PARATO, NEAL CHRISTIAN B.

PARATO

BSME 5-10

PIPE PROBLEMS
1. A large municipal power plant produces 1,000 MW of power. The overall plant efficiency
is 32% Coal with a heating value of 24 MJ/kg is used to heat the boilers. How much coal
is burned each day?

A. 10,500 metric tons C. 12,000 metric tons

B. 11,250 metric tons D. 12,500 metric tons

2. A centrifugal pump pumps water at the rate of 1000 L/min against a head of 10 m. What
is the power requirement?

A. 1.59 KW C. 1.98 kW

B. 1.63 KW D. 1.07 kW

3. A gas is heated at a constant temperature of 550 C until the entropy increases by

3.00 x 106 J/K. How much heat is added?

A. 2.5 GJ C. 2.7 GJ

B. 2.9 GJ D. 3.1 GJ

4. How many tons of ice can a 120 ton ice plant produce in 24 hours?

A. 240 C. 60

B. 30 D. 120
5. A fan delivers 225 m3 of standard air per minute against a back pressure of 10:0 cm of
water to coal burning furnace. What power is required to operate the fan if it is 85 %
efficient?

A. 4.33 kW C. 3.95 kW

B. 3.68 kW D. 4.87 kW

6. An engine operating on a Carnot cycle between temperatures of 500 C and 30 C produces 50 kJ

of work. What change in entropy occurs during 14 the heat rejection process?

A. -0.1064 KJ/K C. -0.2128 kJ/K

B. -0.1340 kJ/K D. -0.2056 kJ/K .

7. In an Otto cycle, the initial volume of 50 cc of air and petrol mixture is compressed to 10 cc 15
isentropic ally with index of compression k = 1.4
Calculate the thermal efficiency.

A. 47.5 % C. 45.7 %

B. 37.5 % D. 57.7 %

8. A reversed Carnot cycle absorbs heat at the rate of 1 kW from cold chamber maintained at 250K
and discharges it to the atmosphere at 300 K.
Find the work required for the cycle.

A. 1 kW C. 0.2 kW

B. 1.5 kW D. 0.5 kW

9. Maria Christina falls has 10 m head. Find the pressure at the bottom

A. 98.1 kPa C. 100 kPa

B 67.9 kPa D. 120.3 kPa

10. The compression ratio of an air standard gasoline engine is 8. The initial pressure and
temperature are 100 kPa and 25 degree Celsius. If heat added is 1850 kJ/kg, what is the
temperature after isentropic expansion?

A. 1147 K C. 1423 K

B. 1399 K D. 1278 K

11. An inventor claims of having invented a heat engine which produces 10 kW input while
operating between energy reservoirs at 27 deg C and 427 deg C. Is the claim valid?

A. yes C. no

B. probably D. none of these

12. A 10 MW plant has a generator efficiency of 97 percent. If the mechanical losses is 1.25
percent, find the internal turbine output?

A. 10.44 MW C. 8.25 MW

B. 12.89 MW D. 9.58 MW

13. A 2.2 kW refrigerator or heat pump operates between -17 °C and 38 °C. The maximum
theoretical heat that can be transferred from the cold reservoir is nearest to

A. 7.6 kW C. 15.6 kW

B. 4.7 kW D. 10.2 kW

14. The isentropic compression of 1 m3 of air, Cp/Cv = 1.4, from 20 kPa to a pressure of 100 kPa
gives a final volume of

A. 0.16 m3 C. 0.32 m3

B. 0.20 m3 D. 0.40 m3

15. A boiler uses 2500 kg of coal per hour and air required for combustion is 16 kg per kg coal. If ash
loss is 10%, determine the mass of gas entering the chimney.
 A. 60.025 C. 71000

B. 42250 D. 50.325

16. What is the coefficient of performance of a vapor compression refrigeration system with the
following properties; enthalpy at suction is 190 kJ/kg, enthalpy after compression is 210 kJ/kg.
The enthalpy after condensation is 60 kJ/kg.

A. 4.5 C. 5.5

B. 6.5 D. 3.5

17. A power plant consumes 4200 tons of coal per day. If the coal used has an average energy
content of 12000 Btu per Lb, determine the plant output if its overall efficiency is 18%.
(1 ton = 2000 lb)

A. 168.5 MW C. 282.2 MW

B. 305.8 MW D. 221.4 MW

18. A Diesel generating set has an output of 25 kW. The heating value of fuel used is 12500 kcal/kg.
If the overall efficiency of the unit is 35% , the mass of oil required per hour is equal to

A. 3.82 kg C. 3.56 kg

B. 4.91 kg D. 5.25 kg

19. The compression ratio in an air standard Diesel cycle is 20. At the beginning of the compression
process the pressure and the temperature are 0.12 MPa and 15 degree Celsius respectively.
What is the state at the end of the compression process?

A. 8500 kPa C. 8300 kPa

B. 7955 kPa D. 8200 kPa
20. For a reversed Carnot cycle operating between - 8 C and 18 C, find the coefficient of 2
performance

A. 4.8 C. 8.5

B. 6.7 D. 10.2

21. 150 grams of water at 75 C is heated at constant pressure, the water is completely vaporized
Find the heat added.

A. 543.52 kJ C. 354.25 kJ

B. 816.66 kJ D. 1135.66 kJ

22. An engine requires 4300 kg of dry steam per hour. The quality of steam is 90 %. What must be
the weight of the wet steam?

A. 4778 kg/hr C. 5258 kg/hr

B. 4000 kg/hr D. 6000 kg/hr

23. A tank contains H2O. What is the intensity of pressure at a depth of 6 meters?

A. 68 kPa C. 58.8 kPa

B. 78.0 kPa D. 48.7 kPa

24. A bracelet which appears to be gold weighs 50 grams in air and 40 grams when submerged in
water. Is the bracelet pure gold? Specific gravity of pure gold is 19.

A. none of these C. silver

B. not pure D. pure

25. A high velocity flow of gas at 250 m/s possesses kinetic energy nearest to which of the
following?

A. 3.13 kJ/kg C. 31,300 kJ/kg

 B. 313 kJ/kg D. 31.3 kJ/kg

26. Gauge cock in the boiler is designed to determine

A. level of steam C. Specific heat

B. level of water D. Pressure

27. A rapid Increase in boiler pressure occurs when there is

A. moderate drop in steam load

B. constant drop in steam load

C. abrupt drop in steam load

D. gradual drop in steam load

28. A boiler has a bursting pressure, BP, of 600 kPa and a factor of safety, FS, of 8 is employed in
design. As an engineer, would you advice to have a working pressure, WP, of 500 kPa?

A. No, WP must be higher than 500 kPa

B. No, WP is only 75 kPa at a FS of 8

C. Yes, since BP is 600 Pa

D. Yes, to attain better efficiency

29. When the boiler pressure decreases or when the exhaust pressure increases, the amount of
moisture

A. Increases C. decreases

B. constant D. zero

30. In a steam generator with good combustion control what occurs if the load is increased?

A. Air temperature leaving air heater decreases

B. Air temperature entering air heater increases

 C. Furnace pressure is approximately constant

D. Economizer gas outlet temperature decreases

31. Total solid impurities in feed water for a boiler depend upon
A. boiler pressure

B. type of fuel available

C. quantity of steam to be generated

D. quantity of steam

32. Which of the following is not a main part of a typical coal burner?

A. Air registers C. Nozzle

B. Atomizer D. Igniter

33. Measure of ability of a boiler to transfer the heat given by the furnace to the water and steam is

A. grate efficiency C. stroke efficiency

B. furnace efficiency D. boiler efficiency

34. A goose neck is installed in the line connecting a steam gauge to a boiler to

A. maintain constant steam flow

B. protect the gauge element

C. prevent steam knocking

D. maintain steam pressure

35. Which of the following is a great advantage of a fire tube boiler?

 A. Steam pressure is not ready

B. Contains a large volume of water and requires long interval of time to raise steam and not so

flexible as to changes in steam demand

C. Cannot use impure water

D. Radiation losses are higher because fire is inside the boller and surrounded by water

36. One of the following tasks which is an example of preventive maintenance is

A. cleaning the cup on a rotary cup burner

B. cleaning a completely clog oil strainer

C. replacing a leaking valve

D. replacing a blown fuse

37. The carbon dioxide (CO) percentage in the flue gas of an efficiency fired boiler should be
approximately

A. 1 % C. 12 %

C. 18% D. 20 %

38. A change in the efficiency of combustion in a boiler can usually be determined by comparing the
4 previously recorded readings with the current readings of the

A. stack temperature and CO

B. over the fire draft and CO

C. ringleman chart and CO2

D. stack temperature and CO2

39. A boiler steam gauge should have a range of atleast

A. one half the working steam pressure

B. 1 and ½ times the maximum allowable working

 pressure

C. the working steam pressure

D. twice the maximum allowable working pressure

40. Scale in boiler can :

A. create low steam quality

B. cause foaming

C. overheat blow offline

D. inhibit circulation and heat transfer

41. An Increase in the deposition of slag and ash on the surface for heating of oil-fired boilers in
both marine and stationery service has affected boiler efficiency. The following are the causes
except for

A. low temperature corrosion of the cold section of

air heaters and duct works

B. slagging of high temperature super heater surfaces

C. high temperature corrosion steel

D. increase of heat transfer in the boiler

42. In a water tube boiler, heat and gases of combustion passed

A. through the combustion chamber only

B. through the tubes

C. away from tubes

B. around the tubes

43. A chemical method of feed water treatment which uses calcium hydroxide and sodium
carbonate as reagents.

A. Thermal treatment C. Lime soda treatment

B. Demineralization process D. Ion Exchange treatment

44. When droplets of water are carried by steam in the boiler.

A. Priming C. Foaming

B. Carryover D. Embrittlement

45. Which of the following factors does bursting pressure of boiler doesn’t depends?

A. Tensile strength of the shell

B. Thickness of the shell

C. Diameter of the shell

D. Shear strength of shell material

46. Which of the following factors does working pressure of boiler doesn’t depends?

A. Tensile strength of shell C. Thickness of shell

B. Factor of safety D. Type of fuel being fired

47. Total solid impurities in feed water for a boiler depend upon

A. boiler pressure

B. quantity of steam to be generated

C. type of fuel available

D. quantity of steam
48. A high pressure chamber or a device in which the paths of rapidly moving particles can be
observed and photographed.

A. Cloud chamber C. Combustion chamber

B. Fission chamber D. Air chamber

49. The formation of gas bubbles in a liquid is called

A. bubbling C. foaming

B. priming D. carryover

50. The water level inside the boiler is indicated by the

A. baffles C. fusible plug

B. water walls D. water column

51. What is the highest pressure under which distinguishable liquid and vapor phases can exist in
equilibrium?

A. Maximum pressure C. Atmosphere

B. Critical pressure D. Peak pressure

52. What is the average fuel - oil temperature range of the oil in the discharge line to the boiler?

A. 180 - 200°F C. 240 - 260°F

B. 160 - 180°F D. 140 - 160°F

53. The lowest permissible water level of a boiler without internal furnace is the height of the shell.

A. % C. 1/3

B. 1/4 D. 1/5
54. What is the minimum size of piping for bottom blow down lines?

A. 1 In. C. ½ in.

B. ¾ in. D. 2 ½ In.

55. What do we call a device that is used to boiler operation that will stop the burner or at least
send a signal to the operator if the water drops to a low level that is no longer safe?

A. safety valve C. dead - weight valve

B. high water cut off D. low water cut off

56. An engine in which the fuel is burned outside of the power cylinder.

A. Internal combustion engine

B. external combustion engine

C. compression ignition engine

D. spark ignition engine

57. An engine where the ignition is caused by heat of compression

A. internal combustion engine

B. external combustion engine

C .compression Ignition engine

D. spark Ignition engine

58. What temperature is required to ignite the fuel oil?

A. 800 to 1000 F C. 700 to 900 F

B. 900 to 1100 F D. 1000 to 1200 F

59. What air pressure is required to produce the required ignition temperature?

A. 350 to 500 psi C. 250 to 400 psi

8. 450 to 600 poi D. 150 to 300 psi

60. Compressing air in a four stroke cycle is

A. first stroke C.. second stroke

B. third stroke D. fourth stroke

61. Which of the following strokes is produced by the burning gases

A. first stroke C. second stroke

B. third stroke D. fourth stroke

62. Clearing a cylinder of exhaust gases by forcing into it a current of air which provides clean air for
the next compression stroke.

A. scavenging C. supercharging

B. choking D. knocking

63. Increasing the total amount of charging air in the working cylinder of the engine,

A. scavenging. C. supercharging

B. choking D. knocKing

64. The portion of the piston which extends below the piston pin and serves as a guide for the
piston and connecting rod

A. piston skirt C. piston ring

 B. piston scoring D. piston seizure

65. Rings located in the grooves of the piston usually neart the top and near the bottom.

A. platon Shirt C.piston ring

B. piston scoring D. piston seizure

66. Binding of the piston and the cylinder wall as a result of the lubrication having been destroyed
by excessive temperature and friction

A. piston skirt C. piston ring

B. piston scoring E piston seizure

67. Grooves in the cylinder wall or piston or in both. It is caused by the piston scraping the cylinder
wall in its movement without proper lubrication.

A piston skirt C. piston ring

B piston scoring D. piston seizure

68. A device which automatically governs or controls the speed of an engine

A. servomotor C. governor

B. Indicator D. speedometer

69. A combination of liquid which do not mix-or combine chemically.

A.emulsion C. deposition

8, evaporation D separation