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CHEMISTRY
ONE MARK
QUESTION & ANSWER
co m
Compiled by:
I ai .
ol
Mr.R.ANNAMALAI
is LA
al v A
M.Sc(Chem).,M.Sc (Psy).,M.Phil.,B.Ed., B.Music.,
M
GOVT. GIRLS HR.SEC.SCHOOL,
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N A
GINGEE. VILLUPURAM DIST.
email:ssssmalai@gmail.com
.A N
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Design:
Raasi Computers 199, Balaji Complex, Gandhi Bazaar, Gingee - 604 202.
Mobile No.94442 82044
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8 Solid state - - - - -
o m
- 1(3) - 1(5) -
c
- - - - - 1(1) 09
9 Thermodynamics-II -
I - - 1(1) -
ai
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. - 1(1) - 1(5) - - - - 1(3) - 10
10 Chemical equilibrium-II
is
-
LA - 1(3) -
ol
- 1(5) - - - - - 1(1) - - - 1(1) 10
11 Chemical Kintics-II
al v A- - 1(3) - - - - 1(1) - - 1(3) - - 1(5) - - 12
12 Surface Chemistry
13 Electrochemistry - I
14 Electrochemistry-II
ww
N A -
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- 1(1) 1(5) - 1(3) -
- - 1(5) - - -
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- 1(5) -
- - 1(5) -
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14
10
16 Hydroxy Derivatives .A N
15 Isomerism in Organic Chemistry -
-
- 1(3) - 1(5) - - - - - - - - - - - 08
17 Ethers
18 Carbonyl Compounds
R -
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- 1(3) -
- 1(3) -
- - 1(3) -
- 1(1) - 1(5) -
- 1(5) -
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- 1(1) 1(5) -
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- 1(1) 1(5) -
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- 1(1) 07
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12
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23 Problem in Chemistry
TOTAL 20 5 24 6 25 20 24 10 15 25 6 10 20 10 9 4 233
No. of Questions Marks
Summary / E / LA 8 80 Part-I MCQ - 30 / 30
Short Answer (SA) No. 12 60 Scheme of options Part-II VSA - 15 / 21
Very Short Answer (VSA) No.21 63 Scheme of Sections Part-III SA - 7 / 12
Objective(O) 30 30 Part-IV E / LA - 3 / 6 & 1 Compulsory (Either or Type)
233
Knowledge : 24% Application : 24%
Understanding : 34% Skill : 18%
v
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INDEX
S.No. LESSON Page No
1 ATOMIC STRUCTURE - II 1
2 PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION - II 2
3 p - BLOCK ELEMENTS 3
4 d - BLOCK ELEMENTS 4
5 f - BLOCK ELEMENTS 6
6 COORDINATION COMPOUNDS AND
BIO-COORDINATION COMPOUNDS 7
7 NUCLEAR CHEMISTRY 8
8 SOLID STATE - II 9
9 THERMONYNAMICS - II 10
10 CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM - II 10
11 CHEMICAL KINETICS - II 11
12 SURFACE CHEMISTRY 12
13 ELECTRO CHEMISTRY - I 13
14 HYDROXY DERIVATIVES 15
15
16
ETHERS
CORBONYL COMPOUNDS
co m 17
18
17 CARBOXYLIC ACIDS
I ai . 20
18
o l
ORGANIC NITROGEN COMPOUNDS
s A 22
i L
19 BIOMOLECULES 24
20
l v
GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION MARCH - 2006
a A 26
k
21 GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION JUNE - 2006 28
22
. M
GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION OCTOBER - 2006
w
30
23
24
25
w A
GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION MARCH - 2007
w
GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION JUNE - 2007
N
GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION OCTOBER - 2007
32
34
36
26
27
28
N
GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION MARCH - 2008
.A
GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION JUNE - 2008
GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION OCTOBER - 2008
38
40
42
29
30
31
R
GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION MARCH - 2009
GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION JUNE - 2009
GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION OCTOBER - 2009
44
46
48
32 GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION MARCH - 2010 50
33 GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION JUNE - 2010 52
34 GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION OCTOBER - 2010 54
35 GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION MARCH - 2011 56
36 GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION JUNE - 2011 58
37 GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION OCTOBER - 2011 60
38 GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION MARCH - 2012 62
39 GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION JUNE - 2012 64
40 GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION OCTOBER - 2012 66
41 GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION MARCH - 2013 68
42 GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION JUNE - 2013 70
43 GOVERNMENT EXAMINATION OCTOBER - 2013 72
44 GOVERNMENT P.T.A MODEL QUESTION PAPER I - V 74
CHEMISTRY
INORGANIC CHEMISTRY
1. ATOMIC STRUCTURE - II 2 x 1= 2
Choose the correct answer
3. de-Broglie equation is
co m
mv
a) λ= h b) λ=hmv c)
I hv
λ= m d)
h
λ= mv
ai .
s o l A
i
4. The value of Bohr radius for hydrogen atom is
l v L
a) 0.529 x 10-8cm
. k a
M A
b)0.529 x 10-10cm c)�0.529 x 10-6cm d)�0.529 x 10-12cm
w
5. Which of the following particle having same kinetic energy, would have the maximum de-Broglie wave
length
a) α - particle
ww
N
b) proton A c) β - particle d) neutron
.A N
6. If the energy of an electron in the second Bohr orbit of H-atom is - E, what is the energy of the electron
in the Bohr’s first orbit?
a) 2E b) -4E
R c)
2. PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION - II 1 x 1= 1
Choose the correct answer:-
1. The value of C-C distance found experimentally in a saturated hydrocarbon is
a) 1.34Å b) 1.36Å c) 1.54Å d) 1.56Å
2. On moving down the group, the radius of an ion
a) Decreases b) Increases c) No change d) None of these
3. Effective nuclear charge (Z*) can be calculated by using the formula
a) Z* = Z - S b) Z* = Z + S c)� Z* = S - Z d)�Z = Z* - S
4. Pick the correct statement
a) Carbon having more nuclear charge than boron
b) The size of carbon atoms is larger than boron
c) Carbon forms electron deficient compounds
d) Carbon forms ionic compounds
5. Comparing the ionisation energy of fluorine with carbon, fluorine has
a) higher ionisation energy b) lower ionisation energy
c) same ionisation energy d) none of these
co m
I
6. Among the following which has the maximum ionisation energy
ai .
a) Alkali elements
o l A
b) Alkaline elements
s
c) Halogens d) Noble gases
7. The electron affinity of an atom
l v i L
.
c) is independent of its sizek a
a) directly proportinal to its size
ww A
8. Among the following which has higher electron affinity value
a) Fluorine
w
b) Chlorine
N c) Bromine d) Iodine
of bonded atoms is
.A N
9. The scale which is based on an empirical relation between the energy of a bond and the electrongativities
a) Pauling scale
c) Sanderson’s scale R b) Mulliken’s scale
d) Alfred and Rochow’s scale
10. Electron affinity is expressed in
a) KJ b) J c) KJ mol d) KJ mol-1
11. The bond length of Cl2 molecule is
a) 0.74 b) 1.44 c) 1.98 d) 2.28
12. The order of ionization energy
a)s<p<d<f b) s>p>d>f c) s>d>p>f d) s<d<p<f
13. Across the period, electron affinity
a) decreases b) increases c) decrease and the increases d) increase and then decreases
14. Noble gases have .................. electron affinity
a) High b) Low c) Zero d) Very low
15. When XA>> XB, A - B bond is
a) polar covalent b) non-polar covalent c) Ionic d) metallic
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3. p - BLOCK ELEMENTS 1 x 1= 1
Choose the correct answer:
1. Which of the following does not belong to group 13?
a) B b) Al c) Ge d) In
2. Which of the following is most abundant in earth’s crust?
a) C b) Si c) Ge d) Sn
3.An element which was burnt in limited supply of air to give oxide A which on treatment with water gives
an acid. B Acid B on heating gives acid C which gives yellow precipilate with AgNO3 solution A is
a) SO 2 b) NO 2 c) P2O3 d) SO3
4. The compound with garlic odour is
a)P2 O 3 b)P2 O 5 c) H3PO3 d) H3PO4
5. The shape of PCl5 is
a) pyramidal b) trigonal bipyramidal c) linear d) tetrahedral
6. The compound used as smoke screen
m
a) PCl3 b) PCl5 c) PH3 d) H3PO3
7. Which shows only - 1 oxidation state?
i . co
a) F b) Br
o l
c) Cl
AI d) I
a
is
8. One can draw the map of building on a glass plate by
v L
a) HI b) HF
k al c) HBr
A d) HCl
.
9. Among the halogen acid, the weakest acid is
a) HF b) HCl
ww c) HBr
A M d) HI
w
10. Halogens belong to the group number
N
a) 14 b) 15
.A N
c) 17
11. The noble gases are unreactive because they
a) have same number of electrons
d) 18
R
b) have an atomicity of one
c) are gases with low densities
d) have stable electronic configuration
12. The shape of XeF4 is
a) tetrahedral b) octahedral c) square planar d) pyramidal
13. Which is not known?
a) XeF6 b) XeF4 c) XeO3 d) ArF6
14.The lightest gas which is non-inflammable is
a) He b) H2 c) N2 d) Ar
15. Which of the following has highest first ionisation energy?
a) He b) Ne c) Ar d) Kr
4. d - BLOCK ELEMENTS 2 x 1= 2
Choose the correct answer:
1. The general electronic configuration of d-block element is
a) (n-1)d1-10 ns0-2 b) (n-1) d1-5 ns2 c) (n-1)d0 ns1 d) None of these
2. Formation of coloured ions is possible when compounds contains
a) paired electrons b) unpaired electrons c) lone pairs of electrons d) none the above
3. Paramagnetism is common in
a) p-block elements b) d-block elements c) s-block elements d) f-block elements
4. The colour of Ti(H2O) ion is due
6
3+
A
8. The correct electronic configuration of copper atom is
a) 3d10 4s1 w
b) 3d10 4s2
N c) 3d9 4s2 d) 3d5 4s2 4p4
9. Copper is extracted from
a) cuprite
.A
b) copper glance
N c) malachite d) copper pyrites
R
10. Silver salt used in photography is
a) AgCl b) AgNO3 c) AgF d) AgBr
11. Sodiumthiosulphate is used in photography because of its
a) Oxidizing behaviour b) Reducing behaviour
c) Complexing behaviour d) Photochemical behaviour
12. Excess of sodium hydroxide reacts with zinc to form
a) ZnH2 b) Na2 ZnO2 c) ZnO d) Zn(OH)2
13. Which of the following compounds will not give positive chromyl chloride test?
a) CuCl2 b) HgCl2 c) ZnCl2 d) C6H5Cl
14. Which of the ions will give colourless aqueous solution?
a) Ni2+ b) Fe2+ c) Cu2+ d) Cu+
15. Which of the following compounds is not coloured?
a) Na2CuCl4 b) Na2CdI4 c) K4 [Fe(CN)6 ] d) K3[Fe(CN)6]
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16. In the extraction of Cu, the reaction which does not take place in the Bessemer converter is
a) 2CuFeS2 + O2 Cu2S + FeS + SO2 b) 2Cu2S + 3O2 2Cu2O + 2SO2
c) 2Cu2O + Cu2S 6Cu + SO2 d) 2FeS + 3O2 2FeO + 2SO2
17. Select the wrong statement
a) All cuprous salts are blue in colour
b) Transition metals are highly reactive
c) All cuprous salts are white in colour
d) Mercury is a liquid metal
18. Choose the wrong statment regarding K2Cr2O7
a) It is a powerful oxidizing agent
b) It is used in tanning industry
c) It is soluble in water
d) It reduces ferric sulphate to ferrous sulphate
19. For a transition metal ion, the effective magnetic moment in BM is given by the formula
I
20. The correct statement in respect of d-block elements is
ai .
a) They are all metals
s o l A
b) They sho variable valency
l v i L
k a A
c) They form coloured ions and complex salts
. M
ww
d) All above statement are correct
A
w
21. Which compound is formed when excess of KCN is added to an aqueous solution of copper sulphate
N
a) Cu2 (CN)2
.A N
b) K2 [Cu(CN)6 ] c) K [Cu(CN)2 ]
22. Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired electrons?
d) Cu2 (CN)2 + (CN)2
a) Mn2+
R
b) Ti3+ c) V3+
23. Among the following statement, the incorrect one is
d) Fe2+
5. f - BLOCK ELEMENTS 2 x 1= 2
Choose the correct answer:
1. The electronic configuration of Lanthanides is
a) [Xe]4f0 5d0 6s0 b) [Xe]4f1-7 5d1 6s1
c) [Xe]4f1-14 5d1 6s2 d) [Xe]4f1-14 5d1-10 6s2
2. The electronic configuration of Actinides is
a) [Rn]5f0-14 6d0 7s0 b) [Rn]5f0-14 6d0-2 7s0
c) [Rn]5f0-14 6d0-2 7s1 d) [Rn]5f0-14 6d0-2 7s2
3. The lanthanide contraction is responsible for the fact that
a) Zn and Y have about the same radius b) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state
c) Zr and Hf have about the same radius d) Zr and Zn have the same oxidation state
4. The most common oxidation state of lanthanides is
a) +2 b) +1 c) +3 d) +4
5. Lanthanides are extracted from
a) Limonite b) M onazite c) M agnetite d) Cassiterite
co
6. The elements in which the extra electron enters (n-2) f orbitals are calledm
a) s - block elements
I
b) p - block elements
ai .
c) d - block elements
o l A
d) f - block elements
s
v i
7. The Lanthanides contraction is due to
l L
. k a
a) Perfect shielding of 4f electron
w
c) Perfect shielding of 3d electron d) Imperfect shielding of 3d electron
8. Ceria is used in
a) toys
ww
N
b) tracer bullets
A c) gas lamp materials d) none of the above
a) MnO2 b) CeO2
N
9. .................. is used in gas lamp material
.A c) N2O5 d) Fe2O3
R
10. Alloys of Lanthanides are called as
a) Mish - metals b) Metalloids c) Plate metals d) Actinides
11. Metallothermic processes involving Lanthanides are called as
a) Aluminothermic process b) Lanthanido - thermic process
c) Reduction process d) Oxidation process
12. ................... form oxocations
a) Lanthanides b) Actinides c) Noble gases d) Alkalimetals
k a
9. An example of an ambidentate ligand is
. M A
a) CN- b) Cl-
ww c) NO2-
A
d) I-
w
10. [FeF6]4- is paramagnetic because
a) F-is a weaker ligand N N b) F-is a strong ligand
.A
c) F - is a flexidentate ligand d) F - is a chelating ligand
11. In [Fe (CN)6] the central metal ion is
II 4-
a) Fe b) Fe+2
R c) Fe+3
12. The coordination number of Ni (II) in [Ni(CN)4]2- is
d) CN-
a) 2 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
13. The name of [Pt IV(NH3)2Cl2]2+ is
a) Diamminedichloroplatinum (IV) ion b) Diamminedichloroplanitate (IV)
c) Diamminedichloroplatinum d) Dichlorodiammineplatinum (IV) ion
14. For a compound K4[Fe(CN)6] 4K + [Fe(CN6]4-, the complex ion is
+
17. The type of isomerism found in the complexes [Co(NO2)(NH3)5]SO4 and [Co(SO4)(NH3)5]NO2
a) Hydrate isomerism b) Coordination isomerism
c) Linkage isomerism d) Ionisation
18. Valence bond theory does not explain the property of complex compound
a) geometry b) magnetic c) nature of ligand d) colour
7. NUCLEAR CHEMISTRY 1 x 1= 1
Choose the correct answer:-
1. The phenomenon of radioactivity was discovered by
a) Mada curie b) Pierre curie c) Henry Becquerrel d) Rutherford
2. The most penetrating radiations are
m
a) α rays b) β rays c) γ rays d) All are equally penetrating
c) 4α, 3β
a
d) 8α, 6β
v is L
4. Which one of the following particles is used to bombard 13Al27 to give 15p30 and a neutron
a) α particle
al
b) deuteron
k A c) proton d) neutron
5. The reaction 5B8
w. M
Be8 takes place due to
A
4
a) α decay
ww
b) β decay c) electron capture d) positron decay
6. Radioactivity is due to
N
a) Stable electronic configuration N
b) Stable nucleus
c) Unstable nucleus
R .A
d) Unstable electronic configuration
7. In the following radioactive decay, 92X232 y220 , how many α and β Particles are ejected.
89
10. Which of the following is used as neutron absorber in the nuclear reactor?
a) Water b) Deuterium c) Some compound of uranium d) Cadmium
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY
8. SOLID STATE - II 1 x 1= 1
Choose the correct answer.
1. The number of chloride ions that surrounds the central Na+ ion in NaCl crystal is ..............
a) 12 b) 8 c) 6 d) 4
2. The Bragg’s equation is
a) λ=2d sinθ b) nd=2λsinθ c) 2λ=nd sinθ d) nλ=2d sinθ
3. A regular three dimensional arrangement of indentical points in space is called
a) Unit cell b) Space lattice c) Primitive d) Crystallography
4. The smallest repeating unit in space lattice which when repeated over and again results in the crystal
of the given substance is called
a) Space lattice b) Crystal lattice c) Unit cell d) Isomorphism
5. The crystal structure of CsCl is
a) Simple cubic b) face-centred cubic c) Tetragonal
is L
7. Semiconductors which exhibit conductivity due to the flow of excess negative electrons are called
v
a) Super conductors
al A
b) n-type semiconductors
k
c) p-type semiconductors d) Insulators
. M
8. In the Bragg’s equation for diffraction of X-rays, ‘n’ represents
w
a) The number of moles
ww
N A
b) Avogadro number c) A quantum number
9. The number of close neighbours in a body centred cubic lattice of identical sphares is
d) Order of reflection
a) 6 b) 4
.A N
c) 12 d) 8
10. The crystals which are good conductors of electricity and heat are
a) Ionic crystals
R b) Molecular crystals
11. In a simple cubic cell, each point on a corner is shared by
c) Metallic crystals d) Covalent crystals
a) One unit cell b) Two unit cell c) 8 unit cell d) 4 unit cell
12. The ability of certain ultra cold substances to conduct electricity without resistance is called
a) Semiconductor b) Conductor c) Superconductor d) Insulator
13. The total number of atoms per unit cell is bcc is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
14. Rutile is
a) TiO2 b) Cu2O c) MoS2 d) Ru
15. Semiconductors are used as
a) rectifiers b) transistors c) solar cells d) all the above
16. An example of metal deficiency defect
a) NaCl b) AgCl c) CsCl d) FeS
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9. THERMONYNAMICS - II 2 x 1= 2
Choose the correct answer.
1. The amount of heat exchanged with the surrounding at constant temperature and pressure is called
a) Δ E b) Δ H c) Δ S d) Δ G
2. All the naturally occuring processes proceed spontaneously in a direction which leads to
a) decrease of entropy b) increase in enthalpy
c) increase in free energy d) decrease of free energy
3. In an adiabatic process which of the following is true?
a) q = w b) q = 0 c) ΔE = q d) PΔV = 0
4. When a liquid boils, there is
a) an increase in entropy
b) a decrease in entropy
c) an increase in heat of vapourisation
d) an increase in free energy
5. If ΔG for a reaction is negative, the change is
a) Spontaneous b) Non-spontaneous
co m
c) Reversible
I
d) Equilibrium
ai .
o l A
6. Which of the following does not results in an increase in the entropy?
s
v i L
a) crystallisation of sucrose from solution
l
b) rusting of iron
. k a
M A
ww
c) conversion of ice to water
d) vaporisation of camphor
A
w N
7. In which of the following process, the process is always non-feasible?
a) ΔH>0, ΔS>0
c) ΔH>0, ΔS<0
.A N
b) ΔH<0, ΔS>0
d) ΔH<0, ΔS<0
a) ΔG = ΔH + TΔS
R
8. Change in Gibb’s free energy is given by
b) ΔG = ΔH - TΔS
c) ΔG = ΔH x TΔS d) None of the above
9. For the reaction 2Cl(g) Cl2(g), the signs of Δ H and Δ S respectively are
a) +, – b) +, + c) –,– d) –, +
2. If the equilibrium constants of the following reactions are 2A B is K1 and B 2A is K2, then
a) K1 = 2K2 b) K1 = 1/K2 c) K2 = (K1)2 d) K1 = 1/K22
4. In the equilibrium N2 + 3H2 2NH3 , the maximum yield of ammonia will be obtained with the
process having
a) low pressure and high temperature b) low pressure and low temperature
c) high temperature and high pressure d) high pressure and low temperature
6. Two moles of ammonia gas are introduced into a previously evacuated 1.0 dm3 vessel in which it
partially dissociates at high temperature. At equilibrium 1.0 mole of ammonia remains. The equilibrium
constant Kc for the dissociation is
a) 27/16 (mole dm-3)2 b) 27/8 (mole dm-3)2
c) 27/4 (mole dm-3)2 d) None
co m
.
7. An equilibrium reaction is endothermic if K1 and K2 are the equilibrium constants at T1 and T2
temperature respectively and if T2 is greater than T1 than
l I ai
a) K1 < K2 b) K1 > K2
v is o A
c) K1 = K2
L d) None
k al A
w.
11. CHEMICAL KINETICS
M - II 1 x 1= 1
Choose the correct answer
w w
N A
1. Hydrolysis of an ester by dilute HCl is an example for
(a) Second order reaction
(c) pseudo first order reaction
.A N (b) zero order reaction
(d) first order reaction
R
2. The unit of zero order rate constant is
(a) litre mol–1sec–1 (b) mol litre–1 sec–1 (c) sec–1 (d) litre2 sec–1
3. The excess energy which a molecule must process to becom active is known as
ty
7. Reactions in which the reacting molecules resact in more than one way yielding different set of products
are called
(a) consecutive reactions (b) parallel reactions
(c) opposing reactions (d) chain reactions
8. The half life period of a first order reaction is 10 minutes. Then its rate constant is
(a) 6.93 x 102 min–1 (b) 0.693 x 10–2 min–1
(c) 6.932 x 10–2 min–1 (d) 69.3 x 10–1 min–1
9. For a reaction : aA bB, the rate of reaction is doubled when the concentratin of A is increased
by your times. The rate of reaction is equal to
(a) k [A]a (b) k [A]½ (c) k [A]1/a (d) k [A]
d [N2O5]
10. 2N2O5 4NO2 + O2, = k1[N2O5],
dt
d [NO2] d [O2 ]
= k2 [N2O5] and = k3 [N2O5], the relation between k1, k2 and k3 is
dt dt
(a) 2k1 = 4k2 = k3 (b) k1 = k2 = k3 (c) 2k1 = k2 = 4k3 (d) 2k1 = k2 = k3
o m
11. For a reaction, Ea = 0 and k = 4.2 x 105 sec–1 at 300 K, the value of k at 310K will be
c
(a) 4.2 x 105 sec–1
I
(b) 8.4 x 105 sec–1
ai .
(c) 7.4 x 104 sec–1
o l A
(d) unpredictable
s
l v i L
. k a
12. SURFACE
A
CHEMISTRY
M
3 x 1= 3
Choose the correct answer
w w A
1. The migration of colloidal particles under the influence of an electric field is known as
(a) electroosmosis w N
(b) cataphoresis
(c) electrodialysis N
(d) electrophoresis
.A
2. Which one is the correct factor that explains the increase of rate of reaction by a catalyst
(a) shap selectivity
R
(c) increase of free energy
(b) particle size
(d) lowering of activation energy
3. Fog is a colloidal solution of
(a) gas in liquid (b) liquid in gas (c) gas in solid (d) solid in gas
4. The phenomenon of Tyndall’s effect is not observed in
(a) emulsion (b) colloidal solution
(c) true solution (d) None
5. The Tyndall’s effect associated with colloidal particles is due to
(a) presence of change (b) scattering of light
(c) absorption of light (d) reflection of light
6. In case of physical adsorption, there is desorption when
(a) temperature increases (b) temperature decreases
(c) pressure increases (d) concentration increases
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co m
(a) precipitation (b) coagulation
I i
(c) dialysis
a . (d) filtration
s o l A
l v i
13. ELECTRO CHEMISTRY
L
-I 1 x 1= 1
Choose the correct answer
. k a
M A
1. The process in which chemical change occurs on passing electricity is termed as ................
(a) neutralisation
w w A
(b) hydrolysis (c) electrolysis (d) ionisation
w N
2. The laws of electrolysis were enunciated first by ...................
(a) Dalton (b) Faraday
R
electrode is equal to ........................
(a) equivalent weight
(c) electrochemical equivalent
(b) molecular weight
(d) one gram
4. Faraday’s laws of electrolysis are related to ...............
(a) atomic number of the cation (b) atomic number of the anion
(c) equivalent weight of the electrolyte (d) speed of the cation
5. The specific conductance of a 0.01 M solution of KCl is 0.0014 ohm–1 cm–1 at 25oC. Its equivalent
conductance is ..................
(a) 14 ohm–1 cm2 eq–1 (b) 140 ohm–1 cm2 eq–1
(c) 1.4 ohm–1 cm2 eq–1 (d) 0.14 ohm–1 cm2 eq–1
o
6. The equivalent conductivity of CH3COOH at 25 C is 80 ohm–1 cm2 eq–1 and at infinite dilution 400
ohm–1 cm2 eq–1. The degree of dissociation of CH3COOH is ......................
(a) 1 (b) 0.2 (c) 0.1 (d) 0.3
7. When sodium acetate is added to acetic acid, the degree of ionisation of acetic acid ................
(a) increases (b) decreases (c) does not change (d) becomes zero
8. NH4OH is a weak base because ...............
(a) it has low vapur pressure (b) it is only partially ionised
(c) it is completely ionised (d) it has low density
9. Which one of the following formulae represents Ostwald’s dilution law for a binary electrolyte whose
degree of dissociation is α and concentration C.
(1-α) C α 2C
(a) K = (b) K =
α 1-α
(1-α)C α 2C
(c) K = (d) K =
α2 (1- α)C
10. Ostwald’s dilution law is applicable in the case of the solution of ................
(a) CH3COOH (b) NaCl (c) NaOH (d) H2SO4
11. Which one of the following relationship is correct?
1
(a) pH =
[H+]
(b) pH = log10 [H+]
co m
I ai .
l
1
(c) log10 pH = [H+]
v is o LA
(d) pH = log10
[H+]
l
12. When 10–6 mole of a monobasic strong acid is dissolved in one litre of solvent, the pH of the solution
is ......................
. k a
M A
w
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) less than 6 (d) more than 7
(a) 1 X 10–12 ww
N A
13. When pH of a solution is 2, the hydrogen ion concentration in moles litre - 1 is ..............
(b) 1 X 10–2 (c) 1 X 10–7 (d) 1 X 10–4
18. For the titration between oxalic acid and sodium hydroxide, the indicator used in ...............
(a) potassium permanganate (b) phenolphthalein
(c) litmus (d) methyl orange
co m
I
4. The boiling point of ethyl alcohol should be less than that of
ai .
(a) propane
s o l A
(b) formic acid
(c) dimethyl ether
l v i L
(d) None of the above
. k a A
5. Ethyl alcohol cannot be used as a solvent for CH3MgI because
M
ww
(a) CH3MgI reacts with alcohol giving methane
A
w N
(b) The reaction between them is explosive in nature
(c) CH3MgI is converted to C2H5MgI
.A N
(d) Alcohol is immicible with CH3MgI
intermediate formed is
(a) sulphonium ion
R
6. When alcohols are converted to alkyl chlorides by thionyl chloride in presence of pyridine the
10. The ionization constant of phenol is higher than that of ethanol because
(a) phenoxide ion is bulkier than ethoxide
(b) phenoxide ion is sronger base than ethoxide
(c) phenoxide ion is stablized through delocalisation
(d) phenoxide ion is less stable than ethoxide ion
11. Among the following compounds strongest acid is
(a) HC = CH (b) C6H6 (c) C2H6 (d) CH3OH
12. The most unlikely representation of resonance structures of p-nitrophenoxide ion is
o o- o
o-
(a) (b) (c) (d) -
N N N
N + + +
(-)
o o (-) o o o- o
o o(-)
13. p-nitrophenol is having lower pKa value than phenol because
(a) phenol is more acide than p-nitro phenol
co m
I i .
(b) anion of p-nitrophenol is more stabilised by resonance than that of phenol
a
o l A
(c) degree of ionisation of p-nitro phenol is less than that of phenol
s
v i L
(d) anion of p-nitrophenol is less stable than that of phenol
l
(a) (CH3)3COH a
14. The reaction of Lucas reagent is fast with
. k M
(b) (CH3)2CHOH
A (c) CH3(CH2)2OH (d) CH3CH2OH
ww A
15. When phenol is distilled with Zn dust it gives
(a) benzaldehyde
w N
(b) benzoic acid (c) toluene (d) benzene
.A
(b) benzene (c) phenol (d) toluene
17. ETHERS
co m 2 x 1= 2
Choose the correct answer:
I ai .
s o l A
1. The isomerism exhibited by C2H5OC2H5 and CH3 – O – CH – CH3 is
l v i L |
(a) Functional
. k a
M
(b) metamerism A CH3
(c) position (d) chain
ww A
2. Which one of the following is simple ether?
(a) CH3 – O – C2H5
w N (b) C2H5 – O – CH3
(c) C2H5 – O – C2H5
.A
3. Diethyl ether can be decomposed with
N (d) C3H7 – O – C2H5
(a) HI
(a) very active (b) Replacable (c) oxidising (d) Comparatively inert
5. According to Lewis concept of acids and bases, ethers are
(a) Neutral (b) Acidic (c) Basic (d) Amphoteric
6. Intermolecular hydrogen bonds are not present in
(a) CH3COOH (b) C2H5OC2H5 (c) CH3CH2OH (d) C2H5NH2
7. When ethyl Iodide is treated with dry silver oxide it forms
(a) Ethyl alcohol (b) diethylether (c) silver ethoxide (d) ethylmethyl ether
8. Williamson’s synthesis is an example of
(a) nucleophilic addition (b) electrophilic addition
(c) electrophilic substitution (d) Nucleophilic substitution reaction
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co m
(c) acetone (d) 2-propanol
I ai .
o l
4. Methyl ketones are usually characterised by
s A
(a) the Fehling’s solution
l v i L
(b) the iodoform test
(c) the Schiff’s test
. k a A
(d) the Tollen’s reagent
M
w
5. Which of the following compounds is oxidised to give ethyl methyl ketone?
(a) 2-propanol
ww
6. Formaldehyde polymerises to give
N A
(b) 2-pentanone (c) 1-butanol (d) 2-butanol
(a) paraldehyde
7. Tollen’s reagent is
.A N
(b) paraformaldehyde (c) formalin (d) formic acid
R
(a) ammoniacal cuprous chloride
(c) ammoniacal silver nitrate
(b) ammoniacal cuprous oxide
(d) ammoniacal silver chloride
8. When acetaldehyde is heated with Fehling solution, it gives a precipitate of
(a) Cu2O (b) CuO (c) CuO + Cu2O (d) Cu
9. The compound that does not undergo Cannizzaro reaction is
(a) formaldehyde (b) acetaldehyde
(c) benzaldehyde (d) trimethyl acetaldehyde
12. From which of the following, tertiary butyl alcohol is obtained by the action of methyl magnesium
iodide?
(a) HCHO (b) CH3CHO (c) CH3COCH3 (d) CO2
13. During reduction of aldehydes with hydrazine and C2H5ONa the product formed is
(a) R–CH = N–NH 2
(b) R–C = N
(c) R – C – NH2 (d) R – CH3
||
O
14. Aldol is
(a) 2-hydroxy butanol (b) 3-hydroxy butanol
(c) 3-hydroxy butanal (d) 2-hydroxy butanal
15. In the reduction of acetaldehyde using LiAlH4 the hydride ion acts as
(a) electrophile (b) nucleophile (c) both (a) and (b) (d) a free radical
l v i
(d) aldehydes act as reducing agents
L
. k a A
17. A cyanohydrin of a compound X on hydrolysis gives lactic acid. THe X is
M
(a) HCHO
ww
(b) CH3CHO
A (c) (CH3)2 CO (d) C6H5CH2CHO
w N
18. The IUPAC name of CH3 – C = CH – C – CH3 is
|
CH3
(a) 4-methylpent-3-en-2-one
O
.A N
||
(b) 2-methylpent-3-en-2-one
(c) 3-methylpent-2-en-1one
R (d) None of these
s l
o ACIDSLA 1 x 1= 1
v
19. CARBOXYLIC
l i
Choose the correct answer.
. k a
M A
(a) C2H5OH
w w
1. Which of the following is least acidic
(b) CH3COOH
A (c) C6H5OH (d) ClCH2COOH
w N
2. Weakest acid among the following is
(a) Acetic acid
.A N
(b) Phenol
3. Ester formation involves the reaction of
(c) Water (d) Acetylene
R
(a) an aldehyde and a ketone
(b) an alcohol with RMgX
(c) Two molecules of an acid with dehydrating agent
(d) an acylhalide with an alcohol
4. Heating a mixture of sodium acetate and soda lime gives
(a) methane (b) ethane (c) acetic acid (d) oxalic acid
5. The acid which reduces Tollen’s reagent is
(a) acetic acid (b) benzoic acid (c) formic acid (d) oxalic acid
CH3
|
6. The IUPAC name of CH3 – CH2 – CH – COOH is
(a) α - methyl butric acid (b) 3-methyl butanoic acid
(c) 2-methyl butanoic acid (d) Iso pentanoic acid
I ai .
l
12. When chlorine is passed through acetic acid in presence of red P, it forms.
(a) acetyl chloride
v is o A
(b) Trichloro acetaldehyde
L
(c) Trichloro acetic acid
ww
N A
(b) n-hexanol (c) phenol (d) both (a) and (c)
14. When propanoic acid is treated with aqueous sodium - bicarbonatate, CO2 is liberated. The “C” of
CO2 comes from
(a) methyl group
(c) methylene group
.A N (b) carboxylic acid group
(d) bicarbonate
R
15. Carboxylic acids are more acidic than phenol and alcohol because of
(a) inter molecular hydrogen bonding (b) formation of dimers
(c) highly acidic hydrogen (d) greater resonance stabilisation of their conjugate base
16. Among the following the strongest acid is
(a) ClCH2COOH (b) Cl3CCOOH (c) CH3COOH (d) Cl2CHCOOH
17. Which of the following compound is optically active?
(a) CH3CH2COOH (b) HOOC–CH2–COOH
(c) CH3CH(OH)COOH (d) Cl2CHCOOH
18. CH3CH(OH)COOH ? The product is
H2O2/Fe2+
(a) CH3COCOOH (b) CH3CH2COOH
(c) CH3CHOHCHO (d) HOOCCH2COOH
co m
.
3. In nitro alkanes –NO2 group is converted to – NH2 group by the reaction with
(a) Sn/HCl (b) Zn dust
l I
(c) Zn/NH4Cl
ai (d) Zn/NaOH
v is o A
4. When nitromethane is reduced with Zn dust + NH4Cl in neutral medium, we get
L
(a) CH3NH2
k al A
(b) C2H5NH2
(c) CH3NHOH
w. (d) C2H5COOH
M
5. The compound that is most reactive towards electrophilic nitration is
(a) Toluene
ww
(b) benzene
N A (c) benzoic acid (d) nitrobenzene
.A (b) 1-nitro-2-propanol
(d) 3-nitro propanol
(a) aniline
R
7. Which of the following compounds has the smell of bitter almonds?
(b) nitro methane
(c) benzene sulphonic acid (d) nitrobenzene
8. Nitration of nitrobenzene results in
(a) o-dinitro benzene (b) 1,3,5-trinitro benzene
(c) p-dinitro benzene (d) m-dinitro benzene
9. Nitrobenzene on electrolytic reduction in con. sulphuric acid, the intermediate formed is
(a) C6H5NH – NHC6H5 (b) C6H5 – NHOH
(c) C6H5 – N = N – C6H5 (d) C6H5.HSO4
10. Electrophile used in the nitration of benzene is
(a) hydronium ion (b) sulphonic acid
(c) nitronium ion (d) bromide ion
11. The reduction of CH3 – CH2 – C = N with sodium and alcohol results in the formation of
(a) CH3 – CH– CH3 (b) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – OH + N2
NH2
(c) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – NH2 (d) CH3 – CH2 – NH2
12. The basic character of amines is due to the
(a) tetrahedral structure
(b) presence of nitrogen atom
(c) lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom
(d) high electronegativity of nitrogen
13. The organic compound that undergoes carbylamine reaction is
(a) (C2H5)2NH (b) C2H5NH2
(c) (C2H5)3N (d) (C2H5)4 N+ I–
14. Primary amine acts as
(a) Electrophile (b) lewis base
co m
.
(c) Lewis acid (d) Free radical
l I
15. Oxidation of aniline with acidified potassium dichromate gives
ai
(a) p-benzo quinone
v is o A
(b) benzoic acid
L
(c) benzaldehyde
k al A
(d) benzyl alcohol
.
16. Which one of the following is a secondary amine?
(a) aniline
ww M
(b) diphenyl amine
A
(c) sec.butylamine
w N (d) tert.butylamine
17. C6H5NH2
(a) C6H5Cl
NaNO 2/HCl
N
X. Identify X.
.A
(b) C6H5NHOH
(c) C6H5N2Cl R(d) C6H5OH
18. Which of the following will not undergo diazotisation?
(a) m-toluidine (b) aniline
(c) p-amino (d) benzyl amine
19. Anilin differs from ethylamine by the reaction with
(a) metallic sodium
(b) an alkyl halide
(c) chloroform and caustic potash
(d) nitrous acid
20. When aqueous solution of benzene diazonium chloride is boiled the product formed is
(a) benzyl alcohol (b) benzene + N2
(c) phenol (d) phenyl hydroxylamine
21. BIOMOLECULES 2 x 1= 2
Choose the correct answer.
1. Which is a mono saccharide among the following
(a) Sucrose (b) Cellulose (c) Maltose (d) Glucose
2. Identify the reducing sugar.
(a) Sucrose (b) Cellulose (c) Starch (d) Glucose
3. Sucrose is not
(a) a di saccharide (b) a non - reducing sugar
(c) hydrolysed to only glucose (d) hydrolysed to glucose & fructose
4. Sucrose contains glucose and fructose linked by
(a) C1 – C1 (b) C1 – C2 (c) C1 – C4 (d) C1 – C6
5. Glucose is not oxidised to gluconic acid by
(a) Br2/H2O (b) Fehling solutions (c) Tollen’s reagent (d) Conc. HNO3
6. Inversion of sucrose refers to
(a) oxidation of sucrose
o m
(b) reduction of sucrose
c
I
(c) hydrolysis of sucrose to glucose and fructose
ai .
(d) polymerisation of sucrose
o l A
7. Glucose forms __________with acetic anhydride and sodium acetate.
s
(a) di acetate
v i
(b) tetra acetate
l L (c) penta acetate (d) hexa acetate
k a
8. The amino acid without chiral carbon is
. M A
(a) Glysine
ww
(b) Alanine
9. The building block of proteins are
A
(c) Proline (d) Thyrosine
.A
(a) amino acid forms Z witter ion
N (b) has isoelectric point
(c) dual behaviours
R
11. Two amino acids say A, B - react to give
(d) amino acid is insoluble in NaOH solution
(a) two dipeptides (b) three dipeptides (c) four dipeptides (d) only one
12. A di peptide does not have
(a) two peptide units (b) portions of two amino acids
(c) an amido group (d) salt like structure
13. Proteins are not sensitive to
(a) acids (b) bases (c) elevated temperature (d) water
14. Denaturation does not involve
(a) breaking up of H - bonding in proteins
(b) the loss of biological action of enzyme
(c) the loss of secondary stucture
(d) loss of primary structure of proteins
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.
22. Which is not a saturated fatty acid?
(a) Palmitic acid
l
(b) Stearic acid
I ai
(c) Olei acid (d) Glyceric acid
is o
23. Alkaline hydrolysis of cooking oil gives
v LA
(a) soap (b) glycerol
k al A
(c) fatty acid (d) both (a) and (b)
24. Hair and nail contains
(a) cellulose
w.
(b) fat M
(c) keratin (d) lipid
ww
N A
25. Important constituent of cell wall is
(a) lipid (b) cellulose
R
ALL THE BEST
co m d) non-sugar
a) meso-oxalic acid
AI
6. Oxidation of glycerol with bismuth nitrate gives
b) glyceric acid
ol ai .
c) tartronic acid
al v is
A L d) both (b) and (c)
7. According to lewis concept of acid and bases, ethers are
a) neutral
. k
b) acidic
w M c) basic d) amphoteric
ww A
8. The compound mixed with ethanol to serve as substitute for petrol is
N
N
a) methoxy methane b) ethoxy ethane c) methanol d) ethanal
A
9. Aldol is
a) 2 - hydroxy butanol
c) 3-hydroxy butanal
R . H2O2/Fe 2+
b) 3-hydroxy butanol
d) 2-hydroxy butane
co m
I .
a) Scandium b) titanium c) zinc d) lanthanum
ai
l A
22. The elements in which extra electron enter (n-2)f orbital are
a) s-block elements
is o L
b) p-block elements
c) d-block elements
al v Ad) f-block elements
. k M
23. The isotope used as a power source in long mission space probes is
w
a) U-235 b) Pu-235
ww N A c) Pu-238 d) U-238
24. The type of isomerism found in the complexes (Pt (NH3)4 [CuCl4] and (Cu(NH3)4 [PtCl4]
a) ionization isomeirsm
c) linkage isomerism
.A N b) co-ordination isomerism
d) ligand isomerism
a) 24 hours
R
25. After 24 hours 0.125g of the initial quantity of 1g of a radioactive isotope is left out. The half - life
period is
b) 12 hours c) 8 hours d) 16 hours
26. Dual character of an electron was explained by
a) Bohr b) Heisenberg c) De Broglie d) Pauli
27. The momentum of a particle which has De Broglie wavelength of 1Ao ( h = 6.626 x 10-34 Kgm2s-1) is
a) 6.66 x 10-23 Kg ms-1 b) 6.66 x 10-24 Kg ms-1
c) 6.66 x 10-34 Kg ms-1 d) 66.6 x 10-23 Kg ms-1
28. The order of ionization energy is
a) s < p < d < f b) s > p > d > f c) s > d > p > f d) s < d < p < f
29. The general electronic configuration of carbon family is
a) ns2 np2 b) ns2 np3 c) ns2 np1 d) ns2 np4
30. Which of the following compounds will not positive chromyl chloride test?
a) Cu Cl2 b) C6H5Cl c) Zn Cl2 d) HgCl2
co m
I
6. Semiconductors which exhibit conductivity due to the flow of excess negatively charged electron are
called
ai .
a) Super conductors
v is o l
LA
b) n-type semiconductors
A
c) p-type semicondictors d) insulators
al
7. The amount of heat exchanged with the surrounding at constant temperature and pressure is called
k
a) Δ E
w.
b) Δ H
A M c) Δ S d) Δ G
ww N
8. If Δ G of a reaction is negative, the change is
N
a) spontaneous b) non - spontaneous c) reversible d) none of these
.A
9. For the homogenous gaseous reaction at 600K 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g), the
equilibrium constant Kc has the unit
a) (mol dm-3)-1
R b) mol dm-3 c) (mol dm-3)-4 d) (mol dm-3)-2
10. If the equilibrium constant for the formation of a product is 25, the equilibrium constant for the
decomposition of the same product is
1
a) 25 b) c) 5 d) 625
25
11. De Broglie equation is
a) λ = mv / h b) λ = hmv c) λ = hv / m d) λ = h / mv
12. The bond order of nitrogen molecule is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
13. Effective nuclear charge Z* can be calculated using the formula
a) Z* = Z - S b) Z* = Z + S c) Z* = S - Z d) Z = Z* - S
14. The metalloid among the following is
a) Pb b) P c) Ge d) Sn
15. The chemical composition of slag formed during the smelting process in the extraction of copper is
a) Cu2O + FeS b) Fe SiO3 c) Cu Fe S2 d) Cu2S + FeO
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o l A
23. Decomposition of hydrogen peroxide is retarded in the presence of
s
a) alcohol
v i
b) glycerin
l L c) MnO2 d) MO
24. An example of gel is
. k a
M A
w
a) Paint b) Pumice - Stone c) Milk d) curd
a) methyl orange ww N A
25. The indicator suitable for the titration of oxalic acid against NaOH is
b) potassium permanganate
c) Phenophthalein
.A N d) litmus
26. The transition element showing maximum oxidation state is
a) Sc
R
b) Ti
27. Elements that form oxocations are
c) Os d) Zn
co m
a reaction is
o l AI ai .
6. The first order rate constant of a reaction is 0.0693 min-1. Then the required for 50% completion of
a) 10 min b) 1 min
l v is
A L c) 100 min
7. In case of physical adsorption, there is desorption when
a
d) 50 min
a) Temperature increase
w. k M
b) Temperature decrease
c) Pressure increase
ww N
8. Smoke is a colloidal solution of A d) concentration increase
a) gas in solid
.A N
b) solid in gas
9. Colloidal medicine are more effective because
c) gas in liquid d) liquid in gas
16. The circumference of the circular orbit of electron is an integral multiple of its
a) frequency b) momentum c) mass d) wavelength
17. The nature of hybridization in IF7 molecule is
a) Sp2d2 b) Sp3d4 c) Sp3d3 d) sp2d4
18. On moving down a group, the radius of an ion
a) decreases b) increase
c) first increases and then decreases d) remains a constant
19. The toxin element of boron family is
a) boron b) indium c) thallium d) gallium
20. The general outer electronic configuration of d block element is
a) (n - 1) d1-10 b) (n - 1) d1-10 ns1-2 c) (n - 1) d10 ns1-2 d) (n - 1)d5 ns1
21. The crystal structure of CsCl is
a) simple cube b) face - centred cube
c) body - centred cube d) edge centred cube
22. Change in Gibbs free energy is given by
co m
a) Δ G = Δ H + T Δ S
o l AI b) Δ G = Δ H -T Δ S
ai .
L
c) Δ G = Δ H. T Δ S d) none of these
v is
A
23. For the reaction constant 2Cl(g) Cl2(g) the signs of Δ H and Δ S are respectively.
k al
M
a) +, - b) +, + c) -, - d) -, +
w.
A
24. If the equilibrium constants of the reactions 2A B is K1and B 2A is K2, then
ww N
a) K1=2K2 b) K1= 1/K2 c) K1 = ( K2) 2
d) K1= (1/K1) 2
N
25. When Δ ng in a homogeneous gaseous equilibrium is positive, then
.A
a) Kp = Kc b) Kp < Kc c) Kp > Kc d) Kp = Kc / 2
R
26. The characteristic odour of lower phenols is _________
a) carbolic acid b) fruity c) oil of bitter almonds d) rotten fish
27. Oxygen atom of ether is
a) Very active b) inert c) oxidizing d) replaceable
28. Diethyl ether behaves as a
a) Lewis acid b) lewis base c) neutral compound d) bronsted acid
29. The formation of a cyanohydrins with a ketone is example of
a) electrophilic substitution b) nucleophilic addition
c) nuclerophilic substitution d) electrophilic addition
30. The isomerism exhibited by CH3CH2COOH and CH3COOCH3 is
a) metamerism b) functional isomerism
c) chain isomerism d) position isomerism
al v is
A L
d) 2-methyl -2-propanol.
7. According to Lewis concept of acids and bases, ethers are
a) acidic
w. k
b) basic
M c) neutral d) amphoteric
ww N A
8. Zeisel’s method of detection and estimation of alkoxy group in alkaloids involves the reaction of ether
with
a) HI b) Cl2
.A N c) PCl5
9. Schiff’s reagent gives pink colour with
d) AlCl3
a) acetone
R
b) acetaldehyde c) ethanol
10. The acid that cannot be prepared from Grignard reagent is
a) Formic acid b) Acetic acid c) propionic acid
d) ether.
d) Benzoic acid
11. 50% of a fist order reaction is completed in 20 minutes. The time required for 75% completion is
a) 60 minutes b) 10 minutes c) 40 minutes d) 80 minutes
12. Colloids are purified by
a) precipitation b) coagulation c) dialysis d) filtration
13. In case of physical adsorption, there is desorption when
a) temperature decreases b) temperature increases
c) pressure increases d) concentration increases
14. Fog is a colloidal solution of
a) liquid in gas b) gas in Liquid c) gas in solid d) solid in gas.
15. The indicator used in the titration of ammonium hydroxide with hydrochloric aicd is
a) KMnO b) Methyl oranre c) phenolphthalein d) Litmus.
16. An ion leaves its regular site and occupies a position in the space between the lattice sites. This defect
is called as
a) Schottky defect b) Frenkal defect c) Impurity defect d) Vacancy defect
17. When a liquid boils, there is
a) an increase in entropy b) a decrease in entropy
c) an increase in heat of vaporisation d) an increase in free energy
18. The amount of heat exchanged with the surroundings at constant pressure is called
a) Δ E b) Δ H c) Δ S d) Δ G
19. In the reversible reaction 2HI H2 + I2, Kp is
a) greater than kc b) less then kc c) equal to kc d) zero
20. Which of the following gaseous equlibria is favoured by increase temperature ?
a) N2O 4 2NO2; Δ H =+59 kJ mol-1
b) N2+ 3H2 2NH3; Δ H =-22 k cal mol-1
c) 2SO2+ O2 2SO3; Δ H =-47 k cal mol-1
d) Both (b) and (c)
co m
21. Bordeaux mixture contanins
a) AgNO3+HNO3
o l
b) ZnSO4+H2SO4
AI ai .
c) CuSO4+Ca(OH)2 d) KMnO4+HCl
a) MnO2
al
b) CeO2 is
22. The compound used in gas lamp meterial is
v A Lc) N2O5 d) Fe2O3
. k
23. The radioactive lanthanide is
w M
a) Gadolinium
ww N
24. An example of a chelating ligand isA
b) Lutetium c) promethium d) Cerium
a) chloro
25. Radioactivity is due to
.A
b) Bromo
N c) en d) NO2-
c) unstable nucleus R
a) Stable electronic confiuration b) stable nucleus
d) unstable elctronic configuration.
26. Which of the particles having same kinetic enargy, would have the maximum de Brogile de wavelength.
a) Proton b) neutron c) α particle d) β particle
27. Inter-molecular hydrogen bonding is present in
a) HF b) H2o c) ethanol d) all of these
28. The scale which is based on an empirical realition between the energy of a bond and the
electronegativities of bonded atoms is that of
a) Pauling b) Mulliken d) Sanderson d) Alfred Rochow.
29. An element is burnt in limited supply of air to given oxide A which on treatment with water gives an acld
B. Acid B on hearting gives and C which gives yellow prectipilite with silver nitatate Solution. Oxide A
is
a) P2O3 b) SO2 c) CO2 d) NO2
30. The ion with maximum number of unpaired electons is
a) Mg2+ b) Ti3+ c) V3+ d) Fe2+
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a) α -hydroxy acid b) α -amino acid
o l AI
6. The compound which reacts fastest with Lucas reagent is ai .
c) β -hydroxy acid d) β-amino acid
a) butan -1-ol
c) 2-methyl-1- propanol
al v is
A L
b) butan-2-ol
d) 2-methyl-2- propanol.
. k M
7. According to Lewis concept of acids and bases, ethers are
w
a) acidic
ww
b) basic
N A c) neutral d) amphotreic.
N
8. The ether used in perfumery is
.A
a) dithyl ether b) dimethyl ether c) methyl phenyl ether d) diphenyl ether
9. Tertiary butyl alcohol can be prepared by treating methyl magnesium iodide with
R
a) formaldehyde ( HCHO )
c) acctone ( CH3COCH3 )
b) acetaldehyde ( CH3CHO )
d) carbon dixdde ( CO2 )
10. The strongest acid among the following is
a) Cl CH2 COOH b) Cl3 C COOH c) CH3COOH d) Cl2 CH COOH
11. Hydrolysis of an ester by dilute HCI is an example for
a) zero order rection b) first order rection
c) pseudo - first order rection d) second order rection
12.Colloidal modicines are more effective because
a) they are clean b) they are aesy to prepare
c) the germs move towards them d) they are easily assimilated and absorbed
13. Which type of colloid is a sol?
a) Solid in liquid b) liquid in solid c) Solid in Solid d) Gas in Solid
14. The platinum catalyst used in the oxidation of SO2 by contact process is poisoned by
a) As2O3 b) V2O5 c) Fe2O3 d) CuCl2.
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15. If 0.2 ampere can deposit 0.1978 g of copper in 50 minutes, how much of copper will be deposited
by 600 coulombs?
a) 19.78 g b) 1.978 g c) 0.1978 g d) 197.8 g.
16. In a simple cubic cell, each point in a corner is shared by
a) one unit cell b) two unit cells c) four unit cells d) eight unit cells.
17. When a liquid boils, there is
a) an increase in entropy b) a decrease in entropy
c) an increase in free energy d) an increase in heat of vaporisation.
18. The entropy change involved in the process of H2O (s) H2O (l) at 00c and 1atm pressure
involving Δ H fusion = 6008 J mol-1 is
a) 22.007J mol-1 K-1 b) 22.007J mol K-1
c) 220.07 J mol-1 K-1 d) 2.2007 J mol K-1
19. In an endothermic equilibrium reaction. if K1 and K2 are the equilibrium constants at T1 and T2
temperatures repectivly and if T2 is greater than T1 than
m
a) K1 < K2 b) K1 > K2 c) K1 = K2 d) none of these.
co
I
20. The maximum yield of ammonia by Haber’s process is
ai .
A
a) 78 % b) 97% c) 37% d) 89%
o l
s L
21. K2Cr2O7 reacts with KI and dilute sulphuric acid and liberates
v i
l A
a) O2 b) I2 c) H2 d) SO2
k a
M
22. The oxide used in gas lamp material is
w.
A
a) MnO2 b) N2O5 c) CeO2 d) Fe2O3
ww N
23. Radioactive element of lanthanide is
a) Cerium
.A N
b) Promethium
24. In [Fe(CN)6]-4 the central metal ion is
c) Gadolinium d) Lutetium.
R
a) Fe b) Fe +2
c) Fe+3 d) (CN)-
25. When 7N15 is bombarded with a proton it gives 6C12 and
a) α -paeticle b) β-particle c) neutron d) proton.
26. The hybridisation involved in XeF6 is
a) sp3 d3 b) sp3 d2 c) sp3 d d) sp3
27.Intramolecular hydrogen bonding is present in
a) m- nitrophenol b) o- nitrophenol c) p- nitrophenol d) none of these.
28. When XA>>XB, A-B boud is
a) polar covalent b) non- poar covallent c) ionic d)metallic.
29. Which of the following does not belong to group 14?
a) C b) Si c) Ga d) pb.
30. The transition element with the lowest atomic number is
a) Zn b) Sc c) Ti d) La.
o l AI
7. The phenomenon of Tyndall’s effect is not observed in
ai .
s L
a) emulsion b) colloidal Solution c) true solution d) none of these.
v i
l A
8. Coconut charcoal has a great capacity of the ___________ of gases.
k a
M
a) adsorption b) absorption c) desorption d) all of these.
w.
A
9. Emulsifying agent is used for
ww N
a) precipitation of an emulsion b) coagulation of an emulsion
N
c) stabilization of an emulsion d) none of these.
.A
10.When one coulmb of electricity is passed through an electrolyte solution the mass deposited on the
electrode is equal to
a) equivalent weight
11. CCl3 NO2 is used as
R b) molecular weight c) electrochemical equivalent d) one gram
A ol a
L
a) +, - b) +, + c) - , - d) -, +
v is
A
24. In a reaction 2O3 3O2 the value of Kc is
[O3]3
k al
[O2]2 [O2]3 [O3]
a)
[O2]2
b)
w.[O3] 3
AM [O3]
c)
2
[O2]
d)
ww N
25. In the synthesis of NH3 between N2 and H2 reaction the unit of Kp is
N
a) lit2 mol-2 b) atm-2 c) lit atm-1 d) atm-1
A
26. A compound that reacts fastest with Lucas reagent is
a) butan -1-ol
R .
c) 2-methyl propan -1-ol
b) butan-2-ol
d) 2-methyl propan-2-ol
27. According to Lewis concept of acids and bases, ethers are
a) neutral b) acidic c) basic d) amphoteric.
28.Which among the follwing is a an unsymmetrical ether?
a) C6H5-O-C6H5 b) C2H5-O-C2H5 c) CH3-O-CH3 d) C6H5-O-CH3
29. schiff’s reagent gives pink colour with
a) acetone b) acetaldehyde c) ethyl alcohol d) methyl acetate.
30. Which order of arrangement is correct in terms of the strength of the acid?
a) CH3 CH2 COOH > CH3 COOH < HCOOH < ClCH2 COOH
b) ClCH2 COOH < HCOOH < CH3 COOH < CH3 CH2 COOH
c) CH3 CH2 COOH < CH3 COOH < HCOOH < ClCH2 COOH
d) HCOOH > CH3 CH2 COOH < CH3 COOH > ClCH2 COOH
a) 20 min
v is
b) 2000 min
al A L c) 250 sec
7. The Tyndall effect is associated with colloidal particle due to
d) 200 min
a) scattering of light
w. k M b) presence of charge
ww
c) diffusion of light
N A d) reflection of light
N
8. Colloids are purified by
.A
a) precipitation b) coagulation c) dialysis d) filtration.
9. Which one of the following factors is false regarding catalyst?
R
a) samll quantity is enough
c) Remains unchanged in mass and chemical composition
b) Initiate the reaction
d) Specific in its action.
10. When pH of a solution is 2. the hydrogen ion concentration in moles litre-1 will be
a) 1x10-12 b) 1x10-4 c) 1x10-7 d) 1x10-2
11. The -NO2 group in nitro-alkane is converted into-NH2 group by the reagent
a) Zn / NH4Cl b) Zn dust c) Sn / HCl d) Zn / NaOH.
12. The organic compound that undergoes carbylamine reaction is
a) (C2 H5)2 NH b) C2 H5NH2 c) (C2 H5)3 N d) (C2 H5)4 N+ I-
13. Use of chloropicrin is as
a) Explosive b) Dye c) Anaesthetic d) Sterilizing agent.
14. The amino acid without chiral carbon is
a) Glycine b) Alanine c) Proline d) Tyrosine.
15. Sorbitol and Mannitol are
a) isomers b) polymers c) epimers d) dimers
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a) spontaneous
c) reversible
l AI
b) non- spontaneous
d) irreversible
o ai .
a) are path functions
al is
A L
23. Entropy (s) and the entropy change (Δ s) of a process
v b) are state functions
c) are constants
w. k M d) have no values
a) H2 (g) + I2 (g)
ww N A
24. Which one of the following has-negavtive value for Δ ng?
2 HI (g)
b) PCl5 (g)
c) 3 H2 (g) + N2 (g)
.A N
PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)
2 NH3 (g)
a) dynamic
R
d) 2 H2 O (g) + 2Cl2 (g)
25. State of a chemical equilibrium is
b) Stationary
4 HCl (g) + O2 (g)
o m
6. In a first order reaction the concentration of the reactant is increased by 2 times. The rate of the reaction
c
is increased by
a) 2 times b) 4 times
o l AI c) 10 times
ai . d) 6 times
. k M
c) they are easily assimilated and adsorbed
w
d) the germs move towards them
a) Shape selectivty
ww N A
8. Which one is correct factor that explains the increase of reaction by a catalyst?
b) particle size
c) Increase of free energy
313.6
16. En = , En= -34.84, n value is
n2
a) 4 b) 3 c)2 d) 1
17.water exists in liquid state. This is due to
a)high boiling point b)low boiling point
c)freezing point is zero d) hydrogen bond.
18. Effective nuclear charge is given by the equation
a) z * = z - s b) z * = z + s c) z * = s - z d) z = z * - s
19.the compound used to arrest the bleeding is
a) K2SO4 b) potash alum c) Al2(SO4)3 d) KI
20. The number of unpaired electrons in, Ti3+ is 1. Its magnetic moment in BM is
a)1.414 b) 2 c) 1.732 d) 3
co m
21. In Bragg’s equation n represents
o l AI ai .
L
a) number of moles b) Avogadro number
v is
A
c) quantum number d) order of reflection
k al
22. Change in Gibbs free energy is given by
a) Δ G = Δ H+T Δ S
w.
A M b) Δ G= Δ H -T Δ S
ww N
c) Δ G = Δ H x T Δ S a) Δ G= T Δ S + Δ H
N
23. H2O(l) H2O(g). In this process the entropy
.A
a) remains constant b) decreases c) increases d) becomes zero
R
24. State of chemical equilibrium is
a) dynamic b) stationary c) none of these d) both (a) and (b)
25. H2(g)+I2(g) 2HI(g). The equilibrium constant Kc for this reaction is 16. Kp value is
1
a) b) 4 c) 64 d) 16
16
26. The reaction of ethylene glycol with PI3 gives
a) ICH2 CH2I b) CH2 = CH2 c) CH2 = CHI d) ICH = CHI
27. The number of ether isomers possible for C4 H10O is
a) 7 b) 5 c) 4 d) 3
28. Oxygen atom of ether is
a) more reactive b) replaceable c) oxidising d) comparatively inert
29. The compound that does not reduce Fehling solution is
a) formaldehyde b) acetaldehyde c) benzaldehyde d) propionaldehyde
30. Ethylene dicyanide on hydrolysis gives
a) oxalic acid b) succinic acid c) adipic acid d) propionic acid
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a) NaCl b) AgCl
o l AI
c) CsCl
7. If Δ G for a reaction is negative, the change is i
d) FeS
a .
a) spontaneous
v is
A L
b) non-spontaneous
al
c) reversible d) irreversible
8. The entropy change for the process, water (liq) to water (vap) involving Δ H(vap) =40850 J mol-1 at 373K
is
w. k M
ww
a) 22.007J mol -1 K -1
c) 109.52J mol -1 K -1
N A b) 7.307J mol -1 K -1
d) 0.2287J K -1
9. In the reversible reaction 2HI
a) greater than Kc
.A N H2 + I2, Kp is
b) less than Kc c) equal to Kc d) zero
c) 5000C to 5500C
R
10. The optimum range of temperature used in contact process for the manufacture of SO3 is
a) 4000C to 4500C b) 18000C to 27000C
d) 3500C to 4500C
11. Dual character of an electron was explained by
a) Bohr b) Heisenberg c) de Broglie d) Pauli
12. Inter- molecular hydrogen bonding is present in
a)o-nitrophenol b)salicylic acid
c) o- hydroxy benzaldehyde d) hydrogen fluoride
13. Which among the following has higher electron affnity value?
a) Fluorine b) chlorine c)bromine d)iodine
14.The compound used in smoke screen is
a) PCl3 b) PCl5 c) PH3 d) H3 PO3
15.The Catalyst used in the manufacture of polythene is
a) V2O5 b) Fe c) Mo d) TiCl4.
NaNO 2
17. C6 H5 NH2 X. Identify X.
HCl 0oC
a) C6 H5 Cl b) C6 H5 NHOH c) C6 H5 N2Cl d) C6 H5 OH
18. Which of the following will not undergo Hofmann’s bromamide reaction?
a) Ethanamide b) Propanamide
c) Methanamide d) Phenyl methanamide
19. Glucose is not oxidised to gluconic acid by
a) Br2 / H2O b) Fehling’s solution
c) Tollen’s reagent d) Conc. HNO3
20. The optically inactive amino acid is
a) glycine b) alanine c) proline d) phenyl alanine
m
21. Decomposition of nitrogen pentoxide CCl4 is an example for
co
I
a) second order reaction b) third order reaction
ai .
A
c) zero order reaction d) first order reaction
o l
s L
22. Fog is the colloidal solution of
v i
l A
a) gas in liquid b) liquid in gas c) gas in solid d) solid in gas
k a
. M
23. An example of lyophilic colloid is
a) Sulphur in water
w A
b) phosphorus in water
ww N
c) starch d) all of these
24. Colloids are purified by
a) precipitation
.A N
b) coagulation c) dialysis d) filtration
R
25. When 10-6 mole of a monobasic strong acid is dissolved in one litre of solvent,the pH of the solution is
a) 6 b) 7 c) 4 d) less than 6
26.The correct electronic configuration of chromium is
a) [Ar] 3d6 4s0 b) [Ar] 3d5 4s1 c) [Ar] 3d4 4s2 d) [Ar] 3d3 4s2 4p1
27. The maximum oxidation state exhibited by lanthanides is
a) + 3 b) + 4 c) + 6 d) + 7
28. ThO2 is used in
a) toys b) tracer bullets c) gas lamp materials d) dyeing cotton
29. An example of bidentate chelating ligand is
a) NO-2 b) NO-3 c) en d) SO42-
30. Half -life period of a radioactive element is 1500 years. The value of disintegration constant in terms
of seconds is
a) 0.1465 x 10-10sec-1 b) 0.2465 x 10-10sec-1
c) 0.1465 x 10-8sec-1 d) 0.3645 x 10-10sec-1
co m
I .
a) sucrose b) cellulose c) glucose d) starch
ai
l A
5. The amino acid without chiral carbon is
a) Alanine b) Glycine
is o L
c) proline d) Thyrosine
a) kieselghur
al v
6. The active component of dynamite is
b) nitroglycerine
A c) nitrbenzene d) trinitrotoluene
w. k
7. Anisole on bromination yields
M
a) m- bromoanisole
ww N A
b) o-bromoanisole
8. Diethyl ether can be decomposed with
c) o-&p-bromoanisole d) benzoic acid
a) HI b) KMnO4
.A N c) NaOH
9. The compound that does not undergo cannizzaro reaction is
d) H2O
R
a) formaldehyde b) benzaldehyde c) acetaldehyde d) trimethyl acetal dehyde
10. Which one of the following is least acidic?
a) C2 H5 OH b) CH3 COOH c) C6 H5 OH d) ClCH2 COOH
11. The excess energy which a molecule possesses to become active is known as
a) Kinetic energy b) potential energy c) activation energy d) threshold energy
12. In the reaction between oxalic acid and potassium permanganate, in the presence of dil. H2SO4
__________acts as an autocatalyst.
a) K2SO4 b) MnSO4 c) MnO2 d) Mn2O3
13. In the case of physical adsorption, there is desorption when
a) temperature increases b) temperature decreases
c) pressure increases d) concentration increases
14. The blue colour of the sky is due to
a) Tyndall effect b) Brownian movement c) electrophoresis d) electro-osmosis
15. Faraday’s laws of electrolysis are related to
a) atomic number of the cation b) atomic number of the anion
c) equivalent weight of the electrolyte d) speed of the cation
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16. The number of close neighbours in a body centred cubic lattice of identical sphere is
a) 6 b) 4 c) 12 d) 8
17. All the naturally occurring processes proceed spontaneously in a direction which leads to
a) decrease of entropy b) increase in enthalpy
c) increase in free energy d) decrease of free energy
18. The percentage efficiency of a heat engine that operates between 127oC and 27oC is
a) 20% b) 50% c) 100% d) 25%
19. For the homogeneous gas reaction at 600 K
4 NH3 (g) + 5 O2 (g) 4 NO (g) + 6 H2O (g)
the equilibrium constant Kc has the unit
a) (mol dm-3)-1 b) (mol dm-3) c) (mol dm -3)10 d) (mol dm -3)-9
20. If the equilibrium constant of the reaction 2A B is K1 and the equilibrium constant of the
reaction B 2A is K2, then
1 1
a) K1= b) K1= 2 K2 c) K1= d) K2= (K1)2
K2 K22
co m
a) Ni2+ b) Cu+
o l I
21. Which of the following ions will give colourless aqueous solution?
A c) Cu2+
ai . d) Fe2+
a) +1 b) +2
al is L
22. Maximum oxidation state exhibited by lanthanides is
v A c) +3 d) +4
. k M
23. Which of the following is a radioactive lanthanide ?
w
a) Pu
ww
b) Ac
N A c) Th
24. Which one of the following is a cationic complex?
d) Pr
a) K4 [ Fe (CN) 6 ]
c) K3 [ Cr (C2 O4 ) 3]
.A N b) [ Cu (NH3 ) 4 ]Cl2
d) K3[ Fe (CN) 6]
R
25. Which one of the following particles is used to bombard 13 Al 27 to give 15 P 30 and a neutron?
a) α -particle b) proton
26. The intramolecular hydrogen bonding is present in
c) Neutron d) Deutreon
w. k M
c) an increase in heat of vaporization d) an increase in free energy
ww N A
8. Change in Gibbs free energy is given by
N
a) Δ G = Δ H + T Δ S b) Δ G = Δ H -T Δ S
.A
c) Δ G = Δ H x T Δ S d) Δ G = Δ H / T Δ S
R
9. In the reversible reaction 2HI(g) H2(g) + I2(g) Kp is
a) greater than Kc b) less than Kc c) equal to Kc d) 0
10. In the Haber process the yield of ammonia is greater
a) at high pressure b) at low pressure
c) at high temperature d) in absence of catalyst
11. Dual character of an electron was explained by
a) Bohr b) Heisenberg c) de Broglie d) Pauli
12. Number of spherical nodes in 2s orbital is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
13. On moving down the group, the radius of an ion
a) decrease b) increase c) no change d) all of these
14. Which of the following shows negative oxidation state only?
a) Br b) F c) Cl d) I
15. The outer electronic configuration of chromium is
a) 3d64s0 b) 3d54s1 c) 3d44s2 d) 3d34s24p1
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16. Innirtoalkanes - NO2 group is converted to NH2 group by the reaction with
a) Sn/HCl b) Zn dust c) Zn/NH4Cl d) Zn/NaOH
17. The tertiary nitro compounds is
a) 2-nitro propane b) 1 - nitropropane
c) 1 - nitro-2, 2-dimathyl propane d) 2-nitro, 2 - methlpropane
18. The intermediate formed in the nitration of benzene is
a) Arrenium ion b) Carbon ion
c) Oxonium ion d) Nitrite ion
19. Inversion of sucrose refers to
a) oxidation of sucrose b) reduction of sucrose
c) hydrolysis of sucrose to glucose and fructose d) polymerization of sucrose
20. A dipeptide does not have
a) two peptide units b) portions of two amino acids
c) an amido group d) salt like structure
o m
21. The sum of the powers of the concentration terms that occur in the rate equation is called
c
a) molecularity b) order
o l AI c) rate
ai . d) rate constant
L
22. The phenomenon of Tyndall effect is not observed in
v is
A
a) emulsion b) colloidal solution c) true solution d) suspension
al
23. Catalyst used in Deacon’s method of manufacture of chlorine is
k
a) NO
w.
b) CuCl2
A M c) Fe2O3 d) Ni
ww N
24. Argyrols is
N
a) colloidal silver b) colloidal animony
.A
c) colloidal gold d) milk magnesia
R
25. When sodium acetate is added to acetic acid the degree of ionisation of acid
a) decrease b) does not change c) increase d) becomes zero
26. The reagent which is added first in the separation of silver from silver coin
a) conc.sulphuric acid b) conc.hydrochloric acid
c) con.nitric acid d) aquaregia
27. ________ forms (s) oxocation
a) Lanthamide b) Actinides c) Noble gases d) Alkali metals
28. ________ is the oxidation state of U in UF6
a) +6 b) +4 c) +3 d) +0
29. The coordination number of Nickel in the complex ion [NiCl4]2 - is
a) +1 b) +4 c) +2 d) +6
30. Loss of a β - particle is equivalent to
a) increase of one proton b) decrese of one neutron only
c) both (a) and (b) d) increase of one neutron only
co m
I .
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
ai
l A
7. Which of the following processes is always non-feasible?
a) Δ H > 0, Δ S > 0
is o L
b) Δ H < 0, Δ S > 0
c) Δ H > 0, Δ S < 0
al v Ad) Δ H < 0, Δ S < 0
. k M
8. The net work obtained from a system is given by
w
a) W + P Δ V
ww
9. In the equilibrium N2 + 3 H2
N A
b) W - P Δ V c) - W + P Δ V a) - W - P Δ V
2 NH3 The maximum yield of ammonia will be obtained with the
N
process having
.A
a) low pressure and high temperature b) low pressure and low temperature
R
c) high pressure and high temperature d) high pressure and low temperature
10. The rate constant of the forward reverse reactions are 8 x 10-5 and 2 x 10-4 respectively. The value of
Kc is
a) 0.04 b) 0.02 c) 0.2 d) 0.4
11. de Broglie equation is
mv hv h
a) λ= h b) λ = hmv c) λ= d) λ= mv
m
12. The hybridisation in CO32- ion is
a) sp2 b) sp3 c) sp d) sp3 d
13. Amongthe following which has higher electron affinity value?
a) Fluorine b) chlorine c) Bromine d) Iodine
14. An element which belongs to Group 14 is soft in nature, does not react with pure water, but dissolves,
but dissolves in water containing dissolved air. Then the element is
a) C b) Ge c) Pb d) Ti
15. The correct outer electronic configuration of copper atom is
a) 3d10 4s2 b) 3d10 4s1 c) 3d9 4s2 d) 3d5 4s2
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co m
c) opposing reactions
22. Colloids are purified by
o l AI
d) chain reactions
ai .
a) precipitation
al v is
b) coagulation
A L c) dialysis
23. Decomposition of hydrogen peroxide is retarded in the presence of
d) filtration
a) alcohol
. k
b) glycerine
w M c) manganess dioxide d) Molybdenum
a) increase
.A N
25. When sodium acetate is added to acetic acid, the degree of ionisation of acetic acid
b) decreases c) does not change d) becomes zero
R
26. The substance used in making ruby red glass and high class pottery is
a) colloidal silver
27.Alloys of lanthanidesare called
b) purple of cassius c) ruby silver d) ruby copper
co m d) 144 seconds
a
b) first order reactioni .
c) second order reaction
al v is
A L
d) pseudo first order reaction
7. The Tyndall effect associated with colloidal particle is due to
a) presence of charge
w. k M
b) scattering of light c) absorotion of light d) reflection of light
ww
8. Colloids are purified by
N A
N
a) precipitation b) coagulation c) dialysis d) filtration
.A
9. The colloid used for stomach disorder is
a) colloidal silver b) colloidal antimony c) colloidal gold d) Milk of magnesia
R
10. Ostwald’s dilution law is applicable in the case of
a) CH3COOH
Cu2 Cl2 / HCl
b) NaCl c) NaOH d) H2SO4
o l AI ai .
b) conversion of ice to water
L
c) Crystallisation of sucrose from solution d) Vaporisation of camphor
v is
A
23. Thermodynamic condition for irreversible spontaneous process at constant T and P is
a) Δ G < 0
k al
b) Δ S < 0 c) Δ G > 0 d) Δ H > 0
w.
24. In the equilibrium N2 + 3 H2
ww
the process having
N
a) low pressure and high temperature
N
b) low pressure and low temperature
.A
c) high temperature and high pressure d) high pressure and low temperature
25. The equilibrium constant for the reaction 2A B is 25 mol-1 dm3 at 900K. What is the
a) 25 R
equilibrium constant for the reaction B
b) 625 c) 0.04
26. The compound that reacts fastest with Lucas reagent is
2A in dm-3 mol at the same temperature?
d) 0.4
a) butan-1-ol b) butan-2-ol
c) 2- methyl propan-1-ol d) 2- methyl propan-2-ol
27. Which one of the following is a simple ether?
a) CH3 - O - C2 H5 b) C2 H5 - O - C H3
c) C2 H5 - O - C2 H5 d) C3 H7 - O - C2 H5.
28. The IUPAC name of phenatole is
a) ethyl phenyl ether b) methyl phenyl ether c) diethyl ether d) diphenyl ether
29. The compound uesd in the preparation of the tranquilizer sulphonal is
a) acetone b) acetophenone c) isopropyl alcohol d) glycol
30. The isomerism exhibited CH3 CH2 COOH and CH3 COOCH3 is
a) metamerism b) position c) chain d) functional
co m
I
a) explosive b) dye c) anaesthetic d) soil sterilizing
ai .
A
6. Total number of atoms per unit cell in bcc is __________
o l
s L
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
v i
l A
7. Standard free energies of formation of elements are taken as _________
k a
M
a) Positive b) negative c) zero d) all of these
w.
A
8. State of chemical equilibrium is __________
ww N
a) dynamic b) stationary c) none of these d) both (a) and (b)
a) Kc = Kp b) Kc < Kp N
9. In an equilibrium reaction if Δ n (g) is positive then __________
.A
c) Kc > Kp Kc = 0
R
10. The excess energy which a molecule must possess to become active is known as __________
a) Kinetic energy b) threshold energy
c) potential energy d) activation energy
11. Dual character of an electron was explained by
a) Bohr b) Heisenberg c) de Broglie d) Pauli
12. The intra molecular hydrogen bonding is present in __________
a) o-nitrophenol b) m-nitrophenol
c) p-nitrophenol d) p-hydroxy benzaldehyde
13. The electron affinity of an atom is __________
a) directly prportional to its size b) Inversely proportional to its size
c) independent of its size d) none of these
14. The compound with garlic odour is __________
a) P2O3 b) P2O5 c) H3PO3 d) H3PO4
15. The outer most electronic configuration of chromium is _________
a) 3d64s0 b) 3d54s1 c) 3d44s2 d) 3d34s24p1
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o l AI ai .
L
a) adsorption b) dispersion c) reflection d) scattering of light
v is
A
24. The pH of a solution containing 0.1 N NaOH solution is _________
a) 1 b) 10-1
k al c) 13 d) 10-13
w. M
25. The number of secondary alcoholic group(s) in glycerol is _________
A
ww N
a) 1 b) 2 c) 0 d) 3
N
26. Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired electrons?
.A
a) Mn2+ b) Ti3+ c) V3+ d) Fe2+
R
27. Alloys of lanthanides are called ___________
a) Mish metals b) Metalloids c) Plate metals d) actinides
28. The isotope of which element is used in nuclear fission reaction?
a) Barium b) Lead c) uranium d) caesium
29. An example of a bidentate ligand is ___________
a) Cl- b) en c) NO2- d) I-
30. Radioactivity is due to __________
a) stable electronic configuration b) stable nucleus
c) unstable nucleus d) unstable electronic configuration
co m
a) K [ A ]a b) K [ A ] 1/2
o l AI ai .
c) K [ A ] 1/a
7. The migration of colloidal particles under the influence of an electric field is known as
d) K [ A ]
a) electro-osmosis
al
8. Which type of colloid is a sol? v is
A L
b) hot dialysis c) electrodialysis d) electrophoresis
a) Solid in liquid
w. k M
b) Liquid in solid c) Solid in Solid d) Gas in Solid
ww
a) temperature increases
N A
9. In case of a physical adsorption, there is desorption when
b) temperature decerases
c) pressure increases
.A N d) concentration increases
10. When pH of a solution is 2, the hydrogen ion concentration in moles/ litre is
a) 1 x 10 -12
R b) 1 x 10 -2
and CH2-N
O
d) 1 x 10 -4
is
O OH
a) position b) chain c) functional d) tautomerism
12. The product obtained when nitrobenzene is treated with Zn/ NaOH is
a) aniline b) azoxybenzene c) azobenzene d) hydrazobenzene
13. Which of the following will not undergo diazotisation?
a) m- toluidine b) Aniline c) p-amino phenol d) Benzyl amine
14. A dipeptide does not have
a) two peptide units b) portion of two amino acids
c) an amino group d) Salt like structure
15. Glucose reacts with acetic anhydride in the presence of pyridine to give
a) monoacetate b) diacetate c) penta- acetate d) no reaction
16. The bond order of oxygen molccule is
a) 2.5 b) 1 c) 3 d) 2
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o m
23. The entropy change involved in the process water (liq) to water ( vapour, 373 K) involving Δ H vap =
c
40850 J mol-1 at 373K is
a) 10.952 J mol -1 K-1
o l AI b) 109.52 J mol -1 K-1
ai .
c) 100.952 J mol K -1 -1
al v is
A L a) 1095.2 J mol K-1
24. If the equilibrium constants of the following reactions 2A
-1
w. k 1
M 1
A
a) K1 = 2K2 b) K1 = c) K2 = ( K1)2 d) K1 =
K2 K2 2
ww N
25. When Δ ng in a homogeneous gaseous equilibrium is positive, then
N
Kc
a) Kp = Kc b) Kp < Kc c) Kp > Kc d) Kp =
.A
2
R
26. Order of reactivity of alcohol towards sodium metal is
a) primary < secondary > tertiary
b) primary > secondary > tertiary
c) primary < secondary < tertiary
d) primary > secondary < tertiary
27. According to lewis concept of acids and bases, ethers are
a) neutral b) acidic c) basic d) amphoteric
28. Higher ethers can be prepared from lower members by the action of
a) conc. H2SO4 b) AgOH c) sodium alkoxide d) Grignard reagent
distillation
29. Calcium acetate + Calcium benzoate ?
a) Benzophenone b) Benzaldehyde
c) Acetophenone d) phenyl benzoate.
30. The acid that cannot be prepared by Grignard reagent is
a) acetic acid b) formic acid c) butyric acid d) benzoic acid
m
6. The Bragg’s equation is
co
I
a) λ = 2d sin θ b) nd = 2λ sin θ c) 2λ = nd sin θ d) nλ = 2d sin θ
ai .
A
7. According to Trouton’s rule, the value of change in entropy of vaporisation is
o l
s L
a) 21 cal. deg-1 mole-1 b) 12 cal. deg-1 mole-1
v i
l A
c) 21 K. cal. deg. mole-1 d) 12 K cal. deg.mole-1
k a
. M
8. In Which of the following, the process is always non feasible
a) Δ H > 0, Δ S > 0
w A
b) Δ H < 0, Δ S > 0 c) Δ H > 0, Δ S < 0 d) Δ H < 0, Δ S < 0
ww N
9. In the manufacture of ammonia by Haber’s process the maximum yield of ammomia will be obtained
N
with the process having
.A
a) low pressure and high temperature b) low pressure and low temperature
R
c) high pressure and high temperature d) high pressure and low temperature
10. The relationship between Kp and Kc for the equilibrium
2 H2O (g) + 2 Cl2 (g) 4 HCl (g) +O2(g) is
a) Kp = Kc b) Kp = Kc (RT)2 c) Kp = Kc (RT)1 d) Kp = Kc (RT)-2
11. The intramolecular hydrogen bonding is present in
a) o-nitrophenol b) m-nitrophenol c) p-nitrophenol d) none of these
12. The momentum of a particle which has de- Broglie wavelength of 1Å (h = 6.626x10 -34 kgm2 s-1 ) is
a) 6.63 x 10-23 kg ms-1 b) 6.63 x 10-24 kg ms-1
c) 6.63 x 10-34 kg ms-1 d) 6.63 x 1034 kg ms-1
13. Effective nuclear charge can be calculated using the formula
a) Z * = Z - S b) Z * = Z + S c) Z * = S - Z d) Z = Z * - S
14. Inert gas used in beacon lights for safety of air navigation is
a) Helium b) Argon c) Neon d) Xenon
15. Which one of the following will have maximum magnetic moment?
a) 3d2 b) 3d6 c) 3d7 d) 3d9
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I
22. Colloidal medicines are more effective because
A ol ai .
L
a) they are clean b) they are easy to prepare
v is
A
c) the germs move towards them d) they are easily assimilated and adsorbed
k al
23. The decomposition of hydrogen peroxide in the presence of colloidal platinum is a/an
a) positive catalysis
w.
AM
b) negative catalysis c) auto- catalysis d) induced catalysis
ww N
24. For chemisorption which is wrong?
N
a) It is irreversible b) It requires activation energy
.A
c) It forms multilayers on adsorbate d) Surface compounds are formed
R
25. For the titration between oxalic acid and sodium hydroxide, the indicator used is
a) potassium permanganate b) phenolphthalein
c) litmus d) methyl orange
26. Which compound is formed when excess of KCN is added to an aqueous solution of copper
sulphate?
a) Cu (CN)2 b) K2 [Cu (CN)6] c) K [ Cu (CN)2] d) Cu2 (CN)2 + (CN)2-
27. Alloys of Lanthanides are called as
a) Mish metals b) Metalloids c) plate metal d) actinides
28. Lanthanide contraction due to
a) perfect shielding of 4f electrons b) imperfect shielding of 4f electrons
c) perfect shielding of 3d electrons d) imperfect shielding of 3d electrons
29. An example of a chelating ligand is
a) nitro b) chloro c) bromo d) en
30. 92U235 nucleus absorbs a neutron and disintegrates into 54 Xe139, 38 Sr 94 and X. What is X?
a) 3 neutrons b) 2 neutrons c) α-particle d) β-particle
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I
6. Which of the following compounds has the smell of better almonds?
o l A ai .
L
a) Aniline b) Nitromethane
v is
A
c) Benzene sulphonic acid d) Nitrobenzene
k al
7. Nitro-acinitro tautomerism is exhibited by
a) nitronmethane
w.
A M
b) nitro benzene c) chloropicrin d) o-toluidine
ww N
8. Use of chloropicrin (CCl3NO2) is as
N
a) explosive b) dye c) anaesthetic d) sterilizing agent
.A
9. _________ is involved in the process of blood coagulation
R
a) Fats and oils b) Cephaalin c) Glycolipids d) Lecithins
10. Mixture of equal molecules of D (+) glucose D (-) fructose is called as
a) Fruit sugar b) Invert sugar c) Cane sugar d) Non-sugar
11. Bordeaux mixture contains
a) AgNO3 + HNO3 b) ZnSO4 + H2SO4 c) CuSO4 + Ca(OH)2 d) KMnO4 + HCl
12. The isotope used as a power source in long mission space probes is
a) U-235 b) Pu-235 c) Pu-238 d) U-238
13. Cera is used in
a) toys b) tracer bullets c) gas lamp meterial d) none of these
14. The coordination number of Ni (II) In [Ni (CN)4]2- is
a) 2 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
15. Find out the missing in a reaction 5Be 8
4
Be8+?
a) α - particle b) β - particle c) electron capture d) positron
16. When phenol is distilled with zinc dust, It gives
a) benzaldehyde b) benzoic acid c) toluene d) benzene
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o l AI
23. Among the following which has the maximun ionisation energy
ai .
L
a) Alkali metals b) Alkaline earth metals
v is
A
c) Halogens d) Noble gases
al
24. The lightest gas which is non-inflammable is
k
a) He
w
b) H2
.
A M c) N2 d) Ar
ww N
25. Silver salt used in photography is
N
a) AgCl b) AgNO3 c) AgF d) AgBr
.A
26. For a reaction Ea = O and k = 4.2 x 105 sec-1 at 300 k value of k at 310 K will be
R
a) 4.2 x 105 sec-1 b) 8.4 x 105 sec-1
c) 8.4 x 105 sec d) unpredictable
27. An emulsion is a colloidial solution of
a) two solids b) two liquids c) two gases d) one solid and one liquid
28. In case of physical adsorption, there is desorption when
a) temperature increases b) temperature decreases
c) pressure increases d) concentration increases
29. The oxidation of sodium sulphite by air is retarded by
a) MnO2 b) H2S c) Alcohol d) AS2O3
30. The pH of a solution containing 0.1 N NaOH solution is
a) 1 b) 10-1 c) 13 d) 10-13
o l AI c) low
ai .
d) cannot be predicted
L
7. The migration of colloidal particles under the influence of an electric field is known as
v is
A
a) electro osmosis b) electrolysis
k al
M
c) electrodialysis d) electrophoresis
w.
A
8. For chemisorption, which is wrong?
ww N
a) It is irreversible b) It requires activation energy
N
c) It forms multimolecular layers on absorbate d) Surface compounds are formed
.A
9. The catalyst used for the decomposition of KClO3 is
R
a) MnO2 b) Cl2 c) V2O5 d) Pt
10. When one coulomb of electricity is passed through an electrolytic solution mass deposited on the
electrode is equal to
a) equivalent weight b) molecular weight
c) electrochemical equivalent d) one gram
11. The isomerism exhibited by CH3 - CH2 NO2 and CH3 - O - N = O is
a) position b) chain c) functional d) tautomerism
12. When nitromethane is reduced with Zn dust + NH4Cl we get
a) CH3NH2 b) C2H5NH2 c) CH3NHOH d) C2H5COOH
13. Electrophile used in the nitration of benzene is
a) hydronium ion b) sulphonic acid c) nitronium ion d) bromide ion
14. The reducing sugar of the following is
a) sucrose b) cellulose c) starch d) glucose
15. The amino acid without chiral carbon is
a) Glycine b) Alanine c) Proline d) Tyrosine
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o l AI c) - w + PΔ V
ai . d) -w-PΔ V
L
23. Entropy is a ________ function
v is
A
a) state b) path c) exact d) inexact
k al
24. The fraction of total moles of reactant dissociated is called
w.
a) dissociation equilibrium
A M b) degree of association
ww N
c) degree of dissociation d) dissociation constant
N
25. Two moles of ammonia gas arc Introduced into a previously evacuated 1.0 dm3vessel in which it
.A
partialy dissociates at high temperature. At equilibrium 1.0 mole of ammonia remains. The equilibrium
constant Kc for the dissociation is
a) 27/16 (mole dm-3)2
c) 27/4 (mole dm-3)2 R b) 27/8 (mol dm-3)2
d) none of these
26. Order of reactivity of alcohol towards sodium metal is
a) primary < secondary > tertiary b) primary > secondary > tertiary
c) primary < secondary < tertiary d) primary > secondary < tertiary
27. Diethyl ether can be decomposed with
a) HI b) KMnO4 c) NaOH d) H2O
28. Which of the following produces ether, when heated with cone. H2SO4 at 413K?
a) Organic acid b) Aldehyde c) Alcohol d) Ketone
29. Methyl ketones are characterised by
a) fehling’s solution b) Iodoform test
c) Schiffs test d) Tollen’s reagent
30. The acid which reduces Tollen’s reagent is
a) acetic acid b) benzoic add c) formic arid d) oxalic acid
co m
6. The number of close neighbours in a body centred cubic lattice of identical spheres is
a) 6 b) 4
o
c) 12
l AI d) 8
ai .
s L
7. Which of the following processes is always non - feasible?
v i
l A
a) Δ H > 0, Δ S > 0 b) Δ H < 0, Δ S > 0
k a
M
c) Δ H > 0, Δ S < 0 d) Δ H < 0, Δ S < 0
w.
A
8. In SI unit 1 eu is
ww N
a) 41.84 EU b) 4.184 EU c) 418.4 EU d) 4184 EU
K2 respectively then
.A
1
N
9. If the equilibrium constants of the following reactions 2A B is K1 and B
1
2A are K1 and
R
a) K1 = 2K2 b) K1 = c) K2 = ( K1)2 d) K1 =
K2 K2 2
10. The equilibrium constant Kc for A (g) B (g) is 2.5 x 10-2. The rate constant of forward reaction
is 0.05 sec . Therefore the rare constant of the reverse reaction is
-1
H3PO2
16. C6H5N2Cl X + N2 + HCl. The compound X is
Cu+
a) C6H5Cl b) C6H5NHNH2 c) C6H6 d) C6H5NO2
17. Which of the following will not undergo diazotisation?
a) m - toluidine b) aniline c) p - aminophenol d) benzyl amine
18. Which of following componds is called oil of mirbane?
a) Aniline b) Nitromethane
c) Benzene diazonium chloride d) Nitrobenzene
19. The reducing sugar among the following is
a) sucrose b) cellulose c) starch d) glucose
20. The amino acid without chiral carbon is
a) glycine b) alanine c) proline d) tyrosine
21. The term A in arrhenius equation is called as
a) probability factor b) activation energy
c) collision factor d) frequency factor
co m
o l AI
22. The Tyndall’s effect associated with colloidal particles is due to
ai .
s L
a) presence of charge b) scattering of light
v i
l A
c) absorption of light d) reflection of light
k a
M
23. Colloids are purified by
w.
A
a) precipitation b) coagulation c) dialysis d) filtration
ww N
24. Medicine used as an eye lotion is
N
a) silver sol b) colloidal gold c) colloidal antimony d) milk of magnesia
.A
25. Ostwald’s dilution law is applicable in the case of the solution of
R
a) CH3COOH b) NaCl c) NaOH d) H2SO4
26. Which of the following ions will give colourless aqeous solution?
a) Ni2+ b) Fe2+ c) Cu2+ d) Cu+
27. _________ form oxocations.
a) Lanthanides b) Actinides c) Noble gases d) Alkali metals
28. Fuel used in nuclear power plants is
a) U 235 b) Pu 235 c) Pu 238 d) U 238
29. The geometry of [Ni (CN)4]2- is
a) Tetrahedral b) Square planar c) Triangular d) Octahedral
30. Half - life period of 79Au 198
nucleus is 150 days. The average life is
a) 216 days b) 21.6 days c) 261 days d) 26.1 days
a)
27
16
(mole dm-3)2
o l
b)
I
27
A8
(mole dm-3)2
ai .
c)
27
4
(mole dm-3)2
al v is
A L
d) None of these
k M
6. When nitromethane is reduced with Zine dust + NH4Cl, it forms is
w.
A
a) CH3NH2 b) C2H5NH2 c) CH3NHOH d) C2H5COOH
ww N
7. When aquequs solution of benzene diazonium chloride is boiled, the product formed is
N
a) Benzyl alcohol b) Phenol c) Benzene + N2 d) Phenyl hydroxylamine
.A
8. The organic compound that undergoes carbylamine reaction is
R
a) (C2H5)2NH b) C2H5NH2 c) (C2H5)3N d) (C2H5)4N+1-
pyridine
9. Glucose + accetic anhydride
a) di acetate b) tetra acetate c) penta acetane d) hexa acetate
10. Which of the following is not true for amino acid?
a) Amino acid forms zwitter ion b) Amino acid has isoelectric poit
c) Amino acid has dual behaviour d) Amino acid is insoluble in NaOH solution
11. Which of the following compounds is not coloured?
a) Na2CuCl4 b) Na2CdI4 c) K4[Fe(CN)6] d) K3[Fe(CN)6]
12. ________ form oxocations
a) Lanthanides b) Actinides c) Noble gases d) Alkali metals
13. The radioactive lanthanide is
a) Lanthanum b) Promethium c) Gadolinium d) Terbium
14. The unit of paramagnetic moment is
a) debye b) k Joules c) BM d) ergs
15. After 24 hours only 0.125 g out of the initial quantity of 1 g of a radioisotope remains. Then its half - life
period is
a) 3 hours b) 6 hours c) 8 hours d) 12 hourse
16. Glycerol is used
a) as a sweetening agent b) in the manufacture of good quality soap
c) in the manufacture of nitroglycerine d) all of these
17. Diethyl ether can be decomposed with
a) HI b) KMn04 c) NaOH d) H2O
18. The solvent used for the Grignard reagent is
a) ethyl alcohol b) diethyl ether c) acetone d) benzene
19. The compound which does not reduce Fehling’s solution is
a) formaldehyde b) acetaldehyde c) benzaldehyde d) propionaldehyde
20. Among the following the strongest acid is
a) ClCH2COOH b) Cl3C-COOH c) CH3COOH d) Cl2CH-COOH
21. The bond order of nitrogen molecule is
co m
a) 1 b) 2
o
c) 2.5
l A
22. The type of hybridisation in PCl5 molecule isI d) 3
ai .
a) sp3d2 b) sp3d
al v is
A Lc) sp3
23. Among the following, which has the maximum ionisation energy?
d) sp2
a) Alkali metals
w. k M b) Noble gases
ww
c) Alkaline earth metals
N A d) Halogens
N
24. The shape of XeF4 is
.A
a) Tetrahedral b) octahedral c) square planar d) pyramidal
25. Which transition element shows the highest oxidation state?
a) Sc b) Ti
R c) Os
26. Decomposition of nitrogen pentoxide in CCl4 is a
d) Zn
co m
I .
c) both forward and reverse reaction are favoured
ai
l A
d) none of these
is o L
5. Which of the following gaseous reactions Kp<Kc?
a) PCl5(g)
l v
PCl3(g) + I2(g)
a A b) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g)
c) N2(g) + 3H2(g)
w. k 2NH3(g)
M
d) CO(g) + H2O(g) CO2(g) + H2(g)
a) C6H5NH - NHC6H5
ww N A
6. Nitrobenzene on electrolytic reduction in cone. Sulphuric acid, the intermediate formed is
b) C6H5NHOH c) C6H5 - N = N - C6H5 d) C6H5HSO4
a) Ammonia N
7. Which one of the following is the most basic?
.A
b) Methylamine c) Dimethylamine d) Aniline
R
8. The compound which does not undergo diazotisation reaction is
a) m-toluidine b) benzylamine
9. The building block of proterins are
c) aniline d) p-aminophenol
15. After 24 Hours, only 0.125g out of the initial quantity of 1 g of a radioisotope remains behind. Then its
half-life perod is
a) 0.8 hours b) 8 hours c) 100 hours d) 80 hours
16. Order at reactivity of Alcohol towards sodium metal is
a) primary < secondary > tertiary b) primary > secondary < tertiary
c) primary > secondary > teriary d) primary < secondary < tertiary
17. When diethyl ether reacts with chlorine in presence of sunlight it gives
a) chlorodiethyl ether b) dichlorodiethyl ether
c) perchlorodiethyl ether d) both (a) and (b)
18. Intermolecular hydrogen bonds are not present in
a) CH3COOH b) C2H5OC2H5 c) CH3CH2OH d) C2H5NH2
Conc H2SO4
19. 3CH3COCH3 the product is
a) Mesitylene b) Mesityl oxide c) Phorone d) Paraldehyde
20. The acid that cannot be prepared by Grignard reagent is
co m
I .
a) Acetic acid b) Formic acid c) Butyric acid d) Benzoic Acid
ai
l A
21. De Broglie equation is
a) λ = mv / h b)
is o L
λ = hmv c) λ = hv / m d) λ = h / mv
l v
22. The hybridisation in ICI-4 ion is
a A
a) sp3
w. k
b) sp3d
M c) sp3d2 d) sp3d3
a) high
ww b) low
N A
23. Noble gases have _________ electron affinity.
c) zero d) very low
a) Carbon N
24. Which of the following is the second most abundant element in earth’s crust?
.A
b) Silicon c) Germanium d) Tin
co m d) β - particle
a) Na2CO3 solution
o l I
7. Ethylene diamine is converted to ethylene glycol using.
A
b) Nitrous acid
ai .
c) NaHCO3 solution d) Baeyer’s reagent
a) Sn/HCl
al is
b) Zn dust L
8. In nitroalkanes - NO2 group is converted to - NH2 group by using the reagent.
v A c) Zn/NH4Cl d) Zn/NaOH
. k M
9. Strong mineral acids ......................... the ethereal oxygen forming oxonium salts.
w
a) electronate
ww N A
b) protonate c) deprotonate d) dehydrate
10. When pH of a solution is 2, the hydrogen ion concentration in moles litre-1 will be.
a) 1 x 10-12
.A
11. Paramagnetism is the property of.N
b) 1 x 10-4 c) 1 x 10-7 d) 1 x 10-2
a) paired electrons
c) unpaired electons R b) completely filled electronic sub-shells
d) completely vacant electronic sub-shells
12. In the manufacture of ammonia by Haber’s process, the maximum yield of ammonia will be obtained
with the process having.
a) low pressure and high temperature b) low pressure and low temperature
c) high pressure and high temperature d) high pressure and low temperature
13. The noble gases are unreactive because they.
a) have same number of electrons b) have an atomicity
c) are gases with low density d) have stable electronic configuration
14. Emulsifying agent is used for.
a) precipitation of an emulsion b) denaturation of an emulsion
c) stabilization of an emulsion d) oxidation of an emulsion
15. [FeF6]4 - is paramagnetic because.
a) F - is a weaker ligand b) F - is a stronger ligand
c) F - is a flexidinate ligand d) F - is a chelating ligand
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16. The total number of atoms per unit cell in fcc is.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
17. Among the following the strongest acid is.
a) CH3COOH b) HCOOH
c) ClCH2COOH d) CH3CH2COOH
18. The hybridisation in PCl5 molecule is.
a) sp3 b) sp3d2 c) sp3d d) sp2
19. Conversion of benzene diazonium chloride to chlorobenzene is
a) Sandmeyer’s reaction b) Stephen’s reaction
c) Gomberg reaction d) Schotten - Baumann reaction
20. Which of the following does not result in an increase in entropy?
a) Rusting of iron b) Conversion of ice to water
c) Crystallisation of sucrose from solution d) Sublimation of camphor
21. The organic compound that undergoes carbylamine reaction is.
a) (C2H5)2NH b) C2H5NH2 c) (C2H5)3N
co m d) (C2H5)4N+I-
I i .
22. For a reaction Ea = 0 and K=4.2 x 105 sec-1 at 300 K, the value of K at 310 K will be.
A ol a
L
a) 4.2x105 sec-1 b) 8.4x105 sec-1 c) 8.4x10-5 sec-1 d) 4.2x10-5 sec-1
v is
A
23. Maximun oxidation state exhibited by lanthanides is.
a) +1 b) +2
k al c) +3 d) +4
w.
AM
24. On moving down a group, the radius of an ion.
ww N
a) decreases b) increases
N
c) first increases and then decreases d) remains constant
A
25. Thermodynamic condition for irreversible spontaneous process at constant T and P is.
a) Δ G < 0
R .b) Δ G = 0
26. Which one of the following is a simple ether?
c) Δ G > 0 d) a and c
o l AI c) Emulsion
ai . d) sol
L
7. Paramagnetic moment is expressed in.
v is
A
a) Debye Unit b) Kilojoules c) BM D) ergs
al
8. β - particle is represented as.
k
a) +1e0
w.
b) -1e0
A M c) 1H1 d) 2He4
ww N
9. The compound used in the preparation of the tranquilizer, sulphonal is.
N
a) acetone b) acetophenone c) Isopropyl alcohol d) glycol
.A
10. The unit of electron affinity is.
R
a) MeV b) JK -1 c) eV d) KJ mol -1
11. The equivalent conductivity of CH3COOH at 25oC is 80 ohm -1 cm2 eq-1 and at infinite dilution 400
ohm-1 cm2 eq-1. The degree of dissociation of CH3COOH is .....................
a) 1 b) 0.2 c) 0.1 d) 0.3
12. The number of secondary alcoholic group in glycerol is.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 0
13. IUPAC name of this compound CH2O - CH - CH3
CH3
a) 1 - Methoxy propane b) Methyl isopropyl ether
c) Isopropyl methyl ether d) 2 - Methoxy propane
14. State of Chemical equilibrium is.
a) dynamic b) stationary c) none d) both (a and b)
15. The phenomenon of Tyndall’s effect is not observed in.
a) Emulsion b) Colloidal solution c) True solution d) Gel
16. Glucose is not oxidised to gluconic acid by.
a) Br2/H2O b) Fehling’s solution c) Tollens Reagent d) Conc. HNO3
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17. Which of the following compounds will not give positive chromyl chloride test?
a) CuCl2 b) HgCl2 c) ZnCl2 d) C6H5Cl
18. For the reaction 2Cl(g) Cl2(g) the signs of Δ H and Δ S respectively are.
a) +, - b) +, + c) -, - d) -, +
19. Aspirin is.
a) Salicylic acid b) Acetyl salicylic acid
c) Salicylaldehyde d) Methyl Salicylate
20. For chemisorption, which is wrong?
a) Irreversible b) It requires activation energy
c) It forms multimolecular layers on adsorbate d) Surface compounds are formed
21. In the formation of HI from H2 and I2 , Kp = Kc because.
a) Δ ng = 2 b) Δ ng = 1 c) Δ ng = 0 d) Δ ng = -1
22. Paramagnetism is the property of
m
a) Paired electrons b) Completely filled electronic subshells
co
I
c) unpaired electrons d) Completely vacent electronic sub shells
ai .
A
23. The bond order of nitrogen molecule is
o l
s L
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
v i
l A
24. Radioactive element of lanthanide is.
k a
. M
a) Thorium b) Lanthanum c) Uranium d) Promethium
w A
25. Semiconductors which exhibit conductivity due to the flow of excess negative electrons are called.
ww N
a) Super conductors b) n - type semiconductors
c) p - type semiconductors
.A N d) Insulators
26. ................. occur in the white matter of the brain and of all nervous tissue.
R
a) Lacithin b) Cephalin c) Galactolipids d) Amino acid
27. The organic compound that undergoes carbylamine reaction is.
a) (C2H5)2NH b) C2H5NH2 c) (C2H5)3N d) (C2H5)4N+I-
28. The intramolecular hydrogen bonding is present in.
a) o - nitrophenol b) m - nitrophenol
c) p - nitrophenol d) None of the above
29. Intermolecular hydrogen bonds are not present in.
a) CH3COOH b) C2H 5OC 2H 5 c) CH3CH2OH d) C2H5NH2
30. The compound with garlic taste is.
a) H3PO4 b) H3PO3 c) P2O3 d) P2O5
NaNO2 / HCl
l v i L
7. C6H5NH2
0oC
. k a X. X is
M A
a) C6 H5 Cl
w A
b) C6 H5 NHOH c) C6 H5 N2 Cl d) C6 H5OH
ww N
8. For a reaction Ea = 0 and K = 4.2 x 10 sec at 300 K, the value of K at 310 K will be
5 -1
R
9. Which element in Lanthanide is radioactive?
a) Cerium b) Promethium c) Holmium
10. Among the following which has higher electronegativity value?
d) Lutetium
o l A
22. The molecular orbitals are filled according to
s
v
a) Pauli’s exclusion principle
l i L b) Hund’s rule
c) Aufbau principle
. k a
M A d) All the above
w
23. Which one of the following crystal has 8:8 structure?
a) MgF2
ww
b) CsCl
N A c) KCl d) NaCl
24. A ‘d’ block metal ion has a magnetic moment of 1.732 BM. The number of unpaired electrons are
a) 1 b) 2
.A N c) 3
25. The SI unit of entropy is...........(ANSWER :d)
d) 4
�����������������
PTA - ��� ������������� I-V
������
co m
a i. I
l
lv iso L A
.k a MA
ww A
w N N
R .A
co m
(a) Cuprite (b) copper glance
6. silver salt used in photography is
o l AI (c) Malachite
al v is
AL
7. The most common oxidation state of Lanthanides is
(c) AgF (d) AgBr
(a) +2
. k
(b) +1
w M (c) +3 (d) +4
(a) MnO2
ww
(b) CeO2 A
8. __________ is used in gas lamp material
R
10. Which of the follower is used as neutron absorber in nuclear reactors?
(a)Water (b) Deuterium (c) Uranium
11. The number of Chloride ions present per unit of CSCl ?
(d) Cadmium
17. Oil soluble dye is mixed with emulsion and emulsion remains colorless then, the emulsion is
(a) O/W (b) W/O (c) O/O (d) W/W
18. Colloids are purified by
(a) Precipitation (b) coagulation (c) Dialysis (d) Filtration
19. Fe(OH)3 colloidal particles adsorb __________ ions
(a) Fe3+ (b) Mg2+ (c) Ca2+ (d) Cu2+
20. Ostwald’s dilution law is applicabe to the solution of
(a) CH3COOH (b) NaCl (c) NaOH (d) H2SO4
21. The reaction of lucas reagent is fast with
(a) ethanol (b) methanol (c) 2-propanol (d) 2-methl 2-propanol
22. An Organic compound C4H10O When heated with excess HI gives Only one type of alkyl iodide. The
compound is
(a) diethylether (b) methyl n-propylether
co m
I .
(c) methyl iso propylether (d) n-butyl alcohol
ai
l A
23. When ether is exposed to air for sometime an explosive substance prpduced is
(a) peroxide (b) Oxide
is o L (c)TNT (d) superoxide
l v A
24. The compound that does not undergo cannizzaro reaction is
a
(a) Formaldehyde
w. k M
(b) Acetaldehyde
A
(c) Benzaldehyde (d) Trimethyl Acetaldehyde
ww N
25. Which oi the following is least acidic?
(a) C2H5OH (b) CH3COOH
.A N
26. Nitration of nitrobenzene at 373K results in
(c) C6H5OH (d) ClCH2COOH
R
(a) O-dinitro benzene (b) 1,3,5-trinitro benzene
(c) P-dinitro benzene (d) m-dinitro benzene
27. Primary amine acts as
(a) Electrophile (b) Lewis base (c) Lewis base (d) Free radical
28. Which of the following will not undergo diazotisation?
(a) m-toluidine (b) anline (c) p- amino phenol (d) benzylamine
29. Important constituent of cell wall is
(a) Lipid (b) Cellulose (c) Protein (d) Vitamin
30. The most abundant carbohydrate is
(a) glucose (b) fructose (c) Starch (d) cellulose
m
(a) B (b) Al (c) Ga (d) In
co
I
5. Formation of coloured ions is possible when metal ions contain
ai .
A
(a) paired electrons (b) unpaired electrons
o l
s L
(c) lone pairs of electrons (d) none of the above
v i
(a) 0
.
(b) 1.73 l
M A
6. The value of magnetic moment of Ti3+ ion is
w A
7. The lanthanide contraction is due to
ww N
(a) perfect shielding of 4f electrons (b) Imperfect shielding of 4f electrons
.A N
(c) perfect shielding of 3d electrons
8. The actinide that exhibits oxidation state +6 is
(d) Imperfect shielding of 3d electrons
R
(a) Ac (b) Th (c) Pa (d) U
9. The geometry of [Fe(CN)6]4- is
a) tetrahedral b) Square planar c) triangular d) Octahedral
10. In the nuclear reaction, 92U238 82
Pb206 the number of α and β particles emitted are
a) 7α, 5β b) 6α, 4β c) 4α, 3β d) 8α, 6β
11. Frenkel defect is found in
a) Nacl b) AgCl c) CsCl d) FeS
12. Which of the following does not result in an increase in the entropy ?
a) Crystallisation of sucrose from solution b) Rusting of iron
c) conversion of ice to water d) Vapourisation of Camphor
13. If Δ G for a reaction is negative, the change is
a) Spontaneous b) Non-Spontaneous c) Reversible d) All of these
14. If the equilibrium constants of the following reactions are 2A B is K1and B 2A is
K2, then
1 1 2
a) K1=2K2 b) K1= c) K2= ( K1 )2 d) K1=
K2 K2
15.At chemical equilibrium
1
a) Q > Kc b) Q < Kc c) Q = Kc d) Q = K
c
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16. The half life period of a first order reation is 10 minits. then its rate constant is
a) 6.93 x 102 min-1 b) 0.693 x 102min-1 c) 0.693 x 102min-1 d) 69.3 x 10-1 min-1
17. Somke is a colloidal solution of
a) gas in liquid b) liquid in gas c) gas in solid d) solid in gas
18. 2SO2 + O2 2SO3 Homogeneous catalyst for this reaction is
a) Pt b) V2O5 c) NO d) As2O3
19. Which one of the following is used in the Purification of drinking water?
a) colloidion b) alum c) silver bromide d) chromium salt
20. The specific conductance of 0.01M solution of KCL is 0.0014 ohm-1cm-1 at 250C. It’s equivalent
conductance is
a) 14ohm-1-cm2 equi-1 b) 140ohm-1-cm2 equi-1
c) 1.4ohm-1-cm2 equi-1 d) 0.14ohm-1-cm2 equi-1
co m
21.An alcohol which dose not undergo dehydrogenation when passed Over heated Cu at 573K is
I .
a) n- butyl alcohol b) sec- butyl alcohol
ai
l A
c) iso- butyl alcohol d) tert- butyl alcohol
is o L
22.When ethyl iodide is treated with dry silver oxide it forms
a) ethyl alcohol
l v
b) diethyl ether
a A c) silver ethoxide d) ethyl methyl ether
. k M
23. A reaction of ether in which α hydrogen atom involves
w
a) halogenation
ww
c) oxonium salt formation
N A b) peroxide formation
d) all of these
a) acetone N
24. Decolourised Schiff’s reagent gives pink colour with
.A
b) acetaldehyde c) ethyl alcohol d) methyl acetate
R
25. Acetyl chloride cannot be prepared from acetic acid using
a) PCl5 b) PCl3 c) SOCl2
26. Electrophile used in the nitration of benzene is
d) NaCl
co m
I .
a) 3d9 4s2 b) 3d10 4s1 c) 3d4 4s2 d) 3d54S1
ai
l A
6.The maganetic moment of V3+ ion is
a) ) 3 BM b) 2 ) 2 BM
is o )
L c) 0 d) 35 BM
l v A
7.In f-block elements the following shells are incomplete
a
a) n b) (n-1)
a) Lanthanides
ww
8.__________ from oxocations
N
b) ActinidesA c) Noble gases d) Alkalimetals
9. Which is not an anionic complex?
a) [Cu(NH3)4]Cl2
.A N
b) K3[Fe(CN)6] c) K4[Fe(CN)6] d) K2[Zn(CN)4]
co m
I .
22. Oxygen atom of ether is
ai
l A
a) very reactive b) replaceable c) oxidising d) comparatively inert
is o L
23. When an ether ‘A’ is treated with hot concentrated hydroiodic acid gives only ethyl iodide. then A is
a) diethyl ether
al v A d) methyln-propyl ether
c) methyl isopopyl ether
w. k M d) all of these
a) formaldehyde
N A
24. The compound which does not reduce Fehling’s solution is
ww b) acetaldehyde
c) benzaldehyde
N
d) propionaldehyde
.A
25.The isomerism exhibited by CH3CH2COOH and CH3COOCH3 is
a) metamerism
R b) position
26. The basic character of amines is due to
a) tetrahedral structure
c) chain d) functional
m
5. Paramagnetism is the Property of
co
I
a) Paired electrons b) Completely filled electronic sub-shells
ai .
l A
c) unpaired electrons d) completely vacant electronic sub- shells
s o
6. Which of the following is not coloured?
i L
a) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
al v A
b) [CdCl4]2- c) K4[Fe(CN)6] d) K2[Cu(CN)4]
. k M
7.Actinide contraction is due to imperfect shielding of
w A
a) 4f electrons b) 5f electrons c) 6d electrons d) 7s-electrons
ww N
8. The lanthanide contraction is responsible for the fact that
.A N
a) Zn and Y have about the same radius
c) Zr and Hf have about the same radius
b) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state
d) Zr and Zn have the same oxidation state
R
9. The type of hybridisation of the central metal ion in the complex [Ni(CN)4]2- is
a) sp3 b) sp3 d c) d sp2 d) d sp3
10. The most penetrating radiations are
a) α -rays b) β-rays c) r-rays d) all are equally penetrating
11. In a simple cubic cell each point on a corner is shared by
a) one unit cell b) eight unit cell c) four unit cell d) two unit cell
12. Which of the following, the process is always non feasible
a) ΔH >0,ΔS>0 b) ΔH <0,ΔS>0 c) ΔH >0,ΔS<0 d) ΔH <0,ΔS<0
13. The standard free energy value (Go) of formation of an element in its stable state is
a) Zero b) negative c) positive d) unpredictable
14. In the reversible 2HI H2 + I2 Kp is
a) greater than kc b) less then kc c) equal to Kc d) zero
15. Two moles of ammonia gas introduced into a previously evacuated 1.0 dm3 vessel in which it partially
dissociates at high temerature. At equilibrium 1.0 mole of ammonia remains The equilibrium constant
Kc for the dissociation is
a) 27/16 ( mol dm-3 )2 b) 27/8 ( mol dm-3 )2
c) 27/4 ( mol dm-3 )2 d) None of these
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d[N2O5]
16. 2N2 O5 4NO2 + O2 , - = K1[N2O5]
dt
d[NO2] d[O2]
= K2[N2O5] and = K3[N2O5] the relation between K1,K2 and K3 is
dt dt
a) 2K1=4K2=K3 b) K1=K2=K3
c) 2K1=K2=4K3 d) 2K1,=K2=K3
17. The Tyndall effect associated with colloidal particles is due to
a) presence of charge b) scattering of light
c) absorption of light d) reflection of light
18. In the case of physical absorption, there is desorption when
a) temperature increases b) tempereature decreases
c) pressure increases d) concentration increases
co m
I
19. Rubber is obtained by
ai .
A
a) dissolving latex in a suitable solvent
o l
s L
b) coagulation of latex
v i
l A
c) evaporation of latex
k a
M
d) all of these
w.
A
20. The unit of cell constant is
ww N
a) ohm-1m-1 b) m-1 c) ohm-1m2eq-1 d) no unit
21. The IUPACname of (CH3)3C-OH is
a) 2,2-dimethyl- 1-propanol
.A N b) neopenthyl alcohol
R
c) 2-methyl -2-propanol d) Trimethylene carbinol
22. Willamson’s synthesis is an example of
a) nucleophilic addition b) electrophilic addition
c) electrophilic substitution d) nucleophilic substitution
23. 1-Methoxy propane and 2-Methoxy propane are
a) metamers b) position isomers
c) functional isomers d) chain isomers
24. Acetophenone and benzophenone can be distinguished by
a) lucas test b) ferric chloride solution
c) iodoform test d) carbylamine test
25. The acid that reduces Tollen’s reagent is
a) methanoic acid b) oxalic acid c) salicylic acid d) oleic acid
26.When nitro methance is condensed with acetone it gives
a) 1-nitro-2-propanol b) 1-nitro-2-methyl-2-propanol
c) 1-nitro-2-methoxy propane d) no reaction
27. Nitrobenzene on electrolytic reduction in conc sulphuric acid the intermediate formed is
a) C6H5-NH-NH-C6H5 b) C6H5NH OH
c) C6H5-N=N-C6H5 d) C6H5HSO4
O
28. The isomerism exhibited by CH3- CH2- N and CH3- CH2- O - N=O is
O
a) position b) chian c) functional d) tautomerism
29.The amino acid without chiral carbon is
a) glycine b) alanine c) proilne d) thyrosine
30. In acid medium amino acids exist in the from of
a) cations b) anions
c) dipolar ions d) neutral molecules
co m
o l AI ai .
al v is
AL
w. k M
ww N A
.A N
R
o l A
c) they form coloured ions and complex saltsI ai .
b) they show variable valency
d) all the above statement are correct.
v is
6. Zn displaces Au from K[Au(CN)2], because
al
a) Zn is more electro positive than Au
AL b) Au is more electro positive than Zn
w. k
c) Zn is more electro negative than Au
M d) Atomic mass of Zn is greater than Au
ww N A
7. The elements in which the extra electron enters (n-2) orbitals are called
N
a) s- block elements b) p-block elements
.A
c) d-block elements d) f-block elements
R
8. Alloys of lanthanides are called as
a) mish - metals b) metalloid c) plate metals d) actinides
9. IUPAC name of the complex K3[Cr(C2O4)3]3H2O is
a) potassium tri oxalato chromate (III) trihydrate
b) triaquo potassium tri oxalato chromate (III)
c) potassium tris (oxalato) chromate (III) trihudrates
d) potassium tris (oxalato) chromate (III) trihudrate
10. High speed projectiles may chip a heavy nucleus into several fragments in
a) nuclear fission reactions b) nuclear fusion reactions
c) spallation reaction d) all of these
11. Bragg’s equations is
a) nλ =2d sin θ b) nd =2λ sin θ c) λd =2n sin θ d) ndλ =2 sin θ
12. Aliquid which obeys Trouton’s rule is
a) H2 b) H2O c) CH3 COOH d) CCl4
13. Change in Gibb’s free energy is given by
a) Δ G = Δ H +T Δ S b) Δ G = Δ H - T Δ S
c) Δ G = Δ H x T Δ S d) none of the above
R.ANNAMALAI M.Sc (Che).,M.Sc (Psy).,M.Phil.,B.Ed. PGT(CHE), G(G)HSS, GINGEE, Page : 83
DISTRICT SECRETARY, TNHSPGTA, VILLUPURAM DT
www.kalvisolai.com
co m
I
a) irreversible
ai .
A
b) it requires activation energy
o l
s L
c) it forms multimolecular layers on adsorbant
v i
l A
d) surface compounds are formed
k a
M
18. An emulsion is a collidal solution of
w.
A
a) two solids b) two liquids
ww N
c) two gases d) one solid and one liquid
19.Awrong statement about catalyst is
.A N
a) remains unchanged in mass and chemical composition at the end of the reaction.
R
b) only a small quantity is needed
c) they do not affect the position of equilibrium
d) they can initiate a reaction.
20. Equimolar solution of which one of the following has greater PH value
a) HCl b) CH3COOH c) NaOH d) NH4OH
21.Iso- butyl alcohol when subjected to victor meyer’s test gives
a) blue colour b) red colour
c)violet colour d) no colour
22. According to lewis concept of acids and bases, ethers are
a) neutral b) acidic c) basic d) amphoteric
23. PCl5does not give HCl with
a) ethyl alcohol b) diethylether
c) acetic acid d) phenol
24. From which of the following tertiary butyl alcohol is obtained by the action of methyl magnesium
iodide?
a) HCHO b) CH3CHO c) CH3COCH3 d) CO2
25. Which one of the following compound gives violet colour with neutral ferric chloride and also
effervescence with sodium bicarbonate?
a) aspirin b) methyl salicylate
c) salicylic acid d) phenol
26. Which one of the following will not undergo diazotisation?
a) m-toluidine b) aniline
c) p- amino phenol d) benzyl amine
27. Biphenyl is the product of
a) Schotten Bauman’s reaction
b) Gomberg reaction
c) Friedel craft’s reaction
d) sand meyer reaction
28. During nitration of aniline m-nitro aniline is also formed due to
co m
I .
a) meta directing nature of -NH2 group
ai
l A
b) protonation of -NH2 group
c) +I effect of -NH2 group
is o L
d) resonance in benzene
al v A
. k
29. Inversion of sucrose referes to
w M
a) oxidation of sucrose
ww
b) reducation of sucrose
N A
d) polymerisation of sucrose
.A N
c) hydrolysis of sucrose, to glucose and fructose
a) - C - NH2
R
30. Which one of the following represents peptide bond
O O
b) - C - N -
H
O
c) - C - NH2 d) - C - NH3 -