Gomz

CA
INSTITUTIONAL CORRECTION
1. Good Conduct Time Allowance A deduction of sentence given to prisoner in recognition of his good
conduct or good behavior.
2. Municipal prisoner A person convicted and sentenced to serve for not more than six months is
classified as –
3. Reclassification A continuing application of the treatment program.
4. 8 hours A finally convicted able–bodied inmates maybe required to work for at least how many hours
in a day?
5. over 60 years of age An inmate maybe excused from mandatory labor if he or she is...
6. Minimum Security Institution An open institution usually a penal farm or camp
7. England First to use punitive imprisonment
8. Bureau of Corrections A prisoner sentenced for more than three years is under the jurisdiction of the
9. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology Detention prisoners who are awaiting judgment or trial of
their case are under the supervision and control of
10. San Ramon Prison and Penal farm It is an institution intended to detain or house political offenders.
11. Psychologist Intelligence and personality test are administered by-
12. 1:1+1 For security purposes, what is the minimum required ratio in escorting an offender when in
transit?
13. Provincial Government It exercise supervision and control over provincial jails.
14. Reception and Diagnostic Center It insures a more careful selection of the institution in which the
prisoner is to be confined.
15. 1:7 The ideal ratio on escort is ____ prison guard for every ____ number of inmates.
16. Classical School The basis of this old school of penology is the human free-will.
18. To help in reformation of prisoners It is the primary objective of custodial and security division.
19. 3 hours How long is the duration of stay in the viewing of the deceased relative of an inmate?
20. J/INSP A municipal warden must have the minimum rank of.
21. Detention Prisoner A person who is detained for the violation of law or ordinance and has not been
convicted is a
22. National or Insular A person who is sentenced to serve a prison term of over three (3) years is a
_________________.
23. Psychiatrist Clinical services geared toward improving inmates behavior are administered by
24. At least 4 times How many times counting of prisoner be made within 24-hours?
25. 55 days Ideal number of days for proper classification of newly convicted offenders at the RDC?
26. insular prisoners Prisoners whose sentences are more than three years to capital punishment are
considered
27. Detainees Refers to those who are confined in correctional facilities awaiting verdict in their cases
28. RA 6975 The law creating the Bureau of Jail Management and Penology (BJMP) is
29. Industrial An_____ program employs prisoners in various product or good producing tasks.
30. enforce discipline Force is used only by correctional institution to:
31. Superintendent An inmate maybe transferred by the Prison Director upon the recommendation of
the ____ concerned to another prison facility to bring said inmate closer to family or as part of his
rehabilitation program.
32. name of the authority In admission process of the inmates, several procedures will be followed
including the registration of all information of about the inmate. The register shall contain the following
except?
33. Retribution The punishment which affords the society or the individual who was wronged, the
opportunity to impose upon the offender such suitable punishment as may be enforced
34. Exemplary Giving punishment to a person so to serve as an example to others is the theory of
35. 1 year Infant born in prison may be allowed to stay with sentenced serving mother for-
36. Enforce discipline during mass jailbreaks or riots It prison management, force is used only by
correctional institutions or correctional officers in order to,
37. Operation greyhound Operation conducted by the BJMP where a prisoner maybe checked at
anytime.
38. Prison guards Person who are deemed instrumental on the reformation of prisoners due to their
daily contact with inmates?
39. Insular prisoner A person convicted to serve 6 years imprisonment would be classified as what kind
of prisoner?
40. Zebulon Brockway He was the first superintendent of Elmira Reformatory.
41. Special time allowance for loyalty It is given to prisoners who have returned to their places of
confinement within 48 hours after a calamity.
42. Searching One of the following is an admission procedure which involves the frisking of the prisoner.
43. Pennsylvania The features of the prison system were confinement of the prisoners in these is cells
days and night.
44. Release on recognizance Pending the submission of the investigation report, the defendant may be
allowed on temporary liberty through.
45. Department of Justice The Bureau of Corrections which is headed by the Director of Corrections is
under the
47. Provincial prisoner If you have committed a crime and found guilty with it, then the court decided
that you will be serving a sentence of six months and one day. According to your sentence, on what
category of prisoner do you belong?
48. Jail Institution for the confinement of persons who are awaiting final disposition of their criminal
cases and also for the service of those convicted and punished with shorter sentences, usually up to
three years.
49. Auburn Introduces profit margin and religion congregate loan with efficient discipline permitted to
set up factory style working conditions and become the first prison to achieve a profitable work
program.
50. Maximum Security Camp A security camp that houses prisoners whose sentence are 20 years and
above, life termers or those under capital punishment, those with pending cases, those under
disciplinary punishment, those whose cases are on appeal, and those under detention;
51. Prison A correctional institution that has the authority to detain convicted offenders for longer or
extended period of time, including those who are waiting their death sentence.
52. Camp Sampaguita A satellite unit of NBP that houses the Mediums Security Risk prisoner located
near the Reception and Diagnostic Center (RDC) and Youth Rehabilitation Center.
53. Segregation Unit A ___, also called a 'block' or 'isolation cell', used to separate unruly, dangerous, or
vulnerable prisoners from the general population, also sometimes used as punishment.
54. Educational program It is regarded as the most important program that aids in the rehabilitation or
prisoners
55. Colonist Classification of an inmate as to entitlement who has served imprisonment with good
conduct for a period equivalent to 1/5 of the maximum term or of his prison sentence or those who
served 7 years in the case of those who was meted with the penalty of life sentence.
56. “The hill” Elmira Correctional Facility, known otherwise as ___, is a maximum security prison located
in New York in the USA. The prison is located in Chemung County, New York in the City of Elmira.
57. Bastille Prisons Formerly it is a fortress of defense in Paris France and it was a symbol of absolutism
before the French revolution but in 17th century it was converted as prisons on where hundreds of
political prisoners are tortured and died.
58. Jails A correctional institution that has the authority to detain persons awaiting trial or adjudication
or confine convicted offenders for a short period of time.
59. Brown If the color of the maximum Security prisoner is Tangerine, Medium Security Prisoner is Blue,
What color is the uniform for the Minimum Security?
60. Control It involves supervision of prisoners to insure punctual and orderly movement from the
dormitories, place of work, hospital and churches in accordance with the daily schedules.
61. Pennsylvania system It is amendment and penitence model of prison built in 1820’s were
communication among the prisoners was next to impossible, prisoners are individually isolated.
62. Reintegration It is a method whereby a prisoner has been released from correctional facilities either
temporary or absolute to which acceptance of the members of the society is expected.
63. Proselytizing The act of prisoner trying to convert or induce another to change his religious beliefs,
sect or the like to another while under confinement is referred to as
64. Royal Decree of 1865 The decree that formally opened the Old Bilibid Prison which was constructed
as the main penitentiary on Oroquieta Street, Manila and designed to house the prison population of
the country. This prison became known as the “Carcel y Presidio Correccional” and could accommodate
1,127 prisoners.
65. Manuel Montesimos The Director of Prison at Valencia, Spain in 1835 who divided prisoners into
companies and appointed them as petty officers; also, he allowed the reduction of inmate’s sentence by
1/3 for good behavior.
66. Reintegration The idea that re-entry of an offender should be in the mainstream of society rather
than the usual abrupt re-entry at the end of a prison sentence.
73. Checking of commitment papers The procedure in the admission of prisoners the purpose of which
is to make sure that documents contains the signature of the judge or the signature of the clerk of court,
and the seal of the court is termed as:
74. Imprisonment The putting of offenders in prison for the purpose of protecting the public and at the
same time rehabilitating them by requiring the latter to undergo institutional treatment program is
referred to as:
75. Prison Record These refers to information concerning an inmate’s personal circumstances, such as
the offense committed, imposed sentence, criminal case number in the trial, date of the
commencement of the service of sentence and other analogous information.
70. Medium Security Prisoners The prisoners who cannot be trusted in open condition and maybe
allowed to work outside the fence or walls of the penal institution but under guards or escorts are
known as:
71. Daylight The privilege to view the deceased relative is permitted if the wake is in the place within a
radius 30 km by road from the prison, if more than 30 km, the privilege may be extended in the inmate
provided the inmate can return to his place of confinement during_______________ hours of the same
day.
72. Identification The procedure in admitting prisoners which purpose is to insure that the person being
committed is the same as the person being named in the commitment order.
67. Subsidiary imprisonment The imprisonment a convicted offender may serve, at the rate of PhP8.00
a day subject to certain rules, for failure to pay a fine and if ordered to do so by the judgment is referred
to as
68. To allow an observer to observe The Panopticon is a type of prison building designed by English
philosopher Jeremy Bentham in 1785. The concept of the design was derived from the word meaning of
“pan” and “opticon”. “Opticon’ means:
69. 1/5 period of sentence The period of deducted sentence granted to a prisoner who escaped on the
occasion of disorder arising from conflagrations, earthquakes or catastrophe where he voluntarily
surrender within 48 hours following the issuance of a proclamation announcing the termination such
disorder.
76. Protection The society is protected from the further depredations of criminals if they are all
imprisoned immediately after committing a crime”. This justification of penalty is known as
77. Maximum security prisoners This group consists of chronic troublemakers but not as dangerous as
the super security prisoners. They are not allowed to work outside the institution.
78. Medium security prisoners This is group of prisoners who may be allowed to work outside the fence
of the institution under guard escorts. Generally they are employed as agricultural workers.
79. Pennsylvania Prison System What Prison system that is consisted in the solitary confinement of the
prisoners in their own cells day and night where they lived, slept, received religious instruction or read
the bible, and given the work and also known as separate system?
80. Sing Sing Prison Which of the following is a maximum security prison in Ossining, New York, USA? It
is located approximately 30 miles (48 km) North of New York City on the banks of the Hudson River
which the Auburn Prison system was applied
81. PD 29 Which of these authorizes the release of a detainee who has undergone preventive
imprisonment equivalent to the maximum imposable sentence for the offense he is charged with
82. One-third (1/3) of the definite or aggregate prison term In terms of service of sentence of a
prisoner, his case may be reviewed by BPP for possible communication of sentence if he has served:
83. To develop integrated and realistic program for prison The end purpose of classification is –
84. Diversifying The following procedures of admission is undertaken by the staff for every prisoner
entrusted to their custody except:
85. Gulag Prison of Aleksandr Solzhenisyn The infamous gulag prison in Germany was the place where
thousands of Jews were slaughtered during the reign of Adolf Hitler.
85. Super maximum security prisoners The special group of prisoners composed of incorrigibles and
highly dangerous persons are also known as:
87. 30 days prior to release An inmate shall be transferred to a separation center for adjustment
process from life in prison to life in free community within –
88. Pennsylvania Prison Model A prison model which sought penitence (hence the term penitentiaries)
through total individual isolation and silence.
89. David Gilmour Except one, joined the June 1962 Alcatraz escape was a prison escape attempt by
American criminalsusing an inflatable raft.
90. 5 Years How many years of service of sentence for a first time offenders meted with life
imprisonment may be classified as Medium Security.
91. Agreement in writing If the inmate agrees to abide by the same disciplinary rules upon convicted
prisoners, he shall be asked to manifest his
92. Preventive discipline In prison, it is commonly through of a procedure to prevent escapes, riots and
disorders and the punishment of those involved.
93. Negative discipline Is that kind of prisoners discipline applied after an offense has been committed,
in these that may cases, and punishment does not enter.
94. Air conditioners The following personal effect of inmates that can be brought by him into the prison
facilities for common use with other inmates, Except:
95. Auburn prison The systems of prison were the confinement of the prisoners in single cells at night
and congregate work in stop during the day.
96. Penal Management This refers to the manner or practice of managing or controlling the
rehabilitation and reformation of prisoners.
97. Not exceeding 5 minutes Use of telephone of inmate in prison after showing a good behavior is
earned after 90 days. In such case an inmate is entitled to:
98. Walter Crofton Who is the Director of the Irish Prison who introduced the Irish system that modified
the Maconochies Mark System?
99. Auburn Prison Model A prison model where incarcerated persons are allowed to work outside the
institution that houses them.
100. Medium security prisoner Are prisoners who cannot be trusted in open conditions and pose less
danger to society if they escape;
NON-INSTITUTIONAL CORRECTION
1. 72 hours After granting the probation, the probationer must present himself to the probation officer
within;
2. Executive Clem A condition given by the President during his/her birthday.
3. John Augustus A shoemaker and became the father of probation in the U.S
4. Courtesy investigation report Brief of an investigation conducted by probation officer not within the
jurisdiction of the court.
5. Amnesty Executive clemency extended to convicted and persons who have not yet been tried by the
court is
6. Alexander Maconochie Father of parole.
7. John Augustus Father of probation in the United States.
8. Reform Model Forms of executive clemency, EXCEPT
9. Edward Savage He is the first appointed probation officer in the world.
10. Pardon Is an act of grace and a recipient is not entitled to it as a matter of right.
11. Absolute Pardon It is one which if granted wipes away the guilt of the grantee without any condition
attaches to it.
12. Reprieve It is the temporary suspension in the execution of sentence?
13. Probation Judicial disposition after which the defendant after conviction and sentence is released.
14. After conviction Pardon cannot be exercised in what of the following instances except...
15. Supervision The continuing relationship between probation officer and probationer is known as-
16. Commutation Reducing the degree of death penalty inflicted upon the convict.
17. Parole A French word meaning “word of honor”.

18. Probationer A person place on probation?
19. not exempted A recipient of absolute pardon is ________ from civil liability imposed upon him by
the sentence.
20. Right Generally bail is a matter of?
21. John Augustus Coined the word “probation” derived from the latin word “probare”.
22. Treatment For a convicted offender, probation is a form of ________.
23. Edward N. Savage He was held as the 1st probation officer employed by the government.
24. Impeachment Pardon cannot be extended to one of the following instances.
25. Already convicted Pardon is exercised when the person is_______________.
26. Board of pardons and Parole Petition for request for pardon is processed by-
27. Adult Probation Presidential Decree 968 established the _______ System.
28. Indeterminate sentence Refers to the term of imprisonment with no definite duration w/in a
prescribed maximum.
29. Reform model The following are forms of executive clemency, EXCEPT
30. 18 years of age and above The following are offender disqualified under P.D. 968, except.
31. President The pardoning power is exercised by-
32. 60 days The Post Sentence Investigation is submitted by the Probation officer to the court within
33. are qualified to apply for probation Those who have been once on probation under the Probation
Law:
34. DOJ Secretary Under the Indeterminate Sentence Law, who acts as the chairman of the Board of
Pardons and Parole?
35. Pardon It is an act of grace and the recipient of the grace is not entitled to it as a matter of right. It is
discretionary and within the prerogative of the Chief Executive
36. Board of Pardon and Parole It is an administrative arm of the president in the exercise of his
constitutional power to grant executive clemency.
37. Parole The form of conditional release that is granted after a prisoner has served a portion of his
sentence in a correctional
38. Amnesty Pardon includes any crime and exercised by president, while ________ is a blanket pardon
to classes person or communities who may be guilt political offense.
40. Change In probation system’s philosophy and concept, it is stated that the individual has the ability
to _________ and to modify his anti- social behaviour with the right kind of help.
41. Due process of law In the hearing for the violation committed by the probationer, the latter shall
have the right to be informed of the violation charged and to adduce evidence in his favor. This right is
in pursuant to his right to ___?
42. Supervising Probation Officer on case Payment of civil liability to the victim by the probationer shall
be given to the following except the–
45. Parole A conditional release after the prisoner has served part of his sentence in prison.
46. Final discharge of the probationer At this point all civil and criminal liability on the part of the
probationer shall be extinguished.
47. Probation officer Is one who investigates for court referral for probation supervision or one who
supervises a probationer?
48. Parole It is an extension of institutional correction
49. Post Sentence Investigation It serves as the basis in granting probation to qualified applicants.
50. American Probation was 1st introduced in the Philippines during what colonial period?
CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION I
1. It is effected by the use of stocks and pillery, docking stool, branding and shaving off the hair of the offender.
Shaming/Public humiliation
2. By this justification of punishment it resulted in retaliation and unending vendetta between the offender and
the victim.
Retribution
3. An offense committed by a member against another member arouses the condemnation of the whole group
against the offender.
Atonement
4. It believes that punishment gives a lesson to the offender, and that it holds crime commission in check.
Deterrence
5. He advocated the theory that punishment should prevent others from committing like offenses and should be
in the degree of severity enough to deter others.
Becarria
6. A system of trial and punishment which is reformatory in purpose.

Canonical Courts
7. He made the first attempt to explain crime, wherein he noted in his book “Nicomedian Ethics” that
punishment is a means of restoring balance between pleasure and pain.
Aristotle
8. It resulted in class discrimination due to wide use of discretion in imposing penalties.

Judicial Individualization
9. Its main advantage was it was easy to administer and eliminated arbitrary sentence.
Classical School
10. It admits that minors and certain adults are incapable of committing crimes.
Neo-Classical School
11. It gave rise to exemption and mitigation of punishment.

12. Country which first established prison facilities.

United States of America
13. System advocated by the Americans because it is cheaper to maintain.
Auburn System
14. It abolished corporal punishment.
Pennsylvania Reform Law of 1790

15. Its unique features of incarceration were adopted by most European countries.
. Pennsylvania System
16. It is a training school type of institution program, social case work and extensive use of parole.
Elmira Reformatory
17. The first parole was passed in 1837, in:

Massachusetts
18. It was responsible for holding international penal and penitentiary congress every 5 years and was established
in 1875.
IPPC
19. A warden who limits his role to consider policy matters and major problems, his responsibility is centered on:
Decision Making
20. A warden’s responsibility to provide leadership and assign responsibility for selection, training, recruitment
and supervision.
Personnel Program
21. During the primitive days, this punishment was given to criminal offenders by means of flogging, mutilation,
maiming, disfiguration:
Corporal punishment
22. Modern justification for punishment which concludes that society will be best protected if criminal offenders
are rehabilitated.
Reformation
23. People would tend to believe that by putting the offender in prison, society is safeguarded from further
criminal depredation.
Protection
24. He asserted that criminals are not free moral agents, but are products of traits and circumstances.
Garofalo
25. He contributed to the progressive system by dividing prisoners into companies and appointed prisoners as
petty officers in charge and prescribes academic classes of one hour a day for inmates under 20 years of age.
Manuel Montesinos
26. Established agricultural colonies for delinquent boys and his reformation system is based on re-education
rather than force.
Domets of France
27. Chairman of the Director of Irish prisons, he introduced the progressive system which attempted to place the
responsibility for self improvement on the prisoner himself through successive stages.
Sir Walter Crofton
28. He introduced the Elmira, a new institutional program for boys from 16-30 years of age. This system was
based on parole and indeterminate sentence and referred to as the forerunner of modern penology.
ZR Brockway
29. For minimum security institution, the purpose of fencing the surrounding is:
To keep away the civilian population from entering the institution.
30. Inmates placed under a super security facility are considered as:
Incorrigibles/Escape artists/Chronic trouble makers
31. It is regarded as the most important program that aide in the rehabilitation of prisoners.
Educational program
32. Minimum number of times in counting the inmates on a daily basis.

Four
33. Person who are deemed instrumental in the reformation of prisoners due to their daily contact with the
inmates.
Prison guards
34. It is a continuing state of good order.

Discipline
35. It is a relationship in which one endeavors to help another understand and solve his problems of adjustment.
Counseling
36. It is a method of punishment resorted to in extreme cases when lighter penalties are ineffectual.
Solitary Confinement
37. He opened the Borstal prison, considered as one of the best reformatory institutions for young offenders.
Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise
38. It prescribes the means to be utilized in carrying out the treatment programs for convicted criminal offenders.
Admissions summary
39. Utilized as method in searching the prisoner for possession of contrabands inside the prison cells and
compound.
Greyhound operations
40. A person who is sentenced to serve imprisonment for not more than six months.
Municipal prisoner
41. Which among the following is not among the classification of prisoners under Presidential Decree 29?
Detention prisoners
42. What particular country utilized transportation of prisoners?

England
43. It has been noted as the best reform institution for young offenders?
Borstal Institution
44. It is given to prisoners who have returned to their places of confinement within 48 hours after a calamity.
Special time allowance
45. It is an institution originally intended to detain or house political offenders.

San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm
46. A person convicted to serve a sentence of 12 years of imprisonment would be classified as what kind of
prisoner?
National Prisoner
47. It is considered as the highest income earner among the Philippine Correctional Institution.
Davao Penal Colony
48. This states that incarceration should establish in the convicts the will to lead law abiding and self-supporting
lives after their release in prison.
United Nations Standard Minimum Rules for the treatment of prisoners.
49. Nobody can assume the suffering for a crime committed by others.
Personal
50. The most common problem for national penitentiaries.

Excessive number of inmates
51. It is a primitive justification of punishment in the sense that it is in the form of personal vengeance or putting
the law into one's own hand.
Retribution
52. This theory emphasized that punishment has a redemptive purpose.

Judean Christian theory
53. Who among the Italian advocates of the Positive theory wrote the book " Theory of the Imputability and
Denial of the Free will".
Ferri
54. It refers to anything which is against or contrary to the rules and regulation of a prison or jail facility?
Contrabands
55. It is one of the forerunners of modern correctional systems wherein they confine the prisoners in single cells
at night but allow them to work in congregate shops during the day?
Auburn system
56. It enables the prisoner to roam outside the prison for a minimum period per day to make work out
arrangement for his release.
Pre release leave
57. If the scientific method is utilized in segregation, what is the method employed in the diagnosis and treatment
of the convicts?
Casework method.
58. Considered as the most persistent problem in almost all prison facilities which contribute to failure of the
reformation programs.
Idleness
59. All persons in custody shall, before final conviction, be entitled to bail as a matter of______________.
Right
60. The Bureau of Corrections is under the--

Department of Justice
61. Place wherein a newly convicted prisoner is housed for at least a minimum period of five days for the conduct
of medical examination, vaccinations, X-ray to prevent physical contamination.
Quarantine unit
62. An advocate of the classical school of penology who claimed that society must reward those who accept
responsibility and punish those who do not.
Bentham
63. It starts from the admissions report of individual inmates and serves as the basis in granting parole.
Cumulative Case Summary
64. Issued by the court to a correctional facility indicating the basis for the confinement of a prisoner.
Mittimus
65. School of thought advocated by Dr. Lombroso, Ferri and Garofalo.
Italian school
66. Country wherein the last recorded burning at stake was made.
Germany
67. A nation who pioneered banishment as a form of punishment.

England
68. A code which adopted the principle an eye for an eye a tooth for a tooth.
Hammurabi’s code
69. Year when the League of Nations adopted the “Standard Minimum Rules for the Treatment of Prisoners.”
1934
70. Year when the first International Prison Congress was Held in London.
1872
71. It refers to an act of grace of the chief executive which grants general pardon to certain class of offenders, but
requires concurrence of congress.
Amnesty
72. The temporary stay in the execution of the court, ordered by the president verdict to enable review of the
merits of the case.
Reprieve
73. It is a change in the court’s verdict made by the president which lowers the degree of penalty imposed by the
court.
Commutation
74. Suspension of sentence of convict after serving the minimum term of indeterminate penalty without granting
pardon.
Parole
75. It refers to a sentence of imprisonment for the maximum period defined by law subject to the termination by
the parole board at anytime after service of the minimum period.
Indeterminate sentence
76. Deduction to the term of imprisonment due to the convict’s exemplary behavior while in prison.
Good time conduct allowance
77. A law which mandated that offenders as punishment would have served a portion of their sentence in
institutions and thereby released to undergo probation.
Split Sentence Law
78. A method undertaken to allow prisoners opportunity for normal sex life.
Conjugal visit
79. Most common form of sexual perversion in prison and jail facilities.
Homosexuality
80. A writ issued by the court ordering the confinement of person so named in penal institutions.
Commitment order
81. For a maximum security facility how high should the walls be constructed?
18 to 25 feet
82. This type of institution is usually constructed without a fence?

Open Institution
83. What is the main objective of segregation?

Prevention of physical and moral contamination
84. It is the original intention of imposing prison labor?

Punitive
85. It refers to the formulation for the tentative rehabilitation program of the convict.
Treatment Planning
86. It is mainly responsible for the implementation of a prisoner’s treatment program?

Classification committee
87. It is part of the classification wherein the prisoners are examined and tests are administered to check on the
physical and mental condition of the prisoners.
Diagnosis
88. This forerunner of penology considered and made emphasis on physical characteristics as basis for atavism.
Lombroso
89. What country popularized the use of prisons as detention facilities?

90. Credited for introducing the use of jails.

Europeans
91. Its main objective is to prevent unnecessary custodial risk and prevent physical and moral contamination from
one group to another.
Segregation
92. Ideal number of days for an inmate to be placed in the quarantine unit at the Reception and Diagnostic
Center.
5 days
93. Sometimes referred to as Case conference or Guidance conference wherein the tentative formulation of
rehabilitation program is conducted with the inmate concerned.
Staff Conference
94. Calls the attention of inmates for certain misconduct or positive traits manifested while serving sentence.
Behavior report
95. A written report detailing particular inmate and the violations incurred with reference to the rule book.
Misconduct report
96. The most challenging problem that confronts the administrators of penal institution worldwide.
Sex problems
97. A means of social control.

Penalty
98. Group vengeance as a justification for imposition of punishment.

Expiation
99. Primitive punishment of the transgressor carried out trough personal vengeance.
Retribution
100.It paved the way for exempting law violators from their criminal liability by reason of insanity.
M’Naghtan Case (1843)
CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION II
1. The first probation law was passed in the year 1878, in.
Massachusetts
2. The purpose of this meeting is to evaluate the inmate’s readiness for early release.
Pre-parole interview
3. A program specifically planned to prepare the offender prior to his release on parole.
Pre-release treatment
4. When prisoners are used for repair of buildings, roads, bridges and flood control, this type of prison labor is:
Publics Works Systems
5. Products made by prisoners are sold in the open market.

Public Account System
6. Under this system, a contractor supplies raw materials and pays the state for the amount of work or output
produced by the prisoner.
Price-Piece System
7. When a contractor merely engages prison labor and the state retains control of the prisoner, the prison labor
is classified as:
Contract System
8. Ministration of the sick is an important function of the:

Chaplain
9. It provides development and acquisition of skills necessary for successful work in a socially accepted
occupation while in prison.
Vocational training program
10. It provides an environment that will be conducive to the mental and physical development of an inmate.
Recreational program
11. It is an integral part in prisoner’s rehabilitation which serves as an outlet for human expression and a form of
release from one’s inherent desire to create.
Arts and Crafts
12. It helps in the improvement of the prisoner in the cultural and practical aspect of social living.
Library service
13. Which among the following is not a part of an ideal medical service in a prison facility?
None of these
14. A mild form of punishment which is enough deterrence for prisoners with clean record who wants to be
considered for early release.
Counsel and reprimand
15. It is not to be considered as a punishment when used to prevent an inmate from influencing witnesses or of
preventing injury to himself or others.
Solitary confinement
16. It aims to obtain clear case description and social history as well as help in solving immediate family problems
of the inmate.
Casework
17. It provides extensive diagnosis and treatment to discover the cause of a prisoner’s maladjustment and
improve his behavior.
Clinical services
18. Serves primarily as a mechanical release of felt physical tension while in prison for male inmates, it is based on
is self gratification.
Masturbation
19. It provides some opportunities for inmates of a normal sex life.

Conjugal Visit
20. Inmates who have attained the status of __________ is allowed by law to live with their families, it is a
common practice in Sablayan, Iwahig and Davao Prison and Penal Farm.
Trustees/Colonists
21. Referred to as the Law on Working Detention

Act No. 1533
22. Law on prescription of penalty
Act No. 3326
23. Basis for granting good conduct time allowance for inmates.
Act No. 3316
24. Indeterminate Sentence Law

Act No. 4103
25. Empowered by law to exercise supervision over jails by means of standard setting to promote discipline of
inmates and secure reformation and safe custody of prisoners of all classes.
Bureau of Corrections
26. Nature of conditional pardon given to inmates in which the recipient must accept it before it takes effect, and
the pardonee is under obligations to comply imposed therein.
Contract
27. In the practice and procedure of probation, who is considered as the most important person?
Probation officer
28. Unit within the probation office charged with the task of selecting defendants for probation.
Investigation division
29. It pertains to information regarding significant family, personal, economic factors of the offender’s life.
Social history
30. Primary basis in granting parole:

Response with correctional treatment
Progress within the correctional institution
31. Parole although not a form of executive clemency is:

Executive function
32. In the Philippines the members of the Board of Pardon and Parole is
Part time board
33. This is prepared by the prison’s classification committee for the purpose of indicating what is essential for the
best interest of the future parolee and contains an appraisal of the prisoner’s personality and need for
adjustment upon return to society.
Parole Referral Summary
34. It is used by the parole board as a guide in determining the prisoner’s eligibility for parole and preparing his
parole program.
Pre-release Progress Report
35. A parole officer undertakes what particular broad function?

Community protection/Service to individuals
36. This is a method of helping parolees by which the parole office performs referral services.
Executive technique
37. Refers to a formal group or association organized to promote social or individual welfare.
Community agencies
38. A security facility, usually operated by the police for temporary detention of persons held under custodial
investigation.
Lock-up
39. Frank an inmate is unable to sleep and eat while serving his sentence due to loneliness and despair should
undergo:
Counseling
40. RA 4225 created what particular government agency?

Board of Pardon and Parole
41. Maximum term of office for those appointed as members of the Board of Pardon and Parole.
6 years
42. Who is the granting authority in giving probation to qualified petitioners?
Court
43. Under the Indeterminate sentence law, who acts as chairman of the board of pardon and paroles?
DOJ Secretary
44. Minimum period of probation provided for by law.

2 years
45. It refers to the community’s reaction to convicted offenders.

Corrections
46. Under rules and methods employed by probation, what is the maximum number of minor violations that
would result in the revocation of the probation order?
3 violations
47. The merging of supervision of parole and probation is mandated by what particular law?
Executive Order 292
48. Probation is a privilege granted to deserving and qualified petitioners, when does it become a matter of right?
When the convict files a petition for probation
49. Under our laws when will probationer report to his designated probation officer?
Within 72 hours after probation order has been granted
50. A US law which allowed convicts to be gainfully employed during the day while residing in prison.
Huber Law
51. It refers to the continuing relationship between the probationer and the probation officer.
Supervision
52. Before travel of probationer outside the jurisdiction of the City/Provincial Probation Office, application for
court approval should be filed within how many days?
15 days
53. A French and Belgian innovation to probation which requires no supervision on the condition that the
probationer would not commit an offense within a prescribed period.
Sursis
54. Within how many days should the request for outside travel shall be filed by the probationer to the probation
office, prior to the date of his intended departure?
5 days
55. It refers to the note given to police agencies which signifies that the probationer is under the supervision of his
designated probation officer.
Flash Sheet
56. The maximum period of probation when the sentence is not more than one year.
2 years
57. When will the court deny application for probation of a petitioner?
Petitioner can be treated well in an institution
58. When will you close a probation case?

When the termination order is approved
59. Under PD 603, should a juvenile offender become incorrigible during his reformation period; he is brought to
the court for
Pronouncement of judgment
60. It refers to the relation between CPPO and the SPPO and the Probationer.
Administrative supervision
61. The probationer is not exempted from the legal effects of his punishment upon final discharge.
Civil liability
62. The unprecedented achievement of martial law which transported the Philippine corrections toward the
modern system of convict rehabilitation.
Probation Law
63. Probation started in what particular country, in the year 1841?
England
64. Sponsored House Bill 393, “An Act establishing Adult Probation in the Philippines.”
Teodulo C. Natividad
65. A procedure by which prisoners are selected for release on the basis on individual response and progress.
Parole
66. The primary purpose of probation

Welfare of the community
67. Effect of executive Order 292.

Merging Supervision
68. This decree mandated the disqualification of the petitioner’s application for probation is an appeal is
perfected.
PD 1257
69. Created the Board of Pardons and Parole.

Indeterminate Sentence Law
70. The preliminary form filed up by the probationer within 72 hours after the release of his probation order.
Work Sheet
71. It is the supervision undertaken by other probation office which is mot permanent in nature.
Courtesy Supervision
72. Brief of an investigation conducted by probation officer not within the jurisdiction of the court.
Post Sentence Investigation Report
73. It is a continuing state of good order.
Discipline
74. It is the alternative for jail confinement in modern penology

Probation
75. Refers to a mental condition of individuals or groups regarding courage, hope, zeal and confidence in the
present principles and way of life.
Moral
76. In determining whether a petitioner may be placed on probation the court shall consider information relative
to which of the following?
Character
Antecedents/environment
Mental/physical condition of the offender
77. For a convicted offender, probation is a form of _________.

Treatment
78. The law that suspends the sentence of minor offenders whose ages ranges from (9) years to under (18) years
and places them in rehabilitation centers.
PD 603
79. When shall probation order take effect?

Three days after issuance
80. Mainly responsible for the implementation of a prisoners treatment program?

Classification Committee
81. Under Art. 8. Sec. 10, par (b) of the Philippine Constitution, pardoning power is vested with the:
Chief executive
82. It refers to a disposition after which the defendant after conviction and sentence is released, subject to the
conditions imposed by the court.
Probation
83. Regarded as the father of Philippine Probation.
84. Signed into law R.A. 968, an Act establishing Probation in the Philippines.
Ferdinand E. Marcos
85. He was referred to as the father of English Probation.

Matthew Devenport Hill
86. A Boston shoe maker who advocated in behalf of alcoholics and youthful offenders and known as the father of
probation.
John Augustus
87. In the year 1887, this former Boston Chief of Police was appointed as the first probation officer in the whole
world.
Edward Savage
88. What particular law established probation in the Philippines for the first time?
RA 4221
89. Formerly, pardon was applied to a member of the ________, who committed crimes and occasionally to those
convicted of offenses against the monarchy.
Royal family
90. Celebrated case which paved the way for the abolition of the first probation law.
People Vs. Vera, 37 O.G. 164
91. Historic signing of PD 968 which transported Philippine Criminal Justice system to the 20th century.
July 24, 1976
92. Within how many days after verdict must a petitioner file his application for probation?
15 days
93. Maximum number of probationers under supervision of a probation aide?

5
94. Maximum period of probation for a person convicted to suffer prision correctional.
6 years
95. It serves as the basis in granting probation for qualified petitioners.

Post Sentence investigation Report
96. Minimum number of days given to probation officers in accomplishing PSIR.

60 days
97. After receiving the PSIR, within how many days must a judge decide whether to grant or deny probation?
15 days
98. It refers to a person placed under probation.

Probationer
99. It refers to a suspension of sentence after which the convict is released upon serving the minimum sentence
imposed by law and subject to his good behavior and positive reaction to rehabilitation programs.
Parole
100.A person placed under probation for the maximum period imposed by law would have to report to his
probation officer how many times per month?
More than twice
CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION I
101.It is effected by the use of stocks and pillery, docking stool, branding and shaving off the hair of the offender.
Shaming/Public humiliation
102.By this justification of punishment it resulted in retaliation and unending vendetta between the offender and
the victim.
Retribution
103.An offense committed by a member against another member arouses the condemnation of the whole group
against the offender.
Atonement
104.It believes that punishment gives a lesson to the offender, and that it holds crime commission in check.
Deterrence
105.He advocated the theory that punishment should prevent others from committing like offenses and should be
in the degree of severity enough to deter others.
Becarria
106.A system of trial and punishment which is reformatory in purpose.

Canonical Courts
107.He made the first attempt to explain crime, wherein he noted in his book “Nicomedian Ethics” that
punishment is a means of restoring balance between pleasure and pain.
Aristotle
108.It resulted in class discrimination due to wide use of discretion in imposing penalties.
Judicial Individualization
109.Its main advantage was it was easy to administer and eliminated arbitrary sentence.
Classical School
110.It admits that minors and certain adults are incapable of committing crimes.
111.It gave rise to exemption and mitigation of punishment.

112.Country which first established prison facilities.

113.System advocated by the Americans because it is cheaper to maintain.
Auburn System
114.It abolished corporal punishment.
Pennsylvania Reform Law of 1790
115.Its unique features of incarceration were adopted by most European countries.

. Pennsylvania System
116.It is a training school type of institution program, social case work and extensive use of parole.
Elmira Reformatory
117.The first parole was passed in 1837, in:

Massachusetts
118.It was responsible for holding international penal and penitentiary congress every 5 years and was established
in 1875.
IPPC
119.A warden who limits his role to consider policy matters and major problems, his responsibility is centered on:
Decision Making
120.A warden’s responsibility to provide leadership and assign responsibility for selection, training, recruitment
and supervision.
Personnel Program
121.During the primitive days, this punishment was given to criminal offenders by means of flogging, mutilation,
maiming, disfiguration:
Corporal punishment
122.Modern justification for punishment which concludes that society will be best protected if criminal offenders
are rehabilitated.
Reformation
123.People would tend to believe that by putting the offender in prison, society is safeguarded from further
criminal depredation.
Protection
124.He asserted that criminals are not free moral agents, but are products of traits and circumstances.
Garofalo
125.He contributed to the progressive system by dividing prisoners into companies and appointed prisoners as
petty officers in charge and prescribes academic classes of one hour a day for inmates under 20 years of age.
Manuel Montesinos
126.Established agricultural colonies for delinquent boys and his reformation system is based on re-education
rather than force.
Domets of France
127.Chairman of the Director of Irish prisons, he introduced the progressive system which attempted to place the
responsibility for self improvement on the prisoner himself through successive stages.
Sir Walter Crofton
128.He introduced the Elmira, a new institutional program for boys from 16-30 years of age. This system was
based on parole and indeterminate sentence and referred to as the forerunner of modern penology.
ZR Brockway
129.For minimum security institution, the purpose of fencing the surrounding is:
To keep away the civilian population from entering the institution.
130.Inmates placed under a super security facility are considered as:
Incorrigibles/Escape artists/Chronic trouble makers
131.It is regarded as the most important program that aide in the rehabilitation of prisoners.
Educational program
132.Minimum number of times in counting the inmates on a daily basis.

Four
133.Person who are deemed instrumental in the reformation of prisoners due to their daily contact with the
inmates.
Prison guards
134.It is a continuing state of good order.

Discipline
135.It is a relationship in which one endeavors to help another understand and solve his problems of adjustment.
Counseling
136.It is a method of punishment resorted to in extreme cases when lighter penalties are ineffectual.
Solitary Confinement
137.He opened the Borstal prison, considered as one of the best reformatory institutions for young offenders.
Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise
138.It prescribes the means to be utilized in carrying out the treatment programs for convicted criminal offenders.
Admissions summary
139.Utilized as method in searching the prisoner for possession of contrabands inside the prison cells and
compound.
Greyhound operations
140.A person who is sentenced to serve imprisonment for not more than six months.
Municipal prisoner
141.Which among the following is not among the classification of prisoners under Presidential Decree 29?
Detention prisoners
142.What particular country utilized transportation of prisoners?

England
143.It has been noted as the best reform institution for young offenders?
Borstal Institution
144.It is given to prisoners who have returned to their places of confinement within 48 hours after a calamity.
Special time allowance
145.It is an institution originally intended to detain or house political offenders.

San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm
146.A person convicted to serve a sentence of 12 years of imprisonment would be classified as what kind of
prisoner?
National Prisoner
147.It is considered as the highest income earner among the Philippine Correctional Institution.
Davao Penal Colony
148.This states that incarceration should establish in the convicts the will to lead law abiding and self-supporting
lives after their release in prison.
United Nations Standard Minimum Rules for the treatment of prisoners.
149.Nobody can assume the suffering for a crime committed by others.

Personal
150.The most common problem for national penitentiaries.

Excessive number of inmates
151.It is a primitive justification of punishment in the sense that it is in the form of personal vengeance or putting
the law into one's own hand.
Retribution
152.This theory emphasized that punishment has a redemptive purpose.

Judean Christian theory
153.Who among the Italian advocates of the Positive theory wrote the book " Theory of the Imputability and
Denial of the Free will".
Ferri
154.It refers to anything which is against or contrary to the rules and regulation of a prison or jail facility?
Contrabands
155.It is one of the forerunners of modern correctional systems wherein they confine the prisoners in single cells
at night but allow them to work in congregate shops during the day?
Auburn system
156.It enables the prisoner to roam outside the prison for a minimum period per day to make work out
arrangement for his release.
Pre release leave
157.If the scientific method is utilized in segregation, what is the method employed in the diagnosis and treatment
of the convicts?
Casework method.
158.Considered as the most persistent problem in almost all prison facilities which contribute to failure of the
reformation programs.
Idleness
159.All persons in custody shall, before final conviction, be entitled to bail as a matter of______________.
Right
160.The Bureau of Corrections is under the--

161.Place wherein a newly convicted prisoner is housed for at least a minimum period of five days for the conduct
of medical examination, vaccinations, X-ray to prevent physical contamination.
Quarantine unit
162.An advocate of the classical school of penology who claimed that society must reward those who accept
responsibility and punish those who do not.
Bentham
163.It starts from the admissions report of individual inmates and serves as the basis in granting parole.
Cumulative Case Summary
164.Issued by the court to a correctional facility indicating the basis for the confinement of a prisoner.
Mittimus
165.School of thought advocated by Dr. Lombroso, Ferri and Garofalo.
Italian school
166.Country wherein the last recorded burning at stake was made.
Germany
167.A nation who pioneered banishment as a form of punishment.

England
168.A code which adopted the principle an eye for an eye a tooth for a tooth.
Hammurabi’s code
169.Year when the League of Nations adopted the “Standard Minimum Rules for the Treatment of Prisoners.”
1934
170.Year when the first International Prison Congress was Held in London.
1872
171.It refers to an act of grace of the chief executive which grants general pardon to certain class of offenders, but
requires concurrence of congress.
Amnesty
172.The temporary stay in the execution of the court, ordered by the president verdict to enable review of the
merits of the case.
Reprieve
173.It is a change in the court’s verdict made by the president which lowers the degree of penalty imposed by the
court.
Commutation
174.Suspension of sentence of convict after serving the minimum term of indeterminate penalty without granting
pardon.
Parole
175.It refers to a sentence of imprisonment for the maximum period defined by law subject to the termination by
the parole board at anytime after service of the minimum period.
Indeterminate sentence
176.Deduction to the term of imprisonment due to the convict’s exemplary behavior while in prison.
Good time conduct allowance
177.A law which mandated that offenders as punishment would have served a portion of their sentence in
institutions and thereby released to undergo probation.
Split Sentence Law
178.A method undertaken to allow prisoners opportunity for normal sex life.
Conjugal visit
179.Most common form of sexual perversion in prison and jail facilities.

Homosexuality
180.A writ issued by the court ordering the confinement of person so named in penal institutions.
Commitment order
181.For a maximum security facility how high should the walls be constructed?
18 to 25 feet
182.This type of institution is usually constructed without a fence?

Open Institution
183.What is the main objective of segregation?

Prevention of physical and moral contamination
184.It is the original intention of imposing prison labor?

Punitive
185.It refers to the formulation for the tentative rehabilitation program of the convict.
Treatment Planning
186.It is mainly responsible for the implementation of a prisoner’s treatment program?

Classification committee
187.It is part of the classification wherein the prisoners are examined and tests are administered to check on the
physical and mental condition of the prisoners.
Diagnosis
188.This forerunner of penology considered and made emphasis on physical characteristics as basis for atavism.
Lombroso
189.What country popularized the use of prisons as detention facilities?

190.Credited for introducing the use of jails.

Europeans
191.Its main objective is to prevent unnecessary custodial risk and prevent physical and moral contamination from
one group to another.
Segregation
192.Ideal number of days for an inmate to be placed in the quarantine unit at the Reception and Diagnostic
Center.
5 days
193.Sometimes referred to as Case conference or Guidance conference wherein the tentative formulation of
rehabilitation program is conducted with the inmate concerned.
Staff Conference
194.Calls the attention of inmates for certain misconduct or positive traits manifested while serving sentence.
Behavior report
195.A written report detailing particular inmate and the violations incurred with reference to the rule book.
Misconduct report
196.The most challenging problem that confronts the administrators of penal institution worldwide.
Sex problems
197.A means of social control.

Penalty
198.Group vengeance as a justification for imposition of punishment.

Expiation
199.Primitive punishment of the transgressor carried out trough personal vengeance.

Retribution
200.It paved the way for exempting law violators from their criminal liability by reason of insanity.
M’Naghtan Case (1843)
CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION II
101.The first probation law was passed in the year 1878, in.
Massachusetts
102.The purpose of this meeting is to evaluate the inmate’s readiness for early release.
Pre-parole interview
103.A program specifically planned to prepare the offender prior to his release on parole.
Pre-release treatment
104.When prisoners are used for repair of buildings, roads, bridges and flood control, this type of prison labor is:
Publics Works Systems
105.Products made by prisoners are sold in the open market.
Public Account System
106.Under this system, a contractor supplies raw materials and pays the state for the amount of work or output
produced by the prisoner.
Price-Piece System
107.When a contractor merely engages prison labor and the state retains control of the prisoner, the prison labor
is classified as:
Contract System
108.Ministration of the sick is an important function of the:

Chaplain
109.It provides development and acquisition of skills necessary for successful work in a socially accepted
occupation while in prison.
Vocational training program
110.It provides an environment that will be conducive to the mental and physical development of an inmate.
Recreational program
111.It is an integral part in prisoner’s rehabilitation which serves as an outlet for human expression and a form of
release from one’s inherent desire to create.
Arts and Crafts
112.It helps in the improvement of the prisoner in the cultural and practical aspect of social living.
Library service
113.Which among the following is not a part of an ideal medical service in a prison facility?
None of these
114.A mild form of punishment which is enough deterrence for prisoners with clean record who wants to be
considered for early release.
Counsel and reprimand
115.It is not to be considered as a punishment when used to prevent an inmate from influencing witnesses or of
preventing injury to himself or others.
Solitary confinement
116.It aims to obtain clear case description and social history as well as help in solving immediate family problems
of the inmate.
Casework
117.It provides extensive diagnosis and treatment to discover the cause of a prisoner’s maladjustment and
improve his behavior.
Clinical services
118.Serves primarily as a mechanical release of felt physical tension while in prison for male inmates, it is based on
is self gratification.
Masturbation
119.It provides some opportunities for inmates of a normal sex life.

Conjugal Visit
120.Inmates who have attained the status of __________ is allowed by law to live with their families, it is a
common practice in Sablayan, Iwahig and Davao Prison and Penal Farm.
Trustees/Colonists
121.Referred to as the Law on Working Detention

Act No. 1533
122.Law on prescription of penalty

Act No. 3326
123.Basis for granting good conduct time allowance for inmates.

Act No. 3316
124.Indeterminate Sentence Law

Act No. 4103
125.Empowered by law to exercise supervision over jails by means of standard setting to promote discipline of
inmates and secure reformation and safe custody of prisoners of all classes.
Bureau of Corrections
126.Nature of conditional pardon given to inmates in which the recipient must accept it before it takes effect, and
the pardonee is under obligations to comply imposed therein.
Contract
127.In the practice and procedure of probation, who is considered as the most important person?
Probation officer
128.Unit within the probation office charged with the task of selecting defendants for probation.
Investigation division
129.It pertains to information regarding significant family, personal, economic factors of the offender’s life.
Social history
130.Primary basis in granting parole:

Response with correctional treatment
Progress within the correctional institution
131.Parole although not a form of executive clemency is:

Executive function
132.In the Philippines the members of the Board of Pardon and Parole is
Part time board
133.This is prepared by the prison’s classification committee for the purpose of indicating what is essential for the
best interest of the future parolee and contains an appraisal of the prisoner’s personality and need for
adjustment upon return to society.
Parole Referral Summary
134.It is used by the parole board as a guide in determining the prisoner’s eligibility for parole and preparing his
parole program.
Pre-release Progress Report
135.A parole officer undertakes what particular broad function?
Community protection/Service to individuals
136.This is a method of helping parolees by which the parole office performs referral services.
Executive technique
137.Refers to a formal group or association organized to promote social or individual welfare.

Community agencies
138.A security facility, usually operated by the police for temporary detention of persons held under custodial
investigation.
Lock-up
139.Frank an inmate is unable to sleep and eat while serving his sentence due to loneliness and despair should
undergo:
Counseling
140.RA 4225 created what particular government agency?

Board of Pardon and Parole
141.Maximum term of office for those appointed as members of the Board of Pardon and Parole.
6 years
142.Who is the granting authority in giving probation to qualified petitioners?

Court
143.Under the Indeterminate sentence law, who acts as chairman of the board of pardon and paroles?
DOJ Secretary
144.Minimum period of probation provided for by law.

2 years
145.It refers to the community’s reaction to convicted offenders.

Corrections
146.Under rules and methods employed by probation, what is the maximum number of minor violations that
would result in the revocation of the probation order?
3 violations
147.The merging of supervision of parole and probation is mandated by what particular law?
Executive Order 292
148.Probation is a privilege granted to deserving and qualified petitioners, when does it become a matter of right?
When the convict files a petition for probation
149.Under our laws when will probationer report to his designated probation officer?
Within 72 hours after probation order has been granted
150.A US law which allowed convicts to be gainfully employed during the day while residing in prison.
Huber Law
151.It refers to the continuing relationship between the probationer and the probation officer.
Supervision
152.Before travel of probationer outside the jurisdiction of the City/Provincial Probation Office, application for
court approval should be filed within how many days?
15 days
153.A French and Belgian innovation to probation which requires no supervision on the condition that the
probationer would not commit an offense within a prescribed period.
Sursis
154.Within how many days should the request for outside travel shall be filed by the probationer to the probation
office, prior to the date of his intended departure?
5 days
155.It refers to the note given to police agencies which signifies that the probationer is under the supervision of his
designated probation officer.
Flash Sheet
156.The maximum period of probation when the sentence is not more than one year.
2 years
157.When will the court deny application for probation of a petitioner?

Petitioner can be treated well in an institution
158.When will you close a probation case?

When the termination order is approved
159.Under PD 603, should a juvenile offender become incorrigible during his reformation period; he is brought to
the court for
Pronouncement of judgment
160.It refers to the relation between CPPO and the SPPO and the Probationer.
Administrative supervision
161.The probationer is not exempted from the legal effects of his punishment upon final discharge.
Civil liability
162.The unprecedented achievement of martial law which transported the Philippine corrections toward the
modern system of convict rehabilitation.
Probation Law
163.Probation started in what particular country, in the year 1841?

England
164.Sponsored House Bill 393, “An Act establishing Adult Probation in the Philippines.”
165.A procedure by which prisoners are selected for release on the basis on individual response and progress.
Parole
166.The primary purpose of probation

Welfare of the community
167.Effect of executive Order 292.

Merging Supervision
168.This decree mandated the disqualification of the petitioner’s application for probation is an appeal is
perfected.
PD 1257
169.Created the Board of Pardons and Parole.

Indeterminate Sentence Law
170.The preliminary form filed up by the probationer within 72 hours after the release of his probation order.
Work Sheet
171.It is the supervision undertaken by other probation office which is mot permanent in nature.
Courtesy Supervision
172.Brief of an investigation conducted by probation officer not within the jurisdiction of the court.
Post Sentence Investigation Report
173.It is a continuing state of good order.

Discipline
174.It is the alternative for jail confinement in modern penology

Probation
175.Refers to a mental condition of individuals or groups regarding courage, hope, zeal and confidence in the
present principles and way of life.
Moral
176.In determining whether a petitioner may be placed on probation the court shall consider information relative
to which of the following?
Character
Antecedents/environment
Mental/physical condition of the offender
177.For a convicted offender, probation is a form of _________.

Treatment
178.The law that suspends the sentence of minor offenders whose ages ranges from (9) years to under (18) years
and places them in rehabilitation centers.
PD 603
179.When shall probation order take effect?

Three days after issuance
180.Mainly responsible for the implementation of a prisoners treatment program?

Classification Committee
181.Under Art. 8. Sec. 10, par (b) of the Philippine Constitution, pardoning power is vested with the:
Chief executive
182.It refers to a disposition after which the defendant after conviction and sentence is released, subject to the
conditions imposed by the court.
Probation
183.Regarded as the father of Philippine Probation.

184.Signed into law R.A. 968, an Act establishing Probation in the Philippines.
Ferdinand E. Marcos
185.He was referred to as the father of English Probation.

Matthew Devenport Hill
186.A Boston shoe maker who advocated in behalf of alcoholics and youthful offenders and known as the father of
probation.
John Augustus
187.In the year 1887, this former Boston Chief of Police was appointed as the first probation officer in the whole
world.
Edward Savage
188.What particular law established probation in the Philippines for the first time?
RA 4221
189.Formerly, pardon was applied to a member of the ________, who committed crimes and occasionally to those
convicted of offenses against the monarchy.
Royal family
190.Celebrated case which paved the way for the abolition of the first probation law.
People Vs. Vera, 37 O.G. 164
191.Historic signing of PD 968 which transported Philippine Criminal Justice system to the 20th century.
July 24, 1976
192.Within how many days after verdict must a petitioner file his application for probation?
15 days
193.Maximum number of probationers under supervision of a probation aide?

5
194.Maximum period of probation for a person convicted to suffer prision correctional.

6 years
195.It serves as the basis in granting probation for qualified petitioners.

Post Sentence investigation Report
196.Minimum number of days given to probation officers in accomplishing PSIR.

60 days
197.After receiving the PSIR, within how many days must a judge decide whether to grant or deny probation?
15 days
198.It refers to a person placed under probation.

Probationer
199.It refers to a suspension of sentence after which the convict is released upon serving the minimum sentence
imposed by law and subject to his good behavior and positive reaction to rehabilitation programs.
Parole
200.A person placed under probation for the maximum period imposed by law would have to report to his
probation officer how many times per month?
More than twice
LEA-
INDUSTRIAL SECURITY MANAGEMENT
1. Computing security A branch of information security applied to both theoretical and actual computer
system.
2. Security survey A fact-finding probe to determine a plant adequacy and deficiency in all aspects of
security.
3. Restricted Among the classification of documents which do you think is the least priority?
4. Visitor’s logbook Among the visitors movement control, which of the following is the most important?
5. Perimeter barriers An industrial complex must established its first line of physical defense. It must
have;
6. Animal Barrier Structural Barriers Are physical barriers constructed by men that tend to delay the
intruder.
7. Keying system Canine unit is an example of what type of barrier?
8. Change key, Sub master key, master key, grand master key. Which group should they belong?
9. Vulnerabilities In SWOT analysis, “W” means:
10. Relative critically It is the importance of the firm or installation in relation to national economy and
security.
11. Relative criticality It refers to the importance of the establishment with reference to the national
economy and security.
12. VIP security It is the protection of high ranking officials from harm, kidnapping, and similar acts.
13. Personnel It is the weakest link in the security chain.
14. Emergency lighting May duplicate the system in whole or in part and is used during power failure or
emergencies.
15. Operational security Physical security which deals with the protection of processes, patents, and
other activities.
16. Partial Background Investigation PBI stands for…
17. Financial Security The following are Political Field of security except one:
18. Alarm The part of security measure which informs at once the authority about intrusion in an
establishment.
19. Private Security Guard They are also referred to as the BLUE ARMY.
20. Local Alarm This system consists of ringing up a visual or audible alarm near the object to be
protected.
21. Relative vulnerability What is the importance of the firm or installation with reference to the
national economy or security?
22. Formulate the objectives What is the next planning step after the need to plan is recognized?
23. Top secret What type of documents does the very important documents regarding negotiation for
major alliances belong?
24. Barrier Under physical security, what should be placed between the prospective intruder and target
installation?
25. Post Script Used by the writer when he has forgotten something or to attract attention.
26. one year A new Private Security Agency shall be issued a temporary license to operate that is good
for:
27. Master in Business Administration The following are the qualifications for Security Consultant
except:
28. PNP Director General The person who has the power to revoke for cause the license issued to
security guard i
29. 200 Guards A Private Security Agency who is applying for regular license to operate must possess at
least 70 licensed firearms and a minimum of:
30. October 8, 1994 The latest amendment of the implementing rules and regulations of Private Security
Agency Law was on:
31. Private Detective Agency The security force maintained and operated by any corporation for its own
security unit only is known as:
32. Pre Licensing Training The required type of training while applying for a new security guard license
is:
33. 30 guards Branch offices of Private Security Agency shall be established and maintained in other
provinces and cities with a minimum of 10 security guards and maximum of:
34. February 28 every year The dead line for filing of application of the renewal of license shall be:
35. 18 years old The minimum age qualification in order to be issued a security guard license to exercise
the profession is:
36. Tower guard This type of additional protective measures usually placed above the perimeter barrier
serves as the look-out of the guard forces in giving security in the area of responsibility.
37. 2 years Private Security Agency having less than the required minimum number of guards shall be
given a license to operate is good for:
38. 100 thousand pesos The surety bond required to Security Agency employing a number of 200 – 499
security guards is:
39. optional The use of firearms by Private Detective shall be:
40. 40 pesos The surety bond per firearm to be deposited is:
41. 50 loads The basic load of ammunition per unit of a duly licensed firearm shall not exceed:
42. 24 Hrs. Any law enforcement officer authorized by law to effect any justified confiscation of firearm
issued to a security guard shall inform the Chief of the PNP through the CSFC within:
43. security survey It is a fact finding probe to determine a plant’s adequacy and deficiency in all aspects
of security.
44. security education It is the exposure and teaching of employees on security and its relevance to their
work.
45. access list It is an authenticated list of personnel given to security allowing entry to a compound or
installation thereof.
46. human guard It is the key elements in the security survey system of a plant or installation.
47. Peterman It is a term used in England for lock pickers, safecrackers, and penetrators of restricted
rooms or areas.
48. dry run It is a practical test of a plan or any activity to test its validity, it is also an operational
readiness exercise.
49. relative vulnerability It is the susceptibility of the plant or establishment to damage, loss or
disruption of operation due to various hazard.
50. vital records It includes records that are irreplaceable, reproduction of which does not have the
same value as the original records.
POLICE INTELLIGENCE
1. Pre-surveillance conference A gathering of members for police intelligence operation before the
surveillance is conducted.
2. Passive Measures A general type of counter intelligence which seeks to conceal information from the
enemy.
3. Proximity All of the following are principles of intelligence, except:
4. surveillance A method of collection of information wherein the investigator tails or follows the person
or vehicle.
5. observation A method of collecting information wherein the investigator merely uses his different
senses.
6. Convoy An accomplice or associate of the subject used to avoid or elude surveillant.
7. Selection A principle of intelligence that the information should be essential and pertinent to the
purpose at hand.
8. Close A type of surveillance who is the subject is aware that he is under observation.
9. Surveillance Disguise or secret observation of places, persons or vehicles for purpose of obtaining
information.
10. Father of Military Espionage Fredrick the Great is known as the;
11. Julius Caesar He made ciphers to the information to ensure secrecy to the communication.
12. Primary Intelligence is under what type of police function?
13. Complete Background Investigation In intelligence, what is meant by C.B.I?
14. recognize fellow agent In stationary surveillance, the following must be observed, EXCEPT
15. Casing It is an area to determine its suitability for intelligence use or its vulnerability.
16. Casing It is the circumspect inspection of a place to determine its suitability for particular operational
purposes.
17. Shadowing It is conducted when the subject is moving from one place to another.
18. an underworld informant On many occasions, the bulk of the most valuable information comes
from:
19. stop quickly, look behind Some of the instructions in foot surveillance are the following, EXCEPT
20. Sabotage The procurement of information obtain w/out the knowledge of the subject or target.
21. Common spies These are recruited among poor folk, glad to earn a small sum or to accommodate
as military officer.
22. surveillant The term used for the object of surveillance is a subject while the investigator
conducting the surveillance is:
23. Evaluation Which of the following does not belong to the basic to informant recruitment?
24. Reporting unit Which of the following is contained in the heading of an intelligence report?
25. Revenge Which of the following is the most common reason why an informer gives information to
the police?
26. National intelligence It would mean as the total product of intelligence developed by all
governmental agencies that covers the broad aspects of national policy and security.
27. Undercover assignment An investigative process in which disguises and pretext cover and deception
are used to gain the confidence of criminal suspects for the purpose of determining the nature and
extent of any criminal activities that maybe contemplating or perpetuating.
28. Line intelligence It is the kind of intelligence required by the commander to provide for planning and
conduct tactical and administrative operation in counter insurgency.
29. . Counter intelligence This kind of intelligence covers the activity devoted in destroying the
effectiveness of hostile foreign activities and to the protection of information against espionage,
subversion and sabotage.
30. Line intelligence An intelligence data that is immediate in nature.
31. Collation The organization of raw data and information into usable form; grouping similar items of
information so that they will be readily accessible.
32. Wide access The single most important feature in the consideration of recruiting the potential
informant.
33. Honey trap The use of beautiful women in baited situations.
34. Convoy Refers to an accomplice or associate of the subject used to avoid or elude surveillant.
35. Schulmeister Known as Napoleon’s eye, he conducted counter intelligence against spies, who
utilized deceit and blackmail to gain information.
36. Processing A step by which the intelligence is transformed from raw facts to intelligence data.
37. Integration It refers to the combination of all analyzed data to form a logical picture or theory.
38. Deception Wide variety of tactics employed by which a state or person misleads or confuses the
enemy; generally as to its capabilities.
39. Counter - Intelligence Used by any agency to safeguard against espionage, sabotage and subversion.
40. Secrecy of the undercover agents identity The importance of cover are the following, except;
41. Penetration The recruitment of action agent inside the target organization.
42. Interpretation The formulation of the conclusion based on the theory developed or the
determination of the effect and meaning of the information.
43. Analysis The shifting, isolation, or separation of some elements in the information which have
significance to the objective, goal or mission of the unit concerned.
44. Evaluation The examination of the raw data or information in order to determine the intelligence
value, the pertinence of the information, the reliability of the source or its credibility and the truth of
the information.
45. Sun Tzu A Chinese philosopher who wrote the book entitled “The Art of War” in 500 B.C. and
became the successful general by applying the principles of his book.
46. Reconnaissance The exploration or examination of an area to gather information, especially about
the strength and positioning of enemy forces.
47. Lose The following are the type of surveillance according intensity and sensitivity except;
48. Rope A job of striking up friendship with the subject.
49. Penetration agent An agent who has reached the enemy, get information and would manage to get
back alive.
50. Agent of influence An agent who uses influence to gain information.

POLICE ORGANIZATION & ADMINISTRATION
1. Sir Robert Peel Among the following, he is known as the father of Modern Policing System.
2. Directorate for Comptrollership Assists the Chief, PNP in the Administration and management of
financial resources.
3. Organizing Consist of work to be performed in order to arrange and relate work so that it can be
accomplished effectively.
4. Supervision Direction that is provided on a one-on-one basis is called?
5. Inspector Graduates of the Philippine National Police Academy (PNPA) are automatically appointed to
the rank of:
6. Rafael Crame He was appointed as the first PC Chief in December 1917.
7. Gen. Cesar Nazareno In the history of our police force, who was the first Director General of the
Philippine National Police PNP)?
8. Authority It is the right to exercise, decide and command by virtue of rank and position.
9. PD 765 Otherwise known as the PC/INP law…
10. Roman word POLITIA is a word originated from…
11. Ancient Rome Praetorian guard was introduced by the people of…
12. Computer Service Provides IT services necessary in pursuit of the PNP mission and objectives.
13. Financial plan The budget is a ___________ in terms of expenditure requirements.
14. Coordinating The following are the management process except one:
15. Staffing The function of management which covers hiring, firing, and training
16. extra office The operational plan which is designed to met everyday or year around needs is called
17. Deployment The orderly and organized physical movement of elements or units of the PNP.
18. Unity of command There should be one manager and one plan for a group of activities that have the
same objective.
19. on duty This term refers to the period when a police officer is actively engaged in the performance of
his duty.
20. Line Those who are charge with actual fulfillments of agency’s mission are__________ personnel.
21. define authority and responsibility To improve delegation, the following must be done, EXCEPT:
22. . Chief Superintendent What is the equivalent rank of Brigadier General to Police Rank?
23. Deputy Dir Genera What is the rank of the Chief of the Directorial Staff?
24. Praetorian Which of the following is a policing activity undertaken by military bodies in ancient time?
25. asst. chief Which of the following is not a commissioned officer?
26. strategic analysis Alternative is a means by which goals and objectives can be attained. They may be
policies, strategies and actions aimed at eliminating the problem. Which of the following is a basic
technique to select alternative?
27. monitor and evaluate progress This is an important step in synopsis planning; trying to figure out
what, if anything happened as a result of implementing a selected alternative is called;
28. transactive planning This planning includes a face to face interactions with the people who are to be
affected, it also include field surveys and interpersonal dialogue marked by a process of mutual learning
is called;
29. synoptic planning This model is especially appreciated for police agencies as it based on problem
oriented approach to planning. It relies heavily on the problem identification and analysis of the
planning process and can assist police administrator in formulating goals and priorities is called;
30. contain a degree of flexibility for the unforeseen Which of the following is a characteristic of
effective plan?
31. operational doctrines The principles and rules governing planning, organizing, direction and
employment of the PNP force in the accomplishment of basic security mission in the maintenance of
peace and order, crime prevention and suppression, internal security and the like is called;
32. authority level principle Maintenance of intended delegation requires that the decisions within its
authority of individual commander should be made by them and not be referred upward or downward
in the organizational structure is referred to as;
33. strategic planning A series of preliminary decision on a framework, which in tern guides subsequent
decisions that generate the nature and direction of an organization refers to;
34. manner of operation Which of the following is the role of strategic planning?
35. field procedure Procedures that relate to reporting, raids, arrest, stopping suspicious persons,
touring beats and investigation of crimes are example of;
36. procedural plan The plan that prepares to accomplish by special divisions of the PNP of each of the
primary police task is called;
37. tactical plan These are procedures in coping with specific situations at known locations and plans for
dealing with an attack against buildings, special community events and other street affairs is called;
38. extra departmental plan The plan made to organize community agencies and community groups for
cooperative efforts with the police department is called;
39. scalar principle The principle describing explicitly the flow of authority refers to;
40. decision-making The procedures for reaching a sound decision on the basis of pertinent knowledge,
ideas and preconditions is called;
41. 5 years Uniformed members of the PNP shall have the option to receive in advance and in
lump-sum his/her retirement fee for the first;
42. SPO3 Technical Sergeant in Military rank is equivalent to PNP rank which is;
43. Place of work A territorial distribution of platoon accomplished by assigning patrolman on beats is
necessary to facilitate the direction and control of officers and to ensure suitable patrol service at every
point within the jurisdiction is grouping of similar work according to;
44. Section A Functional Unit within a Division, this is necessary for specialization is;
45. 1.52 m & 1.57 m Waiver of height requirement may be granted to male and female applicant who is
at least;
46. Superior One having supervisory responsibilities over officer of a lower rank is;
47. Bureau The largest organizational unit within a large Department is;
48. Line and Staff An organizational structure which is the combination of line and functional types and
is found in almost Police Agencies today is known as;
49. Modern The yardstick of efficiency of the Police in the absence of crime is a concept of Police Service
which is known as;
50. Division A primary sub-division of a bureau is called;

POLICE PATROL
1. Informal A communication that which occur within the framework of the informal organization.
2. A driver and a recorder A crew which is assigned to a mobile car usually consists of _____.
3. Goal A general statement of intention and typically result within a time horizon of a year or more.
4. Reflects your competence A good plan is a good image builder; this statement belongs to what
importance of planning.
5. Span of Control Control of superior should not be more than what he can effectively direct.
6. smell Dogs have an acute sense of ____________ thus, their utilization in tracking down lost persons
or illegal drugs.
7. Unity of command Employees should receive order from one superior only.
8. Mandatory Strength It is the total number of police officers assigned in patrol duties.
9. Foot patrol It is the vintage type of patrol and still plays an important role in the development of
officers today.
10. Police omnipresence Police visibility in strategic and crime prone areas projects _____ thus, an
effective crime prevention strategy.
11. demolition The act of expelling a squatter by the legal process is called:
12. financial plan The budget is a _____________ in terms of expenditure requirements.
13. Sir Robert Peel The first head of the Metropolitan police force that earned the title as “the Father of
Modern Policing System”.
14. Electronic Mai The transmission, storage and display of documents in the computer system.
15. Written language This is considered as a powerful tool of mass communication and cornerstone for
civilization.
16. Foot patrol This is known as the vintage type of patrol…
17. Patrol force This is the only unit in the police organization which is directly and constantly in contact
with the public.
18. Patrol What is the essence of police function?

19. Foot patrol Which of the following is best suited to the word “stealth” in the types of patrol?
20. helicopter Which of the following is most ideally suited to evacuation and search-and-rescue duties?
21. adequacy of resources of the police station Which of the following is considered as the most
important factor in formulating an effective patrol strategy?
22. horn Which of the following is the oldest warning device?
23. foot Which of the following is the oldest type of patrol?
24. Canine Patrol Which type of patrol should be utilized in the event of securing the place for bomb
threat?
25. Unit supervisor Upon arrival at his assigned beat, the patrol officer must immediately report to the
________.
26. patrol In the police organization, the division that had been regarded as the core and at the same
time the operational heart for the reason that it performs almost all the function of police organization
is referred to as the;
27. opportunity The primary function of the patrol division is crime prevention. In the effort of the
division to perform their function, patrol officers on beat should be able to eliminate the factors that
contribute to the development of crime, especially the existence of;
28. motive In police patrol, timely and appropriate exercise of judgment or decision in answer to
whatever services required by the public to any forms of situation is best describe to as;
29. police visibility In the fight of patrol division to prevent crime, the division should be able to
eliminate the existence of opportunity, which is their primary concern, and this is being realized by
means of;
30. preventive enforcement The objective of patrol that falls under the category of protection for it
involves the prevention of crime through the noticeable presence of police vehicles and personnel is
called;
31. prevention of crime Robert Peel, being the father of modern policing system identified the soundest
among all criminological philosophies and this is the principle of;
32. preventive enforcement A system applied by patrol division that has been proven to be very
effective patrol procedure. This is being performed by identifying a certain area subject to a high crime
rate and spends a greater part of their patrolling time is referred to as;
33. horse patrol Among the different types of patrol, this had been regarded to as the second oldest and
its use is very minimal in cities;
34. bicycle A type of patrol that has an advantage on stilt and mobility is referred to as the;
35. leaf frog In this method of patrol cover and search, two patrol officers alternately take the load in
the search and cover each other as they progressively move on.
36. planning What is that process of deciding in advance what to do, how to do it and who is to do it?
37. objective It is a specific commitment to achieve a measurable result within a specific period of time.
The statement is referring to?
38. discretion The actions of the patrol officers killing the person that run amok were in accordance to
principles of:
39. forecasting Seeing ahead and making sound assumptions.
40. span of control The control of superior should not be more that what he can effectively direct. What
is referred to this?
41. goal It is a general statement of intention and typically with a time horizon of a year or more. What
is referred to this statement?
42. incremental planning What is that approach that concludes a long range and comprehensive
planning are not only too difficult, but inherently bad?
43. advocacy planning The beneficial aspect of this approach includes a greater sensitivity to the
unintended and negative side effects of the plan. Which is referred to this statement?
44. sense of community security and satisfaction It is acknowledge that effective attainment of
deterrence, apprehension and non-criminal related activity should result in high levels of perceived
community security and satisfaction with police activities. What is referred to this?
45. planning What is that process of deciding in advance what to do, how to do it and who is to do it?
46. objective It is a specific commitment to achieve a measurable result within a specific period of time.
The statement is referring to:
47. foot patrol It is the vintage type of patrol but still plays an important role in the development of
officers today. What is referred to this?
48. ability to observe closely Which do not belong to the group?
49. patrol What is the only form of police service that directly attempts to eliminate the desire and
opportunity to commit crime?
50. preservation of peace and order Mr. Mendoza is a policeman; his ultimate goal in the society is
what?
POLICE PERSONNEL & RECORDS MANAGEMENT
1. Records All but one are the primarily line operation in police organization
2. 20 years of satisfactory service Any members of the PNP may opt to retire from the PNP service upon
accumulation of at least:
3. annual plan A plan with a time horizon of 5 to 10 years is called;
4. National Appellate Board Decisions rendered by the national IAS shall be appealed to the__________:
5. Refuse to report to duty Grave misconduct is incurred by any member of the PNP who shall:
6. Selection In the PNP Application Processing System, it is the process of removing

undesirable/unqualified applicants?
7. COMELEC It exercises control and supervision over the PNP units during elections.
8. Provincial Government It exercises supervision and control over the provincial jails.
9. Fingerprint Records It is considered to be the heart of any identification system; it provides positive
identification of the criminal
10. NAPOLCOM It is constitutionally and legally mandated to administer and control the Philippine
National Police.
11. PLEB It is the central receiving entity for any citizen’s complaint against the members and officers of
the PNP.
12. Pigeon Hole It is recognized as the best method of filing
13. Time-in-Grade One of the criteria for promotion which refers to the overall length of service in the
present rank.
14. By gender Police personnel may be effectively distributed according to any of the following
classification, EXCEPT
15. Medal Refers to the distinctive physical device of metal and ribbon, which constitute the tangible
evidence of an award:
16. Use of government papers The following are act which constitute grave dishonesty except one.
17. Staffing The function of management which covers hiring, firing, and training.
18. Office of the logistic manager This office is in charge of supervising all matters pertaining to supply.
19. 20 years What is the optional retirement for officers and new officers of the police service?
20. Extra departmental plan What plans require action or assistance from persons or agencies outside
the police organization?
21. natural What type of cover uses actual or true background?
22. Women’s Desk Which of the following administers and attends to cases involving crimes against
chastity?
23. National Police Commission Which of the following agency administers the PNP Entrance and
Promotional Examinations?
24. Sixty (60) days Within how many days after receipt of the motion of appeal shall the Board decide?
25. Chief PNP Who among the following have summary disciplinary powers over errant police members?
26. charismatic authority In the preceding question, what particular form authority is more dominant to
his style?
27. based on the general desire outcomes Which of the following is not true about objectives?
28. Command responsibility This would the great impact on how to explain would the superior explain
any wrong acts made by his men on the field even he was not around when the event took occur:
29. neglect of duty It particularly implies a duty as well as its breach and the fact can never be found in
the absence of a duty.
30. Supervision Giving direction of employees toward in line with their work is an example of:
31. PNP program management office The following are the divisions of the DPRM except:
32. objectives This is the specific and the measurable ways of the accomplishing the goals of the
organization.
33. communication flowed upward Which of the following statements is not true about the
Organization?
33. Regional Director The PNP organizational structure is composed of the central office or the National
Headquarters, which housed the office of the following, except?
34. Chain of command It is the order of authority in the PNP organization.
35. personnel administration It is the technique of organizing and handling people at work in all levels
and types of management.
37. number of subordinates who directly reports to him To determine a supervisor’s span of control,
what has to be taken into consideration?
38. delegation of authority It is closely related to the principle of span of control in which the tasks were
divided among the officers of various units but still the presence of one superior always exists. The
Statement is referring to:
39. Intermediate plan A plan that determines the quality and quantity of efforts and accomplishment
40. 2 suns A police rank of Superintendent who is one of the heads in the directorial staffs is
represented by the insignia;
41. headquarters procedures As a dispatcher, you are task to follow certain courses of action that may
be reflected on the duty manual. The statement is referring to:
42. extra-departmental plan This plan will assist in coordinating community effort, in promoting public
support and in combating organized crimes.
43. free-rein A leader that takes a hands-off passive approach in dealing with the subordinates.
44. OPLAN It refers to the process of determining how specific tasks can be accomplished on time with
available allocated resources.
45. Non-commissioned officers Refers to those police officers whose ranks ranges from PO1 to SPO4.
46. misconduct The command responsibility will include improper performance of the act which might
be lawfully done. It is primarily referring to misfeasance. What if an act was also lawfully done but
should not be done.
47. to avoid confusion of authority Why is it that every group of personnel must have only one
supervisor?
48. Chain of command In the PNP organization, it establishes definite lines of authority that makes the
order not more sophisticated and then opens the channels of the direct line of communication.
49. commanding officer An officer who is in dominion of the department district or bureau.
50. Hierarchy Non-commissioned and Commissioned officers do not have the same authorities and
responsibilities because of its pyramid shaped with a single line authority. The statement is referring to:
COMPARATIVE POLICE SYSTEM
1. Inquisitorial A court system where the accused is guilty until proven innocent.
2. Adversarial A court system where the accused is innocent until proven guilty.
3. Executive Order 309 A peace and Order Council is organized in every city/municipality by virtue of;
4. Superintendent General In Japan Police Force, it is the highest rank in the system, the chief of
metropolitan police department.
5. promotional system In the Civil Service System, merit and fitness are the primary consideration in the
________.
6. South-eastern Asia In the continent of Asia, where can you find the country of Vietnam?
7. Director General In the Hong Kong Police Force we have the Commissioner General, how about the
Philippine National Police?
8. globalization It refers to a package of transnational flow of people, production, investment,

information, ideas and authority.
9. Transnational Organized Crime It refers to specifically to transnational crime carried out by

organized crime organizations.
10. election In US, the sheriff for each county is chosen through
11. City agencies Policing in the United States (U.S.) is divided in these broad categories except
12. Europe The continent which was derived from the name of a Phoenix in Greek Mythology.
13. Human Trafficking The fastest growing criminal industry in the world.
14. Australia The great barrier reef which is the world’s largest reef is found in…
15. Commissioner The head of PNP has a rank of Director General, what is the highest rank in Hong
Kong?
16. Imperial guard The primary duty of this group is to protect the emperor of Japan and its family…
17. political actions The threat of global terrorism indicates the growing power of globalization as a
perimeter of;
18. North America The world’s largest forest area is found in,
19. Bar Girls They have two roles, they let men buy them drinks and later on they offer sexual services.
20. national terrorist Used to define almost all illegal acts of violence committed for political purpose by
clandestine groups.
21. Police General What is the highest rank in Indonesia police force?
22. Police constable What is the lowest rank in Hong Kong?
23. Second Bhayangkara What is the lowest rank in Indonesia police force?
24. Switzerland Police Which police organization applies the “iron fist, velvet glove” in the enforcement
of law?
25. Integrated What type of democratic policing does Japan have compare to U.S?
26. Fragmented This is the type of system which is extremely decentralized and one of its characteristics
is having numerous police agencies;
27. Great Britain Which of the following country that both national and local governments share control:
28. France This is a country that has a single system of law administration of justice and servants of the
republic rather than local governments;
29. Gendarmerie The oldest police agency in France;
30. Prime Minister In the system of the Public Safety Commissions of Japan, The person who has the
jurisdiction over the National Public Safety Commissions is the?
31. Terrorism This is a crime, consisting of an intentional act of political violence to create an
atmosphere of fear.
32. Integrated Human trafficking This is a very broad category, encompassing everything from illegal
immigration to international prostitution, slavery, and child pornography.
33. What type of democratic policing does Japan have compare to U.S?
34. Fragmented This is the type of system which is extremely decentralized and one of its characteristics
is having numerous police agencies;
35. Centralized This is the kind of policing system where police control is under direct control of the
national government:
36. civil law system They are distinguished by a strong inquisitorial system where less right is granted to
the accused, and the written law is taken as gospel and subject to little interpretation. What is referred
to this description?
37. socialist system They are distinguished by procedures designed to rehabilitate or retrain people into
fulfilling their responsibilities to the state.
38. socialist system Ultimate expression of positive law, designed to move the state forward toward
the perfectibility of state and mankind. It is referring to as what?
39. Egypt Police Conflicts are resolved by a tribunal council, and there are no jails and prisons. This type
of society is an excellent example of the folk-communal or informal justice system.
40. urban–commercial society It has a civil law, specialized police forces and punishment is inconsistent,
sometimes harsh, and sometimes lenient. It is referred as what?
41. folk-communal society They let things go for awhile without attention until things become too
much, and then hash, barbaric punishment is resorted to. This society is known as:
42. deprivation theory Progress comes along with rising expectations. People at the bottom develop
unrealistic expectations while people at the top don’t see themselves rising fast enough. What theory
describes this?
43. urban-industrial society It has codified laws but laws that prescribe good behavior, police become
specialized in how to handle property crimes. It is referred to as what?
44. economic theory Crime everywhere is the result of unrestrained migration and overpopulation in
urban areas such as slums. What theory best describes this?
45. folk-communal society This society has little codification of law, no specialization among police?
46. common law system This system is distinguished by a strong adversarial system where lawyers
interpret and judges are bound by precedent?
47. modernization theory It sees the problem as society becoming too complex. This is the theory of:
48. Switzerland Police When poor person commits a crime, the government goes to work analyzing the
family, education and employment needs of everyone in that poor person’s family. It is referring to?
49. opportunity theory With high standard of living, victims become more careless of their belongings,
and opportunities for committing crime multiply. What theory describes this?
50. Ireland Police The sense of hope and confidence among the people towards their local authorities
that they are doing everything they can in crime control. It is referring to?
1. universal declarations Consist of all the United Nations conventions which seeks to safeguard life and
human dignity in a global scale.
2. Trafficking in persons Consist of recruitment, transportation, transfer harboring or receipt of persons

by means of threat or use of coercion, abduction, fraud deception, abuse of power.
3. 18 In the Philippines the minimum age requirement for police officers is 21 years old, what is the
minimum age requirement in the Australian Federal Police?
4. democratic, socialist republic In Sri Lanka, the constitution establishes a government that is a
mixture of presidential system and parliamentary system, such government is called;
5. Prime Minister In the system of the Public Safety Commissions of Japan, The person who has the
jurisdiction over the National Public Safety Commissions is the?
6. Tokko It is a special higher police in Japan which is equivalent to the FBI, combining both criminal
investigation and counter- espionage functions.
7. Hongkong Police College It is responsible for all matters relating to training within the Hong Kong
Police except internal security, Auxiliary and Marine Police training. Training provided by the Police
College includes recruit and continuation training, crime investigation training, police driver training and
weapon tactics training.
8. power syndicates Loosely structured, extraordinary flexible associations centered around violence
and deeply involved in the production and distribution of informal power. The only organizational goal is
to make use of extortionate means.
9. corrupter One who bribes, buys, intimidates, threatens, negotiates and sweet talks into a relationship
with the police, public officials or any else who might help the members security and maintain immunity
from arrest, prosecution and punishment.
10. Global economic relations That relationship which can produce state policies that directly violate
social labor rights and directly produce social conflict that leads to state violations of civil and security
rights.
11. global mobility and information flow
That which stimulates ethnic mobilization, which may promote self-determination in responsive states
but more often produces collective abuses in defense of dominant group-hegemony.
12. Geneva conventions The collation of international covenants and treaties on war crimes and for the
protection of the rights of women and children;
13. Bureaucratic society This kind of society has a system of laws, police who tend to keep busy handling
political crime and terrorism, and a system of punishment characterized by civilization and
overcrowding.
14. Folk-communal society This kind of society has little codification of law, no specialization among
police, and a system of punishment that just let things go for a while without attention until things
becomes too much, and then harsh, barbaric punishment is resorted to.
15. Civil law System What type of police system which is distinguished by a strong inquisitorial system
where less right is grated to the accused, and the written law is taken as gospel and subject to little
interpretation.
16. Socialist system What type of police system which is distinguished by procedures designed to
rehabilitate or retain people into fulfilling their responsibilities to the state?
17. Access to funds against transnational Crimes Which one below is NOT a benefits that the Philippines
Derive as Member of the INTERPOL?
18. federal state The type and form of government in northern Asia (Russia) consist of composite
systems which includes federal state, semi-presidential and republic. Which type of government which is
characterized by a union of partially self-governing states or regions united by a central government?
19. Security and Exchange Commission Private security Agencies has to be registered with the
_________.
20. Increasing human rights violations The primary threat to law enforcement brought about by
globalization which is evidenced by genocide or mass killing.
21. Transnational professional network and cooperation These global threats to law enforcement
brought about by globalization created opportunity for global professional criminals which can only be
addressed through,
22. Home Affairs Ministry Under the rules and function of Australian Federal Police, the AFP falls under
the portfolio of:
23. adversarial system The accused is innocent until proven guilty is a principle of what system?
24. continental policing It is traditional in nature as it is based its crime control efficiency to the number
of arrest and people being put to jail for punishment.
25. bureaucratic society It has a system of laws, police tends to keep busy handling political crime and
terrorism, and a system of punishment characterized by over criminalization and overcrowding. The
statement is referring to:
26. alertness to crime theory As a nation develops, people’s alertness to crime is heightened. They
report more crime to police and demand the police to become more effective in solving crime problems.
What theory best describes this situation?
27. modern policing This system uses measurement of crime control efficiency and effectiveness based
on absence of crime or low crime rate?
28. adversarial system Which of the following is not part of group?
29. Anomie and Synomie theory Which one below that suggests that progressive lifestyles and
norms result in the disintegration of older norms that once held people together, but in other cases,
people can come together and achieve social consensus or social cohesion over values;
30. Mossad It is considered as the finest intelligence agency in the world.
31. National Public Safety Commission Who has the Administrative Supervision over Japanese
National Police Agency?
32. Integrated When National and local governments share control and local control of police services
with national standards adhered to is a formed of what type of policing?
33. Great Britain Which of the following country that both national and local governments share
control?
34. Criminal Investigation Bureau It is in charge of research statistics and the investigation of
nationally important and international cases in Japan.
35. Police Administration Bureau They are concerned with police personnel, education, welfare,
training, and unit inspections in Japan Police Force.
36. Hongkong Police College It is responsible for all matters relating to training within the Hong Kong
Police except internal security, Auxiliary and Marine Police training. Training provided by the Police
College includes recruit and continuation training, crime investigation training, police driver training and
weapon tactics training.
37. Collaborative method The researcher communicates with foreign researcher for his research. Which
method is appropriate for that research?
38. Departmental intelligence It is an indispensible tool of management derived from organized

information available in the police record division about the nature, size and distribution of the police
problems, crime, vice and traffic.
39. analysis A part of processing the information in which the shifting and isolating of those element
that have significance in light of the mission or national objective.
40. Principles of interdependence The intelligence principle which is states that intelligence is artificial
subdivided into component elements to ensure complete coverage, eliminate duplication and reduce
the overall task to manageable sizes refers to.
1. Yellow notices What notice is being applied to help locate missing persons including children, or to
help people to identify themselves.
2. organized crime A transnational grouping of highly centralized enterprises run by criminals for the
purpose of engaging in illegal activity, most commonly for the purpose of generating a monetary profit.
A criminal activity by an enduring structure or organization developed and devoted primarily to the
pursuit of profits through illegal means.
3. demographic theory Based on the event when a greater number of children are being born. As these
baby booms grow up, delinquent subcultures develop out of the adolescent identity crisis. What theory
describes this?
4. In large Departments, the Desk officer devote full time exclusively to record task Which of the
statement is TRUE?
5. Japan What country practiced the “shame-based” rather than “guilty-based” approach because of the
shame it would bring to the family if such member of a Family commits crime.
6. Globalization This is a package of transnational flows of people, production, investment, information,

ideas and authority.
7. Philippine Center on Transnational Crimes (PCTC) This center is created by virtue of Executive Order
No. 62 to establish a shared database among concerned agencies for information on criminals,
methodologies, arrests and convictions on transnational crime
8. Omerta What is the code of secrecy of Mafia:
9. We serve with pride and Care The Philippine National Police motto is To Serve and Protect while the
motto of HongKong Police force…
10. Peace preservation law What is this law that gives Japanese police the authority to arrest people
with “wrong thoughts”.
Criminalistic
POLICE PHOTOGRAPHY
1. lens A part of a camera used in focusing the light from the subject
2. Ultraviolet light Are light having wave lengths 30 to 400?
3. 180 degrees Fish –eye lens is a special type of camera having a view angle of:
4. convex lens Lens that is characterized by a thicker center and thinner sides.
5. Tripod The following are the essential parts of the camera except one…
6. Gelatin These are the components of a black and white film, except one….
7. Orthochromatic film This film is sensitive to all colors, except red.
8. Photograph This is the positive result of the process of photography.
9. ASA What emulsion speed indicator is express in an arithmetic form?
10. # 2 What photo paper is ideal to be used in a normal exposed film?
11. curvature of field The circular “dome-like” image –
12. Laser light Otherwise known as the coherent light.
13. 1839 When was the birth year of photography?
14. Panchromatic film A type of film that is sensitive to all colors.
15. color harmony A systematic arrangement of colors to give a pleasant effect.
16. Single Lens Reflex This type of camera will eliminate parallax error.
17. US What country is the first who use photograph of crime scene in court presentation?
18. wide angle lens A lens with a focal length of less than the diagonal of its negative material.
19. Normal Lens If a camera lens has a fixed focal length of 50mm. such lens is classified:
20. Extreme Close-up shot In crime scene photography, what view tends to show the extent damage on
the subject?
21. Bright sunlight It is a lighting condition where object in open space cost a deep and uniform or
distinct shadow.
22. Photograph The appearance of the original will come out and such result is known as the?
23. Diffraction The bending of light around an object gives rise to the phenomenon called
24. Pinhole camera The simplest camera is a ___, which consists of a box with a small hole in one of its
sides.
25. Focus This means by which the object distance is estimated or calculated to from sharp images
26. Single lens reflex type This type of camera will eliminate the parallax error and it will work well with
all lenses.
27. For preservation What is considered as the utmost used of photography in police work?
28. Cropping What is that process of eliminating unwanted portions of a negative during enlarging
process?
29. smaller What kind of diaphragm opening should a photographer used in order to get a wider depth
of field?
30. Single Lens Reflex What type of a camera is ideal to police photography?
31. Latent image While the exposed film is not yet developed, the image recorder is technical referred
to as:
32. spherical aberration A lens defect that can affect resolution and clarity, making it hard to obtain
sharp images.
33. cavity One the part of the film holder of the camera that usually houses the film cartridge.
34. Photomicrography Refers to the process of taking pictures with the use of microscope.
35. Positive It refers to the lens which forms a real image on the opposite side of the lens.
36. Shutter speed What is referred to the effective length of time a camera’s shutter is open?
37. Cable release This is attach to the shutter to prevent accidental movement of the camera during the
exposure period.
38. medium wave UV It is used in chemical analysis and in curing and hardening of different items for
industrial purposes.
39. Exposure Refers to the range of illumination or the light allowed to affect the sensitized material at a
given time.
40. Depth of Field The distance between the nearest and the farthest object in apparent sharp focus
when the lens is focused at a given point.
41. Photography The science or art of obtaining images in scientific materials by the action of electro
magnetic radiation rays.
42. Forensic photography The study of the fundamentals of photography, its application to police work
and the preparation of photographic evidence:
43. shutter This part of a camera is used to allow light to enter through the lens for a predetermined
time interval.
44. Baseboard Which of the following supports the entire unit of the enlarger, which usually holds the
easel that carries the photographic paper?
45. yellow In the additive color mixture process combining the color blue and green will produce cyan.
What is the complementary color of blue?
46. Fluorescence It is the ability of an object to convert one wavelength to another as long as the active
energy source is irradiating the object.
47. Transparent Objects that allow sufficient visible light to pass through them that the object on the
other side may be clearly seen.
48. focal plane shutter Its actions starts from one side and closes on the opposite side with amore faster
shutter speed. The statement is referring to:
49. Calotype William Fox Talbot invented what particular object which uses a paper impregnated
with light sensitive compounds.
50. film These are made of plastic material support the emulsion layer, it is particularly known as the
base which can be found on the:
1. Willian Henry Fox Talbot A British scientist who made the first miniature cameras, the so-called
“mouse trap” cameras.
2. Louis Jacques Mande Daguerre The result of his work was, images were fragile to the touch and
needed to be protected under glass, but were capable of recording the finest detail.
3. John F. W. Herschel The word Photography was coined by _____?
4. hyper focal distance A distance at which lens of a camera is focused with a given particular diaphragm
opening which will give the maximum depth of field is-
5. Telephoto Lens A type of a lens that would make an object to be exaggeratedly closes to the
photographer and is ideal in stake out surveillance photography.
6. Photography In addition to legal medicine, as prober, how can you preserve perishable evidence like
injuries, contusions, hematoma, etc?
7. Medium View In crime scene photography, what view tends to show the four angles of the possible
entrance and exit point of the suspect?
8. Shutter speed In photography, what determines how effectively a moving object can be stopped, that
is, how sharply it can be reproduced without blurring, or streaking in the final image?
9. Lens Opening Is that part of the camera which controls the passage of light reaching the sensitized
material? It compared to the eyelid of the human eye.
10. Photography It enables the law enforcement investigator to record the visible and in many cases, the
invisible evidence found at the crime scene.
11. Depth of field It is the range in front of and behind a sharply focused subject in which details also
look sharp in the final photographic image.
12. chromatic aberration Lens aberration in which light of different wavelength is focused at different
distances behind the lens. It can be corrected by combining different types of glass lens.
13. spherical aberration Light rays from the subject on the lens axis passing through off-center areas of
the lens focus at different distances from the light rays that pass directly through the center of the lens.
14. Hologram One of the recent advancements of photography is in the use of laser. With laser, one is
able to produce a three dimensional photograph called:
15. Refraction The changes in direction of light are conclusive whenever light process from one medium
to another. This is known as the phenomenon of refraction.
16. photomicrography The process of obtaining a magnified photograph of a small object without the
use of a microscope, by using a short focus lens and a long bellow extension.
17. photomicrography The science of obtaining photographic magnification of minute objects by using a
camera attached to a compound microscope. The camera lens is removed because the microscope
because the microscope form the image.
18. Police Photography The science which deals with the study of the principles of photography, the
preparation of photographic evidence and its application to police work.
19. Depth of field What is the range of distance from the nearest object to the farthest object that is
sharp when the lens is set or focused at a particular distance?
20. Diaphragm as a controller of definition All practical lens images such as point a small blur which
changes in character with the change of lens aperture. The statement best describe:
21. Diaphragm as a controller of speed The highest the number is the smallest the opening or the one
that gives the least amount of light. The statement best describe:
22. Odelbercht The person that first advocate the use of the photography for the identification of
criminals and the documentation of evidences and crime scene.
23. focal length It is known as the fundamental characteristics of a lens that will determine the size of an
image and area of coverage of the lens. The statement is referring to:
24. groundglass In photography using microprism, the image on focus will usually shatter of an out of
focus image and when it is exactly in focus the prisms seems to disappear. These microprisms are
primarily found on:
25. folding camera A type of camera in which the lens and shutter mounted to body by means of an
accordion-pleated bellows, which can be folded into camera foe ease of carrying.
26. charged-coupled device The part of the DSLR that converts the light into electrical signal as the start
of forming digital images.
27. negative coma This results in star images near the outer edge of the viewing field seeming to have
comet-style tails scattering radially away from its optical axis.
28. chromatic aberration It is caused by lens dispersion, with different colors of light travelling at
different speeds while passing through a lens.
29. positive coma This results in star images near the outer edge of the viewing field seeming to have
comet-style tails scattering radially towards its optical axis.
30. diaphragm A device made of thin overlapping metal leaves within a lens or camera which can be
adjusted to specific apertures of f-stops to control the amount of light that strikes the film.
31. lens culinaris It is believed that the word lens was derived from the Latin name of the lentil, because
a double-convex lens is lentil-shaped. In fact the most eaten specie of the of this plant is –
32. barrel distortion This effect causes images to be spherized, which means the edges of images look
curved and bowed to the human eye.
33. box camera A camera that uses lens and spring-loading shutter and roll film. Shutter speed and
aperture usually not adjustable.
34. White light The absence of all colors is black; white light is composed of the three primary colors –
blue, green and red. What is the sum total of all colors of the rainbow?
35. f22 To have a more sharp image flash exposure is encouraged and it can be computed. What if the
guide number is 220 in a distance of 10 ft what will be the exact aperture?
36. gelatin Modern photographic papers are basically composed of a light sensitive coating on a paper
base which particularly suspended on what substance?
37. Holograms In 1947 Edwin H. Land introduced the one step photography also known as polariod.
What will be produce by LASER?
38. hazy What will be the lighting condition if you are going to take a photograph using a film speed of
ISO 200 and a shutter speed of 1/250 with an aperture of f8?
38. Panchromatic film Nardo B. Hart was on to a special photography using a film that was sensitive to
UV radiation and primary colors. Mr. Hart was using what type of film?
39. wide angel lens The photographer in crime scene investigation has to get as many photographs as he
can. The first shot that he should make just after reaching the crime scene is the house where the crime
of murder was committed to one of its ten rooms. In getting the façade of the house, what lens should
he utilize?
40. Show when photographing the general conditions as being deformed as a whole, photograph the
damage parts and consider the range partly clearly When photographing the corpse in the scene,
several pictures of the conditions at the time of discovery including the environment of the corpse must
be taken from various photographic directions in order to:
41. wavelength A black and white films posses several characteristics such as speed, spectral and
granularity. The speed will be referring to the sensitivity of the film to light, granularity is the graininess
and the spectral is the sensitivity to:
42. use a flash unit In outdoor photography, there will some instance that the presence of light is too
much that produces a dilemma to the photographer. What do you think is the best way to do?
43. parallax Carlo S. Bart was taking up a snap shot and expecting it to sharp but an alteration happened
to the expected image because it was seen in two view points. What is that phenomenon?
44. telephoto lens PO3 Revon with his team conducted a thorough stakeout of a certain building in
Quirante II. In order to document all the movements of their subjects, they have apply the principles of
photography with the aid of what particular lens mechanism?
45. Digital Single reflex camera In the modernization of the photography, DSLR camera almost
dominated the market because of its great features that are very useful in commercial photo shoots.
What do DSLR means?
46. synchronization
It is the timing of the camera shutter and the flash so that when the shutter is fully opened, that’s the
time that the flash will yield its highest peaks of illumination. The statement is referring to:
Photography = Derived from the Greek word “Phos” or “Photos” which means “light” and “Grapho”
means “Writing” or “Graphia” meaning “to Draw”. Sir John F. W. Herschel coined the word
photography when he first wrote a letter to Henry Fox Talbot.
Forensic = Derived from the Latin word “Forum” which means “a market place” where people gathered
for public discussion
Police Photography = Is the application of the principles of photography is relation to the police work
and in the administration of justice.
Photograph = Is the mechanical and chemical result of Photography. Picture and photograph are not the
same for a picture is a generic term is refers to all kinds of formed image while a photograph is an image
that can only be a product of photography.
Personal Identification Personal Identification is considered to be the first application

of photography is police work. Alphonse Bertillion was the first police who utilized
photography in police work as a supplementary identification in his Anthropometry
system.
Light = is an electromagnetic energy that travels in a form of a wave with the speed of 186, 000 miles
per second.
Camera = a light tight box designed to block unwanted or unnecessary light from reaching the sensitized
material.
Lens = is the light gathering mechanism of the camera that collect the reflected light coming from the
object to form the image.
Sensitized material = composed of a highly sensitized chemical compound which is capable of being
transformed into an image through the action of light and with some chemical processes. ( Film and
Photo Paper).
Chemical Process = is the process necessary for reducing silver halides into a form so as a latent image
and a positive image be made resulting to what we called Photograph.
The WAVE Theory (Huygens) = It is the theory that was transcribed from the motion of the water that if
we observe a piece of log floating in the ocean and with the force of the air would naturally will make
the log move up and down.
Corpuscular theory (Newton) = this later opposed the wave theory stating that light has its effect by the
motion of very small particles such as electrons.
Modified Wave theory (Maxwell and hertz)= Based on electromagnetics.
X-ray =Light with the wavelength between .01 to 30 millimicrons. It is produced by passing an electric
current through a special type of vacuum tube. It was incidentally discovered by Conrad Welhelm
Roentgen. This type of light works in the principle of shadow photography.
Ultra-violet ray (Before the violet) = Radiation having a wavelength of 30 to 400 nanometers designed to
photograph fingerprints in multi colored background, documents that are altered, decipherment of
erase writing and developing invisible writing. It is commercially known as “black Light”.
Visible Light = It refers to the type of radiation having a wavelength of 400 to 700 millimicrons designed
for ordinary photographing purposes.
Infra-red (Beyond the Red) = Considered as the photographic rays with the longest wavelength ranging
from 700 to 1000 millimicrons. It is designed to take photograph of over-written documents, obliterated
writing, and charred documents or for black out photography. It is sometimes referred to as heat rays).
Bright Sunlight = object in an open space casts a deep and uniform shadow and the object appears
glossy.
Hazy Sunlight = object in an open space casts a transparent or bluish shadow. This is due to thin clouds
that cover the sun.
Dull Sunlight = object in an open space cast no shadow due to thick clouds covering the sun.
Daylight - may still be classified as: open space bright sunlight, under shade bright sunlight, hazy
sunlight, cloudy sunlight and cloudy dull sunlight.
Artificial Light = otherwise known as man-made light e.g. fluorescent bulb, incandescent bulb and
photoflood lamp.
Black and White Film = usually represented by a prefix or a suffix “Pan” or “Ortho” and generally used in
black and white photography. Examples are Ortholith film, Tri X-Pan and Pan X-plus.
Colored Film = can be divided into two: the Negative type and the reversal type of colored film. The
former is usually having names ending in color while the word chrome represents the latter.
CAMERA - Is a light tight box with light gathering device and a means of blocking unwanted or
unnecessary light from reaching the sensitized material.
Light Tight Box – a box designed to keep light out and serve as a frame to hold other parts.
Lens – designed to collect or to focus the reflected light from an object to form an image on the film.
Shutter – designed to control the time during which the light reaches the film
Holder of the sensitized material – located at the opposite side of the lens designed to hold firmly the
sensitized material to prevent the formation of the multiple or blurred image
View finder – designed to determine the field of view of the camera or the extent of the coverage of the
given lens
Viewing System - Is that part of the camera which provides the means of showing to the
photographer the entire scene coverage that can be recorded in the sensitized material.
Film Advancer (film advance lever or knob) =designed to transfer the exposed film to the other
side or to the take up spool and the unexposed film will be the opposite side of the lens for
another exposure.
Shutter speed = is that part of the camera which regulates the time exposure of the film thus,
affecting the amount of light reaching the sensitized material. It is usually expressed in a
fraction of a second.
Lens Aperture = the ratio between the diameter of the whole lens in relation to the focal length
of the lens. It is the light gathering power of the lens. Otherwise known as lens opening or
relative aperture and it is expressed in F-number.
Focusing = is that mechanism of a camera designed to control the degree of sharpness of the object to
be photograph. It is usually obtained by estimating the distance from the camera and that of the object
that will make a sharp or clear image.
Ground Glass - This is observed from the viewing system of the camera, once the object is not in focused
the object will be viewed to be blurred and will turn sharp and clear once adjusted.
Scale Bed - Estimating the distance of the object and adjusting the camera control based on his
estimation do this.
View or Press type – is considered the biggest and expensive type of camera, used for movie making
LENS = It is the image-forming device of the lens that actually has a greater effect on the quality of the
image to be formed.
Daniel Barbaro = first to introduce the use of lens in the camera.
Focal Length – is the distance measured from the optical center of the lens is set to focus at infinite
position. As according to focal lenses may be classified as:
Wide Angle or Short Focus = with focal length not longer than the diagonal half of the negative. Useful in
taking photograph at short distance with wider area coverage.
Normal or Medium Focus = with focal length approximately equal but not longer than twice the diagonal
half of the negative.
Long or Telephoto Lens = with focal length longer than twice the diagonal half of the negative. Best used
in long distance photographing but with narrow area coverage.
ZOOM lens = lens with variable focal length or that which can be adjusted continuously by the
movement of one or more elements in the lens system.
Relative Aperture – the light gathering power of the lens expressed in F-number
Depth of Field – is the distance measured from the nearest to the farthest object in apparent sharp
focus when the lens
Hyperfocal distance = Is the nearest distance at which when a lens is focused with a given particular
diaphragm opening will gives the maximum depth of field.
Focusing = is the setting of the proper distance in order to form a sharp image. The one that controls the
degree of sharpness of the object.
Acetic Acid and Boric acid = serves as neutralizer
Sodium Sulfate = serves as the preservative
Potassium Bromide = restrainer or hardener
Sodium bicarbonate and borax powder = serves as accelerator
Dodging = is the process of eliminating unwanted portion of the negative during enlarging.
Cropping = is the process of omitting an object during the process of enlarging and printing.
Vignetting = is the gradual fading of the image towards the side through skillful adjustment on the
dodging board.
Dye toning = is the process designed in changing the color tone of the photograph.
Burning-In = refers to additional exposure on a desired portion of the negative used for purposes of
making a balance exposure.
PERSONAL IDENTIFICATION
1. pattern area A part of the whorl or loop in which appear the cores, deltas and ridges.
2. Eight How many standard fingerprint patterns are there?
3. Meet tracing If the number of interesting lines had been three then this would have been?
4. Extra finger In Dactyloscopy, if we say a person with polydactyl hand he has?
5. Focal Point The core and delta are also termed as _____?
6. bifurcation The forking or dividing of one line to two or more branches.
7. Furrows This is a canal like impression or depression found between the ridges.
8. Dactylography This refers to the study of fingerprints for the purpose of identification.
9. Chiroscopy What is the science of palm print identification?
10. whorl A 32 over 32 would indicate all _________ patterns in primary classification.
11. fingerprint A forensic chemist is tasked to examine the chemical nature and composition of the
following except one:
12. Principle of infallibility A Dogmatic Principle which postulates that the fingerprint cannot be
forged.
13. whorl A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges form a sequence of spirals around core axes.
14. Semi-visible print A kind of fingerprint which is found on soft and sticky objects such as wax and
tape?
15. Latent fingerprints Fingerprints left on various surfaces at the crime scene which are not clearly
visible.
16. Plain Arch In an accidental whorl type of pattern, what pattern is not included in the combination?
17. Whorl In the distribution of percentage in the fingerprint pattern, 35% is being represented by what
group?
18. ridges Is that appears as tiny black line with white dots (called pores) in an inked finger impression?
19. Latent Prints It refers to all fingerprints left at the crime scene including those left accidentally or
unconsciously.
20. type lines The innermost ridges run parallel and surrounded to the pattern area are known as
_______.
21. Furrows These are depressions or canals between the ridges of a fingerprint which maybe compared
with the low area in a tire tread.
22. Furrows What are the depressed portions or canal structure of the friction skin found between
ridges?
23. Friction ridges What are those that are sometimes referred to as papillary or epidermal ridges?
24. both thumb finger What fingers are rolled towards the body in taking a rolled impression?
25. Ulnar Loop What is the type of a pattern in which the looping or slanting ridges flows towards the
little finger?
26. Tented Arch What type of a pattern possesses an angle, an upthrust, or two of the three basic
characteristics of the loop?
27. Two When a ridge bifurcates, sending two ridges across the imaginary line, how is it counted?
28. volar skin Located along the undersides of the fingers, palms, toes, and soles appear corrugated skin
structure known to the biologist as
29. friction skin Located along the undersides of the fingers, palms, toes, and soles appear corrugated
skin structure known to the fingerprint examiner as
30. Faulds In 1905, the Stratton brothers was convicted after they were charged of murdering Farrow
couple. This accomplishment was a work of?
31. Sir William Herschel He first used fingerprints on native contracts in Hooghly district in Jungipoor,
India.
32. principle of permanency It is said that the fingerprints of a person will be carried from womb to
tomb. What principle greatly described the phrase?
33. Robert James Pitts Who used surgery to destroy his friction ridges and was known as the Man
without fingerprint.
34. People Vs. Medina The first conviction in the Philippine Case which gives recognition to the science
of fingerprint?
35. Johannes Evangelist Purkinje He is known as the Father of Fingerprint Examination.
36. 3rd to 4th months of the fetus life Ridge forms in the person’s fingers and feet during its infants
stage which usually starts:
37. a core The following are considerations used for the identification of a loop except one:
38. Bifurcation is selected What is the rule when there is a choice between a bifurcation and other type
of delta found in the fingerprint?
39. help identify victims of calamities like crime Which of the following is not true about the value or the
importance of fingerprinting?
40. major division It is placed just to the left of the primary in the classification formula. Where whorls
appear in the thumbs following the whorl tracings subsecondary classification.
41. Ulnar loop What type of pattern in which it could be found on the lower box of the fingerprint card
having a delta and core with a recurving ridge flowing towards the no. 6 finger?
42. presence of 1 sufficient recurving ridge Which of the following best describes a loop pattern?
44. enclosure These kind of ridge characteristic is sometimes being misinterpreted as a bifurcation
because of its close resemblance to it. This ridge is known as:
45. Pattern area What is that portion of the fingerprint bounded by the type lines where the
characteristics needed for interpretation/classification is found?
46. Primary The right and left little fingers are used exclusively for the Final Classification. However, they
are also considered in what classification?
47. Ridges These are tiny portions or is a hill-like structure found on the epidermis of friction skin
containing sweat, with pores appearing as black likes in a fingerprint impression.
48. principle of infallibility The principle in fingerprint study that states that fingerprint cannot be forged.
Fingerprint is a reliable and a positive means of identification.
49. It must have a complete circuit The following are the requisites of a loop except one,
50. Ridge counting In fingerprinting, it refers to the process of counting the intervening ridges that touch
or cross an imaginary line drawn between the core and the delta.
Criminalistics = Is the application of the principles of various sciences in solving problems in connection
with the administration of justice.
Dr. Hans Gross = An Australian magistrate to described Search for Truth as the ultimate goal of all
investigative and detective works. He is known as the Father of Modern Criminalistics.
Dactyloscopy – (derived from the Latin words Dactyl = finger and Skopien – to study
or examine) is the practical application of the science of fingerprints.
Dactylography – is the scientific study of fingerprint as a means of identification.
Dactylomancy – is the scientific study of fingerprint for purposes of personality
interpretation.
Dermatoglyphics = is the science which deals with the study of skin pattern. It is
derived from two Greek words, Derma which means Skin and Glype which means
Carve.
Fingerprints Is an impression design by the first joint of the fingers and thumb on
smooth surface through the media of ink, sweat or any substance capable of producing
visibility.
Friction Skin – is an epidermal hairless skin found on the ventral or lower surface of
the hands and feet covered with ridges and furrows.(Also called as Papillary skin).
Components of the Friction Skin
Ridge Dot (island ridge) – refers to a ridge formation in a form of a dot or period.
Bifurcation – a ridge formation in which a single ridge splits or divides into two or
more ridges. It resembles a fork shape.
Converging Ridge – two ridges that meets at a certain point
Diverging Ridge – two ridges that spread apart
Enclosure or Lake ridge – a single ridge that divides into two but does not remain
open and meet at a certain point to form the original single ridge.
Ending ridge – it refers to an abrupt end of a ridge
Type lines – is a diverging ridge that tends to surround the pattern area and serves
as a basic boundary of fingerprint impression.
Pattern Area – is a part of a loop of whorl pattern surrounded by the type lines and
consisting of the delta, the core and other ridges.
Recurving ridge – a single ridges that curves back to the direction where it started.
Sufficient Recurve – a recurving ridge which is complete with its should and free
from any appendage.
Appendage – is a short ridge found at the top or summit of a recurve
Rod or Bar – is a short of long ridge found inside the recurve and directed towards
the core
Obstruction ridge – is a short ridge found inside the recurve which blocks the inner
line of flow towards the core.
Ink Slab – is a metallic or glass plate where the ink is spread for purpose
Ink Roller – is a rubber made roller designed to spread the fingeprint ink to the slab.
Fingerprint Ink – is a special form of ink designed for taking fingerprint impression sometimes submitted
with a printer’s ink.
Fingerprint card – is an 8” x 8” card designed for recording fingerprint impression
Card holder – usually a fixed card holder placed in a flat table designed to prevent the movement of the
card in the course of the taking of the fingerprint.
Visible prints = are those prints which are readily visible to the naked eye. It can either be: Molded
prints or Prints made by contamination with colored substance.
Invisible prints = prints that are generally made by sweat or perspiration that requires developing for
visibility.
Dusting Method = considered as the simplest and traditional methods used in developing prints
at the scene of the crime. (Use of Powder and Brush)
Rolling Method = basically used in developing prints in paper done by simply rolling the paper
with powder spreading in its surface.
Fuming Methods = done by using chemical fumes such as Iodine and Ammonium Fumes.
Silver Nitrate method – done by spraying a 5 percent solution of silver nitrate to the surface of
the paper.
Ninhydrin Method = is considered as one of the best method used in developing prints in paper.
Laser Method = is a modern method of tracing and developing prints.
Post Mortem Fingerprints = are prints taken from a diseased person.

FORENSIC BALLISTICS
1. Berdan Primer A type of primer with two vents or flash holes.
2. Side or body of the shell Fired Cartridge case/shell are usually mark at the _________?
3. frame Is that part of a firearm which houses all the other parts.
4. Calibre It is the measurement of the bore diameter from land to land.
5. Ballistics It is the science of mobility of the projectile.
6. Gauge The caliber of the smoothbore firearm case measure by?
7. Trajectory The pattern or curved path of the bullet in flight.
8. Primer What initiates the combustion of the gunpowder in a shell?
9. Bullet Recovery Box What instrument is used in obtaining test bullet?
10. Carbine What type of a firearm is commonly used by cavalry?
11. interior ballistics It is a branch of ballistics that treats of the motion of a projectile while still inside
the firearm.
12. terminal accuracy It refers to the size of the bullet groupings on the target.
13. Terminal accuracy Which refers to the size of the bullet grouping on the target?
14. Hammer A metal rod or plate that strikes the cartridge primer to detonate the powder.
15. Silencer A device that fits over the muzzle of the barrel to muffle the sound of a gunshot. Most work
by baffling the escape of gases.
16. Revolver A hand gun in which a rotating cylinder successively places cartridge into position for firing
is known as?
17. tracer bullet A type of a bullet designed to be fired at night which emits a bright flame at its base and
usually colored red-tip.
18. Shotgun A type of a firearm which propels a number of lead pellets in one charge to a smooth bore
barrel.
19. grease gun Generally applied to all homemade gun, just as the one used by juvenile delinquent in
United States.
20. Muzzle energy In the story of crime, with the use of firearm, the energy coming from the muzzle
point is called?
21. Ammunition Is a complete unfired unit consisting of bullet, primer, gun powder and shell:
22. Exterior Is that branch of ballistics which treats the motion of the projectile while it is in its flight?
23. Velocity Is the rate of speed of the bullet per unit of time, expressed in ft/sec?
24. Accurate Range It is the distance at which the gunner has the control of shot where the bullet travel
straight.
25. Class Characteristics It refers to the characteristics of a firearm which are determinable even before
the manufacture of the firearm?
26. Extractor That mechanism in a firearm by which the cartridge case or shell is withdrawn from the
chamber.
27. Extractor The mechanism of a firearm which withdraws the empty shells from the chamber?
28. Exterior Ballistics The moment the bullet leaves the muzzle of the gun. What kind of ballistic?
29. Extractor The part of the mechanism of a firearm that withdraws the shell or cartridge from the
chamber.
30. Ballistics The science dealing with the motion of a projectile and the conditions governing that
motion.
31. Terminal Ballistics The study of the effect of the impact of a projectile on the target.
32. Trajectory This is the actual curved path of the bullet during its flight from the gun muzzle and
target.
33. Ricochet This refers to the deflection of the bullet from its normal path after striking a resistant
surface.
34. rifling This refers to the helical grooves cut in the interior surface of the bore.
35. Caliper What do you call the type of instrument used in measuring pitch of rifling firearms?
36. Helixometer What instrument is used in measuring the pitch of rifling of a firearm?
37. Hang fire What occurs when a cartridge fails to explode on time or delayed in firing?
38. Artillery What type of a firearm propels a projectile with more than one inch diameter?
39. Paraffin test Which of the following test is used to determine whether a person fired a gun?
40. to throw The term ballistics was actually derived from the Greek word “ballein or ballo”, which
means
41. muzzle blast It is the sound created at the muzzle end of the gun barrel after explosion.
42. maximum range The greatest distance a projectile can travel when fired at the optimum angle of
elevation of the barrel.
43. center-fire cartridge The Morse cartridge in 1858 marked the beginning of the rapid development of
the
44. cartridge It refers to one complete unfired unit consisting of a bullet, primer, cartridge case, and
gunpowder
45. Individual characteristics Characteristics which are determinable only after the manufacture of the
firearm.
46. rifling operation The most important single process in a barrel manufacture from the standpoint of
the identification expert is:
47. Drift The curved path of a bullet is mainly caused by several factors. What do you call the manner of
curving of the bullet?
48. translational motion The motion responsible for the bouncing of the bullet in different direction
after hitting a much harder object known as ricochet.
49. Rimmed case What should be the classification of a shell when the diameter of the rim is larger than
the diameter of the shell’s body?
50. Pistols Handguns that can be fired several times by means of cartridge stored in the handle are
called.
Ballistics is the science of the motion of the projectile and the condition that affects their motion.
Direct Motion = is the forward motion of the bullet or shots out of the shell by the action of the
expansive force of gases from a burning gunpowder.
Rotatory motion = is the action of the bullet passing through a rifled bore barrel firearm which
is either twisted to the left or to the right.
Translational = is the action of bullet once it hits a target and subsequently ricocheted.
The word “ballo” and the word “ballein” which literally mean, “to throw”.
“Ballista”, a gigantic catapult that was used to furl missiles or large object at a distance like stone, dead
animal or even dead person.
Interior (Internal) Ballistics = it treats of the motion of the projectile while it is still inside the firearm
(chamber /barrel) which extends from the breech to the muzzle.
Exterior (external) Ballistics = treats of the attributes or movement of the projectile after leaving the
gun muzzle.
Muzzle Blast Is the noise created at the muzzle point of the gun.
Muzzle energy Energy generated at the muzzle point measured in foot-pound.
Trajectory Refers to the parabola-like flight of the projectile from the time it leaves the muzzle until it
hits the target. It is also described as the actual curve path taken by a bullet during its.
Range It refers to the imaginary straight distance between the muzzle of the gun and the target.
Velocity Refers to the rate of speed of the bullet (during its flight) per unit of time usually express is feet
per second (ft/sec.)
Pull of Gravity It is the downward reaction of the bullet towards the earth surface due to its weight.
Air Resistance Refers to the force of the air encounter by the bullet in its flight.
Terminal Ballistics= is that branch of Ballistics which deals with the effects of the impact of the
projectile on the target.
Forensic Ballistics is defined as the study of the motion of the projectile as applied to law or simply the
science of firearm identification by means of the ammunition fired through them.
John M. Browning - Wizard of the modern firearms and pioneered the breech loading single shot rifled
which was adopted by Winchester.
Samuel Colt - Patented the first practical revolver and maker of the Colt Peace Maker, a famous revolver
in the history.
Alexander John Forsyth - Father of the percussion powder.
Major Uziel Gal - An Israeli army who designed UZI (Israel) in the year 1950.
Col. Calvin H. Goddard - Father of modern Ballistics.
John C. Garand - Designed and invented the Semi automatic U.S. Rifle Cal. 30. M1 garand.
George Hyde - A well-known expert in the field of SMG, (also known as grease gun) developed in 1941.
M3A1 (USA).
Michael Kalashnikov - Designed the AK (Automat Kalashnikova) 47 (Soviet Union) adopted by the
Russian Army in the year 1951.
Horace Smith - Founded the great firm of Smith and Wesson and pioneered in making breech loading
rifles.
Eugene Stoner - Designed the U.S. M16 Armalite under licensed by Colt Company from July 1959
onwards.
L.C. Smith - Developed shotgun bearing his name now the Ithaca gun Company.
John T. Thompson - Developed in the course of WW1 the Thompson M1A1 and model of 1928 A1 (USA).
Pioneered the making of Thompson sub-machine gun.
Daniel B. Wesson - Associates of Horace Smith in the making of Revolver.
David “Carbine” Williams - Maker of the first known Carbine.
Oliver Winchester - One of the earliest rifle and pistol maker.
1242 A.D. Roger Bacon published the “ De Mirabili Potestate Artis et Naturae” (On
the Marvelous Power of Arts and Nature), which noted Black powder
formula.
1498 Introduction of the rifling and sights became better and breech loaders
were attempted although never succeeded yet even multi shots arms due
to lack of good ignition system.
1500’s The development of the Wheel Lock, operates in the same principle as
the modern day cigarette lighter. At mid of 1500’s “snaphaunce” was
developed.
1575 Paper Cartridge was developed. Ball and powder charged were wrapped
in chemically treated paper to allow the carrying of numerous pre-
measured charges or pre loaded rounds.
1750 The development of Breech-loading firearms leading to the making of

FERGUSON Rifle of Major Patrick Ferguson, COLLIER Rifle, which is a
flint lock repeating rifle operated on a revolving principle and, the HALL
Rifle patented in 1811 by Col. John Hall and was the 1st breechloader
adopted by the U.S. Army.
1805 The Percussion System. Alexander John Forsyth discovered a

compound that would ignite upon blow that would ignite the powder
charge. In 1840, it replaces the flintlock ignition and was adopted in 1838
by the British and in 1842 by the American.
1835 The first real cartridge was developed “The Flobert Cap” same as the
BB and was considered the forerunner of .22 short cartridge.
1835 Samuel Colt patented the first revolver and marketed in 1872, a breech
loading revolver.
1836 Pin fire Cartridge, was developed by Le Faucheux. A much real pin fire
cartridge was also developed in the same year by Houiller.
1845 Rim fire cartridge, Flobert developed the BB (bullet breech) cap, which
was considered the forerunner of the .22 cal cartridge. In the same year,
New Havens Arms Company owned by Oliver F. Winchester, through the
effort of Tyler Henry developed a .44 cal rim fire cartridge for Henry
Rifle.
1846 Smokeless powder was discovered. It was used in shotgun first in the
year 1864 by Capt. Eschultze of Prussian Army and in Rifle by the year
1884 by M. Vieille of France.
1873 Colt Peace Maker, model 1873, .45 cal. The most famous revolver in
history and legend was manufactured.
1884 Automatic Machine Gun. Hiram Maxim developed the first fully automatic
gun.
Firearms or arms as herein used, includes rifles, muskets, carbines, shotgun, pistol,
revolvers, and all other deadly weapons, to which a bullet, ball, shot, shell, or other
missiles maybe discharge by means of gun powder or other explosives.
Firearm is an instrument used for the propulsion of projectile by means of the expansive force gases
coming from burning gunpowder. (FBI manual of Firearms Identification).
Rifles= A shoulder weapon designed to fire a projectile with more accuracy through a
long rifled bore barrel, usually more than 22 inches.
Carbine = A short barrel rifle, with its barrel rifle, measuring not longer than 22 inches. It
fires a single projectile though a rifle-bore either semi-automatic or fully automatic, for
every press of the trigger.
Muskets = is an ancient smoothbore and muzzle loading military shoulder arms

designed to fire a shots or a single round lead ball. A more detailed discussion of
musketeers can be found on chapter 8 in the discussion of ignition system.
Shotgun = A smooth bore and a breech loading shoulder arms designed to fire a
number of lead pellets or a shots in one charge (FBA Manual)
Ammunition refers to loaded shell for rifles, muskets, carbine, shotgun, revolvers and
pistols from which a ball, shot shell or other missiles maybe fired by means of gun
powder or other explosive.
Ammunition refers to a group of cartridge or to a single cartridge. Cartridge is a

complete unfired unit consisting of bullet (ball), primer (cap), cartridge case (shell) and
gunpowder (propellant).
The word cartridge was derived from the Latin word “Charta” meaning – a “paper” and
also from the French word “Cartouche” meaning – a rolled paper. This only indicates
that the first type of cartridge was made up of a rolled paper.
Pin-Fire = is a type of cartridge in which the ignition cap (primer) is concealed inside the cartridge case
and has a pin resting upon it.
b. Rim fire = is a type of cartridge in which the priming mixture is located at the hallow rim of the case
can be fired if the cartridge is tuck by the firing pin on the rim of the case (cavity rim).
Center fire = t refers to a cartridge in which primer cup (ignition cap) is centrally placed in the base of
the cartridge case and the priming mixture is exploded by the impact of the firing pin and with the
support of the anvil.
Primer (also called CAP) is the ignition system of the cartridge used in a center fire
type, containing a highly sensitive chemical compound that would easily ignite or bursts
into flame when struck by the firing pin. It may either be Berdan or Boxer type.
Gunpowder (also called as propellant or Power Charge) is that mixture of chemicals of

various compositions designed to propel the projectile by means of its expansive force
of gas when burned.
Later, M. Vieille of French developed the first smokeless powder for riffle in the year
1884 and named it “poudre B” taken after Gen. Boulanger’s name.
QUESTIONED DOCUMENTS
1. Ink A fluid or viscous marking material used for writing or printing.
2. retracing Any stroke which goes back over another writing stroke.
3. Base It is where handwriting rest?
4. Proving Authorship Majority of questioned document cases are concerned with _________?
5. Document classification Questioned document examination is known by many names except one:
6. Calligraphy The art of beautiful writing is known as
7. Presence of Natural Variation The following are characteristics of forgery except one:
8. charta What is the Latin word for “paper”
9. The written strokes Which of the following is the primary determinant of writing speed?
10. Document classification Questioned document examination is known by many names except one:
11. Questioned Document A document in which some issues have been raised or is under scrutiny.
12. altered document A document which contains some changes either as an addition or deletion.
13. Model signature A genuine signature used to prepare an imitated or traced forgery is known as
14. mechanical erasure A kind of erasure by using a rubber eraser, sharp knife, razor blade or picking
instrument.
15. Pen lifts An interruption in a stroke caused by removing the writing instrument from the paper is
described as:
16. document Any written instrument by which a right or obligation is established.
17. Ambidextrous A person who can write either with his left or right hand is called–
18. pen emphasis It is the periodic increase in pressure, characterized by widening of the ink stroke.
19. Smears This are usually the result from contact with the other writings.
20. exemplars Specimens of hand writing or of typescript which is of known origin.
21. Signature The name of a person written by him/her in a document as a sign of acknowledgement.
22. Decipherment The process of making out what is illegible or what has been effaced.
23. simulated or copied There is freehand invitation and is considered as the most skilful class of forgery
24. Patching The retouching of a defective portion of a written stroke is known in questions document
examination as –
25. Mechanical erasure This is done by rubbing off with rubber or scrapping off with sharp instrument.
26. Loss writing Writing characterized by too much freedom of movement and lack of regulation which
is usually tall letters.
27. transitory typeface defect This typewriter defect is brought about by clogged typefaces, poor
condition or worn-out or torn ribbon.
28. it is contemporeanous All but one are the principles on choosing the best standards for comparison.
29. Copy book form Refers to the design of letters which are fundamental to a writing system.
30. wrist movement This handwriting movement is usually indicated by regularity of lines and
considerable speed.
31. quality of movement This movement may be categorized into hesitating and painful due to
weakness and illness.
32. Blots These are devised for obscuring forger’s intention to hide rather than a manifestation of the
careless use of a pen.
33. diacritics There are only three prominent letters in the alphabet that bears this kind of
characteristics.
34. Changes A document becomes questioned documents when _____ or alterations, this usually affect
the original meaning of a document.
35. Changes A document becomes questioned documents when _____ or alterations, this usually affect
the original meaning of a document.
36. public document A kind of document executed by a person in authority and by private parties but
notarized by competent officials.
37. Stamp-pad inks An ink that is made by grinding carbon in the form of vegetable char with varnish
made of natural gums and drying oils.
38. standard document An instrument that can be legally used in comparison with a questioned
document, its origin is known and can be proven.
39. pen pressure How do you call the average force with which the pen contacts the paper and may be
estimated from an examination of the writing?
40. Disputed Documents If a document is disputed by one or more persons because of the materials
used in their production, then such document is considered?
41. Lewis Waterman If ballpoint was patented by John Loud who patented the first practical fountain
pen containing its own ink reservoir?
42. Uttering Legally speaking, what is the description of the act of passing, delivering, or giving a
counterfeit coin to another person?
43. any sign of forgery Questioned document examination often involves comparing questioned
handwriting with known handwriting to determine?
44. Natural variation Refers to the usual or normal deviations found in a repeated specimen of
individual’s handwriting.
45. requested standards Standards which are prepared upon the request of the investigator and for the
purpose of comparison with the questioned document.
46. Graphology Which of these refers to the art of determining the character or disposition of person by
analyzing his handwriting?
47. Papyrus Which of the following is considered the earliest material that served the purpose of paper
during the ancient times?
48. questioned document A document which is being questioned because of its origin, its contents or
the circumstances or the stories of its production.
49. Style spacing The three general areas of examination in questioned typewriting except one…
50. embody no basic differences Two handwritings cannot be deemed to be the writing of the same
person unless:
Document - Any material that contains a mark symbol or sign, either visible, partially visible or invisible
that may presently or ultimately convey a meaning or a message to someone.
Questioned Document – Document to which an issue has been raised or which is under scrutiny. The
focal point of the examination and to which the document examiner relies as to the extent of the
problem. (also referred to as disputed document).
Standard Document – Document in which the origin is known can be proven and can legally be used as
sample to compare with other things is questioned.
Public Document = a document created, executed or issued by a public official in response to the
exigencies of the public service, or in the execution of which a public official intervened.
Official Document = a document which is issued by a public official in the exercise of the functions of his
office. Am official document is also a public document as a larger classification.
Private Document = A deed or instrument executed by a private person without the intervention of a
notary public or other person legally authorized, by which documents, some disposition or agreement is
proved, evidenced or set forth. (US Vs. Orera, 11 Phil 596) e.g. Theater Ticket.
Commercial Document = any document defined and regulated by the Code of Commerce ( People Vs.
Co Beng, C.A. 40 OG 1913) or any other commercial law.
Signature – a name of person signed by himself on a document as a sign of acknowledgement.
Model signature – genuine signature which has been used in preparing a simulated or traced forgery.
Evidential Signature – specimen signature which was executed in particular date, particular time and
place, under a particular writer’s condition and for a particular purpose.
Simple forgery – a forges signature where no attempt has been made to make a copy or facsimile of the
genuine writing of a person purported to sign the document. Also known as spurious signature
Simulated or Copied forgery – a forged signature which resembles the genuine signature written in free-
hand. Considered as the most skillful type of forgery.
Traced Forgery – forged signature which closely resembles the genuine made by some tracing process or
outline form.
Embellishments – added strokes that serves as an ornamental or flourish to the design of the letters.
They considered unnecessary to the legibility of the writing.
Diacritics = strokes added to complete certain letters. They are necessary to the legibility of the letters.
Writing Movement – refers to all factors relative to the motion of the pen.
Line Quality – is the visible records in the written strokes of the basic movements and manner of holding
instrument. It is derived from a combination of factors, including writing skill, speed, rhythm, freedom
of movement, shading and pen emphasis.
Natural Variations – is the usual or normal deviation found in a repeated specimen of an individual’s
handwriting or in the product of any typewriter.
Transitory Change – are meant to those changes which only continue to exist while the basic cause of
the deterioration is still affecting the writer, once the such cause has been removed from the writer, the
writing will reverts in its normal form.
Tremor – is the weakening of the strokes characterized by a wavering or shaky strokes.
Typeface – is the printing surface of the type block in a conventional typewriter. In electric typewriter it
is the printing surface of the rotating head sphere.
Typeface defect – any form of peculiarity of the type printing caused by actual damage to
the typeface metal or which maybe an abnormality in its printing condition.
Characters – in connection to typewriting, it is used to include letters, symbols, numerals or points of

punctuation.
Pica typeface – type face impression ordinarily spaced ten (10) characters to the horizontal inch.
Elite typeface – type face impression ordinarily spaced twelve (12) characters to the horizontal inch.
Proportional spacing machine – a typewriter with a type letter spacing similar to the type spacing of
conventional printed in which all letters are allotted horizontal in conformity with their relative widths.
Transitory Defects – is an identifying typewriter characteristics which can be eliminated
by simply cleaning the machine or replacing the ribbon.
Permanent Defects – any identifying typewriting characteristics of the type face which cannot be
corrected by simply cleaning the machine or replacing the ribbon.
Mal alignment or alignment defects – refers to defect in the printing condition of the type character
in which the letters are printed either at the top or bottom, left or right of inclined from its proper
position.
LEGAL MEDICINE
1. Fracture A break or solution in the continuity of bone refers to…
2. glass A supercooled liquid which possess high viscosity and rigidity.
3. lacerated wound A wound produced by a blunt instrument such as club and stone.
4. Inverted edge Characteristics of gunshot wound of entrance
5. manceres Children conceived by prostitutes are called
6. 3-4 hours How many hours does the stomach completely digest a medium meal?
7. Thermometer Instrument used in the measurement of temperature.
8. Silica It is the major component of a glass.
9. Rigor mortis One is a condition that can approximate the time of death.
10. Forensic Odontology Personal identification by dental characteristics is called-
11. Violet The color of blood in post mortem Lividity?
12. Regulated Death The following are kinds of death, which one is not?
13. Gun Shot Wound The following are valid classifications of wound, except:
14. Moulage The process in reproducing physical evidence by plaster moulds.
15. Odontology A system of Identification best used in case of burned body.
16. Defense Wounds A type of wound which result of a persons instinctive reaction of self protection
17. mortal wound A wound which if inflicted in the body so serious that it will endanger one’s life.
18. virgo-intacts A condition of women who have had one or more sexual experience but not had
conceived a child.
19. Dislocation A displacement of the particular surface of the bone without external wounds.
20. Fecal test All of the following are accurate tests for the presence of alcohol in the human body
except one:
21. expert witness A person allowed who gives his/her opinion or conclusion on a given scientific
evidence is considered
22. Cut In forensic examination, a tip of the hair is examined to determine if it was _______.
23. 100 yards Is the distance of recognition in broad daylight of a person who is almost a stranger.
24. Coup-contre-coup injury It refers to a physical injury found at the site and opposite site of the
application of force.
25. Moral virginity State of not knowing sex life and have not experienced sexual intercourse:
26. Autopsy The medical dissection and examination of a body in order to determine the caused of
death is?
27. Gait This is a characteristic that shows the manner of walking of an individual.
28. Coup Injury Type of physical injury located at the site of application of force.
29. Mayhem What refers to the cutting of a body part of another person to weaken his defense?
30. Speech Which of the following personal identification is not easy to change?
31. judge Who qualifies a forensic chemist as expert?
32. Thrust wounds What is the term referring to those wounds inflicted in a forward motion?
33. Penetrating wound The wound wherein the instrument pierces a solid organ or tissue?
34. Thermal burn It is a type of burn caused by the application of heat or hot object.
35. tear These are wounds produced by a blunt instrument accompanied by a sufficient force.
36. moral virginity This will always be applied to children below the of age puberty.
37. euphoria Which of the following is not included in the evidences to determine drunkenness?
38. Punctured wound An open wound produced by a sharp-pointed instrument and is characterized by a
small opening of the wound.
39. autopsy Examination of the victim’s body in order to determine the cause of death and what internal
organs were destroyed in injured.
40. diffusion lividity Fixed discoloration of the blood clothed inside the blood vessels or has diffused to
different parts of the body.
41. Post-Mortem Caloricity It is the rise in the temperature of the body after death due to rapid and
early putrefactive changes or some internal changes
42. Radial Fracture It refers to a crack in a glass that extends outward like the spoke of a wheel from the
point at which the glass was struck?
43. 12 hrs Rigor mortis is very important in determining the approximate time of death for it starts at
about 2 to 6 hrs and completes at ______?
44. AB type The ABO system divides the human race into four blood types. Which of the following types
has the lowest percentage?
45. Asphyxia The cause of death of a person who immediately died because of lack of oxygen for around
3 to five minutes
46. Somatic death The complete, continuous, persistent cessation of respiration, circulation and almost
all brain function of an organism.
47. Radial fracture These fractures show up on the surface opposite to the one where the fracturing
blow or pressure was applied.
48. Heat stiffening A condition characterized by hardening of the muscle and coagulation of muscles and
due to exposure to burn and hot spot.
49. livor mortis It is a discoloration of the body after death when blood tends to pool in the blood
vessels of the most dependent portion of the body.
50. exhumation It may be made to in order to afford the opportunity for a post mortem examination to
establish the circumstances of the death.
Law- defined as a rule of conduct, just and obligatory, land down by legitimate authority for the
common observance and benefit.
Medicine- A science and art of dealing with prevention, cure and alleviation of disease. It is that part of
science and art of restoring and preserving health.
Legal- Refers to anything conformable to the letters or rules of law as it is administered by the court.
Jurisprudence- A science of giving wise interpretation of the Laws.
Legal Medicine = is that branch of medicine which deals with the application of medical knowledge to
the purposes of law and in the administration of justice.
Forensic Medicine = use of medical science to elucidate legal problems in general without specific
reference or application to a particular case.
Medical Jurisprudence = a branch of law which concerns with the aspects of law and legal concepts to
medical practice. It includes rights, duties, and liabilities of physician, patient and health institution.
Medico-Legal Office System - The system used in the Philippines, which is handled by a medical jurist
who is a registered physician duly qualified to practice medicine in the Phils.
Medical Examiner System This is a system under the control of the Chief medical Examiner that is
a doctor of medicine and appointed by the mayor from the classified lists compiled by the civil service by
the basis of competitive examination.
Ordinary Witness: A physician: who testifies in court on matters be perceived from his patient in the
course of physician-patient relationship is considered as an ordinary witness.
Expert Witness: A physician on account of his training and experience can give his opinion on a set of
medical facts. He can deduce of infer something, determine the cause of death or render opinion
pertinent to the issue and medical in nature.
Experimental Evidence: A medical witness may be allowed by the court to confirm his allegation or as a
corroborated proof to an opinion he previously stated.
Documentary Evidence: A document is an instrument on which is recorded by means of letters, figures

or marks intended to be used for purpose of recording that matter which may be evidentially used.
Physical Evidence: These are articles and materials which are found in connection with the investigation
and which aid in establishing the identity of the perpetrator or the circumstances under which the crime
was committed, or in general assist in the prosecution of a criminal.
Corpus Delicti Evidence- Objects or substance which may be a part of the body of the crime.
Associative Evidence- These are physical evidences which link a suspect to the crime.
Tracing Evidence- These are physical evidences which may assist the investigator in locating the suspect.
Law of Municipality of Evidence (is true in the case of identification.)The greater the number of
similarities or dissimilarities, the greater is the probability for the conclusion to be correct.
Ataxic Gait- a gait which the foot is raised high, thrown forward and brought down suddenly.
Cerebellar gait- a gait associated with staggering movement.
Cow’s Gait- a swaying movement due to knock-knee.
Paretic gait- a gait in which the steps are short, the feet dragged, the legs held more or less widely
apart.
Spastic gait- a gait in which the legs are held together and moves in stiff manner, and the toes to drag
and catch.
Waddling gait- a gait resembling duck
Frog gait- a hoping gait in infantile paralysis
Gait line = the straight line connecting the center of the succeeding steps. It is more or less in zigzag
fashion especially when the legs are far apart while walking
Foot line = the longitudinal line drawn on each foot mark.
Rigor Mortis – 3 to 6 hours

MOST MORTEM LIVIDITY It is the discoloration of the body after death when the blood tens to pool in
the blood vessels for the most dependent portion to the pool in the blood vessels for the most
dependent portion of the body.
DEATH BY ASPHYXIA - a condition resulting from a lack of oxygen in the air or from an obstructing
mechanism to respiration.
ANEMIC ANOXIC DEATH due to a deceased capacity of the blood to carry oxygen
STAGNANT ANOXIC DEATH brought about by the failure of circulation.
HISTOTOXIC ANOXIC DEATH due to the failure of the cellular oxidative process, although the oxygen is
delivered to the tissues, it cannot be utilized properly.
AUTOPSY - a comprehensive study of a dead body performed by trained physician using recognized
dissection procedures and techniques, primary to determine the true cause of death
POST MORTEM EXAMINATION - refers to an external examination of a dead body without incision being
made, although blood and other fluids may be collected for examination.
Petechiae- Are minute, pin point, circumscribed extravasation of blood in the subcutaneous tissues or
underneath the mucous membrane.
Contusion (Bruise)- Wound in the substance of the true skin and in the subcutaneous cellular tissues
characterized by swelling and discoloration of tissue due to extravasation of blood.
Hematoma- large extravation of blood in a newly formed cavity secondary to trauma characterized by
swelling, discoloration and effusion of blood underneath the tissues.
Sprain- The straining or tearing of the articular tendons, ligaments and muscles characterized by
swelling, discoloration of tissues involve and extreme pain.
Fracture- It is a break or solution in the continuity of the bone tissues resulting from violence. (it can be
either simple, compund or comminuted).
Dislocation- Is the displacement of the articular surfaces of the bones forming the joints usually
secondary to trauma. (simple or compound)
Cerebral Concussion- Condition of the brain resulting from a sudden jarring or stunning of the brain
which follows a blow on the head characterized by headache or dazziness, unconciousness or semi-
unconciousness, relaxed and flaccid muscles, slow and shallow respiration and rapid but weak pulse
Internal Hemorrhage- It is the bleeding usually in the cavity or organs inside the body. (intra-cranial,
Rupture of organ and Laceration of Organ).
Virginity = a condition of a female who has not experienced sexual intercourse and whose genital organs
have not been altered by carnal correction.
MORAL VIRGINITY = state of not knowing the nature of sexual life and not having experienced sexual
relation.
PHYSICAL VIRGINITY = a condition whereby a woman is conscious of the nature of the sexual life but
not experienced sexual intercourse. Applies to women who have reached sexual maturity but not
experienced sexual intercourse.
TRUE PHYSICAL VIRGINITY= a condition wherein the hymen is intact, with the edges distinct and
regular, and the opening is small to barely admit the tip of the smallest finger of the examiner even if
the thighs are separated.
FALSE PHYSICAL VIRGINITY= A condition wherein the hymen is unruptured but the orifice is wide and
elastic to admit two or more fingers of the examiner with a lesser degree of resistance.
DEMI-VIRGINITY= a condition of a woman who permits any form of sexual liberties as long as they
abstain from rupturing the hymen by sexual act.
VIRGO INTACTA= applied to women who have had previous sexual act but not yet given birth.
DEFLORATION = the laceration or rupture of the hymen as a result of sexual intercourse.
SEXUAL DEVIATIONS
HOMOSEXUALITY = sexual desire towards the same sex.
INFANTOSEXUALITY = sexual desire towards an immature person. Also known as PEDOPHILIA.
BESTOSEXUAL = sexual desire towards animals; also known as bestiality.
AUTOSEXUALITY = self –gratification ; also known as masturbation.
GERONTOPHILIA= sexual desire towards an older person.
NECROPHILIA = a sexual perversion characterized by erotic desire or actual sexual intercourse with a
corpse.
INCEST = sexual relations between person who, by reason of blood relationship cannot legally marry.
SATYRIASIS = excessive sexual urge of men.
NYMPHOMANIA = excessive sexual urge of women.
FELATTIO = the female agent receives the penis of a man into her mouth and by friction with the lips and
tongue coupled with the act of sucking initiates orgasm.
CUNNILINGUS = sexual gratification is attained by licking or sucking the external female genitalia.
ANILINGUS = a form of sexual perversion wherein a person derives sexual excitement by licking the anus
of another person of either sex.
SADISM =(Active Algolagnia) = A form of sexual perversion in which the infliction of pain on another is
necessary for sexual enjoyment
MASOCHISM (passive algolagnia) = A form of sexual perversion in which the infliction of pain by another
is necessary for sexual enjoyment.
FETISHISM = a form of sexual perversion wherein the real or fantasied presence of an object or bodily
part is necessary for sexual stimulation and gratification.
PYGMALIONISM = a sexual deviation whereby a person has sexual desire for statutes.
FROTTAGE = a form of sexual gratification characterized by the compulsive desire of a person to rub his
sex organ against some part of the body of another.
VOYEURISM = a form of sexual perversion characterized by a compulsion to peep to see persons undress
or perform other personal activities.
POLYGRAPH
1. Relevant Question “Did you kill Rossey last night?” is an example of what question?
2. Pnuemograph This component records the changes of breathing of the subject
3. Pneumograph This is the longest and the third pen of the instrument.
4. Relevant Questions Is Fatty, the rape victim, your girlfriend? This is a/an
5. Sweating Cold damp perspiration is a manifestation of shock, fear and anxiety. Perspiration means?
6. Reliability It refers to the consistency across examiners/scorers.
7. Irrelevant Questions These are questions that don't have any bearing to the case.
8. Relevant Questions These are questions pertaining to the issue under investigation.
9. Validity It is the measure of the extent to which an observed situation reflects the "true" situation.
10. Control Is the knife found at the crime scene yours? What kind of question is this?
11. deception In “polygraph examination”, the term “examination” means a detection of
12. Word association test A list of stimulus and non-stimulus words are read to the subject who is
instructed to answer as quickly as possible.
13. fear It refers to an emotional response to a specific danger, which appears to go beyond a person’s
defensive power.
15. Devine intervention Ordeal is a term of varying meaning closely related in the Medieval Latin “Dei
Indicum” meaning –
16. negative If polygraph tracing of a subject indicates that he is truthful, the examiners finding should
be-
17. Cardiograph channel Which of the following polygraph channels records the blood pressure changes
and pulses rate of the examinee?
18. specific stimulus A well phrased question designed to cause a response from a subject is technically
called –
19. Preliminary Preparations This stage is the initial interview with the investigator handling the case or
the person requesting it.
20. Control Questions These are questions unrelated to the matter under investigation but are of
similar nature.
21. Relevant question “Were you in the place of the Mr. Alfonso on the night of October 18, 2014?” is an
example of what question?
22. Specific response The deviation from normal tracing of the subject in the relevant question.
23. Relevant question Which of the following causes physiological changes in the body of the subject?
24. X What is the symbol used to indicate start of the polygraph test marked in the chart?
25. Kymograph assembly What part of the polygraph instrument that drives the chart paper at six inches
per minute during the test?
26. Specific Response What refers to the deviation from the normal tracing of the subject caused by a
relevant question?
27. Cardiosphygmograph What component of the polygraph records the blood pressure and the pulse
rate of a subject?
28. Pneumograph What component of the polygraph machine records the changes in the breathing of
the subject?
29. Cardiosphygmograph What component of the polygraph records the blood pressure and the pulse
rate of a subject?
30. Irrelevant question Those pertaining to basic data and information regarding the background of the
subject not related to the case.
31. Narcoanalysis The use of “truth serums” such as sodium penthothal or phenobarbi in the
questioning of suspects is called:
32. Symptomatic This is a question designed to design and evaluate the presence of outside issued
which may suppose responses to relevant questions.
33. Test Execution This refers to the actual questioning phase of the polygraph examination.
34. Irrelevant Questions These are questions, which have no bearing to the case under investigation
35. Cardiosphygmograph A component of the polygraph instrument which records the blood pressure
and the pulse rate of the subject.
36. specific response The deviation from normal tracing of the subject in the relevant question.
37. 5 hours Prior to the examination the subject should have at least ___ hours of sleep.
38. Polygraph examiner Refers to a person who is capable of detecting deception or verifying the truth
statements.
39. Pneumograph A component of the polygraph instrument which records the breathing of the subject.
40. X In polygraph examination, what is the standardized chart marking to begin or start the
questioning?
41. Fear It refers to an emotional response to a specific danger, which appears to go beyond a person’s
defensive power.
42. Investigator In polygraph test, after the subject affirms that he is involved in a crime the examiner
should report it to the?
43. Fear Is an emotional response to specific danger that appears to be beyond a person’s defensive
power.
44. Negative If polygraph tracing of a subject indicates that he is truthful, the examiners finding
should be:
45. Stimulus Is the force or motion reaching the organism from the environment and excites the
receptors.
46. Irrelevant Is the type of question designed to established normal response from the subject?
47. deception In “Polygraph examination”, the term “examination” means a detection of:
48. Peak of tension test In a polygraph test, what test technique does the examiner used if he utilized
padding questions?
49. 12 hours Before the actual test conducted, the subject must refrain from consuming alcoholic
beverages for at least _______ hours?
Polygraphy – is scientific methods of detecting deception done with the aid of a polygraph instrument.
Polygraph = (derived from the Greek words Poly) = many or several and Graph = (writing chart) is a
scientific instrument capable of recording simultaneously changes in blood pressure, pulse rate,
respiration and skin resistance as indicative of emotional disturbance especially of a lying subject when
being questioned.
Thomas Jefferson = firs person known who used the term Polygraph to described one of his inventions
Ayur Vida = a hindu book of science and health around 500B.C. Considered as an earliest known
reference to a method of detecting deception.
1. Ordeal of Heat and Fire = in this test the suspect walked a certain distance, usually nine feet, over
red-hot plowshares or holding a red-hot iron.
2. Ordeal of Hot Water = this test requires that the water had to be boiled, and the depth from which
the stone had to be retrieved was up to the wrist for one accusation, and up to the elbow for three or
more accusations.
3. Ordeal of Boiling Oil = this ordeal was practiced in villages of India and certain parts of West Africa.
4. Red Hot Iron Ordeal = the accused will be required to touch his tongue to an extremely hot metal
nine (9) times (unless burned sooner), Once his tongue is burned, he will be adjudged guilty. In some
country instead of hot iron, they used a hot needle to tease the lips and once the lips bleed it is an
indication of guilt.
5. Ordeal of Cold Water = this ordeal has a precedent in the Code of Ur-Nammu and the Code of
Hammurabi under which a man accused of sorcery was to be submerged in a stream and acquitted if he
survived.
= in 16th and 17th centuries, ordeal by water was associated with the witch-hunts. Floating is an
indication of witchcraft.
6. Ordeal of Rice Chewing = a method of detecting deception whereby an accused will be required to
take rice (to clergy bread or cheese).If the accused failed to swallow even a single grain of concentrated
rice he/she will be adjudged guilty.
7. Ordeal of Red Water (Food and Drink Ordeal) = in this method the accused will be required to run
fast for twelve (12 hours), take a cap of rice and drink a dark colored water (as much as one gallon).
8. Ordeal of the Cross = the accuse and the accuser stood on either side of a cross and stretched out
their hands horizontally. The one to first lower his arms lost.
9. The Test of the Axe = in Greece, a suspended axe was spine in the center of a group of suspects,
when the axe stopped, whosoever was in line with the blade was supposed to be the guilty as pointed
by divine providence.
10. The Test of the Candle = this ordeal was used in Burma, the accuser and accused were each given
identical candles and were lighted at the same time. The candle that burns the longest determines
which the truth.
11. Donkey’s tail (Ash tail) Ordeal = a method of ordeal where all accused persons will be instructed to
select a cage with a donkey, using a donkey’s tail they will strike the donkey and whichever cries first will
be adjudged guilty.
12. The “Hereditary Sieve” = Dr. Hans Gross mentioned this Ordeal in his famous book on Criminal
Investigation in which beans were thrown into a sieve as the name of each suspect was called. The
deception criteria were described as follows--- “If the bean jumps out of the sieve, the owner of the
name pronounced is innocent, if the bean remains in the sieve, the person named is the thief.
Daniel Defoe = wrote an essay entitled, “An Effectual Scheme for the Preventing of Street Robberies and
Suppressing all other Disorders of the Night”
Angelo Mosso = In 1878, science came to the aid of the truth seeker through the research of an Italian
psychologist Angelo Mosso. He made used of an instrument called plethysmograph in his research on
emotion and fear and its influence on the heart and respiration.
= developed a scientific cradle
Cesare Lombroso = In 1895, Cesare Lombroso, an Italian Criminologist and tutor of Angelo Mosso,
published the second edition of his book entitled “L’Homme Criminel” which he relates the used of
hydrosphygmograph during interrogation of suspects. He called it blood pressure pulse test.
= he is considered as the first person to conceive the idea of lie detection and the first to apply
the technique in actual criminal suspects
Francis Galton = in 1879, introduced the Word Association Test using series of irrelevant questions and
relevant question separated in time.
B. Sticker = believed that the origin of the galvanic skin phenomenon was under the influence of the
exciting mental impressions and that the will has no effect upon it.
= he made the earliest application of psychogalvanometer to forensic problems.
Sir James Mackenzie = an English clinician and cardiologist, constructed the Clinical Polygraph in 1892,
S. Veraguth = he is said to be the first person to use the term Psychogalvanic Reflex. Veraguth was the
first scientist to use the word association test with galvanometer.
Vittorio Benussi = in March 1913, he presented a paper before the second meeting of the Italian Society
for Psychology in Rome where he described how he record the subject’s breathing patter using a Marey
Pneumograph which he noted the changes in inspiration-expiration ratio during deception.
Dr. William M. Marston = in 1915 was credited as the creator of the systolic blood-pressure test used in
an attempt to detect deception during questioning, and using a standard blood pressure cuff and
stethescope, requiring repeated inflation of the pressure cuff to obtain readings at intervals during
examination. This was called Discontinuous Technique.
Harold Burtt = In 1918, Burtt suggested that the changes in respiration were an indication of deception.
John A. Larson = encouraged by August Vollmer of the Berkeley Police Department to conduct a
research on deception.
Polygraph – capable of recording continually and simultaneously the respiration and cardiovascular
activities.
= today he is known as the Father of Scientific Lie Detection and at the same time the Father of
Polygraph
Leonarde Keeler = in 1926, he made a modification of Larson’s instrument. He developed that metal
bellows and kymograph that pulled a chart paper at a constant speed under recording pens from a roll
of chart located inside the instrument.
Ruckmick = in 1936, the term Psychogalvanic Reflex used by Veraguth was repudiated by Ruckmick and
proposed the term Electrodermal Response.
John E. Reid = in 1950, he developed the Control Question which consist of a known lie and
incorporated it into the relevant/irrelevant technique.
Cleve Backster = developed the psychological set theory and the anticlimax dampening concept.
Richard O. Arther = introduced the Arther II polygraph instrument which contains a stimulus marker
capable of recording the beginning and ending of question and the moment the examinee answered.
Homeostasis = is complex interactive regulatory system by which the body strives to maintain a state of
internal equilibrium.
Hypothalamus = is a series of groups of nerve cells of the brain that control the entire endocrine-
hormonal system.
Fight, flight, freeze = are the three stereotypic behavioral responses to threat, sometimes simply called
F3.
Epinephrine = is the hormonal stimulator of the sympathetic nervous system. It acts to constrict
peripheral blood flow, raise blood pressure, increase cardiac activity, promote metabolic activity
through the release of glucose, and inhibit digestive processes.
Norepinephrine = is a hormone secreted by the adrenal gland, it works alongside with

epinephrine/adrenaline to give the body sudden energy in times of stress, known as the "fight or flight"
response.
Galvanograph = designed to detect changes in skin resistance of the subject.
Keymograph = serves as the paper feed mechanism of the polygraph machine
= It is a motor that pulls or drives the cart paper under the recording pen simultaneously at the
rate of five seconds per vertical chart division or twelve divisions in one minute run.
Capillary Ink = a water based ink intended for polygraph instruments

Relevant Question = a question deals with the matter under investigation. Color coded red in
computerized instruments. It is designed to generate reactions from deceptive subject.
Sacrifice Relevant Question = it introduces the relevant question to the subject
= designed to absorb the response generated by the introduction of relevant question in the
series
Primary Relevant (Strong Relevant) = addresses the primary issue or direct involvement of the subject
on the matter under question. It is use primarily with the single-issue examination.
Secondary Relevant (Weak Relevant) = deals with the physical acts that support the primary issue. This
is usually use in multi-issue examination.
Guilty Knowledge = designed to probe whether the subject possesses information regarding the identity
of the offender or the facts of the case under question.
Evidence Connecting Question = test question in which the examinee is asked about a particular piece
of physical evidence that would incriminate the guilty person. It could be items left at the crime scene by
the perpetrator or stolen property.
Comparison Question = a question which is the same in nature with that of the relevant question but
broad in scope.
Directed Lie Comparison Question (DLC) = a comparison question in which the examinee is instructed
by the examiner to answer the questions untruthfully.
Probable Lie Comparison Question (PLC) = a question to which it is likely that the examinee is untruthful
with his answer.
Relevant/Irrelevant Test = consists primarily of series of irrelevant questions and relevant question
pertaining to the crime under investigation. Developed by Keeler.
Peak of Tension Test = consist of only one relevant and a series of irrelevant questions.
Subject = is any person who undergoes polygraph examination.
Polygraph Examination = a process that encompasses all activities that take place between a polygraph
examiner and an examinee during a specific series of interactions.
Post-test Interview or Interrogation = is an interview or an interrogation administered by a polygraph

examiner after the test designed to obtain confession or admission by the subject.
interview is conducted when the reactions indicate an innocent response and very cooperative to the
examiner.
interrogation is conducted when the reactions show sign of deception and being uncooperative to
open an information.
X – it indicates the start of the test. The examiner informs the subject that the test is
about to begin.
I I – is a stimulus mark. The first vertical line marks when the examiner starts asking
question. Second vertical line marks when the examiner finishes asking question.
+ - a positive sign which indicates that the subject answers the question with “yes”. This
also indicates the period when the subject answers the question and usually followed by
a “number” indicating the order number of question, example +3, +4, +5….)
– a negative sign indicating that the subject answers the stimulus with “no”. This also
indicates the period when the subject answers the question and usually followed by a
“number”.
XX – indicates the end of test.
Artifact = A change in an examinee’s physiological pattern that is not attributable to a reviewed test
question. It includes examinee’s movements during the examination.
Sociology
1. Human Psychology It is the science of human mind in any of its aspect, operation, powers, or
functions.
2. Personality It is the sum total of an individual’s mental, emotional and temperamental make-
up.
3. Temperament It is man’s behavior tendency or an individual’s personality is his total being.
4. Dissociative Disorders Characterized by dissociation, a failure to integrate information about
one’s personal identity, memories, sensation, and states of consciousness into a unified whole.
5. Anxiety Disorders Are mental illnesses in which person experiences an abnormally high level
of anxiety over a long period of time.
6. Panic Disorder It is an intense, overpowering surge of fear.
7. Phobia It is an excessive, enduring fear of clearly defined objects or situations that interferes
with a person’s normal functioning.
8. Obsessive-compulsive disorder A person persistently experience certain intrusive thoughts
or images or feel compelled to perform certain behaviors .
9. Post-traumatic stress disorder-Sometimes occurs after people experience traumatic or
catastrophic events, such as physical or sexual assaults, natural disasters, accidents, and wars.
10. Generalized anxiety disorder Feel anxious most of the time.

11. PhobiasIntense and persistent fear of a specific object, situation, or activity.
12. Self-handicappingWhen people slack off from using their best common sense. It is the
belief that you’re so truly smart, that you don’t need to extent any effort to prove it.
13. Multiplicity of personality Is the multiple personality to evade criminal liability, like (john
Wayne Gacy)
14. Borderline Personality Disorder Is a pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal
relationships, self-image, emotional adjustments, and marked impulsivity demonstrated in a
variety of contexts?
15. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder Is when a person has illogical and irresistible thoughts or
impulses that they consider absurd and attempt to resist. It is characterized by obsessions and
compulsions.
16. Buggery A kind of sexual deviation wherein a person obtains sexual gratification with
animals or by means of anus of human beings.
17. Pedophilia An erotic love and feelings normally through sex with children.
18. Fetishism A sexual deviation found in male achieving sexual arousal through some objects
such as part of the female clothing’s or part of the body of the female to produce orgasm.
19. Transvestism A sexual deviation found in male who obtain pleasure by wearing female
apparel.
20. Sodomy Sexual intercourse through the anus of another human being.
21. Indecent Exposure and Exhibitionism Willful exposure in public of one’s genital in the
presence of another person usually of the opposite sex.
22. Bestiality Sexual copulation with an animal.
23. Tribadism or Lesbianism A sexual gratification of a woman to another woman.
24. Cunnilingus A sexual deviation where sexual gratification is attained by licking the external
female genetalia.
25. Frottage A kind of sexual perversion attained by rubbing or pressing against the body of the
opposite sex the sex organ to obtain orgasm.
26. Partialism The sexual deviation is characterized by special affinity to certain part of the
female anatomy, sometimes the breast, buttocks, etc. to satisfy the sexual desire.
27. Troilism This sexual deviation is also known as “ménage a trios” which means three persons
participate in a sexual intercourse.
28. Algolagnia A sexual deviation towards an opposite sex with pain as source of sexual
gratification.
29. Algolagnia Known as peeping Tom. Most often after peeping, masturbation follows.
30. Mixoscopia This is allied to voyeurism and is manifested to be a sexual infantilism.
31. assimilation It refers to a cultural fusion in which two groups blend their cultures so that
they become one.
32. Acculturation When two or more persons or groups are interacting and in contact with
each other, the chance is that both groups will learn and adopt some of the traits and pattern
of behavior of the group.
33. Amalgamation Is both a cause and effect of acculturation and assimilation. It refers to the
inter-marriage of persons coming from different ethnic groups resulting in some kind of
biological fusion
34. Social Movements Refers to those activities in which people unite in an organized long-
term effort to change their society or in which they resist and express their dissatisfaction with
existing orders through outright and prolonged actions.
35. Criminal Psychology Is that branch of psychology which investigates the psychology of
crime with particular reference to the personality factors of the criminal.
36. The Moffit development of crime and delinquency Indicating the signs of persistent
antisocial behavior can be detected early in life, as early as the pre-school years, and extends to
the idea that adolescent deviant behavior is greatly influenced by the behavior of peer groups
even after parental variable are taken into account.
37. Development theory – is about normal human development, or growing up sometimes
known as “child” or “adolescent” psychology
38. Revolutionary It changes the whole social order, changing the goals and replacement of the
institutionalized means to achieve the goals. This movement also believes the use of radical and
violent means to achieve goals.
39. Reformist It introduces a specific type of social change in different areas of life-religious,
political, economic or social.
40. ReactionaryReactionary – attempts to preserve the traditional values and social
relationship.
41. Conservative It seeks to maintain the status quo.
42. Profoundly retarded In the Intelligence Quotient and their Interpretation, 0-20 means?
43. Very Superior In the Intelligence Quotient and their Interpretation, 141-160 means?
44. Gifted In the Intelligence Quotient and their Interpretation, 161-180 means?
45. Superior In the Intelligence Quotient and their Interpretation, 121-140 means?
46. Henry H. Goddard Studied a family known as the Kallikaks. He traced this criminal family’s
history back six generations to the illegitimate offspring of a “feebleminded” barmaid.
47. Henry H. Goddard He saw feeblemindedness as the breeding ground for crime?
48. Richard Dugdale He trace the ancestry of a family as the Jukes. He found that not only the
current members always in trouble with the law, but that the family history extensively
included pauperism, prostitution, fornication, illegitimacy, and degeneracy.
49. Jonathan Edward The family of ______ traced that no one of descendants was found to be criminal.
Many became Presidents, U.S governors and members of the supreme courts?
50. Pedigree Is the process of tracing the family tree of criminals to see if the genealogy contains
examples of family ancestors with low intelligence.
51. crisis Is a turning point in the course of anything, decisive or crucial time, stage or event.
52. crisis management It is the act or manner of managing, handling decisive or crucial time, stage or
event.
53. External crisis It is influenced by the outside causes or factors. Examples are: Threat or threats to
one’s life and or family including property?
54. Internal crisis Those that are caused by the individual’s psychological, emotional, personal, financial,
economic, moral, spiritual, cultural, occupational and other internal distress, examples are: Family
Tragedy/s Death of loved ones?
55. Natural Hazards (crisis) Arise from natural phenomena. Rarely can be done to prevent this type of
hazards. Are as follows: flood earthquakes?
56. Human or Man Made Disaster (crisis) It is the result of the state of mind, attitude, weakness, or
character traits of a person or group of persons? 57. Hostage A person who is held as a security for the
fulfillment of certain term or demands?
58. Hostage Situation (HS)
A situation where persons are held as hostage by hostage taker.
59. Negotiate To arrange or settle by conferring or discussing?
60. Hostage Taker (HT) A person holds other people as hostage.
1. Courtesy Refers to the essence of good manners, which shows sportsmanship, culture and gentility.
2.Public office is a public trust Public officers and employees who served with the highest degree of
integrity, loyalty, responsibility and efficiency manifests.
3. Police ethics Component of a moral science which deals with the duties and responsibility which a
law enforcement officer owes to the community and public.
4. Loyalty and love of country One’s obligation and duty to his nation of origin.
5. Minor offenses Acts and omission not involving moral turpitude, but affecting the internal discipline
of the PNP, such as simple negligence and misconduct,
frequent absences, gambling prohibited by law, tardiness and insubordination.
6. Manpower control The most significant power exercised by a police as a first-line supervisor.
7. Discipline Mental and moral training that makes a man willing to be the subject to regulation and
control for the benefit and interest of the group where he belong
8. Have normal intelligence and a secret desire to serve
Primary attribute for effective leadership.
9. Morale Self-esteem, self confidence, drive a person’s attitude and emotional feeling regarding their
way of life and the people whom they interact with.
10. Inconsistent administration Discontent and grievance would logically result to:
11. Police community relations It refers to the sum total of dealings of the police with the people it
serves.
12. Public information program Designed to bridge any communication gap between the people and
the police.
13. Mass communication program Designed to influence public opinion in favor of the police force.
14. Integrated Police Advisory Council Involves local public officials and citizenry in the preservation of
peace and order.
15. Human relations Consist of moral and legal precepts which govern the relationship of man in all
aspects of life.
16. Authority In terms of its use in effective supervision, discipline is considered as:
17. Maintain discipline The most significant element in reprimanding a subordinate should be to:
18. Treat all personnel equally Discipline should be strict but must always be tempered with sympathy
and understanding. To abide by this principles, a superior officer must:
19. Serious offense of habitual dereliction Willful and continuous commission of minor offenses shall
constitute:
20. Loose clothing is shabby Reasons why a police officer must always wear his uniform securely
buttoned.
21. Moral virtue It concerns those actions that pertain to one’s duties towards his neighbors and
himself.
22. Maximum tolerance Policy in exercising utmost restraint by law enforcers in the performance of
their duties.
23. Right Power to own, use and exact something.
24. Command Authority a person exercise over his subordinates.
25. Ethics A normative science of the conduct of the human being living in society.
26. Temperament A virtue which regulates carnal appetite for sensual pleasure.
27. Endurance Ability to last.
28. Fortitude Courage to endure without yielding.
29. Patience Composure and calmness in enduring something.
30. Perseverance The ability to go on despite the tremendous adversity.
31. High standard of morality Which of the following traits/capabilities is most essential to a police officer?
32. Police public relations Is the process of constantly endeavors to obtain good will cooperation and
support of public for effective law enforcement and to accomplish police objectives?
33. Confidence, approval and respect It can be said that the public relations between the police and the
public exist when the public attitude is one of:
34. Individual policeman The most important medium to determine public attitude between the police
and the public is the:
35. Public’s attitude towards him The most important criterion of a patrolman’s performance of his
duties is the:
36. Winning the confidence of the public The policeman views public relations primarily as:
37. Impression he creates The most important consideration a policeman should pay attention too
while in contact with the public is the:
38. Degree to which the community cooperates voluntarily with the police department in the
performance of their duty Public opinion for a police department is best obtained by:
39. The creation of as many favorable public contacts as possible The totality of efforts of policemen to
improve public attitudes should be largely directed towards:
40. Study the public with which the police department deals Of the following steps in planning for
Community Relations Program, the step that should be undertaken first is:
41. Serve mankind Fundamental duty of law enforcement officer.
42. Trust Public office is a public ________.
43. Credible and good performance Best public relations for police officers to a community.
44. Barangay officials In launching a police community program, success can be attained by linkage
with:
45. Annoy or inconvenience any law abiding citizen To develop goodwill, a policeman on duty should
do the foregoing, except:
46. Public relations Act of bringing about better understanding, confidence and acceptance for an
individual or an organization.
47. Police community relations A program which the policeman a friend and parent of the people.
48. Human rights Includes all rights enjoyed by individual as provided for under the constitution and
international law.
49. Conduct Personal behavior.
50. Command responsibility A doctrine which impose commensurate accountability to one who is
vested with authority.
51. Bribery Worst form of graft and corruption in the government.
52. Discipline Self control and obedience means.
53. Virtue A habit which inclines man to act in a way that harmonizes with his nature.
54. Conscience Voice of reason bidding oneself to avoid evil and do good.
55. Police ethics Rules of conduct applied to law enforcement.
56. Prudence Ability to govern and discipline oneself.
57. Justice Virtue which inclines the will to give everyone his due and respect every person’s rights.
58. Commutative justice Regulates those actions that involve the right that exist between private
individuals.
59. Distributive justice Regulates those actions in which an individual claims his rights from society.
60. Code of ethics An important agency for social control.
1. Criminology A body of knowledge regarding crime as a social phenomenon.
2. Victimless crime Absence of a complaining victim in the typology of crime is classified as public order
crime or?
3. Instant Crime A crime that is committed in the shortest possible time such as libel.
4. Criminoloid Are those who commit crime due to less physical stamina and less self control.
5. Anomie A state of normlessness as proposed by Durkheim that describes France during its trying
times.
6. Victimology A sub-discipline of criminology which focuses on victims of crime.
7. Classical School A theory that is based on utilitarian concept of free will and greatest good of the
greatest number.
8. Extinctive crime A type of crime in which the end result is destructive.
9. Conscience A voice of reason bidding oneself to avoid evil and do good.
10. Demography It is a branch of sociology that studies the characteristics of human populations.
11. Sociology It is the study of human society, its origin, structure, functions and direction.
12. Phrenology It is the study of the formation of the skull in relation to the behavior of the criminal.
13. Eugenics Science concerned with improving the quality of human off springs.
14. Study of criminality in relation to spatial distribution in a community.
Criminal demography
15. Criminal psychiatry Study of human mind in relation to criminality
16. Flexible The following are characteristics of criminology, except:
17. Classical theory The basis of criminal liability is human freewill and the purpose of the penalty is
retribution.
18. Deficient Criminals The following are the classifications of criminals by Cesare Lombroso except
one…
19. Cesare Lombroso The primary advocate of the Positivist School in Criminology.
20. Determinism The principle that events including criminal behavior that has sufficient causes.
21. Hedonism The principle which states that man, by nature, always tries to maximize pleasure and
avoid pain.
22. Reformation The purpose of penalty in the Positivist School of Criminology.
23. Positivist theory This theory believes that punishment should fit the criminal and not the crime
committed
24. Routine activities This theory postulates that the ordinary routines of life present opportunities for
crime.
25. Labeling theory This theory puts the focus on the process of naming behaviors and the people that
perform them.
26. Mesomorphic This type of physique has relatively predominant muscles, bones and motor organs
of the body.
27. RA 6506 What law created the board of criminology in the Philippines?
28. Anomie Theory What theory considers crime as a natural social phenomenon?
29. Criminal Etiology Which is an attempt at scientific analysis of the study of causes or reasons for
crime?
30. Serial Killer Who is a person who kills three or more persons in three or more separate events?
31. Essay on Crimes and Punishment This school of criminology was established based on philosophy of
utilitarianism. It was particularly founded by Cesare “Beccaria” Bonesana. This was known as the
classical school. What is that treatise on the legal reform that became the pillar of the school?
32. The Criminal Man This book contains all of the Stigmata of a potential criminal written by Lombroso
on hi medical studies in the inmate of the different prison.
33. Classical school Crime is caused by the rational effort of man to augment his pleasure and to
minimize his pains is a notion coming from:
34. Symmetry of the Face All of the following are the description of a criminal man according to
Lombroso, Except one:
35. Imposition of deterrence Which of the following is not true about the principles of Positivism?
36. measurement of the hairline/ cheek bones/cleft palate All of the following except one are the
indicative of criminal tendency according to the Criminal anthropology of Cesare Lombroso.
measurement of the jaw
37. He was the one who wrote “The Criminal Mind”
Cesare Lombroso was considered as the father of Modern Criminology and the father of the Italian
school of Criminology. Which of the following is not part of his works?
38. Penology Attempting to provide a scientific analysis of the causes of crime is a function of criminal
etiology as one of the principal divisions of Criminology. What division is treating youthful offenders?
39. Sociology of crime Which of the following is not included in the coverage of Criminology in terms of
theoretical field of study?
40. It is stable and it varies from one time and place to another Which is not true about Criminology?
41. Accused In the Criminal Justice system, government must keep within the framework of laws that
protect individual rights. Who among these people is being process in the said system?
42. Witness The following are those something that are left by the perpetrator in the scene of crime
which was commonly termed as physical evidences, except:
43. Dynamic It is concomitant with the advancement of other sciences that has been applied to it. The
statement best describes:
44. Save life and property All but one is the task of the Criminal Justice System.
45. The suspect was not yet arrested Ex post facto law is one of the constitutional rights of every
Filipino people which means that, a person should not be put into jeopardy where there is no effective
law forbidding the particular act, except:
46. Code of Hammurabi The earliest broad laws existing, these edicts are based on a retributire system
of “an eye for an eye”, “a tooth for a tooth”.
47. Public order crime Commonly known as “Victimless crime”.
48. Criminal Justice System The machinery of a state or government which enforces the rules of
conduct necessary to protect life, liberty and property and maintain peace and order.
49. Society Darwinism All of the following except one are the concepts drawn by Lombroso in his
Positivist theory.
50. Somatology The science of classifying human physical characteristics.
51. Criminology A body of knowledge regarding delinquency and crime as a social phenomenon.
52. Criminology It may also refer to the study of crimes and criminals and the attempt of analysing
scientifically their causes and control and the treatment of criminals.
53. Sociological Criminology It is primarily based on the examination of the relationship of demographic
and group variables to crime.
54. Sociological Criminology The study of crime focused on the group of people and society as a whole.
55. Psychological Criminology The science of behaviour and mental processes of the criminal. It is
focused in the individual criminal behaviour-how it is acquired, evoked, maintained, modified.
56. Psychiatric Criminology The science that deal with the study of crime through forensic psychiatry,
the study of criminal behavior in terms of motives and drives that strongly relies on the individual.
(Psychoanalytic Theory – Sigmund Freud- traditional view).
57. Psychiatric Criminology It also explains that criminals are acting out of uncontrollable animalistic,
unconscious, or biological urges (modern view)
58. Criminal Behavior or Criminal Etiology The scientific analysis of the causes of crime
59. Nationalistic The study of crime must always be in relation with the existing criminal law in the
territory.
60. Dynamic Criminology changes as social condition changes. That means the progress of criminology
is concordant with the advancement of other science that have been applied to it.
61. A Social Science Inasmuch as crime is a societal creation and that it exists in a society, its study must
be considered a part of social science.
62. An Applied Science Anthropology, psychology, sociology and other natural sciences may be applied
in the study of the causes of crime, while chemistry, medicine, physics, mathematics, etc. may be
utilized in crime detection.
63. Crime An anti-social act; an act that is injurious, detrimental or harmful to the norms of society; they
are the unacceptable acts in its social definition.
64. Offense Is an act or omission that is punishable by special laws ( a special law is a statute enacted by
Congress, penal in character, which is not an amendment to the Revise Penal Code) such as Republic
Acts, Presidential Decrees, Executive Orders, Memorandum Circulars, Ordinances and Rules and
Regulations.
65. Felony Is an act or mission that is punishable by the Revised Penal Code, the criminal law in the
Philippines.
66. Misdemeanor Acts that are in violation of simple rules and regulations usually referring to acts
committed by minor offenders
67. Extinctive The crime is _____________when the result of criminal act is destruction.
68. Seasonal Are those that are committed only at certain period of the year?
69. Acquisitive CRIME is one which when omitted; the offender requires something as consequences of
his criminal act.
70. Situational Are those that are committed only when given a situation conducive to its commission?
71. Rational Are those committed with intent; offender is in full possession of his mental faculties /
capabilities?
72. Crimes by passion Are crimes committed because of the fit of great emotions?
73. Crimes by imitation Are crimes committed by merely duplication of what was done by others?
74. Irrational CRIMES are committed without intent; offender does not know the nature of his act.
75. service crime Refers to crimes committed through rendition of a service to satisfy desire of another.
76. Passive Inadequate Criminals Are those who commit crimes because they are pushed to it by
reward or promise?
77. Habitual Criminals Are those who continue to commit crime because of deficiency of intelligence
and lack of self-control?
78. Active Criminals Are those who commit crimes due to aggressiveness?
79. Socialized Delinquent Are criminals who are normal in behavior but defective in their socialization
process or development?
80. Chronic Criminals Is one who commits crime acted in consonance of deliberated thinking? He plans
the crime ahead of time. They are targeted offenders.
81. Active Criminals Are those who commit crimes due to aggressiveness.
82. Passive Inadequate Criminals Are those who commit crimes because they are pushed to it by
reward or promise.
83. Passive Inadequate Criminals Are criminals who are normal in behavior but defective in their
socialization process or development.
84. Habitual Delinquent Is a person who, with in a period of ten years from the date of his release or
last conviction of the crimes of serious or less serious physical injuries, robbery, estafa, or falsification, is
found guilty of any of the said crimes or a third time oftener.
85. Recidivist Is one who, at the time of his trial for one crime, shall have been previously convicted by
final judgment of another crime embraced in the same title of the Revised Penal Code.
86. Robert Ezra Park He advocated the “Human Ecology Theory”, the study of the interrelationship of
people in their environment.
87. David Emile Durkheim He advocated the “Anomie Theory”, the theory that focused on the
sociological point of the positivist school, which explains that the absence of norms in a society provides
a setting conductive to crimes and other anti-social acts.
88. Ernest Kretschmer The idea of somatotyping was originated from the work of a German
Psychiatrist,________?, who distinguished three principal types of physique.
89. Endomorphy A type of body physique with relatively predominance of soft, roundness through out
the regions of the body. They have low specific gravity. Persons with typically relaxed and comfortable
disposition.
90. Mesomorphy Athletic type, predominance of muscle, bone and connective tissue, normally heavy,
hard and firm, sting and tough. They are the people who are routinely active and aggressive, and they
are the most likely to commit crimes.
91. Ectomorphy Thin physique, flat chest, delicacy through the body, slender, poorly muscled. They tend
to look more fatigue and withdrawn.
92. Mass Murder It is the killing of four or more victims at one location with one event.
93. Spree Murder The killing of in two or more locations with almost no time break between murders.
94. Murder Is the unlawful killing of human being with malice and with the “act of violence”.
95. Serial Murder An act involving killing of several victims in three or more separate incidents over a
week, a month or year.
96. Culturally Violent Offenders Those who live in cultures which violence is an acceptable problem
mechanism.
97. Criminally Violent Offenders Those who use violence as a means to accomplish criminal acts.
98. Situational Violent Offenders Those who commit acts of violence on rare occasions, often under
provocations. They are the criminals “by passion”.
99. Pathological Violent Offenders Those who commit violent crimes due to mental disturbances.
100. Child Abuse An attack or assault of an adult against the defenseless or people who cannot defend
themselves, usually by a parent to a child.
CESARE LOMBROSO FATHER OF CRIMINOLOGY:
TEUDOLO NATIVIDAD FATHER OF CRIMINOLOGY IN THE PHILIPPINES:
SIR EDWARD RICHARD HENRY FATHER OF FINGERPRINT:
MARCELO MALPIGHEGRANDFATHER OF FINGERPRINT:
SIR WILLIAM JAMES HERSCHEL FATHER OF CHIROSCOPY:
MR. GENEROSO REYES FIRST FINGERPRINT TECHNICIAN EMPLOYED IN THE PHILIPPINE CONSTABULARY
SIR WILLIAM HENRY FOX TALBOT FATHER OF PHOTOGRAPHY
ALBERT SHERMAN OSBORNE FATHER OF Q.D.
COLONEL CALVIN GODDARD FATHER OF BALLISTICS
SIR LEONARD KEELER. FATHER POLYGRAPH
PAULUS ZACCHIAS FATHER OF LEGAL MEDICINE
DR. PEDRO P. SOLIS FATHER OF LEGAL MEDICINE IN THE PHILIPPINES
MATTHEW DAVENPORT HILL FATHER OF PROBATION IN ENGLAND
JOHN AUGUSTUS FATHER OF PROBATION IN U.S.A
ALEXANDER MACANOCHIE FATHER OF PAROLE
ALEXANDER MACANOCHIE FATHER OF MODERN PENOLOGY
ZR BROCKWAY FATHER OF PRISON REFORM
EDWARD SAVAGE FIRST PROBATION OFFICER IN THE WORLD
SIR ROBERT “BOBBY PEEL” FATHER OF MODRN POLICING SYSTEM
AUGUST VOLLMER FATHER OF MODERN LAW ENFORCEMENT
HIPPOCRATIS FATHER OF MEDICINE
HANS GROSS FATHER OF CRIMINALISTICS
Benjamin Mendelsohn COINED THE WORD VICTIMOLOGY
CRIMINAL JUSTTICE SYSEM

1. Corrections A component or pillar of the Criminal Justice System which is involved in the
administration of appropriate sanctions in keeping with the sentence handed down.
2. Special Law A statue enacted by Congress, penal in character, which is not amendment to the Revise
Penal Code such as Republic Acts, Presidential Decrees and Memorandum Circulars.
3. Justice A social norm providing guidance for people in their dealings with one another, as a standard
against which actions are evaluated, and as a prescription or requirement that people act justly.
4. 5.56 In the Philippines, there were 5,000 murder incidents reported to the authorities in 2014.
Assuming that the population of the country is 90,000,000, what is the crime rate for murder in the
same year?
5. Prosecution Is the course of action or process whereby accusations are brought before a court of
justice to determine the innocence or guilt of the accused?
6. Probable cause It is such a fact and circumstances which would lead a reasonably discreet and
prudent man to believe that the person has committed an offense, sought to be arrested.
7. PDEA Juan Dela Cruz, a resident of Quezon City found out to be in conflict with the law particularly the
R.A. 9165. What particular agency would be responsible in processing the investigation?
8. System One which consists of several parts that interacts with each other to produce some results,
serve some functions or meet some objectives.
9. Court Takes cognizance of the case, conducts trial and imposes penalty if the accused is found guilty
beyond reasonable grounds.
10. Initial contact The apprehension or taking into custody of a child in conflict with the law by law
enforcement officers or private citizens is termed as:
11. Correction The branch of the administration of criminal justice charges with the responsibility for the
custody, security, supervision and rehabilitation of a convicted offender.
12. Community The group of person who have something in common that links them and distinguish
them from each other who are not part of that certain groups is called?
13. Criminal Justice System The machinery of the State designed to enforce the law by arresting,
prosecuting and adjudicating those accused of violating it and by applying the proper sanctions to those
found guilty.
14. Prosecutor The person responsible for securing the rights of the state over an accused person for he
directs the proceeding and he institute an offense in behalf of the state.
15. opportunity denial The Police seek to prevent crimes by being present in places where crimes might
be committed and by alerting citizens to refrain from practices that make them or their property
vulnerable.
1. Community This pillar accepts the re-entry of the offender as law-abiding and useful citizen of society.
2. Correction After conviction, which system is responsible for the rehabilitation of the person?
3. Court What is this judicial tribunal designed to administer justice.
4. order maintenance A law enforcement function in order to preserve social and public order.
5. Community A local government together with society of individuals or institutions refers to...
6. Criminal This refers to a person convicted by a competent court for committing crime.
7. Criminal A person who has violated the penal law and has been found guilty by the court.
8. Fundamentals laws of the state Arbitrary Detention is a crime against…
9. Supreme Court Which of the following is a Review Court and it is considered as the highest court of
the land?
10. Sandiganbayan This is a special court tasked to handle graft and corruption committed by public
officials or employees.
11. Authority This is an attitude enjoyed given to police to use discretion whether to effect arrest or not.
12. citizen’s arrest Which of the following is a valid warrantless arrest?
13. State Who has the power to define and punish crimes?
14. Intuition What is this process by which we use or manipulate representation or symbols?
15. Crime Prevention What refers to the process of eliminating or reducing the desire and opportunity
to commit crime.
16. Jurisdiction It means as the power to try and decide, or hear and determine a cause.
17. Constitution These provides the basis for due process of law.
18. Supreme Court Which of these have the administrative supervision over all courts and the personnel
thereof?
19. Jurisdiction The authority of the court to hear and determine a case.
20. Court The best interest of the child shall at all times be respected by the by whom?
21. Director General Who has The highest in rank among the following?
22. Community The informal component of the Criminal Justice System.
23. Represents the government in criminal cases The major function of the Prosecution component of
the Criminal Justice System.
24. State Government Community The police is an agency of the…
25. Justice The primary and major output of the Criminal Justice System is:
26. Maintain Peace and order The primary goal of Criminal Justice System is:
27. Revised Penal Code Which of the following is the primary source of criminal law in the Philippines is?
28. Miranda Warning This refers to the recital of the rights of a suspect during custodial investigation.
29. crime prevention This refers to the reduction or elimination of the desire and opportunity to commit
a crime.
30. Victims They are referred to as the forgotten subject in the criminal justice system.
31. prison A confinement facility having custodial authority over an individual sentenced by a court to
imprisonment, which is administered by a National Government.
32. community What is a group of people having ethnic or cultural or religious characteristics in
common?
33. proactive policing Teaching the community to protect themselves aside from constant police patrol
and visibility refers to.
34. COA They are task to apprehend and investigate those person who have violated the rules of the
professional ethics in spending the government’s budget in some personal interest.
35. Trial Is the course of action or process whereby accusations are brought before a court of justice to
determine the innocence or guilt of the accused?
36. prosecution It carries the burden of proving the guilt of the accused in a formal proceeding.
37. within 10 days When should the sworn counter-affidavit be filed by the respondent from receipt to
answer the accusations against him?
38. Pre- trial It is a course of action whereby the accused and the prosecutor in a criminal case work out
mutually beneficial and satisfactory disposition on the case subject to court approval.
39. 1932 During the Pre-Spanish period in the history of the Philippines, there are codes that already
implemented by the Datus in their respective territory. One of the great examples of it, is the Code of
Kalantiao. When was the year Revised Penal Code took effect?
40. Augustus Caesar Who was the one that conceive the idea of giving the police a very wide powers
including price control.
41. dirty puppy All of the following except one, are the bad labels of the modern police of Robert Peel.
42. ensure law and order Which is true about Police?
43. England Constables are implementing and carrying out the law by keeping the peace, arresting
criminals and guarding. They were known in what particular country?
45. bow street runners They were privately paid to follow-up investigation of crimes
46. city The term police was derived from Greek word Politeia that primarily denotes the activity of a
polis. What do polis means?
47. RA 2678 It was enacted after WWII providing the expansion and reorganization of the NBI.
48. accused In the Criminal Justice system, government must keep within the framework of laws that
49. victim The known forgotten person of the Criminal Justice system –
50. Law enforcement Who are the gate keepers of Criminal Justice system?
HUMAN BEHAVIOR & CRISIS MANAGEMENT

1. Delusion A false belief based on an incorrect inference about external reality and firmly sustained
despite clear evidence to the contrary, and which is not related to cultural or religious beliefs
2. Emotion Feeling that is private and subjective, condition of psychological arousal an expression or
display of distinctive somatic and automatic responses.
3. Serial Murder Form of violent crime where there is the killing of several victims in three or more
separate incidents over a week, a month, a year.
4. William Sheldon He developed the study of body build and criminal behavior or Somatotype School,
which held that manifest distinct physiques that makes them susceptible to particular types of
delinquent behavior.
5. terrorism It is a method whereby an organized group or party seeks to achieve its avowed aims chiefly
through the systematic use of violence.
6. Terrorism The calculated use of violence or threat of violence to attain political, religious or
ideological goals by instilling fear or using intimidation or coercion.
7. Tactical Commander The one who makes complete estimate of the crisis situation and plans his
courses of actions upon arrival at the incident area while negotiation is in progress is the
8. Human behavior The reaction to facts of relationship between the individual and his environment.
Mainly influence by both genes and environment.
9. Paranoid hostage taker They believes threatened/ persecuted they are highly suspicious of persons.
Acts with anti-value set to relieve stress or vindicate himself and impulsive.
10. Phobias This is the inexcusable reverential awe of a specific situation when there is no existing evil
that are totally out of dimensions.
1. Crusaders According to Frederick Hacker, these are terrorists who are using terrorism to change
society.
2. super ego According to psychoanalysis, this refers to the conscience of man.
3. Introvert An individual with strongly self-centered pattern of emotion, fantasy and thought.
4. Phobia An irrational fear which is fixed, intense, uncontrollable and often has no reasonable
foundation.
5. Psychotic A person jumps out of the window to his death because he believes he can fly is _______.
6. Efficient communication A very important factor in effective negotiation is:
7. Containment Controlling situation and area and area by people involved.
8. Harpaophobia Which of the following refers to the fear of robbers
9. Behavioral Focuses on external activities that can be observed and measured.
10. Electra Complex When girls see her mother as rival for her father’s attention this complex is termed
as…
11. Typology It is a means to describe the form of criminal behavior
12. Crisis management It is an act or manner of running or handling decisive materials.
13. Kleptomania It is an irresistible impulse to steal in the absence of economic motive.
14. Assault It is the last option to be considered in a hostage situation.
15. Transactional analysis It is the study of social interactions of people.
16. Negotiate It means to arrange by conferring or discussing.
17. Internal Inhibition It refers to all types of internal forces which may prevent a person from
committing a crime.
18. super ego This is refers to the conscience of man.
19. Schizophrenia Is the result or product of interplay of biology, psychology, and culture, just is as
normal personality.
20. Human behavior Is the voluntary or involuntary attitude a person adopts in order to fit society idea
of right or wrong.
21. Somnambulism Maria killed Jose while she was asleep. What abnormality was manifested?
22. Super ego Moral aspect of personality that judges our personality and is also known as the
conscience.
23. Person in crisis People who take hostages during a period of prolonged frustration, despair and
problems.
24. Common criminals People who take hostages for personal, rather than ideological reasons.
25. paranoia Reacting to events with alertness and vigilance and a feeling of persecution.
26. Transvestism Sexual gratification and excitement by wearing clothes and acting the rule of opposite
sex.
27. psychogenic determinism Scientific approach based upon mental processes and characteristics.
28. crowd control The first step in a hostage situation.
29. operate openly The following are characteristics common to terrorists except one
30. Irrational The following are qualities which must be possessed by a police negotiator except one:
31. physiological arousal The two-factor theory was known as the best formulation of explaining the
existence of emotion. It is comprised of cognitive factor and ______.
32. two factor theory It is sometimes known as the study of the cognitive interpretation.
33. using illegal drugs The following are symptoms of depression, except:
34. Secondary The traits that were shared by people with the same culture were the common traits but,
if it just superficial and less enduring it is termed as the:
36. multiple approach-avoidance conflict Which of the following is considered as the most difficult to
resolve.
37. Allport These personality traits known as individual are very unique to the person as stated by:
38. 1930 Stress is the consequence of the failure of a person to respond in any physical threats. The
word was coined by Hans Hugo Bruno Selye in:
39. acute time Presenting a sophisticated topic in front of your classmate will fall on what specific type
of stress.
40. dysthymia A type of depression that takes a long time but with less depressive symptoms.
41. Bipolar disorde It is not common as major depression or even dysthymia and sometimes being
referred to as an illness which is manic-depressive in nature.
42. distant stressor As to the types of long term stress, this may have a long-lasting effects on the
emotional and mental health of the person.
43. psychosis This refers to a significant loss of contact with reality.
44. Maladaptive behavior Which behavior is characterized by the attempts of committing suicide.
45. brief naturalistic stress Taking the licensure examination for criminologists. The statement best
describes:
46. anxious Which of the following is true about personal distress?
47. neurosis All but one, are the different types of mental disorder.
48. projection Unfaithful boyfriend suspects his girlfriend to have other “LOVER”. The statement best
describes;
49. Abnormal behavior It is considered as behavior that is noticeable departure from the accepted
norm.
50. false perception These people are just simply confused and that they could experience hallucination
or delusion, these people falls on the category of bizarre behavior. What do hallucination means?
INTRODUCION TO CRIMINOLOGY
1. criminology A body of knowledge regarding crime as a social phenomenon.
2. Victimless crime Absence of a complaining victim in the typology of crime is classified as public order
crime or?
3. Instant Crime A crime that is committed in the shortest possible time such as libel.
4. Criminoloid Are those who commit crime due to less physical stamina and less self control.
5. Anomie A state of normlessness as proposed by Durkheim that describes France during its trying
times.
6. victimology A sub-discipline of criminology which focuses on victims of crime.
7. Classical School A theory that is based on utilitarian concept of free will and greatest good of the
greatest number.
8. extinctive crime A type of crime in which the end result is destructive.
9. conscience A voice of reason bidding oneself to avoid evil and do good.
10. Demography It is a branch of sociology that studies the characteristics of human populations.
11. sociology It is the study of human society, its origin, structure, functions and direction.
12. Phrenology It is the study of the formation of the skull in relation to the behavior of the criminal.
12. Eugenics Science concerned with improving the quality of human off springs.
14. Criminal demography Study of criminality in relation to spatial distribution in a community.
15. Criminal psychiatry Study of human mind in relation to criminality
16. Flexible The following are characteristics of criminology, except:

17. Classical theory The basis of criminal liability is human freewill and the purpose of the penalty is
retribution.
18. Deficient Criminals The following are the classifications of criminals by Cesare Lombroso except
one…
19. Cesare Lombroso The primary advocate of the Positivist School in Criminology.
20. determinism The principle that events including criminal behavior that has sufficient causes.
21. Hedonism The principle which states that man, by nature, always tries to maximize pleasure and
avoid pain.
22. Reformation The purpose of penalty in the Positivist School of Criminology.
23. Positivist theory This theory believes that punishment should fit the criminal and not the crime
committed
24. Routine activities theory This theory postulates that the ordinary routines of life present
opportunities for crime.
25. Labeling theory This theory puts the focus on the process of naming behaviors and the people that
perform them.
26. Mesomorphic This type of physique has relatively predominant muscles, bones and motor organs of
the body.
27. RA 6506 What law created the board of criminology in the Philippines?
28. Anomie Theory What theory considers crime as a natural social phenomenon?
29. Criminal Etiology Which is an attempt at scientific analysis of the study of causes or reasons for
crime?
30. Serial Killer Who is a person who kills three or more persons in three or more separate events?
31. Essay on Crimes and Punishment This school of criminology was established based on philosophy of
utilitarianism. It was particularly founded by Cesare “Beccaria” Bonesana. This was known as the
classical school. What is that treatise on the legal reform that became the pillar of the school?
32. The Criminal Man This book contains all of the Stigmata of a potential criminal written by Lombroso
on hi medical studies in the inmate of the different prison.
33. classical school Crime is caused by the rational effort of man to augment his pleasure and to
minimize his pains is a notion coming from:
34. Symmetry of the Face All of the following are the description of a criminal man according to
Lombroso, Except one:
35. imposition of deterrence Which of the following is not true about the principles of Positivism?
36. measurement of the jaw All of the following except one are the indicative of criminal tendency
according to the Criminal anthropology of Cesare Lombroso.
37. he was the one who wrote “The Criminal Mind” Cesare Lombroso was considered as the father of
Modern Criminology and the father of the Italian school of Criminology. Which of the following is not
part of his works?
38. Penology Attempting to provide a scientific analysis of the causes of crime is a function of criminal
etiology as one of the principal divisions of Criminology. What division is treating youthful offenders?
39. Sociology of crime Which of the following is not included in the coverage of Criminology in terms of
theoretical field of study?
40. It is stable and it varies from one time and place to another Which is not true about Criminology?
41. accused In the Criminal Justice system, government must keep within the framework of laws that
42. witness The following are those something that are left by the perpetrator in the scene of crime
which was commonly termed as physical evidences, except:
43. dynamic It is concomitant with the advancement of other sciences that has been applied to it. The
statement best describes:
45. the suspect was not yet arrested Ex post facto law is one of the constitutional rights of every Filipino
people which means that, a person should not be put into jeopardy where there is no effective law
forbidding the particular act, except:
46. Code of Hammurabi The earliest broad laws existing, these edicts are based on a retributire system
of “an eye for an eye”, “a tooth for a tooth”.
47. Public order crime Commonly known as “Victimless crime”.
48. Criminal Justice System The machinery of a state or government which enforces the rules of conduct
necessary to protect life, liberty and property and maintain peace and order.
49. Society Darwinism All of the following except one are the concepts drawn by Lombroso in his
Positivist theory.
50. Somatology The science of classifying human physical characteristics.
JUVENILE DELINQUENCY
1. Child trafficking Any person who shall engage in trading and dealing with children including, but not
limited to the act of buying and selling of a child for money or for any consideration or barter
2. School Truancy A pattern of repeated or habitual unauthorized absences from school by any juvenile
subject to compulsory education laws is called
3. Guardian ad Litem A person appointed by the court to act as legal guardian of a child even if his
parents is still alive when the best interest of the said child so requires.
4. Pedophilia A sexual desire of an adult for children. This adult may obtain sexual gratification from
various forms of sexual intimacies and with the young.
5. A child is above 15 years but below 18 years who acted with discernment Which of the following will
not exempt the child from criminal liability?
6. Recruited Children shall not be ____to become members of the AFP or its civilian units or other
armed groups, nor not be allowed to take part in the fighting, or used as guides, couriers or spices.
7. Psychopathic personality It is characterized by infantile level of response, lack of conscience, deficient

feeling of affection to others and aggression to environment and other people.
8. Initial Contact It refers to the apprehension or taking into custody of child in conflict with the law by
law enforcement officers or private citizens is termed as?
9. Commercial No person shall employ child models in all ____ or advertisements promoting alcoholic
beverages, intoxicating drinks, tobacco and its byproducts and violence.
10. Children exploited in prostitution Refers to children male or female, who for money, profit or any
consideration influence by an adult or syndicate, indulge in sexual intercourse.
1. Abandoned A child deserted by his parents or guardians for six continuous months is classified as,
2. neglected child A child whose basic needs have been deliberately unattended.
3. reasonable mentors All but one, are the reasons on why a child will become truant.
4. Elementary Education All parents are required to enroll their children in school to complete at least.
5. Physically handicapped child A child who is deprived of speech and hearing due to abnormality
defect during birth is known as.
6. children Among the following, who is the most vulnerable group to abuse and suffer threats?
7. Surrogate parent A parent who provided a sperm, egg or uterus to help in the conception of a child
8. Shelter care Institution A twenty four hour child caring institution that provide short term resident
care for youthful offenders.
9. Indigent children Barangay Funds may be appropriated to provide annual scholarship for…
10. Evacuation Children shall be given priority during __________ as a result of armed conflict.
11. Child ego state Dependent, rebellious, selfish, demanding, impatient and emotional
12. Social risk Educational system should extend particular care and attention to young persons, who are
at…
13. 6 months How many months are needed in order for the child to be considered as abandoned?
14. Family It is the most basic social institution and is the most potentially effective agency of social
control.
15. Juvenile crime It is used to denote those various offenses committed by children under the age of
16. Youthful offender Offender who is less than eighteen years old is classified as:
17. Police inefficiency One of the following is a least cause of juvenile delinquency:
19. Save children from becoming criminals The goal of any juvenile justice system is to –
20. The Home The most effective institution for control of juvenile delinquency is.
21. Period of Emancipation The period when a person gets liberated from parents authority is called?
22. Child in Conflict with the Law Under PD 603, what do we call a person under 18 years old who
committed a crime?
23. Exempted Under RA 9344, a child who is exactly 15 years of age is ______ from criminal liability.
24. 18 Under the new law, what is the age of emancipation?
25. Child in Conflict Zone What do we call children who are in a places of war?
26. Home What institution is being termed as the “cradle of human personality”?
27. To provide for the child’s upbringing What is the primary right of parents?
28. Suspended What will happen to the sentence rendered by the court to a boy of 10 who raped a girl
of his age?
29. Conscience Which of the following is not an element of social bonding?
30. Juveniles name Which of the following should not released to the press by the police officer?
31. prevent young people from getting into trouble with the law Delinquency prevention programs
are intended primarily to:
32. Broken Home This may include the presence of both parents but who are irresponsible that children
experience constant quarrel in the home.
33. Initial contact with the child Refers to the apprehension or taking into custody of a child in conflict
with the law by the law enforcement officers or private citizens.
34. Abnormality It is the mental incapacity of an individual to understand the difference between right
from wrong and its consequences.
35. Shelter-care institution This provides temporary protection and care to children requiring emergency
reception.
36. Restorative Justice A principle that requires a process of resolving conflicts with the maximum
involvement of the victim, the offender and the community.
37. Secondary intervention A community based program for intervention that includes measures to
assist children at risk. This statement refers to?
38. Diversion program Refers to the program that the child in conflict with the law is required to
undergo after he/she is found responsible for an offense without resorting to formal court proceedings.
39. Child placing agency An institution that provides care, custody, protection and maintenance of
children for placement in any child-caring institution or home or under the care and custody of persons
for purposes of adoption, guardianship or foster care.
40. Dec. 10, 1974 PD 603 took its effect June 10, 1975 six months after its approval date. When was this
provision approved?
41. 18th century In the history, this period is beginning of reason and humanism. In what century the
enlightenment appear?
42. Home It is considered as the cradle of human personality.
43. Maternity homes A place of residence whose primary function is to give shelter and care to pregnant
women and their infants.
44. Youth rehabilitation center Refers to a 24-hour residential care facility that provides care, treatment
and rehabilitation services for children in conflict with the law.
45. eighteen to seventy years old In the Philippines, what is the age of absolute responsibility?
46. Rehabilitation It is the process of rectifying or modifying a child’s negative attitude and behavior. It
enables the child to change his/her negative behavior into something positive and acceptable to the
community.
47. Abandoned Child When the child has no proper parental care or guardianship or when the child’s
parents or guardians have deserted him/her for a period of at least six continuous months. What is this
statement referring to?
48. Status Offense Refers to offenses which discriminate only against a child, while an adult does not
suffer any penalty for committing similar acts.
49. RA 7610 Otherwise known as Special Protection of Children Against Child Abuse, Exploitation, and
Discrimination Act.
50. RA 7658 Otherwise known as An Act Prohibiting the Employment of Children?
POLICE ETHICS
1. cordoning the crime scene Among the following choices, which one should be the least priority in the
enforcement of the law.
2. Plagiarism An act of the person that copies the work or idea of another person and presents it as his
own.
3. Ethical Standards An established and generally accepted moral values refer to:
4. Malfeasance Arresting a suspect without a warrant of arrest may tantamount to;
5. Moonlighting As a general rule, police officers are not permitted or allowed to engage in any other
business or calling.
6. command responsibility Authority of a person he exercised over his subordinates.
7. conscience A voice of reason bidding oneself to avoid evil and do good.
8. Career Management In the PNP basic issues, what is the key to professionalism?
9. Public Relations Program It is designed to influence public opinion in favor of the police force.
10. Nonfeasance It refers to the omission of some acts which ought to be performed?
11. Police Community Relations It refers to the sum total of dealings of the police with the people it
serves
12. perform his job well The best PCR a police officer can do to the community is
13. perseverance The courage to endure without yielding.
14. Obedience to superior and loyalty The following are the canon of police ethics except one;
15. Misfeasance The improper enforcement of the law would mean;
16. Under enforcement The leniency in due process refers to:
17. Trustworthiness The police officer must be trustworthy and upholds the truth at all times. This is
called in police ethics as?
18. Trust and competency These are the specific indicators of shared priorities and respect.
19. ethics The study of standards of conduct and moral judgment.
20. Discretion The wise use of one’s judgment, personal experience and common sense to decide a
particular situation.
21. Shakedowns This as an unlawful act committed by policemen who caught gambling bet collector,
pusher, drug user.
22. Duty This is known as the moral obligation that depends upon freewill.
23. Police Community Relations This refers to the sum total of dealings of the police with the people it
serves.
24. Favoritism This refers to unfair or unjust acts usually given to friends or relatives.
25. Political Right This right is an individuals’ right in participating in government affairs.
26. Inconsistent administration What disciplinary measure, do you think, will most likely produce
discontentment and grievance?
27. Discernment What is the mental capacity to distinguish right from wrong?
28. Knowledge of the Law What is the basic weapon of police officers?
29. . Non-partisan police activities Which of the following is a pleasant activity to be performed by a
police officer on duty?
30. giving gifts Which of the following is not a police custom on courtesy?
31. An Ethical Person A police Officer or person acting and or conducting himself according to his
professional conduct and ethical standard is –
32. Courtesy It is the essence of good manners, a manifestation of sportsmanship and an exposition
of gentility and culture.
33. Professionalism It refers to the commitment, dignity and attitude of an individual towards work and
his integrity and his practice of the core moral value principles.
34. Right of Jurisdiction It is the power of lawful authority to govern his subjects and to make laws for
them.
35. Amoral actions Those actions which stand neutral in relation to the norm of morality. They are
neither good nor bad in themselves.
36. Professional Standards Which of the following refers to the set of conducts and behavior governing a
group, a class, or organization?
37. Misconduct The doing either through ignorance, inattention or malice, of that which the police
officer had no legal right to do at all, as where he acts without any authority whatsoever or exceeds,
ignores or abuses his powers.
38. the changing role of the police Higher levels of professional police service is on demand nowadays, in
view of ________.
39. Law which hears before it condemns One common violation committed by law enforcement is the
violation of due process of law. Which of the following best explain due process of law?
40. Sir Robert Peel Who was the English person introduced the principles which might be considered as
a version of code of ethics?
41. Externally Oriented A general approaches in police community relation program which is directed
towards the general public or various enclaves within the society.
42. human acts This must be performed by an agent who decides willfully to perform the act. The
statement is referring to:
43. deliberate Which of the following is the distinction of human acts between acts of man?
44. negative duty Avoiding a conduct of vandalism is a compliance of what duty?
45. classical It is a form of consequentialism, where punishment is forward looking which was founded
by Jeremy Bentham. It is the principles of utilitarianism. Which became a part of what school of
thought?
46. admission In case it is obtain in violation of section 12 shall be inadmissible in evidence against the
person in accused. The statement is referring to:
47. passion They are neither considered as moral or immoral and sometimes known as psychic
responses.
48. Elicited acts A feeling of frustration that dictated L. Umba to think and give consent in possible things
that he might commit is called?
49. value The statement that “the Filipino is worth dying for” would greatly describe:
50. tenets Which of the following does not belong to the group?
CRIMINAL SOCIOLOGY, ETHICS AND HUMAN RELATIONS I
CLE – EXAMINATION DRILL 2016
1. Crimes that is committed when members of a group are prevented from achieving their fullest potential because
of status bias. Crimes of repression
2. The study of criminal behavior involving research on the links between different types of crimes and criminals.
Crime typology
3. A branch of criminology that examines change in criminal career over the life course. Developmental theory
4. Refers to the mental processes of criminals in action.

Criminal sychodynamics
5. Refers to morbid propensity to make love. Erotomania
6. He developed a system of classifying criminals according to bodily measurements, his method of identification
centered on the fact that no two individuals are alike in all dimensions.
Alphonse Bertillon
7. This school on crime causation emphasized economic determinism and concentrated on the need for equality
among all citizen. They provided statistical data which claimed to show that variations in crime rates are
associated with variations in economic conditions.
Socialist School
8. This school on crime causation is primarily concerned with the distribution of crimes in certain areas both social
and geographical.Carthographic School
9. The study of victimology, which deals on the role of the victim in the commission of a crime is also referred to
as:
Crime target
10. Jose a 16 year old child, usually commits petty crimes as a form of rebellion brought about by communication
gap, disrespect and conflict with his parents may be classified as a:
Environmental delinquent
11. This specific theory of criminal law argues that crime is essentially a morbid and mental phenomenon and as
such it cannot be solely treated by the application of abstract principles of jurisprudence.
Positive Theory
12. This explains that crime is a result of free will of men; but committed due to some compelling reasons that
prevailed upon the person to commit a crime.
Neo Classical School of Thought
13. This School of Thought advocated that criminals are essentially born. Positive School of Thought
14. Those who commit crimes because they are pushed to it by inducement, reward or promise without considering
its consequences. Passive inadequate criminals
15. This theory in the causes of crime states that crime may be caused by one or more factors, while in other
instances caused by another set of factors. Eclectic theory
16. Refers to the reversion of man to his apelike ancestor.
Atavism
17. The study of the relationship between facial features and human conduct of a person in relation to his crimes.
Physiognomy
18. Discipline should be strict but must always be tempered with sympathy and understanding. To abide by this
principle, a superior officer must:
Treat all personnel equally.
19. Willful and continuous commission of minor offenses shall constitute: Serious offense of habitual dereliction
20. Reason why a police officer must always wear his uniform securely buttoned.
A neat appearance will command respect
21. It concerns those actions that pertain to one’s duties towards his neighbors and himself.
Moral virtue
22. Policy in exercising utmost restraint by law enforcers in the performance of their duties.
Maximum tolerance
23. Power to own, use and exact something. Right
24. Authority a person exercise over his subordinates.

Command
25. A normative science of the conduct of human being living in a society.

Ethics
26. A virtue which regulates carnal appetite for sensual pleasure.

Temperament
27. Ability to last. Endurance
28. Courage to endure without yielding. Fortitude
29. Composure and calmness in enduring something.

Patience
30. The ability to go on despite the tremendous adversity.

Perseverance
31. Which of the following traits/capabilities is most essential to a police officer?

High standard of morality
32. Is the process which constantly endeavors to obtain good will cooperation and support of public for effective
law enforcement and to accomplish police objectives.
Police public relation
33. It can be said that the best public relations between the police and the public exist when the public attitude is
one of:
Confidence, approval and respect
34. The most important medium to determine public attitudes between the police and the public is the:
Individual policeman
35. A remorseful, cold, vicious and brutal delinquent.

Asocial delinquent
36. Refers to a person whose behavior results with repeated conflict with the law.
Delinquent
37. It attributes variations in delinquency to influence social structures.
Sociogenic approach
38. It explains delinquency is a result of critical factors such as personality problems to which misbehavior is a
response mechanism.
Psychogenic approach
39. Delinquency is a result of faulty biology or some hereditary defect.

Biogenic approach
40. This cause of behavioral disorder of the youth is a result of factors such as personal problems, ignorance, and
curiosity.
Precipitating factor
41. Refers to inherited propensities which cannot be considered a criminal one unless there is a probability that a
crime will be committed.
Predisposing factor
42. Refers to a type of delinquent gang which in which the manipulation of violence predominates as a way of
winning status and respect.
Juvenile gang
43. If the offender is over nine years of age but under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the crime, he
is often referred to as?
c. Youth offender
44. Not a mere creature of the state but regarded as its most important asset.
Child
45. Basic unit of society.
Family
46. Foundation of the nation.

Family
47. Implies the keeping of unlawful behavior from occurring.

Prevention
48. Acknowledges the existence of unlawful behavior.

Control
49. Community hazards harmful to youth.

Attractive nuisance
50. A type of gang in which vices, consumption of drugs and illicit experiences is stressed.
Retreatist sub culture
51. The most important person in hostage crisis situations.

Hostage
52. In hostage taking incidents, there should be how may number of negotiators?
1
53. A type of reaction to facts of relationship between the individual and his environment which is substituted.
Symbolic
54. An attribute of human behavior which concerns function of time.
Duration
55. Human behavior in terms of magnitude.
Intensity
56. It refers to two or more habitual behavior which occurs in one situation, such as smoking in bed after a sexual
intercourse.
Complex
57. It refers to knowledge of stimulus.

Perception
58. Impression of stimulus by utilizing one’s sense of smell.

Olfactory
59. Mike after tasting an unripe mango grimaced this sensation is said to be:
Gustatory
60. It refers to a psychological activity according to the interpretation and experience.

Awareness
61. It speaks of an attribute of human behavior which deals with spatial characteristics.
Extensity
62. In terms of normality and abnormality, what attribute of human behavior is manifested?
Quantity
63. A peeping tom who gains gratification by seeing nude woman/man in some form of sexual act.
Voyeurism
64. Connotes hypersensitivity, unwarranted suspicion, envy and jealousy.

Paranoid personality disorder
65. It refers to an abnormal behavior caused by environment.

Functional
66. When anxiety, depression or unusual fear(phobia) is displayed it refers to:

Neuroses
67. Directly under the supervision of the Department of Justice, its most important function in the Criminal Justice
System is to maintain and recognize the rule of law through the speedy delivery of services particularly in the
prosecution and investigation of all crimes.
National Prosecution Service
68. Refers to all disciplines involved in the study of crimes and criminals.
Criminological enterprise
69. Refers to restraining or isolating criminals behind prison facilities to effectively protect society.
Crime control
70. The political will of the state to punish criminals in accordance with law.
Crime deterrence
71. Refers to all governmental and non-governmental activities to thwart, preempt and stop the crime from
occurring.
c. Crime prevention
72. In the attempt to prevent crimes, what must be eliminated by the police?
Opportunity to commit crimes
73. Primary objective of law enforcement.
Crime prevention
74. An attached agency of the office of the president tasked to implement and undertake drug law enforcement.
PDEA
75. In making arrests under rule 113, Sec 5, par 3(fugitives from justice) of the rules of court, what is the duty of
the arresting officer?
Deliver the person to the nearest police station
76. When an offense has in fact been committed, and he has personal knowledge of facts indicating that the person
to be arrested has committed it; this contemplates warantless arrest involving:
Caught in the act
77. Refers to all the systems and interplay of activities in the community which addresses all the negative factors
affecting security, health and welfare of the public in natural calamities, disaster, famine, criminality, drought
and epidemics.
Social defense
78. A blueprint for a responsive and well suited anti crime machinery that shall operate its strategic purposes.
National Anti Crime Strategy
79. Period prescribed by law for the preliminary investigation to be undertaken by the prosecutor.
10 days
80. It is defined as “… The machinery of the state or government which enforces the rules of conduct necessary to
protect life and property and maintain peace and order”.
Criminal justice system
81. Its most important function in the Criminal Justice System is to maintain and recognize the rule of law through
the speedy delivery of services particularly in the prosecution and investigation of all crimes.
Prosecution
82. They are referred to as the initiator of the criminal justice system.
Police
83. Primary function of every court system.

Help keep domestic peace
84. Training required for permanency for a police Chief Inspector.

POAC
85. A quota allocated promotion.

Regular promotion
86. Total period of time a candidate has acquired in a certain grade in permanent status.
c. Seniority in Rank
87. More often than not PNP members are confused with what particular rank they are supposed to address
themselves, this is due to the fact that for a long time they have been acquainted with using old military ranks
instead of their civilian rank, General Sipsip Matapat of the PNP is supposed to be addressed as;
Chief Superintendent
88. The commensurate military rank of Police Inspector is;
Lieutenant
89. In crime scenes, it is common that the public or the “UZISEROS” who are curious onlookers troop and flock
the area numbering more than the police personnel who are supposed to process it; hence to protect the integrity
of the evidences it is wise to;
Cordon the area
90. Ideally there should be at least three rings or cordon to protect the integrity of the crime scene, the outermost
cordon is to ward off the curious onlookers, the middle should be occupied by the press, police personnel,
government officials, the innermost would allow entrance only to;
a. SOCO team
b. Police Investigator d. Both A and B
91. They are policemen who are honest to a fault and straightforward. They are willing to take extreme positions on
ethical issues due to their idealism. They are referred to as;
White Knights
92. Although honest individuals, these policemen are willing and ready to hide the corrupt practices of their
comrades for the sake of “hiya”, “utang na loob” and “pakikisama” which is the top three “Pinoy” values.
d. Straight Shooters
93. They are police officers who engage in minor type of corruption as they present themselves.
Grass Eaters or Vegetarian Cop
94. They are police officers who actively seek out corruption opportunities and engaged in both minor and major
patterns of corruption.
Meat Eaters or Carnivorous Cops
95. They are policemen who are considered as having all deviant behaviors of a corrupt law enforcer.
Rouges
96. It is defined as a dereliction of police duties either because of malfeasance, misfeasance or nonfeasance.
Police Misconduct
97. It refers to the unnecessary and unreasonable use of force in effecting arrest or abuse in the manner of
conducting search and seizure.
Brutality
98. Considered to be a part of police working environment, this lying is a deceptive ploy to allow discreet police
operations.
Accepted lying
CRIMINAL SOCIOLOGY, ETHICS AND HUMAN RELATIONS II

CLE – EXAMINATION DRILL 2016
1. Urban sociologist who pioneered research on social ecology of the city, who contended that social forces
operating in urban areas create criminal interactions.
Chicago School
2. It contends that the exploitation of the working class would eventually lead to class conflict at the end of the
capitalist system.
Conflict Criminology
3. Crime is a function of learning, up bringing and control parents, peers and teachers influence behavior.
Socialization forces
4. Crime is a function of competition for limited power and resources. Class conflict produces crimes.
Economic and political forces
5. Crime rates are a function of neighborhood conditions, norm conflict and cultural forces.
Ecological forces
6. It originated around 1764, a criminological theory advocated by Becarria and Bentham. The classical theory
focuses its core idea on:
People choose to commit crime after weighing the benefits and costs of their actions.
7. It was advocated by Karl Marx, William Bonger, George Vold and Ralf Dahrendorf during the year 1848. It
centers on the view that capitalist system emphasizes competition and wealth and produces and economic and
social environment in which crime is inevitable.
Marxist/Conflict theory
8. It started around the year 1810, whose core idea is the fact that mental and degeneracies are the causes of crime.
Positivist theory
9. The sociological theory which started in the year 1897 contends that:
A person’s place in the social structure determines his/her behavior.
10. Acts of violence or intimidation designed to frighten people considered undesirable because of religion, sexual
orientation, ethnic origin or race.
Hate crimes
11. Offenses designed to improve the financial or social position of a criminal.

Instrumental crimes
12. It holds that offenders adhere to conventional values while drifting into periods of illegal behavior, in order to
drift; they must overcome moral and legal values.
Neutralization theory
13. According to Freud it is the ability to learn about the consequences of one’s action through experience.
Reality principle
14. A term that used to describe motorists who assault each other.
Road rage
15. The killing of a large number of people over time by an offender who seeks to escape detection.
Serial murder
16. A computer program that disrupts or destroys existing programs and networks.
a. Virus
17. Crimes that violate the moral order in which there is no actual target and society as a whole is considered the
victim.
Victimless crimes
18. Refers to the essence of good manners, which show sportsmanship, culture and gentility.
Courtesy
19. Component of moral science which deals with the duties and responsibility which a law enforcement officer
owes to the community and public.
Police Ethics
20. One’s obligation and duty to his nation of origin.
Loyalty and love of country
21. Acts and omissions not involving moral turpitude, but affecting the internal discipline of the PNP, such as
simple negligence and misconduct, frequent absences, gambling prohibited by law, tardiness and
insubordination.
Minor offense
22. The most significant power exercised by a police officer as a first-line supervisor.
Manpower control
23. Mental and moral training that makes a man willing to be subject to regulation and control for the benefit and
interest of the group where he belongs.
Discipline
24. Primary attribute for effective leadership.

Have normal intelligence and a sincere desire to serve.
25. Self-esteem, self confidence, drives a person’s attitude and emotional feeling regarding their way of life and the
people whom they interact with.
Morale
26. Discontent and grievance would logically result to:

Inconsistent administration
27. It refers to the sum total of dealings of the police with the people it serves.
Police community relations
28. Designed to bridge any communication gap between the police and the people.
Public information program
29. Designed to influence public opinion in favor of the police force.

Mass communication program
30. Involves local officials and the citizenry in the preservation of peace and order.
Integrated Police Advisory Council
31. Consist of moral and legal precepts which govern the relationship of man in all aspects of life.
Human relations
32. In terms of its use in effective supervision, discipline is considered as:

Authority
33. The most significant element in reprimanding a subordinate should be to:

Maintain discipline
34. An act providing for stronger deterrence and special protection against child abuse, exploitation and
discrimination.
R.A. 7610
35. Refers to persons below 18 years of age or those over but unable to fully take care of themselves from neglect,
abuse, cruelty, exploitation or discrimination due to some physical defect or mental disability or condition.
Children
36. Refers to bodily damage, whether external or internal.
Physical injury
37. A condition or act which may cause suffering emotional or physical harm on the part of the child.
Child abuse
38. A harm done to a child’s intellectual functions which causes a change in behavior, awareness and emotional
response.
Psychological injury
39. Anything said or done that degrades, debases or demeans the inherent worth and dignity of a child.
Cruelty
40. Failure to provide for the needs of a child.

Neglect
41. Lewd or sexually motivated acts done to others.

Lascivious conduct
42. Acts or conditions harmful to children that take advantage of their innocence.
Exploitation
43. Anything deliberately done that result in a child engaging in sexual activity with any person willingly or
otherwise.
Sexual abuse
44. Putting a child under duress to consent to engage in an activity.

Coercion
45. Forcing an activity on the child without consent.

Molestation
46. Duty of any head of a public or private hospital upon any knowledge of a child who have been treated or
suffered from abuse.
Report to the DSWD within 48 hours upon discovery of abuse
47. A teacher upon learning that a child under his/her supervision has been a victim of abuse shall:
Report the incident to the DSWD, whether oral or written
48. This type of delinquent youth is characterized by aggressiveness and resentment to the authority of any person
who tries to control his behavior.
Social
49. A delinquent child who internalizes his conflicts and becomes preoccupied with his feelings is a:
Neurotic delinquent
50. P/Insp. Tan while on his way home heard a scream for help coming from a certain house, no unusual
disturbance was observed, he should;
Enter the residence cautiously to investigate
51. A police would generally render efficient service by;

Observing unusual things
52. SPO2 Javier discovered a fire at 3:00 am on the third floor of a six storey building. What should be his first
action?
Call for the fire bureau for an emergency response
53. A mentally deranged man took several children hostage and barricaded a room after which he threatened to kill
them and himself, as the first police officer on site, you should;
Try to calm the hostage taker down before the crisis team arrives.
54. As an administrator, what should you do to eliminate friction between two of your subordinates?
Call both parties concerned and explain the need for cooperation.
55. A deviant sexual behavior wherein one obtains gratification by showing to others his/her naked body.
Exhibitionism
56. A child molester.

Pedophile
57. Ariel who usually gets sexual stimulation and gratification with another man manifests what deviant sexual
behavior?
Homosexuality
58. Noel who likes to engage in sexual intercourse with his pet dog, exhibits:
Bestiality
59. Joy and Joey are brothers and sisters who fell in love with each other; their relationship is prohibited by law
because this is an abnormality involving.
Homosexuality
60. You are the first to respond to a call wherein a dead body is found at the crime scene with several onlookers, as
a rule you are not allowed to express your opinion, why?
No useful purpose will be served
61. While regulating traffic at a school intersection during break time, you were notified that a homicide had
occurred a few blocks away, what would be your initial action?
Go to the scene after notifying headquarters and the school administration
62. A person approached you and told you that a dead man is on the street, what would be your course of action if
you are the policeman concerned.
Verify the statement
63. One of the following tasks of supervisory work that may be successfully delegated.
Checking completed work
64. A policeman can be most effective if:

Observes unusual things
65. Functional allocation should involve:

Distribution of responsibility among all levels
66. Standard procedure to avoid conflicts in the delegation of authority.

Assign all related work to the same control
67. A body officially assembled under authority of law in which judicial power is vested or the administration of
justice is delegated.
Court
68. Mandated by law to bring to justice all criminal cases for action and prove the guilt of the accused beyond
reasonable doubt.
Prosecution
69. A body of civil authority tasked to maintain peace and order, enforce the law, protect life, liberty and property
and ensure public safety.
Police
70. System of taking care of the custody, rehabilitation and treatment of persons convicted of committing a crime.
Corrections
71. The Anti Graft and Corrupt Practices Act.
RA 3019
72. Law which created the National Bureau of Investigations.

RA 157
73. The agency under the Department of Finance tasked to enforce tariff duties in all Philippine seaports and
airports.
Bureau of Customs
74. The Bureau of Immigration and Deportation, which is tasked to enforce Philippine Immigration Laws, is an
attached agency of:
75. It regulates marine and shipping industry and oversees the worthiness of all sea-going vessels.
Maritime Industry Authority (MARINA)
76. It is mandated by law to operate against fake and pirated VHS, VCD, CD and DVD format tapes.
Video Gram Regulatory Board
77. The Intellectual Property office which is mandated to operate against the violations of the copy right and
intellectual property law is under the:
Department of Trade and Industry
78. It investigates and arrests unscrupulous manufacturers and makers of substandard food and drugs without
license and permit.
Bureau of Food and Drugs
79. The Bureau of Quarantine is empowered to enforce measures to stop, monitor and control the spread of disease
by conducting quarantine in all air and seaports across the country is an attached agency of:
DOH
80. It operates against pornography films shown on television and movie houses.
Movie and Television Review and Classification Board
81. It enforces banking laws and regulates the banking industry.

Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas
82. Refers to a court which is created by law to amicably settle disputes between neighbors within a particular
community.
Barangay court
83. Refers to that sector of society composed of NGO’s, cause oriented groups and advocacy groups that promotes
the welfare of the people against all forms of abuse and exploitation.
Civil society
84. It refers to a schedule of budgeting task to be undertaken during a specific budget year.
Budget calendar
85. Number of days allocated for a fiscal year.

b. 366
86. The logical result of authority with no accountability.

It will be prone to abuse
87. It refers to the state of being accountable.
a. Responsibility
88. Ceiling for emergency expenses shall not exceed ____ for activities that cannot be delayed of the annual agency
expenditure program for supplies and materials.
4%
89. Responsible for the authorization and appropriation of the PNP budget.
Congress
90. The result of responsibility without authority.

It will give rise to usurpation
91. A document issued by higher authorities which prescribes the national priorities and constraints in the budget
year.
Budget guidance
92. It refers to a document that initiates the preparation of the budget.

Budget call
93. Regular purchase of supplies, materials and equipment shall not exceed ______ limitation of the normal
inventory or stock.
3 months
94. Substandard shoes issued to police personnel is attributed to.

Procurement of inferior quality materials and equipment
95. The failure to comply with increase in base pay would be attributed to:
Deficient release of budget from the national treasury
96. It refers to the filing of simultaneous cases with different venues against a police officer.
Forum shopping
97. A problem of organizing wherein incompetent men are designated their posts.
Personnel doing necessary work inefficiently
98. A villain in organizing manifested by personnel who encroaches upon the duties and responsibilities of another.
Personnel doing unnecessary work
CDI
CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION – is an art which deals with the identity and location of the
offender and provides evidence of guilt through criminal proceedings.
INVESTIGATION DEFINED: The collection of facts to accomplish a three-fold aim:
a. to identify the guilty party;
INFORMATION
It is the knowledge/data which an investigator acquired from other persons and records.
Regular Sources – records, files from government and non-government agencies, news items.
Cultivated Sources – information gathered upon initiative of the investigator from informants,
vendors, taxicab driver, GRO, and others.
Grapevine Sources – these are information coming from the underworld characters such as
prisoners and ex-convicts.
INTERVIEW – Is a conversation with a purpose, motivated by a desire to obtain certain

information from the person being interviewed as to what was done, seen, felt, heard, tasted,
smell or known.
This is the questioning of a person believed to possess knowledge that is in official

interest to the investigator.
BASIC ASSUMPTIONS
Nobody has to talk to law enforcers. No law compels a person to talk to the police if he
does not want to. Therefore, people will have to be persuaded, always within legal and ethical
limits, to talk to law enforcers. This makes interviewing an art.
I.R.O.N.I.C. FORMAT
The interview of a witness can be described by its acronym ‘IRONIC’ which stands for Identity,
Rapport, Opening Statement, Narration, Inquiry, and conclusion.
Identity – prior to the commencement of an interview, the investigator should identify himself to
the subject by name, rank and agency. Except, when there is no need to know the officer’s
identity.
Rapport – it is good to get the positive feeling of the subject towards the investigators, such
friendly atmosphere is a vital for both the subject and the investigator t have a better interaction.
Opening Statement – the investigator must have to indicate why the subject is being
contracted.
Narration – the witness should be allowed to tell all he knows with little interruptions from the
investigator.
Inquiry – after all information have been given by the subject, that is the time for the
investigator to as question to clarify him about the case under investigation.
Conclusions – after the interview, it is but proper to close the interview with outmost courtesy
and thanking the subject for his cooperation.
INTERROGATION –is a questioning of a person suspected of having committed an offense or a

person who is reluctant to make full disclosure of information in his possession which is
pertinent to the investigation.
Emotional Appeal
Place the subject in the proper frame of mind. The investigator should provide emotional
stimuli that will prompt the subject to unburden himself by confiding. Analyze the subject’s
personality and decide what motivation would prompt him to tell the truth, and then provide
those motives through appropriate emotional appeals.
Sympathetic appeal
The suspect may feel the need for sympathy or friendship when he is apparently in
trouble. Gestures of friendship may win his cooperation.
Kindness
The simplest technique is to assume that the suspect will confess if he is treated in a
kind and friendly manner.
Extenuation
The investigator indicates he does not consider his subject’s indiscretion a grave
offense.
Shifting the blame

The interrogator makes clear his belief that the subject is obviously not the sort of person
who usually gets mixed up in a crime like this. The interrogator could tell from the start that he
was not dealing with a fellow who is a criminal by nature and choice.
CUSTODIAL INTERROGATION/INVESTIGATION – is the questioning of a law enforcement

officer on a person under custody and otherwise deprived of his freedom or liberty. This is the
stage in investigation where there is strict observance of the Miranda Doctrine.
MIRANDA DOCTRINE – this case which entitled Miranda vs. Arizona, is a US Supreme Court
Jurisprudence which laid down the constitutional rights of the accused during custodial
investigation. It was incorporated in our 1973 Constitution and later in the 1987 Constitution of
the Philippines.
INSTRUMENTATION
It is the application of instruments and methods of physical science to the detection of

crimes. In cases where there are no significant physical evidence to be found, then the use of
instrumentation is relatively unimportant.
CONFESSION– is the direct acknowledgement of guilt arising from the commission of a crime.
Extra-Judicial Confession – those made by the suspect during custodial investigation.
Judicial Confession– those made by the accused in open court. The plea of guilt may be
during arraignment or in any stage of the proceedings where the accused changes his plea of
not guilty to guilty.
ADMISSION– is a self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling short of an

acknowledgement of guilt. It is an acknowledgement of a fact or circumstances from which guilt
maybe inferred. It implicates but does not incriminate. It is also an acknowledgement that a fact,
action or circumstances are true which strongly infer or directly admit guilt but lacks the detail of
the elements of the crime.
CIRCUMSTANTIAL EVIDENCE - facts or circumstances from which, either alone or in

connection with other facts, the identity of the person can be inferred.
Motive – is what induces the criminal to act
Intent –is the result or accomplishment of the act
Opportunity –is the physical possibility that the suspect could have committed the
CORPUS DELICTI– is the body of the crime or fact of specific loss or injury sustained. It
constitutes the essential parts or elements in the commission of the crime.
ASSOCIATIVE EVIDENCE – these are the pieces of evidence that will link the suspect to the
crime scene. The suspect may leave some clues at the scene such as weapons, tools,
garments or prints.
TRACING EVIDENCE – articles which assist the investigator in locating the criminal. Stolen
goods in the possession of the suspect in an example of tracing evidence.
MODUS OPERANDI – is the method of operation by a specific criminal or criminal syndicate. It
is a distinct pattern of how a crime is committed and is established by a series of crimes under
one classification. The modus operandi of one criminal is distinct and different from the other. It
is a criminal trademark, logo or brandname.
INFORMANT – is a person who gives information to the police relevant to a criminal case about
the activities of criminals or syndicates.
Anonymous informant – do not wish to be identified.
Rival elimination informant – to eliminate competition.
False informant – reveals information of no consequence or value.
Frightened informant – motivated by anxiety.
Self-aggrandizing – hangs about the fringes of the criminals.
SURVEILLANCE – is the secret observation of persons, places,and vehicles for the purpose of
obtaining information concerning the identities or activities of the subject.
SURVEILLANT – is the person who maintains the surveillance or performs the observation.
SUBJECT – the person or place being watched or surveyed.
TAILING OR SHADOWING – is the act of following a person, depends on the number of

surveillant available, volume of pedestrian traffic and importance of concealing the surveillance.
One man –extremely difficult and should be avoided, if unavoidable keep subject in view at all
times.
Two man – two agents are employed to follow the subject.
ABC method – reduces the risk of losing the subject, affords greater security agents detection.
Progressive/Leap from method – poor chances of obtaining good results, agents are stations
at a fixed point assuming that subject followed the same general route each day.
Combined foot-auto surveillance – employment of surveillants on foot and agents in an

automobile.
AUTOMOBILE SURVEILLANCE
The methods of auto surveillance to be used depends upon the numbers and type of
surveillance vehicles available, the volume of vehicular traffic in the area, the importance of
concealing the surveillance from the subject, and the subject’s estimated ability to detect and
elude surveillance. At all times each vehicle should be occupied by at least two agents; one to
concentrate on driving, and the other to observe, take notes, operate radio equipment, or to
dismount and continue the surveillance on foot.
UNDERCOVER INVESTIGATION – is a form of investigation in which the investigator assumes

a different and unofficial identity in order to obtain information.
Undercover- an investigative technique in which the Agent’s/Investigator’s official identity is

concealed to accomplish an investigative mission.
Natural cover- using the individual’s true identity, occupation or profession.
Artificial cover- the manufacture of documents, false documents, passports, or forged

documents.
CRIME SCENE INVESTIGATION
It is the conduct of processes, more particularly, the recognition, search, collection,
handling, preservation and documentation of physical evidence to include the identification and
interview of witnesses and the arrest of suspect/s at the crime scene.
SOCO (Scene of the Crime Operation) – Republic Act6975 as Amended by Republic Act 8551
(PNP Law). The former law placed the Philippine National Police Crime Laboratory as an
Operational Support Unit. The Crime Laboratory established the so-called Scene of the Crime
Operation (SOCO) which is field operation. This is now an innovation because the SOCO now
gathers all evidence at the crime scene and takes custody of them, marking and tagging them
which otherwise the duty of the criminal investigator before.
GOLDEN RULE AT CRIME SCENE INVESTIGATION
Never touch, move, or alter any object at the crime scene unless it has been
photographed, measured, and sketched from any conceivable angle.
Command Post – an area which, is ideally located adjacent to the Crime Scene where the CSI
Evidence Custodian stays and receives the pieces of evidence turned over to him for
safekeeping by the other evidence collectors.
PHOTOGRAPHING THE CRIME SCENE
The main objective crime scene photography is to create an accurate objective

visual record of the crime scene before any item ismoved as possible physical evidence.
General View or Long-Range – photograph of the over-all scene.
Distance: From the doorway to the room and other corners of the room
Mid-Range View
Distance: Eight or ten feet from the victim
Close-up View – every physical evidence must be photographed in close-up view and for
different angles.
CRIME SCENE SKETCHES

A rough sketch is prepared indicating the actual measurement of things with scale and
proportion observed and oriented to the North Pole. All necessary information is placed in the
sketch.
Sketch of Locality- give picture of the scene, the crime and its environs, including neighboring
buildings, roads, etc.
Sketch of the Ground- picture of the scene of the crime with its nearest physical surrounding.
Sketch in Details – the immediate scene only.
Exploded/ cross projection – gives the clear impression of the scene in cases where blood
stains or bullet holes are found.
Rectangular coordinates method – a sketching method that involves measuring the distance
of an object from two fixed lines at right angles to each other.
Triangulation method – a sketching method that requires measuring the distance of an object
along a straight line from two widely separated fixed reference points.
Baseline method– a sketching method that makes measurements along from a single
reference line, called a baseline, which can be established by using a length of string, chalk line,
or some other convenient means.
Compass point method– a sketching method that requires a protractor or some method of
measuring angles between two lines. One point is selected as the origin and a line extending
from the origin becomes an axis from which the angles can be measured.
Cross projection method – a sketching method in which the ceiling appears to open up like a
lid of a hinged box, with the four walls opening outward. Measurements are then indicated from
a point on the floor to the wall.
CRIME SCENE SEARCH
A crime scene search could only be started after it has been photograph and sketched to
systematically look for physical evidence that may prove useful in establishing that a crime has
been committed and to determine what method of operation the perpetrator may have used.
Strip or Line Search Method – the searchers will proceed at the same pace along the path
parallel to one side of the rectangle.
Double Strip or Grid Method – is a combination of the strip search and is useful for large crime
scene.
Spiral or Circular Method – the searchers will follow each other in the path of a spiral,
beginning in the outside and spiraling towards the center or vice versa in a clockwise or counter
clock-wise direction.
Quadrant of Zone Method – the area to be searched is divided into four quadrants and each
searcher is assigned to one quadrant.
Wheel, Radial or Spoke Method – is applicable for area which is considered to be

approximately circular or oval. The area is then divided into six quadrants in a pie-like fashion. .
PHYSICAL EVIDENCE – these are the articles and materials which are found in connection
with the investigation and which aid in establishing the identity of the perpetrator or the
circumstances under which the crime was committed or which, in general assist in the
prosecution of criminal. It embraces any object, living or inanimate, solid, liquid, or gas state.
A. CHAIN OF CUSTODY
It is the number of persons who handled and possessed the pieces of evidence the
moment they were collected, marked and tagged, up to the time of the final disposition of the
case.
Conduct of Final Survey

The team leader makes a final review on the crime scene to determine whether or not
the processing has been completed.
TRANSPORTATION
- is an act or process of conveying from one place to another
- from the Latin word “Terans” meaning across or and move and “Portare” means
to carry
WHEEL
- was invented probably in Western Asia
- one of man’s great inventions
THE ROMANS
- were the major road builders in the ancient world
- Roman road networks reached a total of about 50,000 miles (80, 000 km)
CANALS
- a body of water used to be channel of sea transportation

- the first canal was constructed by Engr. James Brindley
RAILWAYS
- channel of transportation wherein a parallel line of irons were used as roads
- the first railroad is the Stockton and Darlington line (1925)
TRAFFIC
- it refers to the movement of persons, goods, or vehicles, either powered by
combustion system or animal drawn vehicle, from one place to another for the
purpose of safe travel
- originated from Greco-Roman word Trafico and Greek word Traffiga, origin of
which is not known
THE 5’Es OF TRAFFIC
1. ENFORCEMENT
- the action taken by the police, such as arresting, issuing traffic citation ticket and
providing warning to the erring driver for the purpose of deterring and discouraging and
or preventing such violation
2. EDUCATION
- the process of giving training and practice in the actual application of traffic safety
knowledge
3. ENGINEERING
- the science of measuring traffic and travel, the study of basic laws relative to the traffic
law and generation; the application of these knowledge to the professional practice of
planning, deciding, and operating traffic system to achieve safe and efficient
transportation of persons and goods
4. TRAFFIC ECOLOGY/ ENVIRONMENT

- the study of potentially disastrous population explosion, changes in urban environment
due to the scale and density of new urban concentration and new activities carried out,
air pollution, water pollution and crowding, transport congestion which result therein
5. TRAFFIC ECONOMY
- deals with the benefits and adverse effects of traffic to our economy
MANAGEMENT
- it is an executive function such as planning, organizing, Directing and supervising,
coordinating operating recording and budgeting traffic affairs
Land Transportation Office

- tasked to enforce laws, rules and regulation governing the registration of motor vehicles,
operation of motor vehicle and traffic rules and regulation as provided by RA 4136 as
amended.
Land Transportation Franchising and Regulatory Board

- tasked to regulate transport route
- regulate franchising
- prescribe fare rates
- investigate traffic cases
- perform judicial function
- promulgate rules
- impose and collect fees
- formulate and enforce rules and regulation for transport operation for promotion of safety
and convenience of public
- coordinate with concerned agencies and enforce E.O. NO 125,124-A and
E.O. 202 dated June 19,1987
Department of Transportation and Communications

- in charge of planning programs coordinating implementing and perform administrative
function and promotion development and regulation of dependable and coordinated
network of transportation and communication in order to have fast, safe, efficient and
reliable postal transportation and communication services (EO No. 125.)
Metro Manila Development Authority (MMDA)

- created under RA. 7924 and sets policies concerning traffic in Metro Manila, coordinates
and regulates implementation of program related to traffic
Congress and Local Council

- the branch of government primarily tasked to create laws for the welfare of the public
Judiciary
- the branch of government that interprets the law through adjudication of cases
Traffic Management Group (TMG)

- the basis service of the PNP tasked to direct and control traffic, perform accident
investigation, enforce the laws and issue citations.
Department of Public Works and Highways

- has responsibility of determining traffic flow planning approval of program and budget
finding of construction and maintenance of road and instrument
Local Public Works and Engineering Offices

- local government units and instrumentalities that have the same function as the DPWH
- perform such powers within their territorial boundary
Elementary
- tasked to educate children to obey traffic rules through their programmed curricula
Secondary
- tasked to educate students in obeying tha traffic rules by imposing school policies
intended for the welfare of the students
Higher Education
- they offer subjects on driving and traffic safety course or any allied subjects
TRAFFIC EDUCATION
- is priceless gem in the entire scale of social order of the road
- is the process of inculcating to an individual the knowledge, skill, responsibilities and values
to become a fully developed person
- the key to smooth traffic flow is discipline and to acquire discipline people must be educated
BIORHYTHM
- the theory asserting that man exhibit constant variation of energy and mood states
LICENSING SYSTEM
- it is the system of issuing license to any person who is qualified to fulfill the
responsibilities required by the licens
- administered by the LTO
DRIVER’S LICENSE
- issued to the drivers as privilege granted by the government providing statutory
qualification
REQUISITES FOR ISSUANCE OF LICENSE

- At least 16 years old for student’s permit
- 17 years old for sub-professional
- 18 years old for professional
KINDS OF DRIVER’S LICENSE

1. Student permit
2. Non-professional
3. Professional
4. Military
5. International
DRIVER
- Licensed operator of a vehicle
CONDUCTOR
- Licensed person allowing limited number of passengers, freight or cargo in public utility
truck or buses
TEN COMMANDEMENTS OF TRAFFIC
1. KEEP RIGHT - (two lanes, two ways) in case of one way the left lane shall be the fast
lane and the slow lane is the right.
2. OBSERVE ROAD COURTESY- yield to emergency vehicle, pedestrians, trains, vehicle
with right of way, vehicles ahead, large vehicles, uphill traffic, vehicles with momentum,
straight traffic, and traffic signs.
TRAFFIC LAW ENFORCEMENT

- the action taken by the police to compel obedience to traffic laws and ordinance
regulating the use and movement of motor vehicle for the purpose of creating a deterrent
to unlawful behavior by all potential violators
TRAFFIC LAW ENFORCER

- a person duly deputized by an agency of government authorized by law to enforce traffic
laws, rules and regulations
POLICE TRAFFIC LAW ENFORCEMENT
- the part performed by the police and other agencies with police power including
deterrent to law violations created by the presence of uniformed police officer and their
special equipment, special assistance to court and prosecutor and incidental service to
highway users
COURT TRAFFIC LAW ENFORCEMENT

- the performed by the court through adjudication and penalization
POLICE COURT ENFORCEMENT PROCESS
FIVE ESSENTIAL STEPS

1. DETECTION - wholly police activities and entails looking for defects in the behavior
motorist, pedestrian, vehicle, equipment and roadway condition.
2. APPREHENSION - a police responsibility wherein the police are required action to
prevent continued and future violation.
3. PROSECUTION - it is a court function, the police also provides corresponding influence
through preparation and introduction of evidence or close contact with the prosecution
office.
4. ADJUDICATION - it is court function, the police provides influence on this step by as a
witness to the prosecution by supplying additional evidence. It determines the guilt or
innocence of the accused.
5. PENALIZATION - the imposition of penalty upon the accused. Penalty can be influenced
by previous records of conviction as provided by the police.
VIOLATIONS
- those act and omissions against traffic laws
POLICE TRAFFIC ENFORCEMENT ACTIONS

- these include arrest and citation of any person
TRAFFIC PATROL
- part of traffic supervision by patrolling to ensure public obedience
TYPES OF PATROL
1. Line patrol- it is assigned to a particular place
2. Area patrol- type of patrol assigned to an area of vicinity
TRAFFIC OBSERVATION
1. Stationary traffic observation - officer is assigned at specific place
2. Conspicuous traffic observation - officer attracts attention
3. Visible traffic observation - stationary observation that the observer is in full view
4. concealed traffic observation - observer is not visible to the public
THINGS TO CONSIDER IN PURSUIT AS TRAFFIC ENFORCEMENT

1. Decision - nature of violation
2. Pursuit technique
3. Safety driving technique
SUPERVISED ROUTE
- A street or highway on which traffic is supervised to some considerable degree
POLICE TRAFFIC DIRECTION

- It involves telling the public how and when they should not stand and move
POINT/ AREA CONTROL

- It is the part of the traffic direction concerning the control of vehicular/ pedestrian
movement
POLICE TRAFFIC ESCORT

- It involves mobile supervision of traffic movement, directing orally and visually are done
to allow free and safe movement of escorted vehicles.
TRAFFIC DIRECTION AND CONTROL

- It is the control direction of traffic units according to proportionate time to prevent traffic
accident to maintain smooth flow of traffic.
A. COMMAND OF TRAFFIC
- Stand where you can be seen with firm and posture
TWO-OFFICER TRAFFIC
- The team leader shall initiate command followed by the members.
TRAFFIC JAM
- It is caused by such factors as vehicular accident, stalled vehicle, absence of traffic
enforcer and road construction.
DRUNKEN DRIVERS
- it is a driver who drives under the influence of alcohol with 10% of intoxicating level
TRAFFIC ENGINEERING
- defined as calculating manipulation or direction. It includes forecasting of future traffic
demands.
SIDEWALK
- it is the portion of the road that answers the safety of pedestrians
ACCIDENT
- that occurrence in a sequence of events which usually produces unintended injury,
death or property damage
TRAFFIC ACCIDENT
- an accident involving travel transportation on a traffic way
MOTOR VEHICLE ACCIDENT

- event resulting in unintended injury or property damage attributable directly or indirectly
to the action of a motor vehicle or its load
1. NON-MOTOR VEHICLE TRAFFIC ACCIDENT

- refers to any accident occurring on a traffic way involving persons using the traffic way or
travel or transportation, but not involving a motor vehicle in motion (ex. Pedestrian and a
cyclist in a traffic way)
2. MOTOR VEHICLE NON-TRAFFIC ACCIDENT
- any motor vehicle accident which occurs entirely in any place other than a traffic way
(ex. Accident on a private driveway)
3. MOTOR VEHICLE TRAFFIC ACCIDENT

- any motor vehicle accident occurring on a traffic way (ex. Collision between automobiles
on a highway)
1. PERCEPTION OF HAZARD – it is seeing, feeling or hearing and understanding the

usual or unexpected movement or condition that could be taken as a sign of an accident
about to happen
2. START OF EVASIVE ACTION – it is the first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from
a collision course or otherwise avoid a hazard
3. INITIAL CONTACT – the first accidental touching of an object collision course or
otherwise avoids a hazard
4. MAXIMUM ENGAGEMENT – it is the greatest collapse or overlap in a collision; the
force between the traffic unit and the object collided with are greatest at maximum
engagement
5. DISENGAGEMENT – it is the separation of a traffic unit in motion from an object with
which it has collided; the force between the object ceases at this time
6. STOPPING – this is when the traffic units involved come to rest; it usually stabilizes the
accident situation
7. INJURY – it is receiving bodily harm; this event does not necessarily occur after the
accident but within any of the chain of events; it may also happen right after the evasive
action taken by the drivers involved or during the initial contact
MOTOR VEHICLE – any device which is self-propelled and every vehicle which is propelled by
electric power obtained from overhead trolley wires, but not operated upon rails
1. KEY EVENT – an event on the road which characterizes the manner of occurrence of a
motor vehicle traffic accident
2. DEBRIS – the scattered broken parts of vehicles, rubbish, dust and other materials left
at the scene of the accident caused by a collision
3. SKID MARKS – these are marks left on the roadway by tires which are not free to
rotate, usually because brakes are applied strongly and the wheels locked
4. TRAFFIC UNIT – any person using a traffic way for travel, parking or other purposes as
a pedestrian or driver, including any vehicle, or animal.
5. HAZARD - a hazard is generated when a critical space-motion relationships between a
traffic unit and another object develops due to the movement of either or both (ex. A
curve in the path is a hazard; another traffic unit in the path is a hazard.)
6. SAFE SPEED – the speed adjusted to the potential or possible hazards or the road and
traffic situation ahead; safe speed on the road is determined by the road rather than the
particular driver of a vehicle (ex. A curve ahead is a hazard and a safe speed for it is a
speed at which it can be taken comfortably
7. STRATEGY – the adjusting of speed, position on the road, and direction of motion,
giving signals of intent to turn or slow down, or any other action in situations involving
potential hazards
8. TACTIC – any action taken by the traffic unit to avoid hazardous situations like steering,
braking or accelerating to avoid collision or other accident.
9. IMPACT – the striking of one body against another or a collision of a motor vehicle with
another motor vehicle.
10. CONTACT DAMAGE – damage to a vehicle resulting from direct pressure of some
foreign object in a collision or roll over; it is usually indicated by striations, rub-off of
material or puncture.
11. FACTOR – any circumstance contributing to a result without which the result could not
have occurred or it is an element necessary to produce the result, but not by itself
sufficient.
12. PRIMARY CAUSE – a misnomer loosely applied to the most obvious or easily explained
factor in the cause of an accident or the most easily modified condition factor.
13. CAUSE – the combination of simultaneous and sequential factors without any one of
which result could not have occurred.
14. ATTRIBUTE – any inherent characteristics of a road, a vehicle, or a person that affects
the probability of a traffic accident.
15. MODIFIER – a circumstance that alters an attribute permanently or temporarily.
Homicide Investigation is the official inquiry made by the police on the facts and
circumstances surrounding the death of a person which is expected to be unlawful.
Art. 246. Parricide – Any person who shall kill his father, mother, or child, whether legitimate or
illegitimate, or any of his ascendants or descendants, or his spouse, shall be guilty of parricide.
Penalty: Reclusion Perpetua (20 years and 1 day to 40 years imprisonment) to death.
Elements:
1. That a person is killed.

2. That the deceased is killed by the accused.
3. That the deceased is the father, mother, or child, whether legitimate or illegitimate, or a
legitimate other ascendant or other descendant, or the legitimate spouse, of the
accused.
B.
C. Art. 247. Death or physical injuries inflicted under exceptional
circumstances– Any legally married person who, having surprised
his spouse in the act of committing sexual intercourse with another
person, shall kill any of them or both of them in the act or immediately
thereafter, or shall inflict upon them any serious physical injury, shall
suffer the penalty of destierro.
If he shall inflict upon them physical injuries of any kind, he shall be exempt from
punishment.
These rules shall be applicable, under the same circumstances, to parents, with respect
to their daughters under eighteen years of age, and their seducer, while the daughters are living
with their parents.
Any person who shall promote or facilitate prostitution of his wife or daughter, or shall
otherwise have consented to the infidelity of the other spouse shall not be entitled to the
benefits of this article.
Penalty:Destierro(prohibition to enter the place or places designated in the sentence, nor within
the radius therein specified, which shall be not more than 250 and not less than 25 kilometers
from the place designated.
Art. 248. Murder– Any person who, not falling with the provisions of Article 246, shall kill
another, shall be guilty of murder and shall be punished by reclusion perpetua to death, if
committed with any of the following attendant circumstances:
1. With treachery, taking advantage of superior strength, with aid of armed men, or
employing means to weaken the defense or of means or persons to insure or afford
impunity;
2. In consideration of a price, reward or promise;
3. By means of Inundation, fire, poison, explosion, shipwreck, stranding of vessel,
derailment or assault upon a railroad, fall of an airship, or by means of motor vehicles or
with the use of any other means involving great waste and ruin;
4. On occasion of any of the calamities of an earthquake, eruption of a volcano,
destructive cyclone, epidemic or other public calamity;
5. With evident premeditation;
6. With cruelty, by deliberately and inhumanly augmenting the suffering of the victim, or
outraging or scoffing at his person or corpse.
Penalty: Reclusion perpetua (20 years& 1 day to 40 years imprisonment) to death.
Elements of murder:
1. That a person is killed.

2. That the accused killed him.
3. That the killing was attended by any of the qualifying circumstances mentioned in Article
248.
4. The killing is not parricide or infanticide.
TREACHERY
Plain and simple, there is treachery if the offended party was not given opportunity to
make a defense.
MEANING OF PREMEDITATION
Premeditation is the act of mediating in advance; deliberation upon a contemplated act; a

design form to do something before it is done.
The essence of premeditation is that the execution of the criminal act must be preceded
by COOL THOUGHT and REFLECTION upon the resolution to carry out the criminal intent
during the space of time SUFFICIENT to arrive at a calm judgment.
There is no evident premeditation without proof of planning.
EVIDENT – Clear to the eye or judgment.
ART. 249. Homicide – Any person who, not falling within the provisions of Article 246
(Parricide) shall kill another, without the attendance of any of the circumstances enumerated in
the next preceding article (Article 248), shall be deemed guilty of homicide.
Penalty:Reclusion temporal (12 years& 1 day to 20 years imprisonment)
ART 255 .Infanticide

The killing of a child less than three days of age, whether the killer is the parent or
grandparent, any other relative of the child, or a stranger.
Penalty:
1. The penalty provided in parricide and murder shall be imposed.
2. If the crime penalized in this article be committed by the mother of the child to conceal
dishonor, she shall suffer the penalty of prision mayor (6 years & 1 day to 12 years
imprisonment) in its medium and maximum periods. If committed by maternal grandparents or
either of them, the penalty shall be reclusion temporal (12 years& 1 day to 20 years
imprisonment).
Death – death is defined as the absence of life in a living matter.
Somatic Death – Clinical Death
It is a complete, continuous, persistent cessation of respiration, circulation and

almost all brain functions of an organism. It is usually pronounced by a physician or
other members of the family.
Molecular Death- Cellular Death

It is the cessation of life of the individual cells in the whole body, which occurs one at
a time after somatic death.
Apparent Death – State of Suspended Animation
It is the state of temporary cessation of vital activities of the body or vital processes
were depressed to the minimum compatible with life. This condition is not actually
death although classified under the kinds of death, because the person or organism
is still alive although it seems that there are no signs of life.
Determination of Time of Death (Death Estimates)
A determination of the time of death should be attempted in all homicide investigations.

This fact is significant because of its investigative importance in corroborating or disputing alibis,
or in establishing the victim’s movements prior to death. Determining death is not an exact
science.
POST-MORTEM LIVIDITY (Livor Mortis)– Discoloration of the body after death; setting of
blood in the dependent portions of the body following death).
It is a reddish purple to purple coloration in dependent areas of the body due to

accumulation of blood in the small vessels of the dependent areas secondary to gravity. This
pooling of blood begins immediately after death and becomes fixed in approximately 8-12 hours.
The investigator can press on the skin in the dependent regions and if the skin blanches, death
has probably occurred less than 12 hours. This becomes fixed after a while and can tell if the
body has been moved. This is not a reliable indicator of time of death. This is a better indicator
of whether the body has been moved since death.
The Color of Lividity may Indicate the Cause of Death:
1. Carbon monoxide poisoning/ cyanide – cherry red to pinkish color

2. Asphyxia – dark lividity
3. Phosphorous poisoning – dark brown
TYPES OF LIVIDITY
1. Hypostatic – Blood is still in fluid form inside blood vessel; change as position of the
body changes. Blood remains fluid in the blood vessel for 6- 8 hours.
2. Diffusion– Coagulated inside blood vessel; Change in position will not change its
location.
Importance of Post-Mortem Lividity
1. It is a sign of death
2. It enables the investigator to estimate the time of death
3. It determines the position of the body after death
4. It may indicate the cause and manner of death
Characteristics of Post-Mortem Lividity
1. It occurs in the most extensive areas of the most dependent portion of the body.
2. It involves the superficial layer of the skin, lungs, intestines, kidneys, and brain.
3. Color is uniform in the tissues.
4. It is not elevated from the skin, lungs, intestines, kidneys and brain.
5. There is no injury to the tissues.
6. The color may appear and disappear in the tissues by shifting the position of the
body in the earlier stages of death.
POST MORTEM RIGIDITY (Rigor Mortis)
Stiffening of the body which occurs 2-6 hours after death and is characterized by
hardening of the muscles; the chemical reaction that causes rigidity in the muscle groups or
stiffening of the body after death due to the disappearance of Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP)
from the muscle.
- Rigor mortis disappears with decomposition.
- Cold and/or freezing will delay the onset of rigor mortis as well as prolong its presence
- Involves all muscles the same time at the same rate.It appears first in the
smallermuscles such as the jaw and then gradually spread to upper and lower extremities.
- Instantaneous rigidity can also be found following ingestion of cyanide and strychnine
poison.
Rigor Mortis has duration of 24 to 48 hours in the Philippines and other tropical countries
and 36 to 48 hours during summer in the same.
ALGOR MORTIS(Cooling of the body)

The body cools following death at approximately 1.5 degrees F per hour, under normal
conditions and assuming the body’s temperature at death is 98.6 degrees F (37 degrees C).
Factors Affecting AlgorMortis:
1. Illness
2. Clothes
3. Obesity
4. Room temperature
ONSET AND STAGE OF DECOMPOSITION
Decomposition is the action of bacteria on the dead body. The onset of decomposition is
1 to 2 days after death and then finally the dead body becomes skeletal remains in months
considering the factors that influence the rate of putrefaction.
CHANGES IN THE BLOOD
The blood remains fluid in the body after death after 6-8 hours. After which it gradually
clotted or coagulated in a slow process until 12 hours wherein the lividity is already fully
developed.
CHANGES IN STOMACH
It usually takes three to four hours for the stomach to empty its contents after meals.
Gunshot Wounds
All gunshot wounds result from the entry of a projectile into the body, and the frequent
presence of undispersed explosive gases.
Two Types of Wounds:
1. entrance wound (POE)

2. exit wound (POX)
Hanging – is a state of injury or death of the body whereby the ligature tightened around the
neck by the suspension of the body.
A. Suicidal Hanging – in death by hanging, it is usually suicidal unless proven otherwise.

Some evidence to prove are the following:
1. Accessible materials used for ligature like rope, rolled beddings, or wires.
2. Identification of the fibers from the rope in the hands of the victim.
3. Evidence of movement of the rope on the beam or anchorage from upward and
downward as the body has been suspended.
B. Homicidal Hanging
1. Presence of defense wound in the body of the victim.
2. Presence of blood stains and other injuries to the body of the victim.
3. Presence of signs of struggle in the clothing, furniture, beddings, and others.
4. Nature of the window, curtains, and doors.
C. Accidental hanging is not common.
Strangulation
Strangulation by ligature is usually homicidal and is done by tying the ligature around the
neck and the two ends pulled in the opposite direction in such a manner that tightens the
ligature. Ligature used may be rope, chain, wires, vines, rolled clothing.
ACCIDENTAL DEATH
Is death which occurs beyond the sway of ones will and although it comes about through
some act of will, lies beyond the bounds of human forceable consequences.
Article 293 – Robbery in General

Any person who, with intent to gain, shall take any personal property belonging to
another by means of violence or intimidation of any person, or by using force upon anything
shall be guilty of robbery.
Elements of Robbery
1. That there be personal property belonging to another;
2. That there is unlawful taking of that property;
3. That the taking must be with intent to gain; and
4. That there is violence against or intimidation of any person, or force upon

things.
How robbery with force upon things is committed?

The malefactors shall enter the house or building in which the robbery was committed by
any of the following means:
1. Through an opening not intended for entrance

2. By breaking any wall, roof, floor or breaking any window or door.
3. By using false key or picklocks
4. By using fictitious name or pretending the exercise of public authority
5. By breaking of doors, wardrobes, closets or any kind of locked or sealed furniture or
receptacle
6. By taking such furniture or objects away to be broken or forced open outside the
place of robbery.
General Types of Robbers
1. Amateurs – motivated by greed, the desire for a thrill and self-testing.

2. Professionals – are those person who worked as robbers as a trade making it their
living and having no other means of income.
Note: Robbery – This is the taking or personal property belonging to another, with intent to
gain, by means of violence against, or intimidation of any person, or using force upon anything.
Two Kinds of Robbery:

1. Robbery with violence or intimidation; and
2. Robbery with force upon things.
a. Belonging to another – person from whom property was taken need not be the
legal owner, possession is sufficient. The property must be personal property
and cannot refer to real property.
b. Name of the real owner is not essential so long as the personal property taken
does not belong to the accused except if crime is robbery with homicide.
c. Taking of personal property – must be unlawful; if given in trust – estafa.
d. As to robbery with violence or intimidation – from the moment the offender gains
possession of the thing even if offender has had no opportunity to dispose of the
same, the unlawful taking is complete.
e. As to robbery with force upon things – thing must be taken out of the building.
f. Intent to gain – presumed from unlawful taking – intent to gain may be presumed
from the unlawful taking of another’s property. However, when one takes a
property under the claim of ownership or title, the taking is not considered to be
with intent to gain. (U.S. vs. Manluco, et. al., 28 Phil.360)
g. When there’s no intent to gain but there is violence in the taking- grave coercion.
h. Violence or intimidation must be against the person of the offended party, not
upon the thing.
i. General rule: violence or intimidation must be present before the “taking” is
complete.
Exception: when violence results in-homicide, rape, intentional mutilation or any
of the serious physical injuries in par. 1 and 2 of ART. 263, the taking of property
is robbery complex with any of this crime under ART. 294, even if taking is
already complete when violence was used by the offender.
j. Use of force upon thing – entrance to the building by means described and ART.
299 and 302 (Offender must enter). The other kind of robbery is one that is
committed with the use of force upon anything in order to take with intent to gain,
the personal property of another. The use force here must refer to the force
employed upon things in order to gain entrance into a building or a house.
(People vs. Adorno, C.A. 40 0.G.567).
k. When both violence or intimidation and force upon things concur – it is robbery
with violence.
Robbery and Theft, compared.

a. Both robbery and theft involved unlawful taking as an elements;
b. Both involve personal property belonging to another;
c. In both crimes, the taking is done with intent to gain;
d. In robbery, the taking is done either with the use of violence or intimidation of person
or the employment of force upon things; whereas in theft, the taking is done simply
without the knowledge and consent of the owner.
Investigative Techniques in Robbery cases:

a. The investigator must initiate similar preliminary steps upon reaching the crime
scene.
b. Determine the point of entrance and point of exit by the perpetrator.
c. Determine the value of stolen articles.
d. The full and detailed description of the stolen articles.
e. Gather physical evidence.
f. Determine the modus operandi of the perpetrator as it would give leads in the
identification and arrest of the suspect.
g. Full and detailed description of a get-away vehicle if any, or vessel, boat in cases of
piracy.
h. Coordinate with other law enforcement agencies.
i. Exploit investigative leads.
j. Written testimony of the complainant witness.
k. Accumulate clues and traces at the scene of a crime which will serve to identify the
offender.
l. Develop informants in the local underworld who are aware of the activity of robbery,
particularly the activity of the semi-skilled amateur groups. (usually the addict-robber)
m. Conduct a surveillance of likely fences and uncover and trace back stolen property
from its receiver to the robber.
n. Conduct surveillance of known burglars to ascertain if they are presently committing
robbery.
o. Accumulate information on various types of robber, the known and newcomers
whether they are in or out of prison, whether they are active.
p. Be alert on a modified modus operandi.
q. In cases where homicide is committed, follow the pattern of homicide investigation.
Anti-Piracy and anti-highway robbery law of 1974 (P.D. 532)
Piracy – any attack upon or seizure of any vessel, or taking away of the whole or part
thereof or its cargo, equipment or the personal belonging of its complements or passengers,
irrespective of value thereof, by means of violence against or intimidation of persons or force
upon things, committed by any persons, including a passengers or member of the compliments
of said vessels in Philippine waters.
Highway Robbery/ Brigandage – the seizure of any person for ransom, extortion or
other unlawful purposes, or the taking away of the property of another by means of violence
against or intimidation of persons or force upon things of other unlawful means committed by
any person or any Philippine highway.
Anti-Cattlle Rustling Law of 1974 (P.D. 533)
Cattle Rustling – Is the taking away by any means, methods or scheme, without the
consent of the owner/raiser, or any of the above animals (cow, carabao, horse, mule or other
domesticated member of the bovine family) whether or not for profit or gain, or whether
committed with or without violence against or intimidation of any person or force upon things. It
includes the killing of large cattle, or taking its meat or hide without the consent of owner/raiser.
Anti-fencing law of 1979 (P.D. 1612)
Fencing – is the act of any person, who, with intent to gain, for himself or for another
shall buy, possess, keep, acquire, concealed, sell or in any other way, deal on any articles,
items, objects, or anything of value which he knows to have been derived from the proceeds of
crime or robbery or theft.
Fence – includes any person, firm, organization, association or corporation or

partnership and other organization who/ which commits the act of fencing.
D. Article 267 – Kidnapping and Serious Illegal Detention
Elements:
1. That the offender is a private individual;

2. That the kidnaps or detains another, or in any other manner deprives the latter of his
liberty;
3. That the act of detention or kidnapping must be illegal;
4. That in the commission of the offense, any of the following circumstances is present:
a. That the kidnapping of detention lasts for more than 3 days
b. That is committed simulating public authority
c. That any serious physical injuries are inflicted upon person kidnapped or
detained of threats to kill him are made; or
d. That the persons kidnapped is a minor, female, or a public officer.
Any private individual who shall kidnap or detain another, or in any other manner
deprives him of his liberty.
The perpetrator shall suffer the penalty of reclusion perpetua to death if:
1. The kidnapping or detention shall have lasted for more than five days.
2. Committed by simulating public authority.
3. Any serious physical injuries shall have been inflicted upon the person kidnapped or
detained or if threat to kill shall have been made.
4. The person kidnapped or detained shall be a minor, female or public officer.
The penalty shall be death where the kidnapping or detention was committed for the
purpose of extorting ransom from the victim or any other person, even if none of the
circumstances above mentioned were present in the commission of the offense.
Important factors in Kidnapping Cases:
1. The safe return of the victim
2. Identification and apprehension of the suspect
Initial Investigative Procedures:
1. Thorough interview of the victim if already released.

2. Search of the crime scene
3. Interview of the possible witnesses
4. Checking the modus operandi
5. Possible identification through the photographic files
6. Coordination with other law enforcement agencies
Kidnapping where ransom is involved:
Phase I.
When a complaint is received, the family of the victim is requested to remain in touch to
accumulate information needed. The following types of information must be taken:
1. How the demand was made

2. Request the family to refrain from divulging the contents of the letter, note or call to
anyone except to the police authorities.
3. Emphasize the importance of news blackout as essential to the victim’s safety
4. Obtain and preserve the ransom note for laboratory examination.
5. Determine if the family intends to pay the ransom, investigators should avoid giving
the opinion as to ransom payments
6. Find ways and means to verify if the victim is still alive.
7. Conduct family background investigation
8. Conduct covert investigation of household helpers
9. Arrange for wiretapping operations in accordance with RA 4200
10. Establish possible motives
Phase II. After the victim has been returned or the body has been located.
After the victim has been returned dead or alive, the investigation changes, an all-out
investigation are conducted in accordance with the second objective, to identify and apprehend
the suspects. Investigative procedure includes:
1. Thorough interview of the victim. All details should be obtained.

3. Re interview all witnesses
4. Conduct surveillance
5. Determine whether the kidnapper is familiar with the victims, residential area, habits
and financial status.
6. If the victim is dead follow the pattern of homicide investigation
Pointers to be considered in Kidnapping Cases:

1. Remember that kidnap for ransom gang must be treated as witty, experienced and
dangerous armed criminals.
2. Any slightest mistake on the part of the police would mean death of the victim
3. Initiate secrecy discipline not only on the victim’s family but also within the police.
4. Experienced, trusted personnel must be utilized
5. Equipped with sophisticated communication system
Problems in the Investigation of Kidnapping Cases:

1. Out of fear, the family of the victim does not want to cooperate with the police.
2. The case is only reported after payoff of the ransom money or the victim had been
found dead.
WHAT IS ORGANIZED CRIME?
- An organized criminal group shall mean a structured group of three or more persons,
existing for a period of time and acting in concert with the aim of committing one or
more serious crimes or offences in order to obtain, directly or indirectly, a financial or
other material benefit
For Organized Group to Work usually it has at least the following:

1. AN ENFORCER
2. A CORRUPTER
3. A CORRUPTEE
AN ENFORCER
- the one who makes for the arrangements for the killing (injuring or carrying out the task
physically, economically or psychologically) the members or non members.
A CORRUPTER
- the one who corrupts or bribes, intimidate or threatens, negotiate or “sweet talks” into a
relationship with public officials, law enforcement officer, or anyone who would be of help in
obtaining security and immunity from possible arrest, prosecution and punishments.
A CORRUPTEE
- a public officials, law enforcement officers or anybody who not a member of the organization
who can helps the organization
1. Has no Political Goals

Organized crime is basically motivated by money and power. It is not social
doctrine neither political belief nor ideological concerns that motivated leaders and
members of the organized crime groups. Political involvement may be part of its
activities for the purpose of gaining protection for its illegal activities.
2. Hierarchical
An organized crime has a vertical power structure with at least three (3) ranks. The
authority is inherent in the position and does not depend on who happens to be occupying it at
any given time.
6. Willingness to use Illegal Violence and Bribery

Violence is readily available and acceptable in an organized crime group as a means to
achieve its goal. Bribery becomes necessary so as to protect its operation and insure lesser
chance of detection and suppression.
The Bureaucratic/ Corporate Model

The corporation, the police, and the military are examples of bureaucracies, that mode of
organization essential for efficiently carrying out large scale tasks.
Patrimonial/ Patron Client
It is a characteristic of traditional societies that centers on families, patrons and their
clients, and other personalities networks.
GENERIC TYPE OF ORGANIZED CRIMES

1. Political Graft
- committed by political criminals for purposes of gaining profit though violence or
force for the attainment of political goals or ambitions such as used of private armies, buying of
votes or threatening voters.
2. In-Group Oriented Organized Crime

- manned by semi-organized individual with the end view of attaining
psychological gratification such as adolescent gangs.
3. Mercenary/Predatory organized crime

- perpetuated for the attainment of direct personal gain but prey upon unwilling
victims.
4. Syndicated Crimes
- comes with a structure organization that participates in illicit activity in society
using force, or intimidation.
MAFIA
- is a term used to describe a number of criminal organizations around the world
- the first organization to bear the label was the Sicilian Mafia based in Italy, known to its
members as Cosa Nostra
- in sum, mafia means protection against arrogance of the powerful, remedy to any
damage, sturdiness of body, strength and serenity of spirit, and the best and exquisite
part of life.
- apparently Sicilian-Arabic derived from terms meaning to protect and to act as
guardian; a friend or companion; to defend; preservation, power, integrity, strength,
and a condition that designates the remedy of damage and ill.
OMERTA
- is a code of silence and secrecy that forbids Mafiosi from betraying their comrades to the
authorities.
RUSSIAN ORGANIZED CRIME
VORY V ZAKONE
- aka “ thieves with code of honor”
ORGANIZED CRIME IN NORTH AMERICA (LATINO GANGS)

It first formed in the barrios in the 1920s. By 1990s, the Major Latino gangs had joined
into two syndicates, the Nortenos based in northern California and the Surtenos based in
Southern Califoria.
The Nortenos include such gangs as Big Hazard, the Breed Street Gang and the Silver
Leaf Nortenos (SLN).
The Surtenos include the Assasins, King Kobra and Mara Salvatrucha.
In the Midwest
The Latino gang coalesced into two syndicates, the Folk Nation and the Peoples Nation
based in Chicago.
In Texas, Mexican American gangs have proliferated with the Mexican Mafia, the PRM
(Partido Revolucionario Mexicano), and Mexicles being the most prominent.
In the Eastern United States

The major syndicates are La Gran Raza (The Great Race) and La Gran Familia (The
Great Family). The Dominican Gangs became the major player in Drug trade in Metropolitan
New York and in Northern New Jersey.
In Miami and Dade County, Florida,

The Cuban Mafia has built a strong base, having taken advantage of an alliance with
Santo Trafficante’s Italian American Mafia family based in Tampa.
In Puerto Rico, the Neta Association began as a prison gang, but it has spread beyond
the island and beyond the prison walls.
ORGANIZED CRIME IN ASIA
China Organized Criminal Groups
1. Gangs (Triad) = work in cooperative ventures involving black market activities,

burglaries and thefts, hijackings and extortions.
2. Criminal Syndicates = commonly involved in sophisticated crimes such as prostitutions,
human trafficking and other organized form of both are involved in drug trafficking
particularly of heroin from the golden triangle as well as Exploitation of women and
children and smuggling of illegal immigrants vices.
Dragon Syndicates is another name for the Chinese Triads, a name popularized by Martin
Booth’s much acclaimed study “The Dragon Syndicates: the Global Phenomenon of the Triads
(New York: Carroll and Graf, 2000).
The Triad came from the symbolic triangle in their flag which indicates the three (3)
elements: The Heaven, The Earth and the Man.
Hong Kong Organized Criminal Groups
Triads, such as “Wo Sing Wo” and 14K are two of the many triads in Hongkong. They
are involved in various activities ranging from drug trafficking to corruption.
ICAC- Independent Commission Against Corruption is one of the most active
Criminal Justice Unit involved in controlling illicit activities of these triads
JAPAN
Yakuza (8-9-3) or Boryokudan
- is the most influential organized crime group in Japan.

- Yakuza makes billions of dollars through corporate extractions and the Sokoiya
(shareholders meeting men).
- Other activities that they are involved include exploitation of women, prostitutions (mostly
coming from the Philippines, Thailand and Taiwan) and gambling den.
CAMBODIA
Drug trafficking and human smuggling are the most notable organized criminal activities
in Cambodia which are widely controlled by the Chinese and Myanmorese.
Other activities involved gambling, corruption, prostitution and money laundering.
Due to people’s belief of the effect of having sex with virgin women, prostitution became
one of the most expensive organized crime and virgin women are the highest valued
commodities.
REPUBLIC OF KOREA
KEANDAL EMENING SCARUPS

Although not considered as criminal groups, they also engage in criminal activities
someway to help the weak and the poor. They are notable for their loyalty and faithfulness.
Organized criminal groups come in the form of political groups used as henchmen to
attack political rivals
. Several organized groups are associated with YAKUZA and other groups in the United
States are involved mostly in drug trafficking, prostitution and exploitation of women.
MYANMAR
Myanmar has the largest organized crime groups controlled by military Junta. It includes
the following:
*United Wa State Army (UWSA) – under the command of Wei-Huseh-Kong – has
connection with Southeast Asian and North America.
* Kinkang Chinese – in coordination with MNDAA, protects cultivation areas and refining
of drugs.
* Myanmar National Democratic Alliance Army – control the plantations and refine opium
into heroin and also produced methamphetamine.
Trafficking of women and children to Pakistan and Thailand and corruption are also
some of the activities of the group.
TAIWAN
Taiwan organized crime has close connection with the Chinese Triads and Hong Kong
particularly the United Bamboo Gang. They are involved in drug trafficking, prostitution, women
and child trafficking.
SINGAPORE
This is the country with the lowest cases of organized activities due to stringent laws and
severe penalties and the government’s strong will power for the implementation of laws.
THAILAND
The country considered to be the most notorious in the world in terms of sex industry.
Supplies or imports about one (1) million women in different countries in Asia.
VIETNAM
“Nam Cam Gang” is one of the most noted organized crime group in Vietnam and
known for drug trafficking and one of the major transit point of drugs in Laos, Myanmar, China
and Taiwan from Cambodia.
PHILIPPINES
The country considered as the heaven for the sex industry. A number of women are sent
abroad as entertainers but later end-up as prostitutes. Thailand, Japan and other Asian
Countries are common places of their destination. Young children for pedophiles are also being
catered.
1. Francisco Group
- Dragon or Kuratong Baleleng Group, now led by Manuel Francisco, operates in Visayas
and Mindanao
2. Pentagon Group
- operates in Mindanao headed by Tahir Alonto, a creation of MILF to generate funds.
Alonto is a nephew of MILF Chairman AL HAJ MURAD
3. Lexus Group
- specializes in carnapping and operates in NCR and Luzon
4. Rex “Wacky” Salud Group
- engaged in illegal gambling and operates in Cebu
5. Vic Yu Group
- engages in illegal gambling and operates in Visayas.
6. Superable Family
- a kidnapping for ransom (KFR) group with a 1 Million prize for the leader’s head who
was killed in action during a shoot-out with law enforcers
7. Martires KFR group
- killed in Action (KIA)
8. Waray-Waray Group
- an ethnic group engaged in kidnap for ransom operations. Members are either belong
from the family clan or natives from Samar and Leyte. Their leader was arrested on
September 24, 2005.
9. Lupo Rhu Group
- lead by Lupo Miguel Tuliao; Agustin Cavilan; and Nestor Merin.
TRANSNATIONAL ORGANIZED CRIME
CONCEPT OF TRANSNATIONAL CRIME

The concept of transnational crime was coined by the United Nations (UN) Crime
Prevention and Criminal Justice Branch to identify certain criminal phenomena transcending
international borders, transgressing the laws of several states or having impact on another
country.
TRANSNATIONAL CRIME
- a continuing illegal activity of group of person which is primarily concerned with the
generation of profits, irrespective of national boundaries as a result of globalization.
GLOBALIZATION
- refers to the rapid development of the western culture that ultimately affects other
cultures in the world as brought by intellectual and technological advances, in which
some crimes occurring in other countries are attributed.
TRANSNATIONAL ORGANIZED CRIME

- is a crime perpetuated by organized criminal group which the aim of committing one or
more serious crimes or offenses in order to obtain directly or indirectly, a financial or
other material benefits committed through crossing of borders or jurisdictions
ORGANIZED CRIMINAL GROUP

- shall mean a structured group of three or more persons, existing for a period of time and
acting in concert with the aim of committing or more serious crimes or offenses
established in accordance with this convention, in order to obtain, directly or indirectly , a
financial or material benefit
SERIOUS CRIME
- shall mean conduct constituting an offence punishable by maximum deprivation of liberty
of at least four years or a more serious penalty
Philippine Government Manifested its Commitment against TIP through the

Creation/Amendment of other legislative acts such as:
- Mail-Order Bride (RA 6955)
- Anti-Rape law of 1997 (RA 8553)
- Rape Victim Assistance and Protection Act of 1988 (RA 8505)
- Special Protection of Children Against Abuse, Exploitation and Discrimination Act (RA
7610)
- An Act Prohibiting the Employment of Children Below 15 Years of Age in Public and
Private Undertakings (RA 7658)
- Migrant Workers and Overseas Filipinos Act of 1995 (RA 8042)
- Philippine Passport Act of 1996 (RA 8239)
- Inter-Country Adoption Law (RA 8043)
Republic Act 9208

- Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act of 2003
- Approved May 26, 2003
- Consolidation of Senate Bill No. 2444 and House Bill No. 2444
COMPUTER CRIME
- any crime accomplished through special knowledge of computer technology.
- any crime where computer is used as a tool or as a target or incidental to the
commission of a crime.
- Also known as Cybercrime.
- Any illegal act in which knowledge of computer technology is used to commit the
offense. (L. E. Quaratiello)
- All illegal activities that are committed by or with the aid of computer or information
technology or in which the computers are the target of the criminal enterprise. (Martin L.
Forst)
RA 8792
- legislated because of I love you virus
- This Act shall be known and cited as the "Electronic Commerce Act.”
- Approved June 14, 2000
WHAT ARE COMMON METHODS AND STANDARD TERMS USED TO DESCRIBE CYBER
CRIME?
Hacking
- is the act of illegally accessing the computer system/network of an individual, group or
business enterprise without the consent or approval of the owner of the system
Cracking
- is a higher form of hacking in which the unauthorized access culminates with the
process of defeating the security system for the purpose of acquiring money or
information and/or availing of free services
Malicious Sending of E-mails

- the sending of malicious and defamatory electronic mails for the purpose of extorting
money, or threatening prospective victims
Internet Pornography
- The trafficking, distribution, posting, and dissemination of obscene material including
children’s nude pictures, indecent exposure, and child sex slavery posted into the
internet, live streaming videos aired through the internet
A computer virus
- is a computer program that can copy itself and infect a computer without permission or
knowledge of the user
1. Trojan Horse
Worm
- spread itself to other computers without needing to be transferred as part of a host
Trojan horse
- is a file that appears harmless until executed. Trojan horses do not insert their code into
other computer files
Logic bomb
- a set of instructions secretly inserted into a program that is designed to execute if a
particular program is satisfied
- the bomb lies dormant until a particular date is reached or command entered
Identity theft
- defined as the criminal act of assuming person’s name, address, social security number,
and date of birth in order to commit fraud
Phishing
- sending fraudulent e-mails or website pop-ups, to get victims to divulge sensitive
financial information such as credit card numbers or social security numbers
Distributed Denial of Service Attacks

- DDoS attacks can be committed by employing multiple computers controlled by a single
master computer server to target a particular server by bombarding it with thousands of
packets of data in an attempt to overwhelm the server and cause it to crash
TECHNICAL TERMS
ISP – stands for Internet Service Provider. It provides internet service to internet users.
IP Address – series of numbers assigned by an Internet Service Provider to an internet user
when it connects to the Internet
Dynamic IP Address – a type of IP Address that changes everytime the internet user accesses
his Internet Service Provider. It is usually assigned to dial-up or base speed broadband service
subscribers (eg. ISP Bonanza, Surfmaxx, PLDT myDSL 128kbps service etc.)
Static IP Address – a type of IP Address that is constant regardless of the time or number of
attempts the internet user accesses the internet. It is usually assigned to High-Speed Internet
Users or Corporate Accounts (eg. ADSL (Asymetric Digital Subscriber Line) connections, E1
Internet Connections, OC3 Internet Connections, T1 Internet Connections, Leased Line Internet
Connections)
Website – a portfolio of a person / organization / entity / company which is posted on the
Internet for accessibility worldwide.
TERRORISM
- the word terror derives from the Latin word terrere, meaning “to frighten”
- the use or threatened use of force design to bring about political change. (Brian Jenkins of
the Rand Corporation)
- the unlawful use of force or violence against persons or property to intimidate or coerce a
government, the civilian population, or any segment thereof, in furtherance of political or
social objectives (FBI)
International terrorism
- politically-oriented extreme violence that is perpetrated by residents or representatives of
one or more countries against the interest of another country or by members of a violent
foreign politically directed organization not affiliated with the country being attacked for
the purpose of forcing a change in government or in how society functions
Al Qaeda
- in Arabic, this means The Base
- founded by Osama bin Laden in 1980
Osama bin Laden

- Organized al Qaeda
- born in 1955 or 1957 in the city of Riyadh
- responsible for truly heinous terrorist incidents, including the 2001 destruction of the
World Trade Center (WTC)
- died killed in Pakistan on May 2, 2011 (Operation Neptune Spear)
Ayman Mohammed Rabie al-Zawahiri

- Born June 19, 1951
- An Egyptian physician, Islamic theologian and current leader of al-Qaeda.
Hamas
- "enthusiasm“
- an acronym of Ḥarakat al-Muqāwamah al-ʾIslāmiyyah "Islamic Resistance Movement")
- is the Palestinian Sunni Islamic or Islamist political party that governs the Gaza Strip.
- Sheikh Ahmed Yassin & Mahmoud Zahar
- “Hamas is an extremist group...it is one of the deadliest terrorist organizations in the world
today.” George W. Bush
Hezbollah
- literally "Party of God“
- is a Shi'a Muslim militant group and political party based in Lebanon.
- receives financial and political support from Iran and Syria, and its paramilitary wing is
regarded as a resistance movement throughout much of the Arab and Muslim worlds
- the United States, the Netherlands United Kingdom, Israel, Australia, and Canada classify
Hezbollah as a terrorist organization, in whole or in part
Jemaah Islamiya
- Dates of operation: 1993- present

- Aliases: "Islamic Congregation, Islamic Community, Islamic Group
- Base of Operation: Indonesia; Malaysia; Philippines; Singapore
- Founding Philosophy: Create an Islamic state across Southeast Asia to include
Singapore, Indonesia, Malaysia, Brunei, southern Thailand, and southern Philippines.
- JI was added to the United Nations 1267 Committee's list of terrorist organizations linked to
al-Qaeda or the Taliban on 25 October 2002 under UN Security Council Resolution 1267
Domestic Terrorism
- politically oriented extreme violence that is perpetrated by residents of a country within that
country in order to force a change in government or how in society functions
TERRORIST IN THE PHILIPPINES

Rajah Solaiman Movement
- aka “Balik Islam” or “Back To Islam”
- founder Hilarion del Rosario Santos III aka Hannah Santos, aka Ahmed Santos, aka
Hilarion del Rosario, converted to Islam in 1993 and married into the top ranks of the
leadership of the Abu Sayyaf Group (ASG)
- one of the latest groups affiliated with ASG, MILF and JI
ABU SAYYAF GROUP (ASG)

Aliases:
- Al-Harakat Al-Islamiyyah, Bearer of the Sword, Father of the Swordsman
Founding Philosophy
- The Abu Sayyaf Group (ASG) was formed in 1991 during the peace process between
the Philippine government and the nationalist/separatist terrorist group, the Moro
National Liberation Front (MNLF). Angered by the movement toward a peaceful
resolution, certain MNLF members formed Abu Sayyaf
Ethnocentric
- the category of terrorist organization which is aimed at establishing a dominant or superior

race that will be looked upon by the entire populace in the world.
Revolutionary
- the category of terrorist group which is dedicated to overthrow an established order and
replacing it with a new political or social structure.
Political
- the category of terrorist group which aims in restructuring the society.
Nationalistic
- those who commit acts of violence due to their loyalty or devotion to their country.
ROOT CAUSES OF TERRORISM

1. Political Ideologicalism
2. Religious Fanaticism
Jihad
- the term which refers to the holy war waged by members of the Islamic religion against
the Jews.
IDEOLOGY
- body of ideas affecting the social needs and aspirations of an individual or group, a class
or a culture”
- Bovier defines it as “a set of doctrines or beliefs that from the basis of a political,
economic and other systems”.
1. Nerve Agents
- agents that disrupt the mechanism by which nerves communicate with organs they stimulate
- in other words the agents gets the nerves to send the wrong signal to the muscles they
control and hence, disrupt muscle function of the body
ex. Sarin Gas
2. Blistering Agents
- there are three common of this type; the most widely known are mustard gas, lewisite,
and phosgene oxime. Mustard gas, first used in World War I, will caused blistering on
the exposed portions of the body, as well as on internal organs. It will generally cause
blindness and then death by respiratory failure
3. Chocking Agents
- one of the deadliest choking agents is phosgene gas. This agent damages the
respiratory system and causes the lungs to fill with water, and thus chokes the victim.
Ex. chlorine
Anthrax
- a single cell organism that is produced by a fermentation process, such as that by which
beer is made
- caused by Bacillus anthracis and the effects of exposure include a severe infection that
attacks the skin, lungs, and gastrointestinal tract
- direct contact will cause formation of dry scabs all over the victims body and can develop
into systematic infection
- when inhaled, the agent attacks the respiratory system with symptoms appearing from
one to seven days
Botulinum toxin
- a protein made by the clostridium botulinum bacteria
- exposure to the toxin, the nerve cell synapses are affected, causing palsy, spasms, and
then paralysis
Brucellosis
- also known as undulant fever
- symptoms can include intermittent or prolonged fever, headaches, profuse
sweating, chills, pains in the joints and muscles and fatigue
Cholera
- an acute gastrointestinal disease caused by Vibrio Cholera
- symptoms include a sudden onset of nausea and or vomiting accompanied by severe
diarrhea and a rapid loss of body fluids
Plague
- in natural transmittal form, the plague may the bubonic plague, or black death that
eradicated a great number of European in the middle ages
- transmitted from person to person by respiratory transmission, through rats, or from the
bite of an infected flea
- symptoms are high fever accompanied by general aches, severe weakness, and
pneumonia
Typhoid fever
- caused by an organism called salmonella typhosa which causes fever and frontal
headaches and is usually accompanied by rose colored spots on the skin
- must employed through food and limited water contamination
Rickettsia
- disease that appears in domesticated animals such as sheep, cattle, and goats
- spread to human through inhalation of particles contaminated with organism
- incubation period, ranging from 10 to 14 days
1. Amateur
- can be described as experiments
2. Professional
- builds or bombs or does both for profit
3. Psychopathic
- acts without rhyme or reason
4. Suicidal
- major attack weapon in recent years, particularly among Islamic terrorist groups
R.A. 9372
- Human Security Act of 2007
- Approved on March 6, 2007
- Effective on May 15, 2007
Terrorism
– any person who commits an act punishable under any of the following provisions of the RPC:
(Sec. 3)
1. Article 122 (Piracy in General and Mutiny in the
High Seas or in the Philippine Waters);
2. Article 134 (Rebellion or Insurrection);
3. Article 134-a (Coup d’ etat), including acts committed by private persons;
4. Article 248 (Murder);
5. Article 267 (Kidnapping and Serious Illegal Detention);
6. Article 324 (Crimes Involving Destruction)
or under
1. Presidential Decree No. 1613 (The Law on Arson);
2. Republic Act No. 6969 (Toxic Substances and Hazardous and Nuclear Waste Control
Act of 1990);
3. Republic Act No. 5207, (Atomic Energy Regulatory and Liability Act of 1968);
4. Republic Act No. 6235 (Anti-Hijacking Law);
5. Presidential Decree No. 532 (Anti-piracy and Anti-highway Robbery Law of 1974); and,
6. Presidential Decree No. 1866, as amended (Decree Codifying the Laws on Illegal and
Unlawful Possession, Manufacture, Dealing in, Acquisition or Disposition of Firearms,
Ammunitions or Explosives)thereby sowing and creating a condition of widespread
and extraordinary fear and panic among the populace, in order to coerce the
government to give in to an unlawful demand shall be guilty of the crime of terrorism
and shall suffer the penalty of forty (40) years of imprisonment, without the benefit of
parole as provided for under Act No. 4103, otherwise known as the Indeterminate
Sentence Law, as amended.
R.A. 9372, SEC. 4. Conspiracy to Commit Terrorism

- Persons who conspire to commit the crime of terrorism shall suffer the penalty of forty
(40) years of imprisonment
- There is conspiracy when two or more persons come to an agreement concerning the
commission of the crime of terrorism
The provisions of Republic Act No. 4200 (Anti-Wire Tapping Law) to the contrary
notwithstanding, a police or law enforcement official and the members of his team may, upon a
written order of the Court of Appeals, listen to, intercept and record, with the use of any mode,
form, kind or type of electronic or other surveillance equipment or intercepting and tracking
devices, or with the use of any other suitable ways and means for that purpose, any
communication, message, conversation, discussion, or spoken or written words between
members of a judicially declared and outlawed terrorist organization, association, or group of
persons or of any person charged with or suspected of the crime of terrorism or conspiracy to
commit terrorism.
“Unlawful Activity” refers to any act or omission or series or combination thereof involving or
having DIRECT relation to any of the following:
-
The Anti-Money Laundering Council (AMLC) is the financial intelligence unit of the
Philippines and is composed of the following officials :
- The Governor of the Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas

- The Chairperson of the Securities and Exchange Commission
- The Commissioner of the Insurance Commission
A COVERED TRANSACTION is a transaction in cash or other equivalent monetary

instrument involving a total amount in excess of PHP500,000.00 within one (1) banking day.
Republic Act No. 9160

- approved on September 29, 2001
- this Act shall be known as the "Anti-Money Laundering Act of 2001.“
Reputational Risk
- the potential that adverse publicity regarding a bank’s business practices and
associations, whether accurate or not, will cause a loss of confidence in the integrity of
the institution.
Operational Risk
- the risk of direct or indirect loss resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes,
people and systems or from external events.
Legal Risk
- the possibility that lawsuits, adverse judgments or contracts that turn out to be
unenforceable can disrupt or adversely affect the operations or condition of a bank.
RA 9194
- approved on March 7, 2003
- An Act Amending Republic Act No. 9160, otherwise known as the Anti-Money
Laundering Act of 2001
ARM SMUGGLING
Smuggling
- also known as trafficking, is the clandestine transportation of goods or persons past a
point where prohibited, such as out of a building, into a prison, or across an international
border, in violation of the law or other rules
WHAT ARE FIREARMS?
- includes handguns, revolvers, pistols, rifles, muskets, carbines, shotguns, cannons and
all other deadly weapons from which a bullet, ball, shot, shall or other missile may be
discharged by means of gunpowder or other explosives
- also includes air rifles and air pistols not classified as toys under the provisions of
Executive Order No. 712 dated 28 July 1981. The barrel of any firearm shall be
considered a complete firearm.
FIREARMS TRAFFICKING
- refers to the act of any person who, through the use of any fraudulent machinations,
shall import or bring into, or export from, the Philippines, or assist in so doing, any
firearm or parts thereof, explosive or ammunition or machine, implements, equipments
or tools for the manufacture of firearms.
- shall likewise refer to the act of any person who, contrary to law, shall:
BASIC FIREARMS LAWS, RULES AND REGULATIONS:

Section 1, Republic Act No. 8294:
Acts punishable: Unlawful Manufacture, Sale, Acquisition, Disposition or Possession
of Firearms Ammunition or Instruments Used or Intended to be Used in the Manufacture of
Firearms or Ammunitions.
Penalty:Prision correccional in its maximum period and a fine of not less that Fifteen
Thousand pesos(P15,000.00)
(low-powered firearm such as rim fire handgun, .380 or .32 and other firearm of similar
firepower, part of firearm, ammunition or machinery, tool or instrument used or intended to be
used in the manufacture of any firearm or ammunition: Provided that no other crime was
committed)
Section 1, Republic Act No. 8294:
- Acts punishable: Unlawful Manufacture, Sale, Acquisition, Disposition or

Possession of Firearms Ammunition or Instruments Used or Intended to be Used in the
Manufacture of Firearms or Ammunitions.
- Penalty:Prision mayor in its minimum period and a fine of Thirty Thousand pesos
(30,000.00)
- (high-powered firearm which includes those with bores bigger in diameter that .38
caliber and 9 millimeter such as caliber 40, 41, 44, 45 and also lesser calibered firearms
but considered powerful such as caliber 357 and caliber .22 center fire magnum and
other firearms with firing capability of full automatic and by burst of two or three:
Provided however, That no other crime was committed by the person arrested)
Four categories of intellectual property according to Nicole Leeper Piquero
- Patents
- Trademarks
- Trade secrets
- Copyright
Republic Act No. 8293

- approved on June 6, 1997
- This Act shall take effect on 1 January 1998.
- Intellectual Property Code of the Philippines.
RA 10088
- known as the "Anti-Camcording Act of 2010
- Approved on May 13, 2010
DRUG TRAFFICKING
The Drug Trade

From the farmers to the producers, the smugglers, the street dealers, and the users, the
drug trade is deeply rooted in the global economy. It is protected and overseen by powerful
groups known as drug cartels that make huge profits from this multibillion-dollar industry.
What is drug trafficking?

- another term for dug trade
- refers to the illegal process through which narcotics and other illegal drugs are
produced, transported, and sold.
- the illegal cultivation, culture, delivery, administration, dispensation, manufacture, sale,
trading, transportation, distribution, importation, exportation and possession of any
dangerous drug and/or controlled precursor and essential chemical.
- generally refers to the sale and distribution of illegal drugs
R.A. 6425 – Dangerous Drug Act of 1972 was repealed by,
R.A. 9165 – Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act of 2002
Environmental Crime
- the deliberate evasion of environmental laws and regulations by individuals and
companies in the pursuit of “personal interest and benefit.” Where these activities involve
movements across national boundaries, or impacts upon the world as a whole, they can
be termed "international environmental crime”
ECONOMIC CRIME
Economic Crime
- referred to as commercial crimes and known also as “white collar” crimes

- any act characterized by fraud, concealment, or a violation of trust and are not
dependent upon the application or threat of physical force or violence
PIRACY AND ARMED ROBBERY AGAINST SHIPS
Sea Piracy is described as

(1) an act of any person who, on the high seas, shall attack or seize a vessel or, not being a
member of its complement, nor a passenger, shall seize the whole or part of the cargo of
said vessel, its equipment, or personal belonging of its complement or passengers;
(2) any attack upon or seizure of any vessel, or the taking away of the whole or part thereof, or
its cargo, equipment, or the personal belongings of its complement or passengers,
irrespective of the value thereof, by means of violence against or intimidation of persons or
force upon things committed by any person, including a passenger or member or
complement of said vessel, in Philippine waters, and
(3) any person who knowingly and in any manner aids or protects pirates, such as giving them
information about the movements of the police or other peace officers of the government,
or acquires or receives property taken by such pirates, or any person who abets the
commission of the piracy.
The definition of piracy is contained in article 101 of the 1982 United Nations
Conventions on the Sea (UNCLOS)
“Piracy consist of any of the following acts:
a. any illegal acts of violence or detention, or any act of depredation, committed for
private ends by the crew or the passengers of a private ship or a private aircraft and
directed:
a.1 on the high seas, against another ship or aircraft, or against persons or
property on board of such ship or aircraft.
a.2 against a ship, aircraft, person or property in a place outside the jurisdiction
of any State.
b. Any act of voluntary participation in the operation of a ship or an aircraft with
knowledge of facts making it a pirate ship or aicraft;
c. Any act inciting or of intentionally facilitating an act describe in sub-paragraph (a) or
(b)
SMUGGLING OF CULTURAL PROPERTIES

Smuggling of Cultural Property refers to the act of any person who, through the use of
any fraudulent machinations, shall import or bring into, or export from, transfer from, the
Philippines, or assist in so doing, any cultural properties.
ARSON
1. Fuel Is the material or substance being burned in the combustion process?
2. self-sustained chemical reaction Is a complex reaction that it requires a fuel (gaseous or

vapor state), an oxidizer, and heat to combine in a very specific way.
3. Oxygen Those materials that yield oxygen or other oxidizing gases during the process of a
chemical reaction.
4. Heat Is the energy component of the fire tetrahedron?
5. Oxygen A colorless, odorless gas and one of the composition of air which is approximately 21
% by volume.
6. Fuel Any substance which reacts chemically with oxygen and produces flames?
7. Heat A form of energy generated by the transmission of some other form of energy, as in
combustion or burning.
8. False Under the fire triangle theory, there are 4 ways to extinguish fire?
9. fire triangle theory The graphical representation of the three elements of fire is known as?
10. Fire tetrahedron theory Another explanation of the requirements of combustion uses a
four-sided figure is called?
11. chemical reactivity The fourth element of the fire tetrahedron explanation is known as?
12. Reducing agent In scientific terms, the fuel in a combustion reaction is known as?
13. Air The oxygen in the _____ in the surrounding area is considered the primary oxidizing
agent?
14. Fuel Another term for reducing agent is known as?
15. Heat Another term for temperature is known as?
16. True For combustion to occur there should be four elements that are necessary?
17. Air The oxygen in the _____ in the surrounding area is considered the primary oxidizing
agent?
18. Fuel Another term for reducing agent is known as?
19. Heat Another term for temperature is known as?

20. True For combustion to occur there should be four elements that are necessary?
21. Electrical This type of energy can generate temperatures high enough to ignite any
combustible materials near the heated area?
22. Mechanical An energy created by friction and compression?
23. Chemical It is the most common source of heat in combustion reactions?
24. Nuclear Heat energy is generated when atoms either split apart or combine?
25. heat of friction Is the movement of the two surfaces against each other? This movement
produced sparks being generated?
26. heat of compression Heat is generated when a gas is compressed in a container or cylinder?
27. Fire Technically speaking, _________ is a form of combustion?
28. Heat Known as exothermic reaction?
29. fire gases Are those that remain when other products of combustion cool to normal
temperature?
30. flame It is the luminous body of a burning gas which gets hotter and less luminous when
mixed with more oxygen?
31. Pyrolosis It refers to the chemical process whereby fire consumes the most solid part of the
fuel. It is the thermal decomposition of a solid fuel through the action of heat.
32. Exothermic reaction Are changes whereby energy (heat) is absorbed or is added before the
reaction takes place.
33. endothermic reaction Reactions or changes that release or give off energy (heat) thus they
produce substance with less energy than the reactants.
34. smoke It is the visible product of incomplete combustion, usually a mixture of oxygen,
nitrogen, carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, finely divided particles of soot and carbon and
miscellaneous assortment of product released from the burning material.
35. incipient/beginning phase It is known as the initial stage of fire?
36. free-burning phase The second phase of burning in which materials or structure are burning
in the presence of adequate oxygen.
37. smoldering phase The final phase of burning wherein flame ceases but dense smoke and
heat completely fill the confined room.
38. Backdraft Any action taken during fire fighting operations that allows air to mix with these
hot gases can result in an explosive ignition called?
39. Class A Materials involving vegetables fibers, wood, paper straw, grain and grass;
combustible minerals such as coal and coke.
40. Class B Materials including petroleum products such as gasoline, fuel oils, lubricating oils,
and greases; animals fats such as butter, lard, and tallow.
41. Class C This type of fire involves electrical motors, electrical appliances and apparatus.
42. Class D These are materials involving combustible metals, alloys or metal compounds either
in a solid, semi solid or liquid state.
43. Class K These are materials involved in the kitchen fires. This classification was added to the
NFPA portable extinguishers standard in 1998?
44.Conduction It is the transmission of heat through an object/medium or conductor, such as

pipe, metal, hot-air duct, wire or even wall.
45. flame contact Heat may be conducted from one body to another by direct flame contact.
Fire spreads along or through burning material by ?
46. Convection It is the transmission of heat by the moving currents of liquid or gas. When
these gases or liquids are heated, they start to move within themselves; and by their free
motion, circulation starts.
47. radiation The transmission through the discharge and spread of heat from a heated or
burning source.
48. intensity of fire It simply means “how hot the fire is burning”?
49. flashpoint The temperature at which the material is not enough to keep burning, but still
gives off enough vapors to cause a flame to “flash” across the surface?
50. fire point The temperature at which the material will give off ample vapors to keep burning.
51. magnitude of fire This means the size of fire, and it is governed by the surface area of fuel
exposed to the air.
52.explosive limits It means the amount (expressed in percent) of fuel vapor that can be mixed
with air to form and explosive or flammable mixture.
59. dry chemical It is extinguishing agents use today with mixtures of powders and various
additives that improve the storage, flow and water repellency of the powders.
60. dry powder Generally terms for agents used to extinguish combustible metal fires?
53.cooling Method of extinguishment which uses an extinguishing agent whose primary

characteristics is heat absorption.
54. chemical chain reaction The fourth method of extinguishment is known as inhibition or the
interruption of chemical reaction.
55. separation The removal of fuel, as in the example of turning off a valve in a gas line
prevents the fuel and oxygen from coming together.
56. smothering Excludes the oxygen from the fuel so that the gases or vapors of the fuel cannot
ignite and continue the combustion.
57. water Used only on Class A fires and known as the most effective in cooling the burning
material below its ignition temperature.
58. carbon dioxide A number of its properties make CO2 a desirable extinguishing agent. It is
non combustible and non reactive with most substances, it can penetrate and spread to all
parts of fire
2. American Mafia Always show respect to those who can command it and report any failure to show
respect to one’s patron immediately are the rules of an organized crime group.
3. YAKUZA An Asian organized crime group which is derived from card game 8-9-3 or “good for nothing”
Crime Triangle – Offender, victim and Location
YAKUZA- JAPAN - is derived from card game 8-9-3 or “good for nothing”
TRIADS- Chinese groups
TONGS- mandarin word tang; Chinese, Chinatown
RULES OF AMERICAN MAFIA:
Always show respect to those who can command it
Report any failure to show respect to one’s patron immediately
Entrapment Which of the following does not belong to the Phases of Investigation?
Criminal investigation- is a scientific inquiry with respect to criminal violation/offense
Open question What is this questioning technique that gives more wide latitude to the investigator in
terms of getting information relative to the issue. Example: Where were you yesterday? This form of
question will allow the subject to answer with no specific location as to his whereabouts.
Open Question- it is a questioning technique that gives more wide latitude to the investigator in terms of
getting information relative to the issue. Example: Where were you yesterday? THIS FORM OF
QUESTION will allow the subject to answer with no specific location as to his whereabouts.
Close Question- it is a questioning technique that specifically asks the subject with respect to a particular
area or information. Example: You were spotted in the house of your friend yesterday, is this correct?
This form of question will permit the subject to answer either negative or positive and will limit his
information only with respect to the particular issue.
SPIRAL METHOD A stabbing incident transpired at the office of the college dean, what method of search
should be employed to maximize for the search of truth?
ZONE METHOD -BEST FOR WIDE AREA LIKE STADIUM
SPIRAL METHOD -BEST FOR SMALL ROOM
WHEEL METHOD- BEST FOR WIDE AREA
STRIP METHOD -BEST FOR BOMB SEARCH

Conduction A transmission of heat from hotter to cooler.
Radiation - immediate circle
Conduction - hotter to cooler
Convection - circulating medium
INHALANTS A volatile liquids that give off vapor, which is inhaled, producing short-term excitement and
euphoria followed by a period of disorientation. Amyl nitrite (poppers) is commonly used volatile liquid
packaged in capsule form, which is inhaled when the capsule is broken open.
HASHISH- concentrated form of cannabis made from unadulterated resin from the female cannabis
plant.
MARIJUANA- the dried leaves of the cannabis plant.
COCAINE- a powerful natural stimulant derived from the coca plant.
Crack – highly addictive crystalline form of cocaine containing remnants of hydrochloride and sodium
bicarbonate, which emits a crackling sound when smoked.
HEROIN- narcotic made from opium and then cut with sugar or some other neutral substance unit it is
only 1 to 4 percent pure. Has the ability to produce insensibility to pain and to free the mind of anxiety
and emotion. Users experience relief from fear and apprehension, release of tension, and elevation of
spirits.
SEDATIVES/BARBITURATES. Sedatives, the most commonly used drugs of the barbiturate family, depress
the central nervous system into a sleeplike condition. Sedatives are called “goofballs”, “downers” and
are often known by color of the capsules: “reds” (seconal), “blue devils” (amytals) and “rainbows”
(tuinal)
ANESTHETIC DRUGS- central nervous system depressants.
General anesthetics act on the brain to produce loss of sensation, stupor, or unconsciousness. The most
widely abused anesthetic drug is PHENCYCLIDINE (PCP), known as “angel dust”.
Angel dust can be sprayed on marijuana or other leaves and smoked, drunk, or injected. Originally
developed as animal tranquilizer, PCP creates hallucinations and a spaced-out feelings that causes heavy
users to engage in violent acts. The effects of PCP can last up to two days, and the danger of overdose is
high.
INHALANTS – volatile liquids that give off vapor, which is inhaled, producing short-term excitement and
euphoria followed by a period of disorientation. Amyl nitrite (poppers) is commonly used volatile liquid
packaged in capsule form , which is inhaled when the capsule is s broken open.
Point of no escape A key event wherein an instance where the motorist can no longer avoid or evade
any possible collision or hazard.
KEY EVENT- event on the road which characterizes the manner of occurrence of a motor vehicle traffic
accident.
1. Perception of hazards- this is the instance where the motorist can see, feel or understand the
conditions or movements signaling possible accident.
2. Point of no escape- this is the instance where the motorist can no longer avoid or evade any
possible collision or hazard.
3. First engagement or Initial Contact - It is the initial impact or hit on the vehicle or collision.
4. Maximum engagement- It is the overlap or collapse in a collision; the greatest force after the
initial contact where the impact is now in its full motion.
5. Final engagement- it is the stage where the vehicles are now disengaged and in full stop.
Administer The act of introducing any dangerous drug of any person with or without his knowledge.
chemical It is any substance taken into the body that alters the way and the mind and the bodywork.
chemical abuse It is an instance when the use of chemical has produced negative or harmful
consequences.
Cultivate It means the act of knowingly planting, growing raising or permitting the planting, growing
raising of any plant which is the source of prohibited drug
Drug It is synthetic chemicals used as medicine or in the making of medicines, which affects the body
and mind and have potential for abuse.
Drug abuse It is the illegal, wrongful or improper use of any drug.
Drug addiction It refers to the state of periodic or chronic intoxication produced by the repeated
consumption of a drug.
drug experimenter One who illegally, wrongfully, or improperly uses any narcotic substances for
reasons of curiosity, peer pressure or other similar reasons.
drug syndicate It is a network of illegal drug operations operated and manned carefully by groups of
criminals who knowingly traffic through nefarious trade for personal or group profit.
Manufacture The production, preparation, compounding or processing a dangerous drug either directly
or indirectly or by extraction from substances of natural origin or by chemical synthesis.
Physical dependence An adaptive state caused by repeated drug use that reveals itself of intense
physical symptoms when the drug is stopped ( withdrawal syndrome ).
Pusher Any person who sell, administer, deliver or give away to another, distribute, transport any
dangerous drug.
Rehabilitation It is a dynamic process directed towards the changes of the health of the person to
prepare him from his fullest life potentials and capabilities, and making him law abiding and productive
member of the community without abusing drugs.
tolerance It is the tendency to increase dosage of drugs to maintain the same effect in the body.
Psychological dependence An attachment to drug use which arises from a drug ability to satisfy some
emotional or personality needs of an individual .
treatment A medical service rendered to a client for the effective management if his total condition
related to drug abuse. It deals with the physiological and psychosocial complications arising from drug
abuse
use The act of injecting, consuming, any dangerous drugs. The means of introducing the dangerous drug
into the physiological system of the body.
narcotic In drug jargons “opiates” means?
opiate addict In drug jargons “JUNI” means?
street slang for cocaine In drug jargons “Coke” means?
High In drug jargons “under the influence of drugs” means?
slang term for LSD In drug jargon “Acid” means?
Prescriptive drug These are drugs requiring written authorization from a doctor to allow a purchase.
Non-prescriptive drug These kind of drug which may be purchased from any pharmacy or drugstore
without written authorization from a doctor.
Drug syndrome This syndrome is found in users and would be users of drugs whose sources of
information are people or literature other than doctors, pharmacists and health workers.
Minimal dose This is known as the smallest amount of a drug that will produce a therapeutic effect?
maximal dose This is known as the largest amount of a drug that will produce a desired therapeutic
effect, without any accompanying symptoms of toxicity.
Toxic dose The amount of drug that produces untoward effects or symptoms of poisoning is known
as?
Abusive dose The amount needed to produce the side effects & action desired by an individual who
improperly uses it.
lethal dose The amount of drug that will cause death.
injection This form of drug administration offers a faster response than the oral method.
Oral The safest most convenient and economical route whenever possible?
inhalation This route makes use of gaseous and volatile drugs which are inhaled and absorbed rapidly.
Iontophoresis The introduction of drugs into the deeper layers of the skin.
Topical Refers to the application of drugs directly to a body site such as the skin & the mucous
membrane.
Overdose When too much of a drug is taken into the physiological system of the human body.
Side Effects Some drugs are not receptors for one organ but receptors of other organs as well.
Idiosyncrasy Refers to the individual reaction to a drug, food, etc. for unexplained reasons.
allergy Drugs cause the release of histamine giving rise to allergic symptoms.
Poisonous property Drugs are chemicals & some of them have property of being gen. protoplasmic
poisons.
Analgesics This are drugs that relieve pain. However, they may produce the opposite effects on
somebody who suffers form peptic ulcer or gastric irritation.
Antihistamines Those that control or combat allergic reactions. People who on _______ therapy must
not operate or drive vehicles since these drugs can cause drowsiness.
Antipyretics Those that can lower body temperature or fever due to infection.
Antibiotics Are drugs that combat or control infections organism. Ingesting the same ______ for a long
time can result in allergic reactions and cause resistance to the drug.
Contraceptive Drugs that prevent the meeting of the egg cell and sperm cell or prevent the ovary from
releasing egg cell.
Decongestants Those that relieve congestion of the nasal passages. Prolonged used of these
decongestants might include nasal congestion upon withdrawal.
Sedatives and Tranquilizers Are those that can calm and quiet the nerves and relieve anxiety without
causing depression and clouding of the mind.
Laxatives Those that stimulate defecation and encourage bowel movement.
Expectorants Those that can ease the expulsion of mucus and phlegm from the lungs and the throat.
They are not drugs of choice for the newborn that does not know to cough the phlegm out.
Vitamins Those substances necessary for normal growth and development and proper functioning of
the body.
Slang for injection of drugs In drug jargons “ a hit” means?
Injecting a drug into the vein In drug jargons “Mainline’ / “to shoot” means?
Narcotics It refers to the group of the drug opium and derivatives: morphine, heroin, codeine, etc.
including synthetic opiates
Amphetamines Are group of stimulant drugs like Benzedrine, Dexedrine, Methedrine, Preludin, etc.
Hallucinogens Refers to the group of drugs like Marijuana, LSD Lysergic acid diethylamide), mescaline
etc
stimulants Refers to the group of the drug Cocaine, Alpha and Beta Eucaine etc.
Depressants Are group of drugs that has the effect of depressing the Central Nervous System.
Stimulants Are group of drugs having the effect of stimulating the Central Nervous System.
Hallucinogens Refers to the group of drugs that are considered to be mind altering drugs and give the
general effect of mood distortion.
Narcotics Are drugs, which relieve pain and produce pain and produce profound sleep or stupor when
introduced to the body.
Opium Derived from a poppy plant “papaver somniferum”. A plant that can grow from 3 to 6 ft originally
in Mesopotamia. Its active ingredient is the “meconic” acid – the analgesic property.
Morphine Most commonly used and best used opiate. Effective as a painkiller six times potent than
opium, with a high dependence – producing potential.
Heroin Is 3 to 5 times more powerful than morphine from which it is derived and the most addicting
opium derivative.
Demerol Is widely used as a painkiller in childbirth
Methadone Is the drug of choice in the withdrawal treatment of heroin dependents since it relieves the
physical craving for heroin.
Paregoric A tincture of opium in combination with camphor. Commonly used as a household remedy for
diarrhea and abdominal pain.
Codeine A derivative of morphine, commonly available in cough preparations. These cough medicines
have been widely abused by the youth whenever hard narcotics are difficult to obtain.
Barbiturates Are drugs used for inducing sleep in persons plagued with anxiety, mental stress, insomnia.
Volatile Solvents Gaseous substances popularly known to abusers as “gas”, “teardrops.”
Tranquilizers Are drugs that calm and relax and diminish anxiety.
Seconal Commonly used among hospitality girls. Sudden withdrawal from these drugs is even more
dangerous than opiate withdrawal.
Alcohol The king of all drugs with potential for abuse.
he king of all drugs with potential for abuse.
cocaine The drug taken from the coca bush plant. It is usually in the form of powder that can be taken
orally injected or sniffed as to achieve euphoria or an intense feeling of “highness”
shabu “poor man’s cocaine” – chemically known as methamphetamine hydrochloride.
amphetamine Used medically for weight reducing in obesity, relief of mild depression and treatment.
nicotine An active component in tobacco which acts as a powerful stimulant of the central nervous
system. A drop of pure _______ can easily kill a person.
mescaline it is alkaloid hallucinogen extracted from the peyote cactus and can also be synthesized in the
lab.
peyote Derived from the surface part of a small gray brown cactus. It emits a nauseating odor and can
suffers from nausea.
Psilocybin These Mexican mushrooms induced nausea, muscular relaxation, mood changes with visions
of bright colors and shapes, and other hallucinations.
morning glory seeds They are sold under the names of “heavenly blues”, flying dancers, and pearly
gates.
Methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA) Commonly known as “Ecstasy,” or by its any other name –

refers to the drug having such chemical composition, including any of its isomers or derivatives in any
form;
Cannabis Commonly known as “Marijuana” or “Indian Hemp’ or by its any other name – embraces
every kind, class, genus, or specie of the plant Cannabis sativa L, including, but not limited to, Cannabis
americana, hashish, bhang, guaza, churrus and ganjab, and embraces every kind, class and character of
marijuana,
Methamphetamine Hydrochloride Commonly known as “Shabu”, “Ice”, “Meth”, or by its any other
name – refers to the drug having such chemical composition, including any of its isomers or derivatives
in any form;
Opium Refers to the coagulated juice of the opium poppy (Papaver somniferum L.) and embraces every
kind, class and character of opium?
Opium Poppy Refers to any part of the plant of the species Papaver somniferum L., Papaversetigerum
DC, Papaver orientale, Papaver bracteatum and Papaver rhoeas, which includes the seeds, straws,
branches, leaves or any part thereof, or substances derived therefrom, even for floral, decorative and
culinary purpose?
Dispense Any act of giving away, selling or distributing medicine or any dangerous drug with or without
the use of prescription;
alcohol It is a colorless, tasteless clear liquid. It boils at 78.4 Degrees Celsius?
alcohol It has a pleasant odor and gives a burning sensation to the mouth, esophagus and stomach?
Methyl Is a poisonous and is not put in drinks but is use in some industries.
Ethyl Is used in alcoholic drinks which are made by breweries.
Tobacco Known as Nicotiana Tabacum, is plant grown for its leaves which are smoked, chewed, or
sniffed for a variety of effects.
Drug Trafficking Is also known as Illegal Drug Trade.
Staminate Male Marijuana is known as ?
Pistillate Female Marijuana is known as ?
Morphine It is the most important alkaloids and constitutes about 10 % of the use raw opium
heroin It is the most commonly abused narcotic in the world.
codeine Also known as Methylmorphine. It is similar to morphine , but its effect is weaker in intensity.
Methadone A synthetic narcotic used as treatment of heroin dependence but also fallen to abused.
CRIME DETECTION, INVESTIGATION & PREVENTION
1. It is an act providing for the constitutional rights of persons under custodial investigation.
C. RA 7438
2. These are the three fold aims of the criminal investigator, EXCEPT:
A. to identify the guilty party
B. to provide evidence of his guilt
C. to locate the guilty party
D. to file charges at the proper court
3. It is a type of search wherein one searcher is assigned to each subdivision of a quadrant.
A. zone method B. spiral method
C. wheel method D. strip method
4. It is made by the investigator on the scene, it need not be drawn to scale, but the proportions
should be the approximate measurements of dimensions draw.
A. crime scene sketch B. rough sketch
C. finished drawing D. projection sketch
5. It is the normal sketch that shows the scene in two dimensions of one place.
A. crime scene sketch B. rough sketch
C. finished drawing D. projection sketch
6. It is the simplest way to locate points on sketch to give the distances from two mutually
perpendicular lines.
A. surveying methods B. cross projection
C. rectangular coordinates D. polar coordinate
7. This consists of objects or substances which are an essential part of the body of the crime.
A. corpus delicti B. tracing evidence

C. associative evidence D. evidence
8. It is refers to the number of persons who handle evidence between the time of commission and
disposition of the case.
A. disposition B. preservation
C. chain of custody D. evaluation
9. It is the questioning of person who is believed to possess knowledge that is of official interest to
the investigator.
A. interrogation B. investigation
C. interview D. all of the above
10. It is existing between the investigator and the subject, and it is usually determines, the success
of the investigation.
A. rapport B. personality
C. breadth of interest D. the approach
11. It is a questioning of a person who is reluctant to make a full disclosure of information in his
possession.
A. interrogation B. investigation
C. interview D. all of the above
12. It is a person other than the suspect, who is requested to give information concerning an
incident or person.
A. witness B. victim
C. subject D. non of the above
13. It is a self-incriminatory statement made by the subject falling short of an acknowledgement of

guilt.
A. admission B. confession
C. acknowledgment D. acceptance
14. It is the direct acknowledgment of the truth of the guilty fact as charged or of some essential
part of the commission of the criminal act itself.
A. admission B. confession
C. acknowledgment D. acceptance
15. It is a file of photograph of arrested individuals which usually includes full-face and mug shots
along with detailed physical description of subject persons.
A. roques gallery B. modus-operandi file
C. fingerprint file D. index card file
16. Usually, the conduct of investigation must start with this, purposely to develop rapport with the
subject, either the victim or suspect.
A. opening statement B. inquiry of subject
C. narration D. sympathetetic approach
17. It is the questioning of person who are suspected to have committed and/or has been involved
in the commission of an offense.
A. interview B. interrogation
C. tactical interrogations D. custodial investigation
18. It is the purpose why the subject of the investigation was being asked of the question, “do you
know why you are here.”
A. to place the subject in the vulnerable position
B. to know the purpose the reason why he is investigated
C. to solicit other vital information
D. it usually observed during interrogation
19. Any person under investigation for the commission of an offense shall have the following rights,
EXCEPT.
A. right to inform of his right to remain silent
B. right to have a competent and independent counsel
C. right to be provided with a counsel
D. right not to answer all the questions
20. It is must be made in every page of the sworn statement of suspects and witnesses intentionally
committed by the investigator or typist.
A. page number B. name of investigator

C. intentional errors D. name of affiant
21. It is the collection of information and evidence for identifying, apprehending, and convicting
suspected offenders.
A. tactical interrogation B. custodial investigation
C. criminal investigation D. criminal interrogation
22. It is a device which is designed to ignite combustible material sometimes after initiating action.
A. trailer B. plant
C. devices D. accelerants
23. The fundamental responsibility of the officer in charge of protecting the crime scene is:
A. interrogating the witness, the victims and the suspects
B. engaging in the search for traces left by the criminals
C. removal of evidence which may be important to the case investigated
D. preserving the site of the crime in the same physical conditions as it was left by the
perpetrator
24. What kind of personal property can be subject of search or seizure?
A. Fruits of the offense or those used or intended to be used as the means of committing
an offense.
B. Subject of the offense
C. Stolen or embezzled property
D. All of these
25. It is the official inquiry made by the police on the facts and circumstances surrounding the death
of the person which is expected to be criminal or unlawful.
A. homicide investigation B. criminal investigation
C. murder investigation D. criminal interrogation
26. Any person under investigation shall have the right to ______________.
A. Be informed of such rights
B. Remain silent
C. Counsel
D. All of these
27. It is a law that makes the crime of rape as a crime against persons.
A. RA 8353 B. RA 8535
C. RA 8553 D. RA 8335
28. It is a statement made by a person in an impending death, and it is also known as “ante-mortem
statement.”
A. dying declaration B. declaration of interest
C. affidavit D. sworn statement
29. It is an investigative practice of placing the suspect within a group of people for the purpose of
being viewed by eyewitnesses.
A. police line-up B. identification parade
C. all of the above D. none of the above
30. It is where the essential ingredients of the criminal act took place, it includes the entry and exit
of both the offenders and victims.
A. place of occurrence B. setting of the crime
C. physical objectives D. crime scene
31. It is the ascertaining of information by systematically interviewing all people in certain vicinity or
area.
A. neighborhood canvassing B. intensive inquiry
C. all of the above D. none of the above
32. It is an anticipatory or proactive approach to solving crimes, focusing on the small group of
career criminals responsible for a large amount of crime in the area.
A. proactive investigation B. anticipatory investigation
C. targeted investigation D. all of the above
33. These are the elements of the crime of robbery, EXCEPT:
A. unlawful taking of property

B. with intent to gain
C. with violent or intimidation
D. without the owner’s consent
34. It is an act that prescribes the violation against women and their children.
A. RA 9262 B. RA 9622
C. RA 6692 D. RA 9266
35. It is an investigative aid which provided information with regards offenders’ pattern of
operations.
A. roques gallery B. modus-operandi file
C. fingerprint file D. index card file
36. This is the most prevalent factor that prompted pushers and abusers alike to indulge in
dangerous drugs.
A. poverty B. ignorance
C. loss of family values D. other various factors
37. It is regarded by many experts as the most commonly abused drug in our society.
A. tobacco B. alcohol
C. marijuana D. cough preparations
38. These are the motivating factors of drug use, EXCEPT:
A. to attain some degree of euphoria
B. peer pressure and curiosity
C. increased enjoyment of activities
D. as social lubricants
39. It is state of psychic or physical dependence or both on drug arising in a person following
administration.
A. drug dependence B. physical dependence
C. psychological dependence D. drug addiction
40. It is the penalty to be imposed to drug users during first offense.

A. 6 yrs. & 1 day-12 yrs B. 1 yr. & 1 day-6 yrs.
C. 12 yrs. & 1 day-20 yrs. D. 6 months rehabilitation
41. It presupposes an understanding of the motivation behind the behavior of motorists,

commuters and pedestrians.
A. traffic management B. traffic education
C. traffic enforcement D. traffic engineering
42. It is an action taken by the traffic law enforcers, and the count to compel obedience to traffic
laws and ordinances.
A. traffic management B. traffic education
C. traffic enforcement D. traffic engineering
43. This is wholly a traffic law enforcer’s responsibility, and entails in looking for the behavior of the
traffic units.
A. detection B. adjudication
C. apprehension D. prosecution
44. These are the important goals of traffic law enforcement activities, EXCEPT.
A. to increase safety level
B. to ensure harmonious & comfortable environment
C. to observe the 3Es of traffic
D. to increase traffic efficiency
45. It includes pedestrians, pedal cyclist, drivers, passengers, and others.
A. enforcement system B. road user system
C. traffic system D. road and traffic user
46. It is defined as keeping informed on the streets, highways within existing regulations to make
their use safe and expeditious.
A. traffic enforcement B. traffic control
C. traffic supervision D. traffic education
47. This is otherwise known as the Traffic and Land Transportation Code of the Philippines.
A. RA 7610 B. RA 6975
C. RA 7160 D. RA 4136
48. It is the science of measuring traffic and travel, study of basic laws relative to traffic, and to
achieve safe and efficient transportation.
A. traffic management B. traffic enforcement
C. traffic education D. traffic engineering
49. It is any inherent characteristics of a traffic way, a vehicle or a person making a trip on a traffic
way.
A. accident B. attribute
C. violations D. crucial events
50. It is the place and time after or beyond which the accident cannot be prevented by the traffic
unit under consideration.
A. point of impact
B. point of no escape
C. perception of impending hazard
D. point of possible perception
51. It is every device which is self-propelled, and propelled by electric power obtained from
overhead trolley wires, but not operated upon rails.
A. vehicle B. motor
C. motor vehicle D. means of transportation
52. It characterized the manner of occurrence of a motor- vehicle traffic accident.
A. key events B. traffic accident
C. crucial events D. chain of events
53. It is any motor vehicle accident that results in injuries to one or more persons.
A. fatal accident B. non-fatal accident
C. property damage D. traffic accident
54. It is a kind of traffic accident where a person does thing that he or she should not have done.
A. errors of commission B. negligence
C. errors of omission D. reckless imprudence
55. Are marks left on the road by tires that are not moving because the brakes are applied strongly
enough to lock the wheels.
A. skidmarks B. scuffmarks
C. skipskid D. gapskid
56. A vehicle down hill with a slope of 0.15 and a drag factor of 0.70 leaves a skidmarks of 20.6
meters, what is the approximate speed of the said vehicle when involved in accident.
A. 64 kms./hour B. 54 kms./hour
C. 46 km.s/hour D. 45 kms./hour
57. The following are the good ways of searching the scene of the hit-and-run accident, EXCEPT:
A. look over the ground to locate the point of collision
B. follow the path of vehicle in leaving the scene
C. study the objects the vehicle has struck
D. established the identity of the driver and vehicle
58. It is a method of locating a spot in the area by measurements from two of more reference
points.
A. measurements B. determining skidmarks
C. triangulation D. accident investigation
59. These are the types of international road signs, it may be oval, triangular, and rectangular in
shapes, EXCEPT.
A. regulatory signs B. informative signs
C. danger warning signs D. roads and pavement signs
60. These are the basic steps in traffic accident investigation, EXCEPT.
A. go to scene as quickly as possible
B. assess the situation and call for assistance
C. care to injured and protect their property

D. inter-agency coordination and linkages
61. It is the willful and intentional setting of fire to destroy property and/or the preparation of
building for burning.
A. arson B. fire
C. intentional fire D. incendiary fire
62. These the corpus delicti of the crime of arson, EXCEPT:
A. fire occurred in the premises protected by the law
B. the fire was intentional
C. someone set the fire or furthered the act
D. violation of laws on arson
63. Only when it is known can possible causes be searched for and eliminated, and it is the first
purpose of examining the fire scene.
A. fire started B. point of origin
C. intentional setting D. presence of arsonist
64. It is a kind of burn pattern that results from splashing an accelerant unto the floor.
A. alligatoring B. charring
C. pour pattern D. “V” pattern
65. It is employed by the arsonist to delay the start of the fire and allow them to establish an
interim alibi.
A. timing device B. matches & candles
C. trailers D. accelerants
66. It can be readily identified by their distinctive odors.
A. timing device B. accelerants
C. trailers D. matches & candles
67. These fires results from the burning of wood, paper, textiles and other carbonaceous materials.
A. Type “A” B. Type “B”
C. Type “C” D. Type “D”

68. It is one way of extinguishing fire wherein the oxygen content of air is reduced below 15%-from
normal of 21% in volume.
A. smothering B. cooling
C. starving D. use of extinguishers
69. A passage hall or ante-chamber between the outer doors and interior parts of a house of a
building.
A. vestibule B. vertical shaft
C. self-closing door D. non of the above
70. Any condition or act which increase or may cause an increase in the probability of the
occurrence of fire.
A. fire hazard B. overloading
C. illegal connection D. jumper
71. These are the detection method use at the fire scene to determine presence of accelerants,
EXCEPT.
A. visual observations B. detection by scent
C. dye color test D. interview of witnesses
72. An integrated network of hydraulically designed piping installed in a building structure or area
which automatically discharges water when activated by heat.
A. sprinkler system B. hose box
C. standpipe system D. hose reel
73. A system of vertical pipes in a building to which the fire hoses can be attached, including a
system by which water is made available to the outlets as needed.
A. sprinkler system B. hose box
C. standpipe system D. hose reel
74. It is any act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazard.
A. fire suppression B. fire safety
C. fire prevention D. abatement

75. It is one of the motives of the crime of arson, wherein the purpose is to distract police from
other felony being committed.
A. concealment of crime B. emotional reasons
C. intimidation D. financial gain
76. It is the most common accelerant, and is readily identified by their distinctive odor.
A. gasoline B. kerosene
C. thinner D. lighter fluid
77. It is otherwise known as the Fire Code of the Philippines.
A. PD 1185 B. RA 5487
C. Art. 322 – 326, RPC D. PD 1714
78. It is the transfer of heat from solid materials.
A. convection B. conduction
C. combustion D. radiation
79. These are the elements of fire, EXCEPT:
A. fuel B. oxygen
C. gas D. heat
80. It is the actual process or the active principle of burning, and it is characterized by the heat and
light combustion.
A. fire B. conflagration
C. arson D. destruction
81. It is otherwise known as the Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002.
A. RA 6425 B. RA 9262
C. RA 7610 D. RA 9165
82. It is the common street name of methamphetamine hydrochloride.
A. shabu B. bato
C. poor man’s cocaine D. kakusaesai

83. Two or more persons forming or joining together with the intention of committing any offense
prescribed by the drugs act.
A. drug syndicate B. syndicated crime group
C. drug traffickers D. organized crime group
84. Are drugs which increases alertness, reduce hunger and provide a feeling of well being.
A. hallucinogens B. stimulants
C. narcotics D. depressants
85. It is a form of entrapment employed by law enforcement officers as an effective way of

apprehending criminals in the act of violating drug law.
A. search and seizure B. mobile checkpoint
C. marijuana eradication D. buy-bust operation
86. It is any immoral conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to depravity, wickedness or
corruption.
A. vice B. drug addiction
C. gambling D. alcoholism
87. It is the illegal cultivation, administration, manufacture, sale, trading, distribution, importation,
exportation and possession of any dangerous drug.
A. drug pushing B. illegal trafficking
C. cultivate or culture D. dispense
88. It is willful act by any person of maliciously and surreptitiously inserting dangerous drug for the
purpose of implicating the commission of violation of drug law.
A. illegal trafficking B. trading
C. planting evidence D. use
89. It is an analytical test conducted to validate of confirm the results of initial test.
A. screening test B. drug test
C. drug clearance test D. confirmatory test
90. It is also known as the golden triangle, and it is considered as the main source of dangerous
drugs throughout the world.
A. Japan-Taiwan-China B. Burma-Thailand-Laos
C. Cambodia-Mexico-Africa D. Arabia-Malaysia-Singapore
91. It is the chronological and step-by-step account of an incident that transpired in a given place
and at a given time.
A. report B. police report
C. patrol report D. investigation report
92. It is primarily aimed at transmitting papers from office to office within a police unit and/or
station, or from branch to branch, within an office
A. routine slip B. memorandum
C. indorsement D. business letter
93. It is a letter that sends, and it identifies what is being sent and what is being intended for
A. transmittal letter B. application letter
C. information letter D. referral letter
94. It is a record of daily events occurring within the territories/jurisdiction of a given police unit or
command.
A. police blotter B. police journal
C. police report D. police files
95. It is complete in substance that answers the six interrogatives of police report writing—the 5Ws
and IH, it also provides in brief, the sworn statement executed by the individuals that was investigated,
A. special report B. investigation report
C. administrative report D. operational report
96. It is a reply or a forwarding statement usually added to a letter, it can be a message; it can be a
memorandum from higher police office, and it is communication within a communication.
97. It is the widely-practiced written communications, and it is routinary in nature, as it is submitted

daily by the duty beat supervisor.
A. beat inspection report B. after patrol report

C. all of the above D. non of the above
98. It is commonly practice in the police service, and which are inter-office communications dealing
with official matters.
99. It is that one done after an important incident took place in a certain area at a given time, and it
must be acted done or acted upon within twenty four hours.
A. special report B. progress report
C. spot report D. situation report
100. Among the techniques in composition writing, it is effective in police report, this is because it
concern events.
A. narration B. clarity
C. specificity D. accuracy
-Good Luck-
CRIME DETECTION, INVESTIGATION AND PREVENTION
1. An extra judicial confession obtained from a suspect is admissible in a court of

law if it was made in the presence of a counsel of his own choice and must be in
a. the presence of a fiscal b. the presence of a police investigator
c. writing d. front of a judge
2. Fiscals and Prosecutors are under the control and supervision of the…
a. National Bureau of Investigation

b. Department of the Interior and Local Government
c. Supreme Court
d. Department of Justice
3. The questioning of a person in a formal and systematic way and is most often used to question
criminal suspects to determine their probable guilt or innocence.
a. inquiry b. interview
c. polygraph examination d. interrogation
4. A form of investigation in which the investigator assume a different and unofficial identity.
a. tailing b. casing
c. espionage d. undercover work
5. A type of surveillance in which extreme precautions and actions are taken in not losing the
subject.
a. loose tail b. casing
c. pony tail d. close tail
6. A type of shadowing employed when a general impression of the subject’s habits and associates
is required.
a. loose tail b. casing
c. pony tail d. close tail
7. A surveillance activity for the purpose of waiting the anticipated arrival of a suspect or observing
his actions from a fixed location.
a. casing b. tailing
c. stake out d. espionage

8. An examination of an individual’s person, houses, or effects or a building, or premises with the
purpose of discovering contrabands or personal properties connected in a crime.
a. search b. raid
c. investigation d. seizure
9. A kind of evidence that tends to prove additional evidence of a different character to the same
point.
a. corroborative evidence b. circumstantial evidence
c. direct evidence d. real evidence
10. The process of bringing together in a in logical manner all evidence collected during the
investigation and present it to the prosecutor.
a. case preparation b. order maintenance
c. crime prevention d. public service
11. Ways and means are resorted for the purpose of trapping and capturing the law breaker during
the execution of a criminal act.
a. instigation b. inducement
c. buy bust operation d. entrapment
12. A special qualification for an undercover agent.
a. excellent built b. excellent eyesight
c. excellent looks d. excellent memory
13. The discreet observation of places, persons and vehicles for the purpose of obtaining
information concerning the identities or activities of suspects.
a. close observation b. espionage
c. tailing d. surveillance
14. The questioning of a person by law enforcement officers after that person has been taken into
custody.
a. preliminary investigation b. interrogation
c. custodial investigation d. cross examination
15. As a general rule, a warrant of arrest can be served at…

a. day time
b. night time
c. any day and at any time of the day or night
d. weekdays
16. Measures through which police seek to detect crimes, or attempts to be present
when they are committed, through the use of the undercover agents, electronic devices for
wiretapping or bugging, and stakeouts.
a. preventive measures b. countermeasures
c. pro-active measures d. tape measures
17. A police activity directed toward the identification and apprehension of alleged criminals and
the accumulation, preservation, and presentation of evidence regarding their alleged crimes.
a. police patrol b. police intelligence
c. criminal procedure d. criminal investigation
18. An extension, or continuation of the preliminary investigation.
a. initial investigation b. custodial investigation
c. secondary investigation d. follow-up investigation
19. To obtain admission and confession of guilt is the primary purpose of…
a. interview b. surveillance
c. investigation d. interrogation
20. Such facts and circumstances that would lead a reasonably discreet and prudent man to believe
that an offense has been committed and that the object sought in connection with the offense
are in the place sought to be searched.
a. prima facie evidence b. probable cause
c. prejudicial question d. res ipsa loquitur
21. A search warrant shall be valid for _____ days from its date. Thereafter, it shall be void.
a. 10 b. 15
c. 30 d. 45
22. It means that a specific crime was committed at a specified time, date and place, and that the
person named in his report committed the crime.
a. corpus delicti b. sufficiency of evidence
c. stare decisis d. pares patriae
23. Police seek to prevent crime by being present in places where crimes might be committed and
by alerting citizens to refrain from practices that make them or their property vulnerable.
a. opportunity denial b. order maintenance
c. criminal investigation d. police intelligence
24. A statement of the suspect directly acknowledging his guilt.
a. admission b. confession
c. deposition d. accusation
25. It may be a direct acknowledgement of the truth of the guilty fact as charge or of some
essential part of the commission of the criminal act itself.
26. It may be a self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling short of an acknowledgement of

guilt.
27. The simplest type of interview which concerns with the gathering of information regarding the
personal circumstances of a person who is the subject of investigation.
a. background interview b. personal interview
c. intimate interview d. pre-game interview
28. It means method of operation.
a. corpus delicti b. parens patriae
c. stare decisis d. modus operandi

29. It is one which induces the criminal to act and need not be shown in order to obtain conviction.
a. intent b. motive
c. opportunity d. inducement
30. The three tools in criminal investigation, whereby their application varies in proportion on their
necessity to establish the guilt of the accused in a criminal case.
a. information, interrogation, instrumentation

b. detection, apprehension, conviction ‘
c. inquiry, observation, conclusion
d. magnifying glass, pencil, tape measure
31. The simple questioning of a person who is cooperating in the investigation.
a. interview b. inquiry
c. interrogation d. instrumentation
32. It involves a number of persons who might have handled evidence between the time of the
commission of the alleged offense and the disposition of the case, should be kept to a minimum.
a. chain of command b. chain of custody
c. evidence tracking d. tracing evidence
33. A kind of evidence which may link the suspect to the crime scene or offense. Examples are
fingerprints, impressions, blood etc.
a. physical evidence b. associative evidence
c. tracing evidence d. factual evidence
34. Articles and materials which are found in connection with an investigation and which help in
establishing the identity of the perpetrator or the circumstances under which the crime was
committed or which in general, assist in the prosecution of the criminal.
a. physical evidence b. documentary evidence
c. tracing evidence d. testimonial evidence
35. The following are different techniques in interrogation except one:
a. sympathetic approach b. emotional appeal
c. financial assistance d. friendliness
36. This may be applicable to a crime scene which is approximately circular or oval. The searchers
gather at the center and proceed outward along radii or spokes.
a. strip method b. wheel method
c. spiral method d. zone method
37. The area to be searched is divided into quadrants and each searcher is assigned to one
quadrant.
38. The searchers follow each other in the path of a crime scene beginning in the outside and
circling around a central point.
39. A kind of gathering information whereby a subject is being followed.
a. convoy b. caravan
c. tailing d. surveillance
40. Another term for tailing.
a. impersonating b. backing
c. supporting d. shadowing
41. A person who gives necessary information to the investigator. He may give the information
openly and even offer to be a witness or he may inform the investigator surreptitiously and
request to remain anonymous.
a. witness b. expert witness
c. hostile witness d. informant
42. The use of an equipment or tool to listen and record discreetly conversations of other people.
a. bugging b. dubbing
c. mimicking d. Tapping
43. The questioning of persons not suspected of being involved in a crime, but who knows about
the crime or individuals involved in it.
a. interrogation b. rumor mongering
c. interview d. inquiry
44. An objective of criminal invstigation.
a. determine the motive b. identify criminals
c. rehabilitate criminals d. prevent crimes
45. A term used to describe a transition which occur in the development of a fire, when, for
example, most of all the combustible surfaces within a room are heated above their ignition
temperature at the same time.
a. intensity b. ignition
c. flash over d. starter
46. A term of the start of the combustion, its detailed process of a solid is very complicated, since
the proportion of different flammable vapours vary from one material to another and contact
with oxygen must take place before combustion can begin.
a. intensity b. ignition
c. flash over d. starter
47. The term describes the transfer of heat through a gas or vacuum in a similar way to that of light.
a. ignition b. convection
c. radiation d. conduction
48. The transfer of heat within a solid material from hotter to cooler parts.
a. ignition b. convection
c. radiation d. conduction
49. The greatest concern of the firemen at the fire/crime scene is to….
a. interview witnesses
b. view the site of the crime
c. preserve the fire/crime scene
d. phot opportunity in the fire/crime scene
50. Most malicious fires are set by individuals secretly, it is either set for revenge or self
aggrandizing; or set by psychotic fire setter, or for sexual gratification.
a. group fire setter b. arson for profit
c. fire starter d. solitary fire setter
51. It is, in most cases, the initial step for obtaining information to determine the origin and cause
of fire.
a. evidence collection b. laboratory examination of evidence
c. interview witnesses d. interrogation of suspects
52. The primary course of action in case of a fire.
a. pack up and flee b. run for your life
c. call an ambulance d. raise the alarm
53. The main product of the combustion of carbon. It is not poisonous but is an asphyxiant which
lowers the proportion of oxygen available for breathing.
a. carbon oxide b. carbon monoxide
c. carbon paper d. carbon dioxide
54. A normal product of combustion, and is poisonous, especially when the air supply to the fire is
restricted.
a. carbon oxide b. carbon monoxide
c. carbon paper d. carbon dioxide
55. The fire resisting property of structural elements and the behavior of a building material in a
fire, it is used to predict how long it will resist the effect of a fire before it fails.
a. fire resistance b. fire duration
c. fire proof d. fire strength
56. A type of fire that is the result of the combustion of certain metals in finely divided forms;
magnesium, potassium, zinc, etc….
a. class A b. class B
c. class C d. class D
57. A type of fire which results from burning of wood, paper, textiles, and other carbonaceous
materials. Extinguishment of this fire is by quenching and cooling.
58. The following are components of fire except one:
a. gas b. fuel
c. oxygen d. heat
59. It is observed in structural fires and can be an indicator of the fire travel and point of origin.
a. charring b. alligatoring
c. V pattern d. pour pattern
60. A pattern or network of fine, irregular lines in glass and wood.
a. crazing b. spalling
c. light bulbs d. charring
61. A tool employed by an arsonist to delay the start of the fire and allow him to establish an alibi.
a. accelerants b. delaying tactic
c. timing device d. stopper
62. It can be readily identified by their distinctive odors, and the most common examples are
gasoline, turpentine and kerosene.
a. accelerants b. trailers
63. This catalytic combustion device is the most common means employed to detect flammable
vapors.
a. accelerant b. sniffer
64. The irresistible impulse or compulsion to start a fire and experience gratification and
satisfaction from it.
a. fire starter syndrome b. pyrotechnic disease
c. pyromania d. pyrophobia
65. It is known as the “Fire Code of the Philippines.”
a. PD 1108 b. PD 1017
c. PD 1081 d. PD 1185
66. Any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and oxidizer used to set off explosives.
a. blasting agent b. blasting cap
c. gun powder c. explosive primer
67. These are description of materials or compounds that are easily set on fire except one:
a. combustible b. corrosive
c. flammable d. inflammable
68. Any material having a flash point at or above 37.80 degree Celsius or 100 degree Fahrenheit.
a. combustible liquid b. flammable liquid
c. inflammable liquid d. corrosive liquid
69. Any liquid that causes fire when in contact with organic matter.
a. combustible liquid b. flammable liquid
c. inflammable liquid d. corrosive liquid
70. An extremely hot luminous bridge formed by the passage of an electric current across the space
between two conductors.
a. electrical arc b. damper
c. duct system d. ember
71. The active principle of burning, characterized by the heat and light combustion.
a. explosion b. arson
c. combustion d. fire
72. A type of fire, of flammable liquid and gasses.
73. A mass movement in a fluid, an example a liquid or a gas where fluid at one temperature and
density moves under the influence of gravity at different temperatures.
a. conduction b. convection
c. radiation d. combustion
74. The temperature at which a liquid is transformed or converted to vapor.
a. burning point b. melting point
c. freezing point d. boiling point
75. The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from a collision course or to avoid hazard.
a. point of no return b. point of no escape
c. start of evasive action d. final position
76. The movement of vehicles, and pedestrians in a road or highway.
a. traffic b. flight
c. trip d. journey
77. A method of locating a spot in the area by measurements from two or more reference points.
a. traffic report b. spot report
c. triangulation d. accident investigation
78. The force that tends to pull all objects to the center of the earth.
a. inertia b. friction
c. energy d. gravity
79. Any motor vehicle accident that results in no death, but only injuries to one or more persons.
a. fatal b. chronic
c. non fatal d. injurious
80. The “Traffic and Land Transportation Code of the Philippines>”
a. RA 7160 b. RA 8551
c. RA 6425 d. RA 4136
81. An occurrence in a sequence of events, which usually produces unintended injury,

death or property damage.
a. traffic incidents b. traffic accidents
c. traffic hazards d. traffic events
82. Any motor vehicle accident occurring on a traffic way.
a. non motor vehicle traffic accident

b. non motor vehicle non-traffic accident
c. motor vehicle non-traffic accident
d. motor vehicle traffic accident
83. An order wherein a violator is commanded to appear in court, but without detaining him.
a. traffic citation b. traffic request
c. traffic warrant d. traffic violation
84. The first accidental touching of an object collision course or otherwise avoid a hazard.
a. primary contact b. secondary contact
c. disengagement d. initial contact
85. The following are the three E’s of Traffic Management and Operation except one:
a. Engineering b. Education
c. Enforcement d. Evaluation
86. The “Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002.”
a. RA 9870 b. RA 9165
c. RA 1017 d. RA 6195
87. Drugs that produce perceptual alteration, varying emotional change, thought disruption and ego
distortion.
a. tranquillisers b. hallucinogens
c. stimulants d. depressants
88. Drugs which produce insensibility, stupor, melancholy or dullness of the mind with delusions.
a. stimulants b. narcotics
c. depressants d. hallucinogens
89. The practice or profession of having sexual intercourse for money or profit.
a. gynaecology b. prostitution
b. pornography d. sex business
90. The scientific name of marijuana.
a. cannabis sativa L b. pappaver somniferum
c. deoxyribonucleic acid d. methamphetamine
91. The original components of heroin and morphine.
a. codeine b. caffeine
c. opium d. methamphethamine
92. An inter department agency that enforce and carry out the law against illegal drugs.
a. Phil. Drug Enforcement Agency b. Bureau of Drugs
c. Dangerous Drug Board d. Food and Drug Administration
93. A harmful conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to depravity, wickedness and
corruption of the mind and body.
a. vice b. abuse
c. addiction d. virtue
94. The most common form of stimulant.
a. heroin b. codeine
c. morphine d. shabu
95. It is scientifically known as methamphethamine hydrochloride.
a. heroin b. codeine
c. morphine d. shabu
96. A derivative of opium which is used a cough reliever.
a. codeine b. heroin
c. morphine d. caffeine
97. Any part of the plant of the papaver somniferum, including the seeds.
a. opium poppy b. marijuana
c. caffeine d. codeine
98. Another term for drug addiction.
a. drug use b. drug net
c. drug pushing d. drug dependence
99. Commercially produced drugs that can be legally sold or dispensed only by a physician’s order.
a. illegal drugs b. prohibited drugs
c. regulated drugs d. prescription drugs
100. Any chemical substance that by virtue of its chemical nature alters the structure and functioning
of living organism.
a. alcohol b. poison
c. drug d. vice
-GOOD LUCK FELLOW CRIMINOLOGIST-

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CA

3. Reclassification A continuing application of the treatment program.

6. Minimum Security Institution An open institution usually a penal farm or camp

7. England First to use punitive imprisonment

11. Psychologist Intelligence and personality test are administered by-

30. enforce discipline Force is used only by correctional institution to:

2. Executive Clem A condition given by the President during his/her birthday.

6. Alexander Maconochie Father of parole.

7. John Augustus Father of probation in the United States.

8. Reform Model Forms of executive clemency, EXCEPT

9. Edward Savage He is the first appointed probation officer in the world.

12. Reprieve It is the temporary suspension in the execution of sentence?

17. Parole A French word meaning “word of honor”.

20. Right Generally bail is a matter of?

22. Treatment For a convicted offender, probation is a form of ________.

24. Impeachment Pardon cannot be extended to one of the following instances.

25. Already convicted Pardon is exercised when the person is_______________.

48. Parole It is an extension of institutional correction

6. A system of trial and punishment which is reformatory in purpose.

8. It resulted in class discrimination due to wide use of discretion in imposing penalties.

11. It gave rise to exemption and mitigation of punishment.

12. Country which first established prison facilities.

14. It abolished corporal punishment.

Pennsylvania Reform Law of 1790

17. The first parole was passed in 1837, in:

32. Minimum number of times in counting the inmates on a daily basis.

34. It is a continuing state of good order.

42. What particular country utilized transportation of prisoners?

45. It is an institution originally intended to detain or house political offenders.

50. The most common problem for national penitentiaries.

52. This theory emphasized that punishment has a redemptive purpose.

60. The Bureau of Corrections is under the--

67. A nation who pioneered banishment as a form of punishment.

82. This type of institution is usually constructed without a fence?

83. What is the main objective of segregation?

84. It is the original intention of imposing prison labor?

86. It is mainly responsible for the implementation of a prisoner’s treatment program?

89. What country popularized the use of prisons as detention facilities?

90. Credited for introducing the use of jails.

97. A means of social control.

98. Group vengeance as a justification for imposition of punishment.

5. Products made by prisoners are sold in the open market.

8. Ministration of the sick is an important function of the:

19. It provides some opportunities for inmates of a normal sex life.

21. Referred to as the Law on Working Detention

24. Indeterminate Sentence Law

30. Primary basis in granting parole:

Progress within the correctional institution

31. Parole although not a form of executive clemency is:

35. A parole officer undertakes what particular broad function?

40. RA 4225 created what particular government agency?

44. Minimum period of probation provided for by law.

45. It refers to the community’s reaction to convicted offenders.

58. When will you close a probation case?

66. The primary purpose of probation

67. Effect of executive Order 292.

69. Created the Board of Pardons and Parole.

74. It is the alternative for jail confinement in modern penology

Mental/physical condition of the offender

77. For a convicted offender, probation is a form of _________.

79. When shall probation order take effect?

80. Mainly responsible for the implementation of a prisoners treatment program?

85. He was referred to as the father of English Probation.