1. Use the FALA TAF on page 3 of the supplement.

What is the expected

visibility when thunderstorms are expected?
➢ 10 Km or more
2. The temperature at FL80 is +6°C, what will temperature be at FL130 if the
ICAO standard lapse rate is applicant?
➢ -4°C
3. The most hazardous type of cloud that may be encountered on a cross
country flight is?
➢ Cb Cumulonimbus
4. Which of the following clouds are classified as medium level clouds in
temperate regions?
➢ As, Ac
5. In which of these cloud types is airframe icing most unlikely to occur?
➢ Ci
6. Which of the following is true regarding a Berg Wind?
➢ It only occurs in the South African West Coast
7. Which of the following is typical for the passage of an active cold front in
the summer in Europe?
➢ Showers and good visibility
8. An air mass is unstable when?
➢ An ascending parcel of air continues to rise to a considerable
height
9. Runway Visual Range is
➢ Usually better than visibility
10. A cumulonimbus cloud and mid-latitudes in summer contains?
➢ Ice crystal, water droplets and super cooled water droplets
11. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause airframe icing
➢ FZRA
12. An a/c is flying over the sea at FL100 with a true altitude of 10000ft. local
QNH is 1000 hpa. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air
mass in which the a/c is flying?
➢ It is warmer than ISA
13. If the QFE, QNH and QFF of an airport have the same value?
➢ Airport must be at MSL
14. The dissipating stage of a thunderstorm is characterized by
➢ Formation of anvil
15. Using the DA formulae, calculate the approximate DA corresponding to
the pressure altitude of 15000ft and a temp of ISA +5°C (assume 30ft/hpa
and 120ft/1°C)
➢ 15600ft
16. A sea breeze is
➢ Stronger than a land breeze
17. In aviation, temperature given in metrological information is
➢ Measured 10m above the ground
18. According to Buy Ballots Law
➢ In the SH with your back to the wind, the low pressure is on
your RIGHT

19. Use the TAF for FAJS on page 3 of the supplement. What does the term
“4000 BR” indicate?
➢ Visibility of 4000 in mist
20. You must make an emergency landing, area the QNH of a field on a
nearby island with an elevation of 4000ft is 1025 hpa and the
temperature is -20°C. What is your pressure altimeter reading when
landing if 1025 hpa is set in the subscale?
➢ Less than 0ft
21. For the following question, use a lapse rate of 30ft/hpa. The altimeter is
set to 1013.2 hpa. The aircraft has to land on a point with an elevation of
290ft where he QNH is 1023 hpa. The reading on the altimeter on the
ground will be
➢ .
22. Select both correct options to obtain the allocated mark. With which type
of cloud is snow NOT normally associated with?
➢ Cirrus and Sc
23. The wind direction in a METAR is measured relative to
➢ True North
24. Clear ice cannot be expected when flying through
➢ Cirriform cloud
25. A danger associated with flying from an area of high pressure to an area
of low pressure with a constant altimeter setting is that the
➢ Altimeter will over-read and the true height would decrease
26. Large hail stone
➢ Are typically associated with severe thunderstorms
27. In the vicinity of industrial areas, smoke is most likely to affect ground
visibility when
➢ There is low level inversion
28. The geostrophic wind speed is directly proportional to the
➢ Horizontal pressure gradient
29. Which of the statements is true concerning squall lines?
➢ For severe squall lines a Sigmet is issued
30. The type of fog that occurs at night with clear skies and little or no wind
on the Highveld is
➢ Radiation fog
31. The temperature and relative humidity associated with a Tropical
Maritime Air Mass at its source are typically
➢ Warm temperatures high relative humidity
32. When flying at 5000ft in the NH over plains (flat country) with an
anticyclone on the left and a depression on the right, the wing will be?
➢ Headwind
33. When deposition takes place, it is true to say that latent heat
➢ Is released during the process (causes a cooling of surrounding
air)
34. Microbursts area a hazard associated with thunderstorms. These
normally last for
➢ 1-5 minutes
35. Advection is a metrological form referring to
➢ Horizontal movement of air
36. The air with a depression will?
➢ Converge
37. In a low pressure system, the isobars are generally
➢ Closely spaced which results in windy weather
38. With reference to a cold front in South Africa a pilot can expect
➢ The wind to
39. Runway visual Range can be reported in
➢ Metar
40. How does the height of the tropopause normally vary with latitude in the
NH
➢ It decreases from South to North
41. Use the Sigwix Chart on page7 of the supplement. What is the height of
the Sc cloud tops at 34S:25E?
➢ FL080
42. The presence of a Nimbostratus cloud is often an indication of?
➢ Approaching warm front
43. Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the Metar?
[00000kt 0200 R14/0800U R16/1500U FZFG VV00 M03/M03 Q1022
BECMG 0800=]
➢ RVR for rwy 14 is 800m, vertical visibility 100ft, calm, visibility
improving to 800m in the next 2 hours
44. What causes the change of temperature in a parcel of air that forced to
rise
➢ ELR
45. Use Fig 2 on page 5 of the supplement. What is the expected freezing
level at 30S:25E?
➢ 13000ft AMSL
46. Which of the following metrological phenomena can rapidly change the
braking action of a runway?
➢ +FZRA
47. Along which part of South Africa coastline can a pilot expect advection
fog to occur frequently?
➢ A Cape West Coast
48. Use the FALA TAF on page 3 of your supplement to answer this question.
What code is used to indicate the minimum temperature?
➢ TN
49. Advection of very cold air over a warm sea current can cause
➢ Steam fog
50. What information is given on a Significant Weather Chart?
➢ The significant weather forecast for the time given on the
chart

1. Which of the following clouds may extend into more than one layer
➢ Nimbostratus
2. The morning following a clear, calm night when the temperature has
dropped to the dewpoint
➢ Radiation fog
3. You are flying from east to west in the northern hemisphere at the
500hpa pressure surface, which statement is correct?
➢ If the wind is from the north you are gaining altitude
4. Use fig 4 on page 7 of the supplement. At position 23S:23E the cloud base
is indicated
➢ FL130
5. If you are flying at FL100 in an air mass that is 10°C warmer than a
standard atmosphere
➢ +5°C
6. In metrology, convection is the
➢ Vertical movement of air
7. Stratus is a form of
➢ Low level cloud
8. What pressure is defined as QFE?
➢ The pressure at field elevation
9. Wind that flows parallel to straight isobars is called a
➢ Geostrophic wind
10. During winter, the typical weather associated with a col is?
➢ Fog or low stratus
11. The Indian Ocean high pressure system is?
➢ The primary cause of the higher rainfall in the east of South
Africa
12. Assuming that an initial “trigger” force is present, the conditions most
likely to result in the form
➢ High relative humidity and conditional instability throughout a
deep layer
13. In aviation, gusts will only be reported when the wind velocity changes by
➢ 10 knots or more
14. Airframe icing caused by large super-cooled droplets is called
➢ Clear ice
15. Use the FALA TAF on page 3 supplement. What is the expected visibility
when thunderstorms
➢ 10 km or more
16. Geostrophic wind
➢ Is perpendicular to the horizontal pressure gradient force
17. If QFE, QNH and QFF of an airport have the same value
➢ Airport must be MSL
18. Maximum amount of water vapour that the air can contain depends on
➢ Air temperature
19. During a flight over the sea at FL135, the true altitude is 13500ft, local
QNH is 1019 hpa, what is the air mass in which the aircraft is flying?
 ➢ It is colder than ISA
20. The measurement of runway visual range (RVR) may only be done with
an instrument called a transmissistor only
➢ True
21. A cumulonimbus cloud in the vicinity of an aeroplane can cause certain
navigation systems to give false indications, this is particularly true of the
➢ ADF
22. A piston engine aircraft is flying a standard circuit pattern (1000ft AGL) at
an aerodome where the altimeter set at 1020hpa. What is the aircraft
height above ground level with when the altimeter indicate at a rate of
30ft/hpa
➢ 760ft
23. Which of the following phenomena can produce a risk of aquaplaning?
➢ +RA
24. Use Fig4 on page 7 of the supplement. The base of the layer of broken
altocumulus cloud (referred to 23E:23S) is at FL130. At what height its
tops
➢ It is indicated on another chart
25. Along which part of the South African coastline can a pilot expect
advction fog to uccur frequently
➢ A Cape West coast

26. With what type of cloud is +TSRA precipitation most commonly associated?

➢ Cab
27. When is the RVR reported in most airports?

➢ When the visibility decreases below 1500m

28. What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on
the ground shortly before a cold front?

➢ It will be increasing
29. The South African Berg wind is essentially a

➢ Wind flowing downslope from the interior to the coast, heating as it

descends
30. At a coastal airfield with its runway perpendicular to the coast, landing during
the day will normally

➢ Towards the sea because of a sea breeze

31. In which of these clouds types can icing be virtually ruled out

➢ Ci
32. What will the effect be on radiation fog when the wind speed increases
sufficiently.

➢ T will dissipate
33. At the surface the lifetime of a typical microburst and the diameter of the area
affected by damaging is

➢ 1-5 minutes and 4Km

34. In which layer is most of the atmospheric humidity concentrated

➢ Troposphere
35. At the same latitude the geostrophic wind is less than the gradient wind and an
anti cyclone because

➢ Centrifugal force is added to pressure gradient

36. Snow is occasionally associated with

➢ Thick low altocumulus cloud

37. Orographic clouds are formed by

➢ Air being forced to rise above high ground

38. Use the FBSK TAF on page 3 of the supplement how long is TAF valid for

➢ 30 hours
39. Absolute instability in the atmosphere will occur when environmental lapse rate
is

➢ Greater than both SALR and DALR

40. The cloud base, reported in the METAR, is the height above

➢ AMSL
41. Use Fig 1 on page 5 of the supplement. What is the FL of the jet stream of
30S:10W?

➢ FL370, fluctuating between FL230 and FL450

42. The environmental lapse rate in an actual atmosphere

➢ Varies with time

43. Using the density altitude formulae, what is the approximate density altitude of
an airport with an elevation 7250ft +20 and an QNH of 1005 hpa? (Assume
30ft/happy and 120ft/1C)

➢ 9890ft
44. A polar maritime air mass is

➢ Cold and stable at it source

45. What is the lowest cloud base that is most likely to be expected during an
approach into Madrid? TAF LEMD 281200Z 281812 13005KT CAVOK TEMPO 1821
8000 SCT020 SCT030 BECMG 2123 21005KY 9999 SCT015 BKN080 PROB40 TEMPO
2306 6000 SCT008=

➢ 800ft
46. The temperature and relative humidity associated with a Tropical Continental
air mass at its source

➢ Warm temperature and low relative humidity

47. Use the FALA TAF on page 3 of the supplement. What does “22008KT” indicate?

➢ A wind is blowing towards 220T at 8kts

48. Use a lapse rate of 30 feet per hpa to answer the following question. For a given
airfield the QFE is 980 hpa and the QNH IS 1000 hpa. The appropriate elevation of
the airfield is

➢ 600ft
49. Poor visibility due to haze is normally associated with

➢ An anti cyclone

50. In exceptional circumstances thunderstorms can occur in a warm front if

➢ The warm air is unstable

1. Using the density altitude formulae, calculate the approximate density

altitude corresponding to a pressure altitude 15000ft and a temperature
of ISA +15C (assume 30ft/hops and 120ft/1C)
➢ 15600ft
2. Which stage of thunderstorm development are microbursts and
lightening associated with?
➢ Mature stage
3. In which season would a thunderstorm occur most frequently in SA?
➢ Summer
4. During winter the typical weather associated with a col is
➢ Fog n low stratus
5. Frontal thunderstorms tend yo form?
➢ In a line and are often accompanied by squall lines
6. Sea breeze is
➢ Stronger than a land breeze
7. Which of the following zones is most likely to encounter little or no
precipitation?
➢ The north side of the Alps with a prevailing Föhn wind from the
south
8. Anti cyclones are also known as
➢ Polar ridges
9. A polar maritime airmass is
➢ Cold and stable at its source
10. What will the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked
on the ground during the period following the passage of an active cold
front?
➢ It will have decreased
11. Advection of very cold air over a warm sea current can cause:
➢ Scream fog
12. By what recommended minimum distance should an aircraft flying below
2000ft avoid a thunderstorm when a weather radar echo displays sharp
edges of a strong intensity?
➢ Atleast 5nm from the echo
13. In the FVHA METAR on page 4 of the supplement. What does the term
NOSIG refer to.
➢ No significant changes are expected to the observed elements
within the 2 hours following the time of observation
14. Haze is mostly caused by
➢ Smoke, dust or sand particles
15. In which of the following situations will the greatest diurnal temperature
variation occur?
➢ Over land with clear skies and no wind
16. In aviation, gusts will only be reported when the wind velocity changes by
➢ 10 knots or more
17. What is the lowest possible cloud base forecast fro ETA 1700 UTC at
Kingston?
 TAF MKJP 160000Z 160606 36010kt 9999 FEW025 BECMG 1315
14020G34KT FEW015CB SCT025 PROB30 TEMPO1520 6000 +SHRA
SCT010 BKN015CB BECMG 2301 34010KT FEW025
➢ 1500ft
18. An aircraft lands at an airport evlevation 540ft QNH 993 ha with the
altimeter set to 1013hpa. What will it indicate? [use a lapse rate of 1
hPa/30ft]
➢ 1080ft
19. Which of the following types of clouds is most likely to produce heavy
precipitation?
➢ Ns
20. What does the term SIGMENT signify?
➢ A SIGMENT is a warning of dangerous metrological conditions
21. With reference to a tropical continental air mass, the term “tropical”
refer to its
➢ Temperature

22. The value of the saturated adibatic lapse rate SALR is closest to that of
the DALR in
➢ Cirrus
23. What is the boundary between the troposphere and the stratosphere
called?
➢ Tropopause
24. The weather code BCFG, used in a METAR, means:
➢ Patches of fog.
25. Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. At ETA Bordeaux what is the
lowest quoted visibility forecast?
TAF LFBD 281400Z 281524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620
26020G30KT +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA=
➢ 8km
26. Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR?
00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 M03/M03 Q1022
BECMG 0800=
➢ RVR for runway 14 is 800 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet,
calm, visibility improving 800 metres in the next 2 hours
27. Use FIG 2 on page 5 of the supplement. What is the expected wind
direction at FL170 at 30S 30E.
➢ 195 T
28. An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL090, the true altitude is 9100ft, local
QNH is unknown. What assumption, if any can be made about the air
mass in which the aircraft if flying?
➢ There insufficient information to make any assumption.
29. Good visibility in the lower levels may be expected when?
 ➢ Cool dry air is moving over a warmer surface
30. A hazard associated with lightning at night
➢ Temporary blindness
31. Freezing precipitation occurs
➢ Mainly in the form of freezing rain or freezing drizzle
32. While approaching your destination aerodrome you receive the following
message RVR runway 23 400m. The information indicates the
➢ Length of runway which a pilot in an aircraft on the ground
would see on the threshold of runway 23
33. Under which of these conditions is radiation fog likely to occur
➢ Night time, clear skies, calm wind and temperature below
freezing
34. Geostrophic wind
➢ Is perpendicular to the horizontal pressure gradient force
35. Which type of cloud is being described. A generally grey cloud layer with
fairly uniform base and uniform appearance, which may give drizzle or
snow grains. When the sun is visible through the cloud the outline is
clearly discernible. Sometimes it appears in the form of ragged patches.
➢ Stratus
36. When isobars, for an area in the mid-latitudes on a weather map, are
close together, the wing is most likely to be
➢ Strong
37. Which of the following is not usually associated with typical South African
thunderstorms?
➢ Ice accretion
38. Stratus is a form of
➢ Low level cloud
39. Use the SIG WIX chart on page 7 of the supplement. What does the
symbol located at approximately 36S:18E mean?
➢ Moderate aircraft icing
40. Which of the following temperature corresponds to ISA +5C at FL 390 in
the International Standard Atmosphere
➢ -58.0C
41. An inversion is when
➢ The temperature increase with height
42. On the Significant Weather Chart, we see the following indications: 100
SCT CU__060. The forecast charts for FL 050 and FL 100 both indicate a
wind from 320/15 kt. In flight at FL 055 over an area of plains (flat
country) during the validity period of the Significant Weather Chart, we
observe moderate turbulence. This turbulence is caused by
➢ Wind shear
43. The geostrophic wind
➢ Is perpendicular to the horizontal pressure gradient force
44. In general, what effect does the geostrophic force have on the upper air
flowing from the equator to the poles in the Southern Hemisphere?
➢ !
45. Use a lapse rate of 30ft/ups to answer the following question. For a given
airfield the QFE is 980hpa and the QNH 1000 hpa. The approximate
elevation of the airfield is
➢ 600ft
46. When evaporation takes place it is true to say that latent heat
➢ Is absorbed during the process
47. Typical summer weather associated with the Highveld of South Africa is:
➢ !
➢ Clear skies afternoon thunderstorms
48. The presence of altocumulus Castillorus indicates
➢ Instability in the middle troposphere
49. An aircraft is descending to land under IFR. If the local QNH is 1009 hpa,
what will happen to the altitude reading when the altimeter is reset at
the transition level
➢ It will decrease
50. In which of these clouds types can icing be virtually ruled out?
➢ Ci

1. What is the typical weather normally associated with a depression

➢ Good visibility when not in precipitation
2. Which of the following types of cloud can extend over the low, medium
and high
➢ Cb
3. The most effective way to dissipate cloud is by
➢ Subsidence

4. The air within an upper air depression will

➢ Diverge
5. An aircraft is exciting a non-precision approach with a Minimum Descent
Height OF 500ft. The local QNH IS 1010 hpa. The pilot still has the
altimeter set to 1013 hpa. What is the actual height of the aircraft above
ground when the aircraft reaches the Minimum Descent Altitude
1hPa=30ft
➢ ,!
6. Good visibility on the lower levels may be expected when
➢ Cold dry air is moving over warm surface
7. In exceptional circumstances thunderstorms can occur in a warm front if
➢ The warm air is unstable
8. Airframe icing cause by small super cooled droplets is called
➢ Rime ice
9. Using the density altitude formulae, what is the approximate density
altitude of an airport with an elevation of 7250ft +20C and a QNH of 1005
hpa? (Assume 30hpa and 120ft/1C)
➢ ,
10. In addition, the environmental lapse rate is assumed to be approximately
➢ 1.89C/1000ft
11. Use the FALA TAF on page 3 of the supplement. What is the expected
visibility when thunderstorm are expected?
➢ 10km or more
12. Use FIG 4 on page 7 of the supplement. At positions 23S23E, the Ac cloud
base is at “130”, what does this reflect?
➢ FL130
13. In aviation, temperature given in metrological information is
➢ Is measured 10 metres above the ground
14. Freezing precipitation occurs
➢ Mainly in the form of freezing rain or freezing drizzle
15. If CAVOK is reported then
➢ No low drifting snow is present
16. Which form of precipitation could be associated with stratus or
stratocumulus cloud?
➢ Continuos rain
17. An aircraft is flying over the alps on a warm summer day. Weather is fine
and there is a high pressure system in the flight. The aircraft passes a
mountain peak of the same altitude as the summit. What reading will the
altimeter give compared to the summits elevation?
➢ A lower altitude than elevation of the summit
18. Most lighting will be found in the region
➢ Near the anvil
19. What effect does the geostrophic force have on air flowing from the
equator to the poles in the upper levels of the atmosphere
➢ ,
20. Which of the following weather reports could be in accordance with this
regulation abbreviated CAVOK
➢ ,
21. An aircraft is descending to land under IFR. If the local QNH is 1009 hpa.
What will happen to the altitude reading when reset at the transition
level?
➢ It will decrease
22. A wind blowing down a valley slope will be most likely during
➢ The night
23. The dewpoint temperature
➢ Can be reached by cooling the air whilst keeping pressure
constant
24. An air mass is unstable when
 ➢ An ascending parcel of air continues to rise to a considerable
height
25. When only one RVR value is reported, it must be the value representative
of
➢ The touchdown zone only
26. During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterised
predominantly by downdrafts
➢ Dissipating stage
27. Typical weather associated with a ridge is normally similar to that of
➢ Anticyclone
28. With what type of cloud I’d Dz precipitation most commonly associated?
➢ Stratus
29. What is the boundary between the troposphere and the stratosphere
called?
➢ Tropopause
30. The morning following a clear, calm night, where the temperature has
dropped to the dew point, is likely to produce
➢ Radiation fog
31. Which of the following statement is correct?
➢ The Coriolis force is inversely proportional to the sine of
latitude
32. Which of the following circumstances most favour the development of
radiation fog
➢ Moist air over land during clear night with little wind
33. An aircraft is on a cross country flight where the local QNH is 1008 hpa
and the and the highest obstacle is 3150ft amsl. To overfly the obstacle
by a height of 1000ft with the altimeter set at 1013 hPa, the altimeter
must indicate a minimum of (assume 30ft/hPa)
➢ 4300ft
34. In which of the following parts of South Africa is advection fog a common
occurrence?
➢ The KwaZulu Natal north coast
35. The western interior of South Africa is mainly characterised by
➢ Low rainfall
36. Typical weather associated with a Polar Continental air mass is
➢ Cold and dry conditions
37. Use FIG 4 on page 7 of the supplement. The base of the layer of broken
altocumulus cloud (referred to by the information23E 23S) is at FL 130. At
what height is its top?
➢ It is indicated on another chart
38. Use the FACT SPECI for 2011-03-08 on page 4 of the supplement. What
does “R01/1300VP 2000D” indicate at 0032?
➢ N
39. What type of cloud is being described? A generally grey cloud layer with
fairly uniform base and uniform appearance, which may give drizzle or
snow grams. When the sun is visible through the cloud, the outline is
clearly discernible. Sometimes it appears in the form of ragged patches.
➢ Stratus
40. Complete the sentence: flight visibility from the cockpit during an
approach in a tropical downpour can decrease to as low
➢ 10 meters
41. The presence of Nimbostratus cloud is often an indication of:
➢ An approaching warm front
42. Where is the reported surface wind measured at an airport?
➢ 10m above an even ground surface
43. Use FIG 1 on page 5 supplement. What is the vicinity of a thunderstorm
➢ 140 kts
44. Where can a pilot expect to find hail in the vicinity of a thunderstorm?
➢ Inside and below the cloud and beneath the anvil
45. Use the FQMA TAF on page 3 of the supplement. What does the term
SHRA mean?
➢ Showers of rain
46. When will the surface wind in a METAR record a gust factor?
➢ When gusts are atleast 10kts above the mean wind speed
47. The Namib coastal desert is normally associated with?
➢ Low rainfall for most of the year but low temperature because
of the cold Benguela ocean current.
48. Which statement is correct for the Southern Hemisphere?
➢ In the friction layer the wind backs with increasing height
49. The typical weather associated with a polar Continental air mass is?
➢ Cold and dry conditions
50. The temperature at FL 110 is -5C. What will the temperature be at FL 50 if
ICAO Standard lapse
➢ 0C