role of public involvement in identifying individual
and community health problems.
A. behavior learning model
B. self-care motivational model
C. contemporary community health model
D. cognitive model
E. none of the above.

54. State of normality and functional efficiency of the oral cavity in relation to mastication and
maxillofacial complexities.
A. Health C. desirable dental health
B. oral health D. dental health E. good oral health

55. Refers to measures taken to diagnose a disease that is already present.

A. tertiary prevention C. primary prevention
B. secondary prevention D. all of the choices
57. Principles of administration:
I. centralized authority II. Approach III. Esprit de corps
A. I & II B. I & III C. II & III D. I, II & III E. III only

58. Percentage of the population that should retain all the teeth at the age 18 (FDI Global Goals):
A. 25% B. 65% C. 85% D. 50% E. 30%

59. The operator’s distance from the mouth of the patient is:
A. 3-6 inches C. 10-14 inches
B. 6-10 inches D. 16-20 inches E. any of these.

60. Responsible for the hardening of the glass ionomer cement:

II. tartaric acid III. Polymaleic acid
III. polyacrylic acid IV. Itaconic acid
A. I & II B. II & III C. III & IV D. I & III E. II & IV

61. The art and science of preventing disease through organized community efforts:
community health C. public health activity
community oral health program D,. all of the above

62. Nutritional disposal, food establishments, transportation, community education and housing are
the factors under:

A. health-related socio-economic C. population analysis

B. health status D. health resource analsis

63 It refers to the structure of an agency and the way people are arranged into working groups.

A. Management C. organization

B. Administration D. authority E. autonomy

64. Performing observation, interview and surveying:

A. Entry into the community C. Area Selection
B. Community study D. Integration E. C & D

65. An actual participation with the community’s work and social activities:
A. Entry into the community C. Area Selection
B. Community study D. Integration E. C & D

66. The optimal concentration of fluoride for community water depends upon the:
A. proportion of residents who are children
B. temperature of the air D. Both A & B
C. caries rate of the total population E. Both B & C

67. The effectivity date of the Magna Carta of Public Health Workers:
A. April 26, 1992 C. April 17, 1992
B. March 26, 1992 D. March 17, 1992 E. Jan. 28, 1992

68. The children in an elementary school exhibit a high interproximal caries rates. For these children,
which of the following school-based programs will be the most effective?
A. Sealant B. Fluoride mouthrinse C. Brushing and flossing

69. The most accessible restorative care for all population groups:
A. Composite resin Restoration C. ART
B. Dental Amalgam restoration D. both A & B E. both B & C.

70. One of the elements of primary health care.

A. sanitation and safe water supply D. safety and protection
B. security system E. none of the choices
 C. strengthening intersectoral collaboration

71.The following are the conceptual framework of primary health care, except:
A. combination of socio-economic and biological factors
B. training and health manpower development
C. control and prevention of health problems
D. needs for intersectoral linkages
E. none of the above.

72. In this type of community, the natural resources are under developed:
A. mature community C. disorganized community
B. Immature community D. both B & C

73. In determining the caries rate for older adults, an epidemiologist usually uses the DMFT index,
because it can be difficult to ascertain why teeth are missing.
A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related
C. The statement is correct, but the reason is not
D. The statement is not correct, but the reason is accurate
E. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.

74. A timed series of service activities requiring physical, human and financial resources to achieve
health policy objectives;
A. Civic action C. outreach program
B. Dental mission D. health program E. public program

75. It is today’s design for tomorrow’s action;

A. Planning B. coordination C. objective D. strategy E. action

76. The following are purposes of fluoride varnish, except;

A. promote mineralization of the tooth C. retard cavity formation
B. reserve the process of cavity formation D. decrease pH level
E. none of the above

77. Measures taken before the disease occurs to reduce susceptibility;

A. tertiary prevention C. primary prevention
B. secondary prevention D. any of the three.

78. They are involved in the treatment and care of a patient when extensive disease is involved;
A. para-dental professional C. dental hygienists
B. dental assistant D. dental auxiliaries E. all of these.

79. In conducting health education, it involves 2 or more teachers working cooperatively with certain
group of students on a subject matter.
A. Developmental method C. discussion method
B. Team teaching method D. lecture method E. both A & C

79. Nutritional disposal, food establishments, transportation, community education and housing are
the factors under;
A. health related socio-economic factors C. population analysis
B. health status D. health resource analysis

81. It is most often used in studies to determine the etiology of a disease:

A. experimental epidemiology C. descriptive epidemiology
B. analytical epidemiology D. epidemiology
E. none of these

82. It measures the acid forming ability of microorganisms present in saliva or oral tissue:
A. dental caries activity C. pH test
B. susceptibility test D. both A & B only E. A & C only

83. Optimal level of fluoride in drinking water:

 A. 7-12ppm B. 0.7-1.2ppm C. 0.07-0.12ppm D. 0.7-12ppm

84. The following are the physical characteristics of a community, except:

A. size B. location C. gender D. occupational groupings

85. An index which use a dichotomous scoring system:

A. CPTIN B. NIDR-GI C. GI D. PI E. none of these.

87. ART was pioneered in the mid 80’s in:

A. Africa B. Germany C. Thailand D. Zimbabwe E. Pakistan

88. An index that is designed to be repeated following patient oral hygiene education:
A. OHI-S B. PHP-M C. PI D. GI E. none of these.

89. It is a continuing effort to imbibe community life by removing legal and social barriers that impose
segregation to a group of people.
A. Entry into Community C. Community Study
B. Area Selection D. Integration E. both C & D.

90. It is used to delineate disease patterns in community.

A. dental epidemiology C. descriptive epidemiology
B. experimental epidemiology D. epidemiology E. none of these.

91. Lack of planning in community layout is evident in ___community:

A. mature B. immature C. progressive D. organize E. none of these

92. All are under analytical epidemiology, except:

A. cohort study
B. establishes a relationship between a factor and a disease
C. prevalence
D. all of the choices
F. none of these.

93. The following are the values to be adopted by a public health workers:
A. just C. service to mankind
B. humane D. both A & B E. all of the above.

94. Refers to the measures taken to diagnose a disease that is already present:
A. tertiary prevention C. secondary prevention
B. pathogenesis D. prepathogenesis E. primary prevention

For numbers 96-100, use the codes for examination and recording of CPI as your choices..
A. 4 B. 0 C. 2 D. 1 E. 3

96. All black band on the probe visible ( C )

97. Black band on the probe not visible ( A )

98. Healthy ( B )

99. Bleeding ( D )

100. Pocket depth of 4mm ( E )

1. Isolating the proximal enamel is known as:

A. ditching B. pitching C. undercutting D. overcutting

2. Special attention is given to matrix application for the insertion of amalgam in an MO cavity in a
maxillary first premolar because of:
A. length of lingual cusp
B. restoration being on the esthetic zone
C. concavity on the cervical third of the mesial surface of the crown
 D. faciolingual width of the mesial marginal ridge of the tooth

3. Which of the following is the weakest phase of the set amalgam?

A. beta-2 B. gamma C. gamma-1 D. gamma-2

4. Long molecules composed principally of nonmetallic elements that are chemically bonded by
covalent bonds:
A. metals B. ceramics C. polymers D. composites E. none

5. The ideal cavosurface margin for an indirect composite inlay is:

a. less than 90 degrees C. 90 degrees
b. more than 90 degrees D. between 90-100 degrees E. between 80-90
degrees.

6. Indirect composites is superior to porcelain for intracoronal posterior esthetic restorations for
the following reasons, except:
a. decrease polymerization shrinkage D. less wear on opposing tooth structures
b. easier to polish if adjusted E. lower bulk fracture rates
c. better marginal adaptation

7. Butt joint margins are recommended in an indirect composite inlay preparation for the following
reasons, except:
a. beveled margins remove less tooth structures
b. thin beveled margins can break off during sealing
c. beveled margins are more likely to fracture under occlusal force
d. beveled margins are more difficult to prepare in the mouth.
e. Beveled margins are more difficult to finish in the lab.

8. The following are fillers used for composite resins, except:

A. quartz C. amorphous silica
B. fluoride containing fluorosilicates D. aluminum oxide E. barium, strontium

9. Which plaque communities in high concentrations can produce a sufficiently low pH enough to
cause demineralization of teeth?
A. mutans streptococci B. S. sanguis C. lactobacillus D. A. viscosus E. both A & C.

10. Probably the most important organisms in the initiation of enamel caries:
A. mutans streptococci B. S. sanguis C. lactobacillus D. A. viscosus E. both A & C.

11. Most likely organism to initiate root caries:

A. mutans streptococci B. S. sanguis C. lactobacillus D. A. viscosus E. both A & C.

12. Two thirds of enamel has a right angled cavosurface angle and butt joint between amalgam
and tooth surface.
A. Partial bevel B. Long bevel C. Butt joint D. Concave bevel

13. Entire enamel beveled at 70 degree to cavite wall.

A. Partial bevel B. Long bevel C. Butt joint D. Concave bevel

14. Right angled cavosurface angle

A. Partial bevel B. Long bevel C. Butt joint D. Concave bevel

15. One-half of enamel wall at 40 degree to cavity wall.

A. Partial bevel B. Long bevel C. Butt joint D. Concave bevel

16. Cavity varnish functions in which of the following ways in the amalgam restoration?
I, Improves marginal seal
II, Prevents discoloration of dentin
III, Provides thermal protection
IV, Has a direct medicinal benefit to pulpal tissue
V, Prevents acid penetration to the pulp from cements
 A. I & II only B. I, II & V C. I, III, IV & V D. II, III & IV E. all of the choices

17. Which of the following solutions is used to etch enamel when using the acid etch technique
with composite resins?
A. 50% silicophosphoric acid C. 37% phosphoric acid in water
B. 75% phosphoric acid in water D. 25% hydrofluoric acid in a buffer

18. Three essential factors for the initiation of a carious lesion are:
A. bacteria, polysaccharides and enamel
B. bacteria, suitable substrate and susceptible tooth
C. proteolytic bacteria, easily fermentable carbohydrate and susceptible tooth
D. lactobacilli, suitable substrate and dental lamella

19. A marginal ridge wall in a prepared cavity for amalgam is:

A. at right angles to the pulpal floor
B. parallel to the long axis of the tooth
C. at an obtuse angle to the pulpal floor
D. determined by the extent of the fissures of the central groove

20. The distal wall in an MO cavity on a mandibular second premolar is:

A. at right angles to the pulpal floor
B. parallel to the long axis of the tooth
C. at an obtuse angle to the pulpal floor
D. determined by the extent of the fissures of the central groove

21. Have less well-defined margins, tends to be U-shaped in cross section, and progress more
rapidly due to lack of protection from an enamel covering:
A. Smooth surface lesion B. root surface lesion C. pit and fissure lesion D. all of these

22. Regions characterized by alternating phases of high and low mineralization activity:
A. line of Pickerel B. perikymata ridges C. striae of Retzius D. enamel rods

23. Can be observed clinically as intact, but discolored, usually brown or black spots.
A. incipient caries B. arrested caries C. remineralized caries D. both A & C E. both B &
C.

24. This phenomenon proposes that flexure of the tooth at the cervical margin while under load is
responsible for the progressive breakdown of the brittle dental tissues..
A, Erosion B. attrition C. Abrasion D. abfraction E. both B & D

25. In a class 2 prepared cavity for dental amalgam, the facial and lingual proximal walls should be
formed:
A. approximately parallel with each other
B. at right angles to the gingival floor
C. slightly diverging as the walls approach the proximal surface
D. slightly diverging as the walls approach the occlusal surface.

26. The microorganism most commonly associated with root surface caries is:
A. Actinomyces viscosus C. Streptococcus salivarius
B. Streptococcus mutans D. Lactobacillus acidophilus
27. Prevention form of the proximal portion of an incipient class 2 amalgam considers the final
position of the cavosurface margin. The single most controlling factor is:
A. enamel thickness
B. marginal ridge-cavosurface margin
C. gingival extent of caries
D. relationship with the approximating tooth surfaces

28. Retention grooves in the proximal box of a class 2cavity prepared for amalgam should be:
A. elongated and rounded in dentin at facioaxial and linguoaxial line angles extending
from the gingival floor to the axiopulpal line angle
B. sharp and well defined , extending from the gingival floor to the occlusal cavosurface angle
along facial and lingual line angle
 C. sharp and elongated at the DEJ of facial and lingual walls
D. short and rounded at DEJ of facial and lingual walls

29. Pitted amalgam margins in a class 2 amalgam may be caused by:

A. poor cavity preparation C. overcarving the amalgam
B. inadequate lateral condensation D. improper finishing procedure.

30. Used in preparing depth gauge grooves on a cusp that needs capping:
A. # 169L B. # 271 C. flame shaped diamond bur D. paper disc.

31. Capping of cusp/s should be considered for an onlay restoration when:

A. occlusal outline is extended up to the cusp slopes more than ¼ the distance from the
primary
grooves to the cusp tip
B. occlusal outline is extended up to the cusp slopes more than 2/3 the distance from the
primary
grooves to the cusp tip
C. occlusal outline is extended up to the cusp slopes more than ½ the distance from the
primary grooves to the cusp tip
D. occlusal outline is extended up to the cusp slopes more than 1/3 the distance from the
primary grooves to the cusp tip

32. Cast metal restorations are indicated for which of the following conditions?
A. when extension of the mesiodistal dimension of the tooth is necessary to form a contact with
an
adjacent tooth.
B. presence of fracture lines in enamel and dentin
C. large proximo-occlusal caries but the facial and facial tooth surfaces are relatively non-
carious.
D. presence of facial and lingual smooth surface caries in addition to the carious
occlusal
and proximal surfaces.
E, a molar that is treated endodontically.

33. The following are the reasons in preparing the secondary flare for an onlay restorations,
except:
A. extends margins to embrasures making margins more self-cleansing
B. making margins more accessible to finishing procedures
C. conserve enamel
D. direction of flare results to 40-degree marginal metal which is burnishable.
E. a more blunted and stronger enamel is produced
.
34. The amount of gingival-to-occlusal divergence for an unusually short vertical wall for an
inlay/onlay
tooth preparation is
A. maximum of 5 degrees C. minimum of 5 degrees
B. maximum of 2 degrees D. minimum of 2 degrees

35. The following are the advantages of cast metal inlay/onlays, except:
A. higher chair time D. biocompatible to soft tissues
B. high compressive and tensile strength E. low wear
C. control of contours and contact is easy to achieved.

36. The following are indications for cast metal restoration, except:
A. teeth at risk for fracture C. large restorations
B. High caries rate D. endodontically treated tooth
E. diasteama closure & occlusal plane correction

37. The ffg are true about skirt preparations, except:

A. eliminates chances of post restorative fracture
B. primarily an extracoronal restoration
C. prepared in dentin
 D. braces the tooth against forces that might split the tooth
E. satisfy retention and resistance form requirements.

38. This theory suggest that caries results from a shift in the balance of the resident microflora
driven by modifications in local environment conditions.
A. Non specific plaque hypothesis C. Ecological plaque hypothesis
B. Specific plaque hypothesis

39. These are biological factors that act directly on the biofilm:
I. saliva II. Diet III. Lifestyle IV. Fluoride V. socioeconomic status
A. I, II, III & IV B. I,II, III & V C. I, II & IV D. I, II & V E. I, II & III

40. Involves the occlusal and proximal surface/s of a posterior tooth and may cap one or more but
not all the cusps.
A. amalgam restorations C. cast inlay restoration
B. pin-retained restorations D. cast onlay restoration

41. Defined as the total complex formed when pellicle adheres to the tooth surface and becomes
populated with bacteria and their extracecullar products.
A, Plaque B. biofilm C. oral biofilm D. both A & B E. all of them
42. Bur # 557: A. cylindrical plain-cut fissure B. tapered plain-cut fissure C. cylindrical cross-cut
fissure D. tapered dentate fissure E. round-nose fissure bur.

43. Bur # 901 :

A. round bur B. inverted cone C. pear-shaped D. wheel bur E. end-cutting bur.

44. Salivary antibacterial agent that catalyses the oxidation of salivary thiocyanate by hydrogen
peroxide to the toxic molecule hypothiocyanite which inactivates bacterial enzymes.
A, apolactoferrin B. lactoperoxidase C, Lysozyme D. histatins E. lactoferrin

45. Salivary antibacterial agent that inhibit the growth of C. albicans and S. mutans:
A, apolactoferrin B. lactoperoxidase C.Lysozyme D. histatins E. lactoferrin

46. This technique uses two different materials to form one final restoration, with an objective of
making the most of the biological, physical and/or aesthetic properties of each material and, in
the presence of adhesion, to achieve as close as possible to a single monolithic reconstruction
of a tooth.
A, “sandwich” technique C. lamination technique
B. Atraumatic restorative technique D. both A & C

47. Progressive permanent deformation of a set amalgam under load:

A, crevice corrosion B. creep C. crevice fatigue D. thermal expansion

48. It is used to aid in the conceptualization and quantification of the disease status of the
community . A. experimental epidemiology C. descriptive epidemiology
B. analytical epidemiology D. epidemiology

49. A timed series activities requiring physical, human and financial resourced to achieve a health
policy objectives:
A, civic action C. outreach program
B, dental mission D. health program E. public program
50. Importance of community dentistry, except:

A. to cure and manage disease D. principle of efficiency

B. to apply learned principles in dentistry E. to evaluate community dental status

C, to reduce dental caries incidence

51. Choosing a community with no serious peace and order problem:

 A, Entry into the community C. Area Selection
B, Community study D. Integration E. C & D

52. Performing observation, interview and surveying:

A, Entry into the community C. Area Selection
B, Community study D. Integration E. C & D

53. Choosing a modest dwelling individual to enhance integration:

A, Entry into the community C. Area Selection
B, Community study D. Integration E. C & D
54. One of the dimensions of primary health care that tend to help the people to have a healthy
and productive life especially those who are in need.
A, as an approach C. as a structure of the health system
B, as a service D. as a promotion for intersectoral action

55. One of the supportive factors of primary health care program:

A, research C. rehabilitative services
B, resource mobilization D. referrals to treatment E. reduced incidence of diseases
56. In this type of community, social services and agencies are present.
A, mature community C. disorganized community
B, Immature community D. both B & C

57. This includes DMF, periodontal index, prosthetic status, restorative status
A, CPTIN B. Program activities C. Program goals D. Oral health survey

58. The population’s ability to get various health care service centers
A, educational system b. Labor data C. Transportation system
B, socio economic structure D. Health care facilities

59. These are more specific and describe in a measurable way the desired end result of program
activities.
A. process objectives C. Resource identification E. Planning
B. program objectives D. Outcome objectives

60. The followings are the barriers in access to dental care services except;
A. compensated time from work C. Limited outcome D. Lack of
transportation
B. lack of awareness of seriousness to oral health E. Both B and C

61. The following are the criteria in resource identification

A. adequacy and appropriateness C. Manner and attitude
B. effectiveness and efficiency D. Both A and B E. Both A and B

62. To measure the effectiveness of such preventive regimen

A. the planner obtains the profile of the community
B. the planner would make periodic assessment of the school children at various time
intervals
C. the planner selects the best alternative to achieve a desired goal when resources is limited
D. the planner review the attitudes of the children to be surveyed
E. all of the above

63. It provides an overview of caries activity in a population

A. root caries index B. Unmet restorative Needs C. DMF index D. PHP-M E. OHI-S

64. It maybe used both to document and to assist in motivating changes in oral health habits
A. root caries index B. Unmet restorative needs C. DMF index D. PHP-M E. OHI-S

65. The popular index for epidemiologic research

A. Russell’s Periodontal index B. Gingival Index C. NIDR Gingival Index D. CPTIN E.
OHI-S

66. It is a popular index used for gathering and quantifying information about periodontal disease
 A. Russell’s Periodontal Index B. Gingival Index C. NIDR Index D. CPTIN E. OHI-S

67. To measure the effectiveness of such preventive regimen

A. the planner obtains the profile of the community
B. the planner would make periodic assessment of the school children at various time
intervals
C.. the planner selects the best alternative to achieve a desired goal when resources is limited
D. the planner review the attitudes of the children to be surveyed
E.. all of the above

68. People maybe induced to adopt health measures if they perceive a threat, according to a
model of change process theorized by
A. Hoch Baune B. Watson C. Lewin D. Merton
69. Arithmetic mean is called
A, rate B. Average C. Median D Mode E. Range

70. Dental Fluorosis in Agno, Pangasinan and Bacoor , Cavite is

A. Rare B. Endemic C. Epidemic D. Pandemic E.
Spreading

71. Republic Act 3626 in June 22, 1963 is the

A. Generics Law B. Fluoridation law C. Fluoridization law D. Rural health law

72. Dental fluorosis is associated with fluoride content of

A,. 0.45-0.60 ppm B. 1.5-2.0ppm C. 1.0-1.5ppm D. 1.7-1.8 ppm

73. Scientific insights in Dentistry made by Miller in 1881 was called era of the Golden Age of
A. biostatistics B. Bacteriology C. Anatomy D. Chemistry E. History

74. Research begins with the first basic technique of

A, consulting the statistician B. Read literature C. Identification of problem

75. An intelligent prepared estimate of proposed future expenditures of management is :

A. accounting B. auditing C. budgeting D. reporting E.
research

76. The following are the new roles/functions of the Department of Health except;
A. resource management C. research and development
B. school regulation D. standards, licensing, regulations E. policy making &
planning

77. The identification and tracing of the agent of the disease after it has entered or affected the
individual or host
A. ecology B. epidemiology C. biostatistics D. etiology

78. Which of the following best describes epidemic disease?

A. diseases of significantly greater prevalence than normal
B. normal disease prevalence
C. disease occurring over a wide geographic area affecting an exceptional high proportion of
the population
D. disease with insignificant prevalence

79. The principle of organization herein there is a limit in each management position to the number
of persons and individual can effectively manage is;
A. principle of delegation C. scalar principle
B. principle of unity and command D. span of control

80. The following are models of community organization practice except;

A. social planning B. locality development C. social action D. social development
65. Fluorosis on Cavite.
A. creation of the plan C. program planning
B. design of SOP D. problem solving E. none of the above
66. All are criteria in resource identification except:
A. appropriateness B. efficacy C. adequacy D. effectiveness E. efficiency

67. Components of program activities are the ff except:

A. When it will be done? C. Who will be doing it? E. What is going to be done?
B. How it will be done? D. none of the above

68. The program objectives should specify the ff. except:

A. when B. who C. what D. how E. none of the above

69. Implementation process involves the ff. except:

A. individuals B. organizations C. community D. evaluation E. none of the above

70. Evaluation allows us to:

A. measure the progress of the activity C. measure the effectiveness of each activity
B. plan revision D. A & C E. all of the above

71. A program’s success is determined by:

A. implementation B. evaluation C. monitoring D. identifying constraints E. all of the above

72. A decision about a course of action.

A. planning B. organizing C. recording D. implementing E. budgeting

73. It involves the identification and resolution of a problem.

A. program planning C. creation of a plan E. problem solving planning
B. design of SOP D. none of the above

74. This describes selecting the best alternative to achieve a desired goal when the amount of resources is
limited.
A. problem solving C. creation of a plan
B. program planning D. planning for the allocation of resources E. all of the above

75. The planner wants to interview a small group of individuals on their attitudes and feelings about a particular
issue.
A. clinical exam B. personal communication C. data D. questionnaires E. observation

76. The ff. is the personal information on population profile that should be obtained except:
A. ethnic backgrounds C. pattern of distribution of dental caries E. rate of discrimination
B. diet and nutritional levels D. standard of living

77. It indicates the population’s ability to purchase health services.

A. median income of the community C. population breakdown
B. transportation system D. fluoride status E. none of the above

78. The populations’ ability to get to various health care services centers.
A. health care facilities C. labor data E. transportation system
B. educational system D. all of the above

79. It tells whether or not a population might be able to afford dental care through their jobs.
A. labor data C. median income
B. transportation system D. health care facilities E. socio-economic structure

80. Broad statements on the overall purposes of a program to meet a defined problem.
A. program goals C. program objectives E. oral health survey
B. process objectives D. none of the above

81. These are more specific and describe in measurable way the desired end result of program activities
A. outcome objectives C. process objectives E. goals
B. program objectives D. resource identification
82. The steps on how to bring about the desired results.
A. process objectives B. outcome objectives
B. strategies D. program activities E. resource identification

83. The ff. is the criteria in resource identification.

A. adequacy and appropriateness C. effectiveness and efficiency
B. manner and attitudes D. A & B E. A & C

84. The selection of resources for an activity must be determined by consideration of what would be most
effective, adequate for the tasks to be accomplished.
A. resource identification C. organizing
B. program activities D. process objectives E. program activities

85. The ff. are the types of health planning according to the factors affecting the health system.
A. geography of a region C. political situation
B. economic considerations D. all of the above E. none of the above

86. Below are the ff. constraints that are commonly occurring in community dental program.
A. labor shortage C. low income
B. restrictive gov’t policies D. A & B E. B & C

87. This should be considered when the original plan may not be carried out for the attainment of the objectives.
A. alternative strategies C. identifying constraints
B. Strategies D. outcome objectives E. program activities

88. The scope of the planning process are the ff.

A. identifying the problem C. determining priorities
B. defining the goals and objectives D. all of the above E. none of the above

89. It is the process of putting the plan into operation.

A. evaluation C. supervision phase
B. implementation phase D. revision phase E. organizing phase

90. Implementation process involves….

A. funds B. activities C. programs D. all of the above E. none of the above

91. It is necessary and important aspect of the program and addresses the quality of what is being done.
A. evaluation B. implementation C. revision D. planning E. strategy

92. Target groups commonly associated with high risk dental needs.
A. elderly persons B. high income groups C. college students D. dentists E. all of the above

93. A state of specific process by which a public health problem can be reduced and prevented.
A. program activities C. outcome objectives E. process objectives
B. program objectives D. none of the above

94. Factors in which the planner should consider in gathering data.

A. rate of growth C. ethnic background
B. extent and degree of severity of the problem D. all of the above E. none of the above

95. This involves the development of a blueprint or proposal for action containing recommendation and
supporting data.
A. creation of a plan C. problem solving planning E. program planning
B. all of the above D. none of the above

96. This information can assist the planner who is developing a school-based program for the communit
A. educational system C. transportation system
B. fluoride status D. labor data E. none of the above

97. It tells whether the water system has been fluoridated or not.
A. fluoride status C. educational system
B. labor data D. politics of the community E. none of the above

98. One of the rules for implementing strategy development.

A. specify clearly the activity C. funds for the activity
B. effectiveness of the program D. all of the above E. none of the above

99. Evaluation allows us to ……

A. plan revision & modification C. identify the problem
B. measure the progress of the activity D. justify the costs of the program E. all of the above

100. Labor data gives information as to regards to …..

A. number of dentists C. type of practice
B. types of services being provided D. all of the above E. none of the above

31. When doing a Class II amalgam preparation the direction of the buccal and lingual proximal walls in an
occlusal gingival direction is determined by:
A. the direction of the enamel rods.
B. Achieving even access with the adjacent tooth. D. the gingival extension of the preparation.
C. The contour and alignment of the adjacent tooth. E. Meeting the gingival wall creating a sharp angle.

32. Which of the following weakens dental amalgam?

A. Zinc in the alloy C. High condensation pressure
B. Copper in the alloy D. High final mercury content

33. The most common cause of overhangs on a Class II amalgam restoration is

A. improper cavity preparation
B. expansion of the alloy after placement
C. improper contouring and placement of the matrix band and the wedge
D. excessive condensation of amalgam the into proximal segment
E. none of the above

34. In applying a posterior matrix, the lesser circumference of the band should be placed:
A. lingually B. occlusally C. gingivally

35. A wooden wedge is used with a matrix band to

A. make the band taut
B. retract the gingiva D. force the band against the tooth
C. give shape to the restoration E. keep the matrix band retainer away from the gingiva

36. Which of the following is most likely to cause delayed expansion in an amalgam restoration containing
zinc?
A. Heavy condensation C. Overtrituration of the amalgam
B. Excess mercury in the mix D. Contamination by moisture during manipulation

37. The primary reason for polishing an amalgam restoration is to

A. increase esthetics C. remove excess surface mercury
B. reduce surface irregularities D. adapt the amalgam to open cavity margins

38. Rationale given for polishing amalgam in a wet field includes which of the following?
A. Reducing heat C. Removing surface mercury
B. Improving the luster D. Preventing marginal fracture E. Reducing air-borne particulate matter

39. List the following in the proper sequence in restoring a Class lll composite restoration:
1.Rubber dam isolation
2.Tooth preparation
3.Shade selection
4.Bonding and finishing of the restoration
A.1, 2, 3, 4 B.3, 2, 1, 4 C.2, 3, 1, 4 D.3, 1, 2, 4
40. Each of the following determines the outline form for Class III composite restoration EXCEPT one. Which
one is the EXCEPTION?
A. convenience for access B. extension for prevention C. size, shape, and location of caries

41. When restoring a tooth with resin material, acid etching can do all of the following except
A. Increase the surface area
B. Permit chemical bonding between resin and enamel
C. Create surface irregularities in enamel for better mechanical retention of resin.
D. Condition the tooth surface for better wetting.

42. Radio opacity of composite resins is achieved by the addition of

A. Borax C. Small amount of lead and carbon
B. Barium and strontium glasses D. Rare earthmetallic oxides

43. When over drying a cavity prep, which of the following effects will it have on the dentin?
A. decreases bonding strength B. increases bonding strength C. breaks down collagen in dentin

44. Where is recurrent decay most seen in Class II composite?

A. facioproximal B. linguoproximal C. gingivoproximal D. occlusal

45. When doing a casting preparation a base is used to:

A. increase the retention and resistance of the preparation. C. block out undercuts
B. decrease the amount of metal in the final restoration. D. reduce thermal sensitivity. E. 2, 3, & 4

46. The axial walls in an MOD cavity preparation for a cast gold onlay should
A. form acute angles with pulpal wall C. diverge from the gingival walls to the pulpal wall
B. form acute angles with the proximal walls D. converge from the gingival walls to the pulpal wall

47. You do all the following for a composite inlay preparation except
A. divergent internal walls C. retentive grooves and boxes
B. cavosurface margin bevel D. all the margins finished in sound enamel

48. For an onlay preparation, which of the following is the most effective means for verifying adequate occlusal
clearance?
A. wax bite chew-in B. proper depth cuts C. visual inspection D. articulating paper

49. After a wax pattern is formed, the resulting casting will be more accurate if the pattern is
A. invested immediately C. kept at room temperature
B. kept in a refrigerator D. immersed in room-temperature water before investing

50. Which is the most common reason for the failure of a casting to seat?
A. deficient margins B. overextended margin C. proximal contacts D. buccal overcontouring

51. Reason why a planner should conduct a needs assessment.

A. to evaluate the effectiveness of the program C. to obtain a profile of the community
B. to define the problem D. A & C E. all of the above

52. It determines the direction of the program will take.

A. socio-economic structure of the community C. politics of the community
B. median income of the community D. program planning E. none of the above

53. Information relevant to population and community may come from:

A. survey B. observation C. communication D. a & c E. all of the above

54. Number of dentists providing care.

A. politics of the community C. median income of the community
B. labor data D. health care facilities E. none of the above

55. To gather information on a population, a population profile should be obtained. Such profile includes the ff.
except
A. ethnic background C. rate of growth
B. diet and nutritional levels D. all of the above E. none of the above
56. To evaluate the effectiveness of the program, it is accomplished through the ff. except:
A. obtaining baseline information
B. measuring the amount of progress achieved in solving the specific problem
C. investigate surveys that have been done in the past by other organization
D. all of the above
E. none of the above

57. Constraints that are commonly occurring in a community dental program are the ff. except:
A. lack of funds C. labor shortages
B. adequate facilities D. all of the above E. none of the above

58. In the development of program goals and objectives, consider the ff. except:
A. nature of the situation C. scope and magnitude of the situation
B. geographic areas of the program D. all of the above E. none of the above

59. Cost and amount of time expended to complete the job.

A. appropriateness B. effectiveness C. adequacy D. efficiency E. efficacy

60. Describes how the objectives will be accomplished.

A. outcome objectives C. program goal E. program objective
B. procedural objective D. program activities

61. Denotes how capable the resources in completing job.

A. appropriateness B. effectiveness C. adequacy D. efficiency E. efficacy

62. Provide a means by which to quantitatively measure the outcome of the specific objective.
A. outcome objective C. program goals E. program objective
B. procedural objective D. program activities

7. Teeth are frequently hypersensitive to temperature changes following cavity preparation but later show
normal responses to temperature stimulation. This temporary pulpal hypersensitivity is due to
A. chronic pulpitis C. occlusal traumatism
B. trigeminal neuralgia D. hyperemia of the pulp E. formation of secondary dentin

8. The pulp horns most likely to be exposed accidentally in the preparation of a Class II cavity in the maxillary
first molar are the:
A. mesiobuccal and mesiolingual C. distolingual and distobuccal
B. mesiolingual and distolingual D. distobuccal and mesiobuccal

9. Direct pulp capping is indicated when there is

A. a large exposure C. no hemorrhage from the exposure field E. all of the above
B. pain response to cold D. an accidental mechanical exposure in clean, dry

10. The least acidic environment in which demineralization of a tooth can occur has a pH of
A. 9.0 B. 7.0 C. 5.0 D. 3.0 E. 1.0

11. Root surface caries is most likely caused by which of the following microorganisms?
A. Actinomyces viscosus C. Bacteroides gingivalis
B. Streptococcus mutans D. Veillonella alcalescens E. Actinobacillus ctinomycetemcomitans

12. Which of the following describes the microscopic form of the incipient pit and fissure caries in enamel?
A. A cone-shaped lesion with the apex towards the dentinoenamel junction
B. A cone-shaped lesion with apex toward the outer surface
C. A circular-shaped lesion, open at the surface
D. A circular-shaped lesion, appearing along fissures

13. In diagnosing dental caries, the estimated mean time for progression through the tooth enamel is:
A. 3 - 6 months C. 2 - 3 years
B. 6 months – 1 year D. 3 – 4 years E. 4 – 5 years
14. The type of caries that is observed around the edges of restorations is
A. Recurrent caries. B. Rampant caries C. Chronic caries. D. Acute caries.

15. Caries activity can be expected to increase in the mouth of

A. an expectant mother. C. xerostomatic.
B. a lactating mother. D. a rachitic. E. all of the above.

16. Erosion is chemically induced loss of tooth structure. Attrition is the physiologic wear of teeth as a result of
normal tooth to tooth contact.
A. the first statement is true, the second statement is false C. both statements are true
B. the first statement is false, the second statement is true D. both statements are false

17. ______ results from flexure and fatigue of enamel and dentin at a location removed from the point of
loading, resulting in a wedged-shaped cervical lesion.
A. Attrition B. Erosion C. Abrasion D. Abraction

18. Cavities on the incisal edges or the cusp tips of teeth are:
A. Class l B. Class ll C. Class lll D. Class lV E. Class Vl

19. A mesial cavity in a mandibular right second premolar is classified as a:

A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV E. Class V

20. Class V cavities on teeth involve:

A. only the occlusal surface
B. the occlusal surface and at least one proximal surface D. the incisal edge of anterior teeth
C. the proximal surface of anterior teeth E. the gingival third of all teeth

21. Three walls of a cavity preparation meet to form a:

A. line axis B. point axis C. margin D. point angle E. line angle

22. A patient reports a serious allergic reaction to Oil of Cloves. Which of the following cements should be
avoided?
A. BIS-GMA B. glass ionomer C. phosphoric acid D. ethoxybenzoic acid
E. Zinc oxide-eugenol

23. The width of the blade of the 6 ½ - 2 ½ -9 hoe is:

A. .5 B. 1 mm C. 1.5 mm D. 6.5 mm E. .65 mm
24. The operating the distance from the patient's mouth to the eyes of the operator should be approximately:
A. 16" B. 12" C. 24" D. 8"

25. Bevelling of the axiopulpal line angle is always a routine procedure.

A. True B. False

26. A retainerless matrix system designed for any tooth regardless of its circumference.
A. Tofflemire B. Ivory #9 C. Composi-tight D. Pallodent E. Automatrix

27. The occlusal isthmus of an MO dental amalgam restorations is more resistant to fracture if the
A. pulpal depth is 1mm C. axiopulpal line angle is rounded
B. occlusal dovetail is present D. unsupported enamel at the gingivocavosurface margin is planed

28. The axial wall of an occlusolingual amalgam preparation on maxillary molars should be in dentin and
A. parallel to the dentinoenamel junction
B. parallel to the axis of the tooth C.at an acute angle with the pulpal floor

29. Why do you break the contact in a Class II amalgam?

A. to allow matrix band to be placed properly C. to place restoration in self-cleansing area
B. to obtain good contact between adjacent teeth D. to allow instrumentation
75. Method of imposing peoples values and judgments of what is important on the raw data.
A. limited resources B. allocation
C. priority determination D. a & c E. none of the above
76. Sources of information relevant to the population and the community may come from:A. local
state B. federal agencies
C. private organizations D. all of the above E. none of the above

100. The Magna Carta of Public Health workers was approved last:
A. April 26, 1992 B. March 26, 1992
C. April 17, 1992 D. March 17, 1992 E. Jan. 28, 1992

1. Caries activity could well increase DURING PREGNANCY, FOLLOWING RADIATION THERAPY IN
THE HEAD AND NECK REGION, FOLLOWING SERIOUS EMOTIONAL PROBLEM, FOLLOWING
PERIODONTAL PROBLEM

2. The location of teeth in the arch and tooth morphology affects their caries susceptibility.
Those least susceptible to caries attack in the permanent dentiton are MANDIBULAR INCISORS

3. The principal bacterial agent involved in the caries process is STREPTOCOCCUS MUTANS

4. Three factors required for the initiation of dental caries are SUSCEPTIBLE TOOTH,
SUITABLE SUBSTRATE, BACTERIAL ENZYME SYSTEM

5. Fluorides affect the tooth structure in the ff manner to make it more resistant to dental
caries

a. FLUORIDE IONS CHEMICALLY REACT WITH THE HYDROXYAPATITE

CRYSTAL AND REPLACE THE HYDROXYL IONS

b. WHEN TOPICALLY APPLIED, THE FLUORIDE ION ONLY AFFECTS THE OUTER
LAYERS OF ENAMEL

c. FLUORIDE IONS REACT WITH THE APATITE CRYSTAL TO MAKE IT MORE

RESISTANT TO ACID

6. The optimum concentration of fluoride in the community drinking water is considered to be

1PPM

7. Commonly used acid for etching teeth in conjunction with pits and fissure sealant
PHOSPHORIC ACID

8. Bacterial plaque can be most effectively removed from the proximal surfaces of the teeth y
using DENTAL FLOSS

9. Chronic dental caries differ from acute dental caries in that

a. There is greater pigmentation of the lesion

b. The unsupported enamel is usually fractured away

c. There is usually minimal sensitivity

10. Proximal caries typically progresses in a pattern characterized by a double cone or pyramid
as it extends through the enamel and into the dentin. The apices of each cone are DIRECTED
TOWARD THE PULP

11. Bite-wing radiographs are useful diagnostic tool for the detection of PROXIMAL SURFACE
CARIES

12. The characteristic shape of smooth surface carious lesions in enamel relates to DIRECTION OF
THE ENAML RODS

13. If, ff placement of a metallic restoration, the tooth remains sensitive to heat, cold and
pressure after occlusal adjustment, the dentist should REMOVE THE RESTORATION AND PLACE
A SEDATIVE TEMPORARY RESTORATION
14. A spilt tooth could well display which of the ff characteristics

a. NOT VISIBLE RADIOGRAPHICALLY

b. SENSITIVE TO PRESSURE

c. SENSITIVE TO TEMPERATURE CHANGE

d. MILD TO MODERATE PAIN WHICH COMES AND GOES

15. A proper tx sequence would include the ff in what order

a. CONTROL OF PAIN

b. TEMPORIZATION OF DEEP CARIOUS LESIONS

c. COMPLETE DX AND TX PLAN

d. PROPHYLAXIS AND HOME CARE INSTRUCTION

e. RESTORATIONS PLACED

16. The restorative materials considered suitable for restoration of the distal of canine involving
the contact include

a. DIRECT FILLING GOLD

b. AMALGAM

c. GOLD CASTING

17. Pulpal hyperemia results when some form of trauma causes an inflammation. The
characteristics of hyperemia include

a. PAIN OF SHORT DURATION

b. NO RADIOGRAPHIC INDICATION OF PULP PATHOLOGY

c. INCREASED SENSITIVITY TO COLD TEMPERATURE

d. REVERSIBILITY UNDER USUAL CONDITIONS

18. Approximately 1 month ff the placement of a large mesio-occluso-distal amalgam with deep
proximal boxes, the patient experiences definite pain in the region of the tooth. The
probable cause for the pain is AN UNDETECTED EXPOSURE OF A PULP HORN

19. Pain ff the placement of an amalgam restoration is most frequently related to COLD

20. The rotational instrument which leaves the roughest surface on cut tooth structure is a
CROSS CUT FISSURE BUR AT ULTRA SPEED

21. The hazards of using air only as a coolant when cutting at ultra high speed are that it may

a. CAUSE DEHYDRATION

b. CAUSE POTOPERATIVE HYPERSENSITIVITY

c. RESULT IN THE ODONTOBLASTS BECOMING DISORIENTED AND DRAWN INTO

THE DENTINAL TUBULES

23. The 2nd number on those instruments having a 3-number formula indicates the LENGTH OF
THE BLADE IN MILLIMETERS

24. In order to maintain periodontal health the best position for the CSM is
 a. AT THE FREE GINGIVAL CREST

b. OCCLUSAL TO THE FREE GINGIVAL CREST

25. An endodontically treated maxillary 1st permanent molar with a small carious lesion on the
mesial and distal would be restored best by MESIO-OCCLUSO-DISTAL CAST GOLD ONLAY

26. In restoring a endodontically treated maxillary central incisor with an abraded incisal edge
and moderate composite resin on the mesial and distal, the treatment of choice would be
POST-RETAINED PORCELAIN-METAL CROWN

27. The rubber dam, in addition to maintaining a dry field, also serves to RETRACT THE
CHEEKS AND SOFT TISSUE, PROTECT THE OPERATOR AND ASSISTANT, PROTECT
THE PX, IMPROVE ACCESSIBILITY , SAVE TIME

28. If the interdental papillae protrudes from beneath the rubber dam, the likely cause is
PUNCHING THE HOLES TOO CLOSE TOGETHER

29. When applying a rubber dam to control the operating field for a class V restoration that is
located at the cervical line, the dentist should

a. USE A 212 CLAMP FOR GINGIVAL RETRACTION

b. PUNCH THE HOLE FOR THE INVOLVED TOOTH TO THE FACIAL DIRECTION
OF NORMAL ALIGNMENT

30. The most widely utilized current for electrosurgery in dentistry is ELECTROSECTION

31. Retraction cord containing racemic epinephrine has the potential hazard of SYSTEMIC
VASOCONSTRICTION ACTION

32. The chemical tissue packs used for soft tissue management prior to impression taking are
classified as VASOCONSTRICTORS AND VASODILATORS

33. In positioning an assistant so that a right-handed operator is assured of visibility and access
to the field of operation, it is generally agreed that the assistant sit at THE LEFT SIDE OF
THE PX AND SOMEWHAT HIGHER THAT THEE OPERATOR

34. The dental assistant must be comfortably seated on a stool which supports the back and legs
and permits the REST ON A RING OR PLATFORM APPROXIMATELY 4 IN. OFF THE
FLOOR

35. An adverse pulpal reaction is most likely to occur when which of the ff materials is placed
directly into a deep cavity preparation? SILICATE CEMENTS

36. Ff the placement of an amalgam restoration, the px may experience sensitivity as a result of
COLD

37. Ff the placement of a gold onlay in a mandibular 2nd PM, the px experiences hypersensitivity
under chewing pressure only. This indicates PDL involvement

38. When a px experiences a throbbing pain in a specific tooth which is sensitive to pressure and
when the pain is aggrevated by heat and relieved by cold, the most likely dx is
SUPPURATIVE PULPITIS

39. The reduction of cusps tend to decrease RETENTION FORM

40. The form given to a cavity to resist displacement of the restoration in any direction is
RETENTION FORM
41. Those instruments normally used for placing gingival bevels are MARGIN TRIMMERS,
TAPERED CARBIDE BURS, FINE TAPERED DIAMOND STONES

42. A line angle that can be found in a proximoocclusal cavity is the GINGIVOAXIAL LINE ANGLE

43. The outline form of a cavity implies the shape of THE PREPARATION AS IT RELATES TO
THE SURFACE OF THE TOOTH

44. That instrument which creates the roughest cut surface on a tooth is CROSS-CUT FISSURE
BUR AT ULTRA SPEED

45. That form in class III cavities which helps to insure the proper line of force for condensation
of direct filling gold is CONVENIENCE FORM

46. The retention form for a class II amalgam preparation is achieved by FACIAL AND
LINGUAL GROOVES PLACED AT THE AXIAL LINE ANGLE

47. Stainless steel pins are principally used in conjunction with amalgam restorations to enhance
the RETENTION

48. To provide maximum strength in an amalgam restoration, the cavosurface angles should

a. APPROACH A 90 DEGREES ANGLE WITH THE OUTER SURFACE

b. BE SUPPORTED BY SOUND DENTIN

c. BE LOCATED IN AREAS FREE OF OCCLUSAL STRESS

49. In tipping the cusps for a complex amalgam restoration, the cusps should be created 2-3mm

50. Posterior teeth that have been endodontically treated are better restored by a cast gold
onlay because MAXIMUM PROTECTION IS AFFORDED TO THE TOOTH

51. The gingival margin and occlusal cavosurface angles are beveled for a gold inlay ppreparation
because this

a. PROTECTS THE ENAMEL AT THE MARGINS

b. IMPROVES NARGINAL ADAPTATION

c. HELPS TO EVALUATE THE ACCURACY OF THE IMPRESSION

d. IMPROVES HE SEAL OF THE CAVITY

e. FACILITATES FINISHING

52. Gold inlays have improved retention when THE AXIAL LENGTH IN THE CAVITY
PREPARATION IS INCREASED

53. To help insure maximum gingival adaptation of a gold inlay restoration the dentist should
ESTABLISH A PRECISE GINGIVAL CAVOSURFACE BEVEL

54. In the preparation of proximal cavities the gingival extension is influenced by

a. THE NEED TO CREATE ADEQUATE RETENTION FOR A CAST GOLD

RESTORATION

b. THE POSITION OF THE CONTACT AREA

c. THE LOCATION AND EXTENT OF CARIES

55. Retention form is created a class V cavity prepared for direct filling gold at THE
OCCLUSAL AND GINGIVAL AXIAL LINE ANGLES
56. Retention form for a class III cavity prepared from either the labial or lingual approach is
placed in the placed in the INCISAL POINT ANGLE, LINGUOAXIOGINGIVAL POINT
ANGLE, LABIOAXIOGINGIVAL POINT ANGLE

57. Retention form for composite resin restorations is achieved by MECHANICAL UNDERCUTS

58. The margins of a porcelain inlay are fragile and must be considered in the design of a class V
preparation. This is accomplished by PREPARING THE CAVOSURFACE ANGLES TO
APPROXIMATE 90 DEGREES

59. The primary factor in developing the outline form for a composite resin restoration on the
proximal surface of an anterior tooth is THE EXTENT OF CARIES INVOLVEMENT

60. Retention form for composite resin restorations in class III preparations is achieved by
ROUNDED UNDERCUTS AT THE INCISAL AND GINGIVAL POINT ANGLES

61. In class V preparations to receive composite resin the extension is determined by the
EXTENT OF CARIES INVOLVEMENT

62. Preparations for porcelain-bonded-metal restorations should have a BEVELED SHOULDER

ON THE LABIAL SURFACE AND A CHAMFER ON THE LINGUAL SURFACE

63. When compared to a porcelain jacket crown preparation, a tooth prepared for a porcelain-
bonded-to-metal restoration has

a. MORE TOOTH STRUCTURE REMOVED ON THE LABIAL SURFACE

b. LESS TOOTH STRUCTURE REMOVED ON THE LINGUAL SURFACE

64. A commonly used acid solution for etching enamel in conjunction with composite resin
restoration is 50% PHOSPHORIC ACID

65. direct filling resins can be activated by TERTIARY AMINES, BENZOIN METHYL ETHER

66. tin is incorporated into an amalgam alloy for the purpose of REDUCING EXPANSION
AND HARDNESS

67. Most amalgam alloys are comprised of approximately what percentage of silver 70 %

68. In melting gold preparatory to casting, the appropriate zone of the flame to use is THE
REDUCING ZONE SINCE IT PREVENTS OXIDATION AND IS A HIGHER TEMPERATURE
THAN THE OXIDIZING ZONE

69. Hardness and strength are increased in a gold alloy by the addition of COPPER,
PLATINUM

70. Direct filling gold can be supplied in a noncohesive condition by APPLYING SURFACE
CONTAMINANTS

71. Gold foil, mat gold and powdered gold differ from each other by the METHOD OF
FABRICATION

72. Silver amalgam should be considered within 4 min ff trituration because BEYOND THIS
TIME THE RESIDUAL MERCURY RETENTION IS MARKEDLY INCREASED

73. A minimal mercury level for amalgam varies with the brand of alloy used but it falls within
the range of 46-53%

74. When an amalgam is prepared using the minimal mercury technique and compared with a
high-mercury-content technique it is found to

a. HAVE A HIGH 1-HOUR STRENGTH

 b. SET MORE RAPIDLY

c. ELIMINATE THE NEED FOR A SQUEEZE CLOTH

75. The principal reasons for using a wedge in conjunction with a matrix preparatory to
condensing a class II amalgam are to

a. SEPARATE THE TEETH MINIMALLY TO INSURE THE CREATION OF PROPER

CONTACT

b. ADAPT THE MATRIX BAND FIRMLY AGAINST THE TOOTH CERVICAL TO THE
GINGIVAL MARGIN

76. When carving a wax pattern, the occlusal surface should be CARVED TO ESTABLISH A
PROPER OCCLUSAL CONTACT RELATIONSHIP IN CENTRIC AS WELL AS THE
EXCURSIVE MOVEMENTS

77. One of the principal advantages of a cast gold restoration is its ABILITY TO RESTORE
ANATOMIC FORM

78. Asbestos is utilized to line a casting ring in order to PERMIT EXPANSION OF THE MOLD

79. The main reason for placing a cavosurface bevel on an inlay preparation is to FACILITATE
MARGINAL ADAPTATION

80. The amount of force which must be applied in order to compact direct filling gold
adequately is influenced by the angle SURFACE AREEA OF THE CONDENSER POINT

81. During condensation the surface hardness of a direct filling gold INCREASES

82. Compared to unfilled resins, composite resins have GREATER COMPRESSIVE

STRENGTH

83. Metal instruments are contraindicated for use with composite resin because the METAL IS
ABRADED BY THE FILLER AND DISCOLORS THE RESTORATION

84. The best surface finish on a composite resin restoration is created by THE MATRIX
BAND WITH NO ADDITIONAL FINISH

85. One should select the shade for a composite resin utilizing a

a. Bright light b. dry shade guide c. dry tooth isolated by the rubber dam

d. all e. NONE

88. When a metal casting is prepared to receive a porcelain veneer, the interior angles of the area to be
veneered should HAVE ROUNDED INTERIOR ANGLES TO ENHANCE ADAPTATION

89. Calcium hydroxide is regarded as a good pulp capping agent because THE PULP RESPONDS BY FORMING
SECONDARY DENTIN

90. Cavity varnish is desirable under amalgam restorations because IT IMPROVES THE MARGINAL SEAL OF
THE RESTORATION

91. One of the best materials for pulpal selection is ZOE

92. A material which is contraindicated as a base under a resin restoration is ZOE

93. The interim restoration of choice for placement bet completion of the cavity preparation and the seating
of the cast mesio-occluso-distal inlay restoration is AN ACRYLIC ONLAY CEMENTED ON ZOE
94. Interim restoration which will, of necessity, be in the mouth for longer periods of time must take into
consideration

a. pulp response b. occlusion c. contact and contour

d. patient comfort e. ALL

95. An interim dressing cement is condensed down into the pin holes of a pin ledge inlay preparation because
failure to do this will result in a nonretentive temporary

a.NEITHER STATEMENT NOR REASON IS CORRECT

96. Which of the ff relates to the fxnally generated path for occlusal registration STATIC REGISTRATION OF
DYNAMIC OCCLUSION

97. Occlusal correction is PERFORMED AS AN INITIAL AND FINAL PROCEDURE

13. Final set amalgam should contain

A. 20–35% mercury B. 35–45% mercury
B. 45–50% mercury C. 55–65% mercury

14. What is required in order for polymerization of resins to occur when desired?
A. Monomers B. Free radicals C. Fillers D. Polymers

15. The typical polymerization shrinkage of resin composite is:

A. 2–3%. B. 4–5%. C. 6–7%. D. 8–9%

16. The curing of resin composite is inhibited by:

A. Moisture B. Filler C. Calcium hydroxide D. Oxygen.

17. Which of the following is not one of the setting reaction stages of glass ionomer cement?
A. Gelation stage B. Dissolution stage
C. Hardening stage D. Polymerization stage

18. Glass ionomers were first introduced in the:

A. 1950s B. 1960s C. 1970s D. 1980s

19. Which of the following is not a member of the polyalkenoic acid family?
A. Polyacrylic acid B. Polyitaconic acid
C. Polymaleic acid D. Polyacetic acid

20. The metal ion in glass ionomer which has raised concern over neurotoxicity is:
A. Magnesium. B. Aluminum. C. Tin. D. Zinc.

21. The etchant was rinsed with copious water spray. Excess water was aspirated until the dentin surface
presented moist.
A. Only the first statement is true. B. Only the second statement is true.
C. Both statements are true. D. Neither statement is true.

22. Hydrogen peroxide in dentistry ____.

A. has been in use for more than 100 years B. has been found to promote bone healing
C. has no antimicrobial effects D. cannot be used in conjunction with periodontal surgery

23. The carbamide peroxide reaction is defined as follows:

A. Carbamide peroxide degrades into hydrogen peroxide and water.
B. Carbamide peroxide degrades into oxygen and water.
C. Carbamide peroxide degrades into ammonia and carbon dioxide.
D. Carbamide peroxide degrades into hydrogen peroxide and urea.
24. Which of the following is not an intrinsic stain?
A. nicotine staining B. fluorosis C. amalgam staining D. Tetracycline

25. For in-office tooth whitening, _____.

A. heat increases the whitening effect
B. light increases the whitening effect
C. concentration is the only critical factor that determines the degree of whitening
D. contact time and concentration of active ingredients are the critical factors
26. Which ONE of the following is NOT an objective for pulp protection?
A. Adhesion to amalgam D. Chemical protection
B. Mechanical protection E. Thermal protection
C. Pulpal medication

27. Pulpal SENSITIVITY is caused primarily by:

A. Vibration from cavity preparation D. Thermal trauma
B. Electrical trauma E. Fluid flow in tubules
C. Chemical irritation from bacteria

28. FLUID FLOW is detected by:

A. Mechanoreceptors on the edge of the pulp D. Odotontoblastic processes
B. C-axis nerve fibers that penetrate into the tubules E. Fibroblasts
C. Odontoblast cells

29. The DENTIN SMEAR LAYER increases:

A. Chemical adhesion for varnishes D. Mechanical adhesion for liners
B. Thermal insulation for the pulp E. Coverage of tubule openings
C. Formation of reparative dentin

30. What is the typical THICKNESS range for varnishes?

A. 2-5 μm (0.002-0.005 mm) D. 10-50 μm (0.010-0.050 mm)
B. 50-100 μm (0.050-0.100 mm) E. 100-200 μm (0.100-0.200 mm)
C. 200-1000 μm (0.200-1.000 mm)

31. How much tubule coverage is produced by 1 thin coating of varnish?

A. 25% B. 50% C. 75% D. 90% E. 100%

32. Which ONE of the following is FALSE about a cement liner?

A. The setting reaction is accelerated by moisture
B. The liner should be placed in relatively thin layers
C. It has sufficient strength in 6-7 mins to support amalgam condensation
D. It releases constituents for pulpal medication
E. It provides adequate mechanical strength to replace existing dentin

33. Dental materials to be used as BASES should have COMPRESSIVE STRENGTHS of:
A. 1000- 5000 psi [7-35 MPa]
B. 5000-12000 psi [35-80 MPa]
C. 12000-15000 psi [80-100 MPa]
D. 15000-30000 psi [100-200 MPa]
E. 30000-60000 psi [200-400 MPa]