MMUP Electronics V1.5 - With Answers PDF

MMUP Electronics
Exam Questions
The questions in this file were collected from previous exams and from the PDF file (219
Pages, ElecUPDA). Most of the questions are correct but some of them might not be. This
file is not completed yet, but I am sharing for those who will have the exam soon. The file
will be updated, and new versions will be shared. Some of the question still hand written
at the end of this file. This file covers all the questions in PFD file (219 Pages, ElecUPDA).
Answers highlighted in yellow need confirmation.
Thanks to all engineers whom collected the PFD file (219 Pages, ElecUPDA) and to Eng. Amir
for doing a great job correcting a lot of these questions and to all Engineers contributed by
sharing exams questions and knowledge on the following WhatsApp group.
UPDA Electrical
https://chat.whatsapp.com/4aOXpURSaOOKz7w2xbwrla
File Version: 1.4

If you have any ideas to make this file better, please contact me
Created by: Essam Mohamed Ismail
Essam.m.ismail@gmail.com
1
1- Motor Questions:
1. What do we call Synchronous motor working on a lead power factor at no load?

a. Synchronous condenser
b. Reluctance motor
2. A synchronous motor on No-load can be used as:
a. synchronous condenser
b. induction motor
c. induction generator
3. Synchronizing motor leading power factor
a. Synchronic condenser
b. Universal motor
c. Relocating motor
Hint:
a synchronous condenser (sometimes called a synchronous capacitor or synchronous compensator) is a
DC-excited synchronous motor, whose shaft is not connected to anything but spins freely. Its purpose is
not to convert electric power to mechanical power or vice versa, but to adjust conditions on the electric
power transmission grid. Its field is controlled by a voltage regulator to either generate or absorb reactive
power as needed to adjust the grid's voltage, or to improve power factor. The power factor of a
synchronous motor is changed with a change in the excitation. When the excitation of the motor is
increased, the power factor changes from lagging to unity and then to a leading power factor. When over-
excited, the motor runs with leading power factor (and supplies vars to the grid) and when under-excited
with lagging power factor (and absorbs vars from the grid). In between, the power factor is unity.
4. Which type of motor used in home ceiling fan:

a. capacitor motor
b. shaded pole motor
c. universal motor
5. Which type of motor used in ceiling fan?
a. Capacitor start type
b. Permanent capacitor run
c. Capacitor induction run.
6. Starting method of IP Motors used in House holding Fans?
a. Capacitor Start
b. Induction start
c. Split phase
d. none of the above
7. Best starting for single phase motor.
a. Connect resistor
b. Connect inductor
c. Connect resistor and inductor in series
d. Connect capacitor.
8. What is the best economical way to start a single phase motor
a. Resistive method
b. Inductive method
c. Capacitive method
d. None of the above
9. Which of the following Braking system is used in the induction Motor?
a. Regenerative Barking
b. Plugging Braking
2
c. Dynamic Braking
d. All of the above.
10. A synchronous motor at over excited can be used as:
a. Leading power factor
b. Motor unity
c. Motor lagging
11. Induction motor operating at frequency of 50HZ, and no-load speed 2900 RPM. What is the slip frequency?
a- 0.33 HZ
b- 1.67 HZ
12. Induction motor running at asynchronous speed the torque will be
a. low
b. High
c. 0
13. Induction load running at stability the slip is
a. 1
b. 0
14. Induction motor running with steady rotor (not rotating), the slip will be
a- 1
c- 0
Hint:
S = (ns - nr)/ns
- When rotor stop then nr = 0, then s = 1
- When rotor is running at stability this means nr = ns, then s = 0
- When rotor rotate with speed less than ns, then the rang of s = (from 0.01 to 0.3) approximate
depending on the load
15. How much is the slip for synchronous generators?
a. Zero
b. Negative
c. Positive
16. What are the type of losses inside the alternator:
a. Armature losses (Core Losses-Hysteresis Loss & Eddy Current Losses)
b. Friction & Windage Losses (Bearing, Fan, rotor etc.)
17. Alternator connected on no load condition, what affect the efficiency.
a. Speed
b. Voltage
c. Armature losses
18. Changing in the excitation in grid having an alternator connected to it will having the following effect
a. Change in active component
b. Change in reactive component
c. No change
d. Power Factor
19. If a sudden excitation happens to the alternator what will be its effect:
a. Variation in real power on load side.
b. Variation in apparent power on load side.
c. Power factor effects.
20. Negative voltage regulation for Synchronous Motor
a. Load has Leading power factor
b. Load has Lagging power factor
d. The frequency of the generated wave form will be affected.
21. Voltage regulation of an alternator may be ________ if connected to capacitive load
3
a. Negative
b. Positive
c. Zero
d. Non
22. Alternator having negative voltage regulation when load has
a. Over speed
b. Under speed
c. Leading power factor
d. Lagging power factor
23. At over excitation for alternator, power factor will be
a) leading PF
b) lagging PF
c) Zero PF
d) unity PF
24. If an alternator is over excited:
a) P.F is lagging.
b) P.F is leading
c) Depends on load connected.
d) Is Unity
25. An alternator is an electromagnetic generator:
a. True
b. False.
26. The power factor of an alternator depends on
a. Load
b. Speed of rotor
c. Core losses
d. Armature losses.
27. Zero power factor method of an alternator is used to find its
a. Efficiency
b. Voltage regulation
c. Armature resistance
d. Synchronous impedance
Hint:
Determination of Voltage Regulation:
There are mainly two methods which are used to determine the regulation of voltage of a smooth
cylindrical rotor type alternators. They are named as direct load test method and indirect methods of
voltage regulation. The indirect method is further classified as Synchronous Impedance Method, Ampere-
turn Method and Zero Power Factor Method.
28. If the input to the prime mover of an alternator is kept constant but the excitation is changed, then the
(a) reactive component (VAR) of the output is changed
(b) active component (W) of the output is changed
(c) power factor of the load remains constant
(d) power factor of the load reduces.
29. How to change the power factor of a generator
a. increase the speed of the rotor
b. Increase field current
Hint:
An alternator is an electrical generator that converts mechanical energy to electrical energy in the form of alternating
current. For reasons of cost and simplicity, most alternators use a rotating magnetic field with a stationary armature.
Occasionally, a linear alternator or a rotating armature with a stationary magnetic field is used. In principle, any AC
electrical generator can be called an alternator, but usually the term refers to small rotating machines driven by
automotive and other internal combustion engines.
4
A conductor moving relative to a magnetic field develops an electromotive force (EMF) in it (Faraday's Law). This EMF
reverses its polarity when it moves under magnetic poles of opposite polarity. Typically, a rotating magnet, called the
rotor turns within a stationary set of conductors wound in coils on an iron core, called the stator. The field cuts across
the conductors, generating an induced EMF (electromotive force), as the mechanical input causes the rotor to turn.
The rotating magnetic field induces an AC voltage in the stator windings. Since the currents in the stator windings vary
in step with the position of the rotor, an alternator is a synchronous generator.
The rotor's magnetic field may be produced by permanent magnets, or by a field coil electromagnet. Automotive
alternators use a rotor winding which allows control of the alternator's generated voltage by varying the current in
the rotor field winding. Permanent magnet machines avoid the loss due to magnetizing current in the rotor, but are
restricted in size, due to the cost of the magnet material. Since the permanent magnet field is constant, the terminal
voltage varies directly with the speed of the generator. Brushless AC generators are usually larger than those used in
automotive applications.
An automatic voltage control device controls the field current to keep output voltage constant. If the output voltage
from the stationary armature coils drops due to an increase in demand, more current is fed into the rotating field coils
through the voltage regulator (VR). This increases the magnetic field around the field coils which induces a greater
voltage in the armature coils. Thus, the output voltage is brought back up to its original value.
Alternators used in central power stations also control the field current to regulate reactive power and to help
stabilize the power system against the effects of momentary faults.
How to control power factor output of an alternator in power plant
We can control power factor in a power plant easily. In a power plant the alternator set is supplying power to the grid
independent of load. Thus, in this case there is no load connected to make the power factor lagging or leading, we are
left to control the power factor. Modern power plant control system has automatic system of changing the power
factor by just a command. But how this happens internally is fact to think about.
Say an alternator in a power plant is generating 8.5MW active power and 6.5 MVAr under .85 power factor.
The power factor is the ratio of two power active and reactive. Low power factor means reactive power is high & high
power factor means active power is high. Now say as per demand an operator wants to make the power factor low
say .80. The increase and decrease of power factor command is done in SCDA (Supervisory control and data
acquisition). But as an engineer we need to look-see the internal flow of incident happens when alternator is to control
the power factor. The basic concept of controlling the power factor is to control the ratio of active power to reactive
power.
How active power is controlled in power plant:
One thing only – control the fuel to or torque strength of prime mover! So if you like to increase the active power
increase the fuel to diesel engine or increase steam flow to turbine – increasing the torque, and to decrease the active
load or power do the reverse that is decrease the fuel to prime mover.
How reactive power is controlled in power plant:
One thing only – control the excitation power to rotor circuit! If you like to increase the MVAr or reactive power, then
increase the excitation current in the excitation system. And do decrease to do the reverse. The excitation current to
rotor creates magnetic flux. So, by controlling the strength of magnetic flux we are controlling the reactive power.
Thus, the operator when commands to control the active power and reactive power, the system itself automatically
controls the fuel to prime mover and excitation power to alternator
30. Breaking for induction motor

a. Regeneration
b. Dynamic
c. Plugging
d. All above
31. What will be the effect in system, if we over-excite a synchronous generator?
a) unity Power factor
b) Lagging Power factor
c) Leading Power Factor
d) M/C will stop
32. What is spinning reserve?
5
a. The generating capacity available to the system operator within a short interval of time to meet
demand in case a generator goes down or there is another disruption to the supply.
33. Spinning reserve means
a. Power can be produced but not connected to load.
34. which dc generator has poor voltage regulation
a. series
b. shunt
c. compound generators
Hint:
During On-load conditions its Differential Compounded DC generator that has the poorest voltage
regulation. In differential compound machine shunt and series field flux are subtracted and the net field
flux is reduced. When the generator is loaded, load current (or armature current) flows through the series
field windings creating magnetic flux that opposes the flux created by shunt field. This results in decrease
of induced emf and, therefore, in terminal voltage. In such generators the terminal voltage drops very
rapidly with the increase in load current and, therefore it is interesting to note that a short- circuit cannot
cause any damage to it.
35. If the induction motor speed at no-load is 745 RPM, what is the speed of the motor:
a. 700 RPM
b. 750 RPM
c. 800 RPM
d. 850 RPM
36. If an induction motor at 50 Hz, has a speed at no-load of 745 RPM, what will be the synchronous speed of
the motor:
a. 700 RPM
b. 750 RPM
c. 800 RPM
d. 850 RPM
37. A 4pole Alternator runs in 750 rpm, what is the frequency?
a. 50 HZ
b. 25Hz
c. 60Hz
38. Synchronous speed for motor 3000 RPM, 50Hz, calculate number of poles.
a. P = 2
b. P = 4
c. P = 6
39. Synchronous speed for motor 8000 RPM, rotor speed 7500 RPM calculate slip.
a. S = 0.0625
b. S = 0.2
c. S = 1
d. S = 0
40. A synchronous generator running at a speed of 1200 rpm and its frequency is 100 HZ, then what will be
quantity of poles used in that generator?
a) 8
b) 10
c) 12
d) 4
41. The staring torque of a capacitor start motor is
a) 0
b) Low
c) Same as rated torque
6
d) More than rated torque
42. A capacitor start single phase induction motor will usually have a power factor of
a. unity
b. 0.8 leading
c. 0.6 leading
d. 0.6 lagging.
43. A capacitor start, capacitor run single phase induction motor is basically a
a. ac series motor
b. dc series motor
c. 2 phase induction motor
d. 3 phase induction motor.
Hint:
Single phase motor can't start by own because single phase can't generate rotating magnetic field or
starting torque. So single phase motor modified in two phase by introducing one more winding. Capacitor
introduced in the second winding to create two phase. This two phase winding will generate rotating
magnetic field and starting torque. Second winding will called starting winding which is introduced for
starting of motor.
44. The torque developed by a split phase motor is proportional to
(A) Sine of angle between lm and ls
(B) Cosine of angle between lm and Is
(C) Main winding current, Im
(D) Auxiliary winding current, Is
45. A capacitor start single phase induction motor is switched on the supply with its capacitor replaced by an
inductor of equivalent reactance value. It will
(A) not start
(B) start and run
(C) start and then stall
(D) none of the above.
46. The number of turns in the starting winding of a capacitor start motor as compared to that for split phase
motor is
(A) same
(B) more
(C) less
(D) none of the above.
Hint:
Capacitor-Start Induction Motor: a larger capacitor may be used to start a single phase induction motor
via the auxiliary winding if it is switched out by a centrifugal switch once the motor is up to speed.
Moreover, the auxiliary winding may be many more turns of heavier wire than used in a resistance split-
phase motor to mitigate excessive temperature rise. The result is that more starting torque is available for
heavy loads like air conditioning compressors.
47. In a split phase motor, the ratio of number of turns for starting winding to that for running winding is
(A) 2.0
(B) more than 1
(C) 1.0
(D) less than 1
Hint:
A split-phase motor has a secondary startup winding (auxiliary winding) that is 90 electrical degrees to the
main winding (running winding), always centered directly between the poles of the main winding and
connected to the main winding by a set of electrical contacts. The coils of this winding (startup winding)
are wound with fewer turns of smaller wire than the main winding (running winding), so it has a lower
7
inductance and higher resistance. The position of the winding creates a small phase shift between the flux
of the main winding and the flux of the starting winding, causing the rotor to rotate. When the speed of
the motor is sufficient to overcome the inertia of the load, the contacts are opened automatically by a
centrifugal switch or electric relay.
48. A single phase motor generally used for small air compressor is
(A) capacitor start capacitor run motor
(B) reluctance motor
(C) universal motor
(D) shaded pole motor.
49. Out of the following motors, which will give the highest starting torque?
(A) Universal motor
(B) Capacitor start motor
(C) Shaded pole motor
(D) All have zero starting torque.
50. Which single phase ac motor will you select for record players and tape recorders?
(A) Hysteresis motor
(B) Shaded pole motor
(C) Reluctance motor
(D) Two value capacitor motor.
51. A universal motor is one
(A) which can run on any value of supply voltage
(B) which has infinitely varying speed
(C) which can operate on ac as well as dc voltage
(D) which can work as single phase or three phase motor.
52. Under normal operating conditions which motor can run at 5000 rpm ?
(A) Synchronous motor
(B) Induction motor
(C) Universal motor
(D) No motor can give 5000 rpm.
53. Which motor is generally used for electric shavers
a) Reluctance motor
b) Shaded pole motor
c) Hysteresis motor
d) Universal motor
43. The starting capacitor of a single phase motor is
a) Electrolytic type
b) Ceramic type
c) Paper type
d) None of the above
Hint:
Start capacitors briefly increase motor starting torque and allow a motor to be cycled on and off rapidly.
A start capacitor stays in the circuit long enough to rapidly bring the motor up to a predetermined speed,
which is usually about 75% of the full speed, and is then taken out of the circuit, often by a centrifugal
switch that releases at that speed. Afterward the motor works more efficiently with a run capacitor. Start
capacitors are normally above 20 µF that is why we use always non-polarized aluminum electrolytic
capacitors with large capacitance.
44. The motor used in household refrigerators is
(A) dc series motor
(B) dc shunt motor
8
(C) universal motor
(D) single phase induction motor.
2- Rectifier Questions:
45. Cascade amplifier is used because
a. High Voltage gain
b. High output impedance
c. High input impedance
46. Cascade amplifier used to reduce load effect, the input impedance will be
a. High
b. Low
c. Medium
(Advantage: high band width and stability, Disadvantage: Require relatively high voltage supply)
47. Cascaded amplifier used to reduce load effect, the output impedance will be
a. High
b. Low
c. Medium
48. The output for the Cascade amplifier is (Confirm answer)
a. The output of the first stage
b. Output of the last stage
49. The load resistance of Cascade amplifier is (Confirm answer)
a. The resistance after the first stage
b. The resistance before the first stage
c. The resistance after the second stage
d. The resistance before the second stage
50. What is the low-pass filter?
a. It will let pass low frequencies? (or it blocks high frequency)
b. It will let pass high frequencies?
c. It will let pass a band of frequencies?
d. It will eliminate a band of frequencies?
51. What is the role of the Zener diode?
a. Rectification
b. Amplification
c. voltage regulation
52. Filter in active region
a. filters the signal
b. filters, amplifies and modulates
c. Filters and amplifies
53. Type of amplifier used at receiver in order to amplify the signal?
a. Power amplifier
b. Differential Amplifier
54. When using Zener diode for voltage regulation, the output waveform shape will be affected by
a- Dynamic resistance of the diode
b- Input current passing through the diode
55. For an inverter op-amp, what will be the equivalent output resistance?
a) Relative forward resistance
b) Infinity
c) 0
d) Same as the input resistance
9
e) None of the above
56. The heat loss inside a straight conductor is 60J upon applying current I for 5s. if the resistance of the
conductor is decease to half, and the same current is applied for 5s, what will be the heat dissipation:
a. 60J
b. 30J
c. 15J
d. 120J
57. Fan out logic gate is
a. Number of gate
b. Number of gate connect to output
58. Type of amplifier at transmitter?
a. Power amplifier
b. Differential Amplifier
59. Loading effect can be reduced in a system by using
a. Integrator
b. Inverted Amplifier
c. Non - Inverted Amplifier
d. Diff Amplifier
60. Transformer humming due to
a. Vibration in Lamination
b. vibration in oil
61. If fuse rate = 8 Ampere, what does mean?
a. It will melt if current increased above 8 A
b. Can’t pass current below 8 A
62. First line in transmission
a. Ground
b. R-phase
c. B-phase
d. Neutral
63. Circuit breaker is
a. Current interrupting device
b. Power factor detection device
64. Incandescent lamp operating at a power factor of
a. Leading
b. Lagging
c. Unity
d. Zero
65. Terminal represents control input of BJT
a. Emitter
b. Base
c. Collector
66. Transducers convert physical quantity into
a. Electrical
b. Light
c. Motion
d. Mechanical
67. Sensor transducers will transfer.
a. Move to electrical signals
b. Heat to mechanical signal.
10
68. Sensor transducers (temperature, motion, etc ) will transfer to what type of signal
a. electrical signals
b. mechanical signal.
69. Common breakers used in distribution level
a. Air circuit breaker ACB
b. Oil type
c. Vacuum VCB
70. Difference between MOSFET and BJT
a. MOSFET amplifies current
b. BJT is bigger in size and dimensions
71. What is the DC gain of the transistor NPN?
a. IE/IC
b. Vout/Vin
c. IC/IB.
they put also the formulas of the MOSFET which are wrong for this question
72. How the diode let pass the current?
a. Only in one way, it will block the other way
b. Both ways
73. Terminals of a transistor (BJT):
a. Base, collector & emitter
b. gate, collector & emitter
c. gate, emitter & drain
74. Differential Amplifier with High CMRRS means:
a. High rejection of noise
b. Amplify noise
c. High amplification gain
75. Op-amp (operational amplifier) input resistance:
a. Zero
b. Infinity
c. Relative resistance
d. Same output resistance.
76. Which of the following devices has a metal–semiconductor junction formed between a metal and a
semiconductor:
a. Schottky diode
b. Zener diode
c. varactor diode
d. tunnel diode
77. CMOS inverter is superior to the R-pull up inverter due to:
a. High impedance
b. Smaller propagation delay
c. Symmetric transfer characteristics
78. Inverter allowed noise level question given the values of VOH = 3, VOL = 0.5, VIH = 1, VIL = 0.8. And need to get
NMH and NML
a. 2, 0.3
b. 3, 0.1
c. 1, 0.3
NMH = VOH – VIH
NML = VIL – VOL
Make sure both are >0
11
79. To get rid of DC offset use?
a. Low pass filter
b. high pass filter
c. Band pass filter
d. Stop band pass filter
80. For forward biasing
a. Anode 3v cathode 7v
b. Anode 5v cathode 3v
c. Anode 7v cathode 10v
81. Amplifier working with good gain in?
a. Reverse region
b. Cutoff region
c. Active region
82. What is MOSFET
a. Transistor
b. Thyristors
c. Amplifier
83. What is the efficiency of BJT
a. IC/IB
b. IE/IC
c. IB/IC
84. What is the power consumption of BJT (not Sure about Answer)
a. 15%
b. 50%
c. 80%
85. Ripple Factor of Zener Diode Depends on:
a. Zener Voltage
b. I/P Impedance
c. O/P Impedance
86. A passive filter can
a. filter only
b. filter & amplify only
c. amplify only
87. I/P side of the GSM Network should contain?
a. Low Pass Filter
b. High Pas Filter
c. Band Pass Filter
d. None of the above.
88. Lower current frequency of an NPN transistor depends on (Not Sure about Answer)
a. Input Imp
b. OP/P imp
c. System Voltage
d. All of the above
89. BJT will act as a switch in which region?
a) Ohmic Region
b) Saturation Region
c) Active Region
d) Passive Region
12
90. Cascaded amplifier used to reduce load effect, the output impedance will be
a. High
b. Low
c. Medium
91. Cascaded amplifier used to reduce load effect, the input impedance will be
d. High
e. Low
f. Medium
92. To minimized loading effect use?
a. Resistance
b. Capacitors.
c. Inductors.
93. To minimized loading effect used.
a. Inverter amplifier
b. Non inverter amplifier
c. Integrator
94. BJT acts as a switch in:
a. Linear Region
b. Saturation Region
c. Active Region
95. Which one will be true for an active filter
a) filter only
b) filter& amplify
c) amplify only
d) none of the above
3- General & Non-Electrical Questions:

96. What is QSAS?
a. Qatar Sustainability Assessment System
b. Qatar Sustainability Assisting Systems
97. “Question regarding what an engineer does!
98. What one of the below devices is faster and consumes less power in large scale projects?
a. DSP (Digital Signal Processing)
b. Microcontrollers
c. ASIC
d. FPGA
Hint:
Pipelining (DSP implementation) : Pipelining is an important technique used in several applications such
as digital signal processing (DSP) systems, microprocessors, etc. It originates from the idea of a water pipe
with continuous water sent in without waiting for the water in the pipe to come out. Accordingly, it results
in speed enhancement for the critical path in most DSP systems. For example, it can either increase the
clock speed or reduce the power consumption at the same speed in a DSP system
99. For Fire alarm & smoke detector it is preferable to use

a. Microcontrollers
b. ASIC (Application Specific Integrated Circuit)
c. FPGA (Field Programmable Gate Array)
100. Incandescent Lamp flickering due to
a. Increase in frequency
b. Decrease in frequency
13
c. Increase in voltage
d. Decrease in voltage
101. Incandescent lamp operating at a power factor of
a. Leading
b. Lagging
c. Unity
d. Zero
102. Flickering in Flurecent is due to
a. Increase in frequency
b. Decrease in frequency
c. Increase in voltage
d. Decrease in voltage
103. Difference between inch and centimeter
a. 2.45
b. 2.54
104. Power transformers are generally designed to have maximum efficiency around:
a. No load
b. half load
c. near full load
d. over load
105. Minimum cross sectional area of earth continuity conductor in buildings used:
a. 20 AWG
b. 16 AWG = 1.5 mm2
c. 12 AWG
d. 10 AWG
106. For power factor correction of power systems which one is used:
a. capacitor
b. inductor
c. resistors
107. Why we use power factor correction device to
a) Mitigate PF
b) increase PF
c) Getting PF
108. High voltage winding of transformer has ---------- resistivity than the low voltage side.
a. Lower
b. Higher
c. Equal
d. Lower or Equal
109. ABET stands for Accreditation Board for Engineering and Technology?
a. True
b. False
110. What does ABET (Accreditation Board for Engineering & Technology) mean in engineering.
a. Engineering firm
b. Fundamental Engineering examination
c. Engineering Program organization
d. All of above
111. What is the role of ABET;
a. accreditation of engineering firms
b. accreditation of engineering program
14
c. examination for engineers
d. all of the above
112. ABET – Accreditations Board of Engineering & Technology is for;
a. Professional Training Program
b. Company Accreditation
c. Professional Accreditation
d. Engineering Firm
113. The Function of ABET
a. Educational
b. Basic Engineering examination
c. Engineering firm
d. All of the above
Hint:
https://www.abet.org/about-abet/
We accredit college and university programs in the disciplines of applied and natural science, computing,
engineering and engineering technology at the associate, bachelor and master degree levels. With ABET
accreditation, students, employers and the society we serve can be confident that a program meets the
quality standards that produce graduates prepared to enter a global workforce. We began as the
educational standard against which professional engineers in the United States were held for licensure.
Today, after more than 80 years, our standards continue to play this fundamental role and have become
the basis of quality for over 40 disciplines all over the world. Developed by technical professionals from
ABET’s member societies, our criteria focus on what students experience and learn. Sought worldwide,
ABET’s voluntary peer-review process is highly respected because it adds critical value to academic
programs in the technical disciplines, where quality, precision and safety are of the utmost importance.
114. What does the power factor stands for?
a. Cosine of the angle between voltage and current.
b. Sine of the angle between voltage and current.
c. Apparent power over real power.
115. Displacement factor
a. Cosine angle between voltage and current
b. sine angle between voltage and current
c. tan angle between voltage and current
d. cotangent angle between voltage and current
116. Which of the transmission voltage is not applied in Qatar Electrical Specs? (All voltages are available in Qatar
but in exam choose the highlighted answer)
a. 66KV
b. 132KV
c. 220KV
d. 400KV
117. Ultrasound test used to determine
a. Cracks
b. Position of cracks
c. Length of cracks
d. All of above
118. What kind of amplifiers used in Wireless receiver?
a. power amplifier
b. differential amplifier
119. In receiver and transmitter. Which kind of amplifier used.
a. Power amplifier
b. differential amplifier
120. Major factor that has to be considered when designing a distribution system is
15
a. Efficiency
b. Voltage Regulation
c. PF
d. Reliability
121. Transformer resistivity of high and low voltage winding are
a. High voltage higher than low voltage
b. High voltage lower than low voltage
c. High voltage equal to low voltage
d. Saturated region
122. What is wrong sentence (in complete question)
a. Donor N Type
123. Transformer saturation
a. High efficiency, low no load losses.
b. Low efficiency, low no load losses.
c. Low efficiency, high no load losses.
d. High efficiency, high no load losses.
124. Best type of switchgear
a. SF6
b. VCB
c. OCB
d. ACB
125. Which one of the following has High input Impedance?
a. NPN-BJT.
b. PNP-BJT.
c. MOSFET.
d. Both BJT & MOSFET.
e. None of the above
126. Power Consumption in the advanced embedded system is
a. 10%
b. 50%
c. 80%
127. Power Consumption in Advanced Embedded can be reduced by using (Confirm Answer)
a. Pipe Lining.
b. Voltage sensing
c. Parallelizing
128. What is the Micro strip antenna
a. Antenna which is used in electronic circuits
b. Antenna which is used in embedded circuits
c. It is small antenna
d. It is large antenna
Hint: Micro strip Patch antennas are being studied extensively from past many years because of its low-
profile structure, light weight and low cost. These are compatible with MMIC designs and are mechanically
robust when mounted on rigid surfaces. Using PCB technology here, it is easy to install an antenna with
embedded circuit board for any system. Micro strip Patch antennas are well suited in satellite, missile and
aircraft application, radars, biomedical applications and reflector feeds. Also compatible for embedded
antennas in handheld wireless devices such as cellular phones and pagers etc.
129. The dominant power in the embedded circuits is called
a. Dynamic Power
16
b. Static Power
c. Leakage Power
d. All of the above
130. Embedded system should have best :
a) Dynamic response
b) Static response
c) No response
131. In an embedded system the dynamic response should be maximum:
a) 10%
b) 50%
c) 80%
d) 90%
132. Embedded system working on which platform?
a) SCADA
b) Microcontrollers
c) ASIC
d) FPGA
Hint:
An embedded system is a programmed controlling and operating system with a dedicated function within
a larger mechanical or electrical system, often with real-time computing constraints. It is embedded as
part of a complete device often including hardware and mechanical parts. Embedded systems control
many devices in common use today. 98% of all microprocessors are manufactured components of
embedded systems.
133. Earth Electrode shall be placed in an earth pit?
a. Vertical
b. Horizontal
c. Any Angle
134. Which of the following is a weak power system?
a. Power system with high short circuit capacity and high sensitivity to harmonics
b. Power system with high short circuit capacity and low sensitivity to harmonics
c. Power system with low short circuit capacity and high sensitivity to harmonics
d. Power system with low short circuit capacity and low sensitivity to harmonics
135. Harmonics in a system is mainly due to:-
a. Variable Imp Load
b. Saturated magnetic load
c. Power Electronics Load
d. All of the above
136. Harmonics in electronic circuit will produce
a. Heat
b. Distortion to the signal.
c. resonance
d. All the above
137. A load is considered a source of harmonics if:
a. Variable impedance load
b. Power electronics load
c. Computer load
d. All the above
138. Harmonic Current in Power System:
a. Hysteresis Loss
b. Eddy Current Loss
139. harmonics are generated in
17
a. inductance
b. power electronics
c. resonance
d. all the above
140. harmonic current present in inverter can cause:
a. all of the above
141. Once the transformer is saturated its no load current will be
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. no change
d. Cancelled
142. When I current is passing through R resistance for a time period of t seconds, then the electrical energy
generated will be:
a. I2Rt
b. IR2t
c. 2IRt
d. IR2/t
143. Digital codes only two input
a. True
b. False
144. The best mix around an earth electrode
a. Lime sand mixture
b. Coal & Salt
c. sand mixture with copper mulch
145. In case of Transformer saturation how the efficiency and the no load current will behave?
(efficiency decrease, and current output is similar to the magnetic field in the transformer and chopped with
notches, increase no load losses)
146. What is the circuit breaker application?
Its basic function is to detect a fault condition and interrupt current flow.
147. Which of the following discipline is most suitable for doing a natural gas pipeline work?
a) Mechanical Eng.
b) Petroleum Eng.
c) Chemical Eng.
d) Civil Eng.
148. As per NFPA supervisory control valve inspection frequency
a. Monthly
b. Quarterly
c. Semi –annually
d. Annually
149. Which kind of wall keep between two building blocks to avoid spreading of fire from one to another
a. Shear wall
b. Retainer wall
c. Fire wall
d. None of above
150. As per NFPA water sprinkler testing frequency
a. Monthly
b. Semi – annually
c. Weekly
d. Annually
151. As per NFPA Inspection for the manual call point done
18
a. Monthly
b. Weekly
c. Annually
d. Quarterly
152. Which one of the following is not correct based on Ohm’s Law:
a. Potential / current = constant
b. Current / potential = constant
c. Current = potential x resistance
d. Potential = current x resistance
153. What is HRC fuse:
a. High resistance and capacitance
b. High rupturing capacity
154. Number 34 in the following “N34, E” usually will be specified with:
a. Temporary
b. Starting point
c. Traverse
d. Bearing
155. Stress defined
a. Strain time force
b. Mass divide volume
c. Pressure time length
d. None of above
156. Strain Unit?
a. Dimension less
b. ¼ PI
c. Pa
d. N/mm2
157. What is the function of the barometer?
a. Measure the pressure differential
b. Related to tube measurement
c. Measure the atmospheric pressure
d. All of above
158. Length of a line shown in a map is 7 ¼” long and its scale is 1:62500, then what will be the actual distance
indicated by that line in miles.
a) 8.3
b) 7.15
c) 11.29
159. Which of the following systems uses “Assembly language”?
a) SCADA
b) Microcontrollers
c) ASIC
d) FPGA
e) Both A&B
160. If Water to cement ratio used in a residential building higher, then what will be the effect on building
a) Strength will be low
b) Strength will be high
c) Pouring will be faster
d) Pouring will be Slower
19
e) No effect
161. Coefficient of performance of a refrigerator that consumes 800 watts of power to remove heat at a rate of 5
BTU per second.
a. 4.6
b. 6.6
c. 8.2
d. 3.5
( 5 x 1055/800 = 6.6) ( where 1BTU=1055 j) & ( 1 watt = 1 J/s)
162. Humming happening in a Transformer due to
a) Due to the Vibration in brush
b) Due to magnetostriction in core laminations
c) Due to the Vibration in winding
e) All of the above
163. Surge voltage originate in a power system due to
a) Lightning
b) Switching operations
c) Faults
d) Any of the above
164. what is the purpose for the neutral line at the 3 phase power system.
a) as return path for the normal current
b) as return path for the normal voltage
c) as return path for fault current
d) as return path for fault voltage
165. uninterruptable power system (UPS) has to be connected to the network by.
a) series to feed electrical power at normal time
b) parallel to feed electrical power at normal time
c) series to feed electrical power at critical time
d) parallel to feed electrical power at critical time
166. Which of the following is used in rectifying circuits
a. Diode
b. Zener Diode
c. PJT Transistor
d. FET Transistor
167. What is the sum of the interior angles of a hexagon?
a. 180
b. 360
c. 720
d. 940
168. The motor used in travelling crane is
a. Ward Leonard controlled DC Shunt Motor
b. Slip ring AC Induction Motor
c. AC Split Motor
d. DC Compound Motor
169. ASCR of conductor have 7 steel wires and 25 aluminum wires can be specified as:
a. 7/25
b. 7/32
c. 25/32
d. 25/7
170. Running along the top of transmission line is:
20
a-ground conductor
b-line conductor
171. Wire placed on the top of a transmission line.
a. Ground wire
b. Neutral wire
c. Phase wire
172. what type of amplifier used at the receiver of telephone network.
a) power amplifier
b) diff. amplifier
c) active filter
d) low noise amplifier
173. The main difference between MOSFET and BJT is
a. The geometry is bigger in BJT
b. MOSFET has better gain
c. MOSFET has zero input current.
174. Difference between MOSFET and BJT
a. MOSFET amplifies current
b. BJT is bigger in size and dimensions
175. A small problem where u have to determine the number of poles of a synchronous motor, if you know the
pulsation ws (rad/sec) & speed Ns (RPM)and the frequency f (Hz)
&
176. Define Latency?
177. The term “Pipelining” is used to indicate
a. Latency (Delay)
b. Throughput (Speed)
c. Both
Hint:
Pipelining is an important technique used in several applications such as digital signal processing (DSP)
systems, microprocessors, etc. It originates from the idea of a water pipe with continuous water sent in
without waiting for the water in the pipe to come out. Accordingly, it results in speed enhancement for
the critical path in most DSP systems. For example, it can either increase the clock speed or reduce the
power consumption at the same speed in a DSP system.
Latency is a time interval between the stimulation and response. Applying too many pipelined functions
can lead to increased latency - that is, the time required for a single task to propagate through the full
pipe is prolonged.
throughput is the maximum rate of production or the maximum rate at which something can be
processed. Pipelining cannot decrease the processing time required for a single task. The advantage of
pipelining is that it increases the throughput of the system when processing a stream of tasks.
178. Gypsum board at residence and industrial building used except
a. Low cost
b. Ease of installation
c. Recyclability
179. Low cut - off freq. of a transistor is determined by
a) External Capacitor
b) Parasitic Capacitor
c) Input Impedance
d) Output Impedance
21
Bipolar Junction transistor
1. Transistor is a _______ terminal device.
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(a) (d) Both (a) & (b).
2. The Three Terminal of transistor are:
(a) Gate , Collector and emitter
(b) Collector, Base, and Source
(c) Base , Collector & emitter
(d) Base, Gate & Collector
3. The Transistor means ____
(a) Transfer-resistor
(b) Trans-resistor
(c) Tri-resistor
4. BJT is a _____ device.
(a) Unipolar
(b) Bipolar
(c) Multipolar.
5. In Unipolar transistor, the current conduction is due to ____
(a) Minority carriers
(b) Majority carriers
(c) Both minority & majority carriers
6. In bipolar transistor, the current is due to _____
(a) Holes
(b) Electrons
(c) Both Holes & electrons
7. BJT is _____ controlled device.
(a) Field
(b) Voltage
(c) Resistor
(d) Current
8. The types of bipolar junction transistor are.
(a) Ppn, npn
(b) pnp,npn
(C) Npp,ppn
(d) nnp,pnp
9. The middle region of transistor is called
(a) Base
(b) Collector
(c) Emitter
10. The process by which impurities are added to a pure semiconductor.is
(a) Diffusing
(b) Drift
(c) Doping
(d) Mixing.
11. Base of the transistor is always ___ and ____doped
(a) Thick, Lightly
(b) Thin, Lightly
22
(c) Thin, heavily
12. The collector of a transistor is ___ doped
(a) Heavily
(b) Moderately
(c) Lightly
13. In a transistor the collector region is larger than the emitter region for ______
(a) Better Heat dissipation
(b) Higher value of B
(c) Better amplification
14. Doping concentration is the highest in _____ in a BJT.
(a) Emitter region
(b) Collector region
(c) Base region
(d) All of the above
15. The ___ region has highest thickness than all other regions in a BJT.
(a) Base
(b) Collector
(c) Emitter
16. The arrow in transistor symbol indicates the direction of ____
(a) Conventional emitter current
(b) election current in emitter
(c) Supply current
(d) ans a & b
17. The arrow in the transistor symbol indicates ____ terminal
(a) Base
(b) Collector
(c) Emitter
18 Transistor has ___pn junction
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
19 The depletion region a emitter junction in an unbiased transistor extends more into the region
(a) Collector
(b) Base
(c) Emitter
20. The depletion region at collector junction in an unbiased transistor extends more into the base
Region because it is __ doped
(a) Heavily
(b) Moderately
(c) Lightly
21. Barrier voltage is ___ on the N side.
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Zero
22. __ of electrons and holes in the base region constitutes the base current.
(a) Ionization
(b) Recombination
(c) Thermal agitation
23. ___ constitutes the dominant current in a npn transistor.
(a) Holes
23
(b) Electrons
(c) Both Holes & Electrons
24. ___ is the highest current in any bipolar transistor.
(a) IB
(b) IC
(c) IE
25. The ___ current of a transistor is neither the largest nor the smallest.
(a) Base
(b) Collector
(c) Emitter
26. Which of the following currents are nearly equal to each other
(a) IB & IC
(b) IE & IC
(c) IB & IE
(d) IB,IC & IE
27. For transistor properly biased PnP transistor let IC=10mA and IE=10.2 mA. What is the level of IB?
(a) 0.2 mA
(b) 200 mA
(c) 200 UA
(d) 20.2 mA
28. Holes flow constitutes the dominant current in a _____transistor.
(a) Npn
(b) Pnp
(c) Npn & pnp
29. For operating in the active region the emitter junction should be ___biased and collector
Junction should be ____biased in BJT.
(a) Forward ,forward
(b) Reverse, reverse
(c) Forward, reverse
(d) Reverse, forward
30. The emitter junction is ___ biased for operating BJT in saturation region.
(a) Forward
(b) Reverse
(c) Zero
31. In which region are both the collector base and base emitter junctions forward biased for BJT?
(a) Active
(b) Cut off
(c) Saturation
32. For the BJT to operate in the saturation region the base emitter junction must be
____ biased and the base collector junction must be ___biased
(a) Forward , forward
(b) Forward , reverse
(c) Reverse , reverse
(d) Reverse, forward.
33. At what region of operation is the base emitter junction forward biased and the base collector
Junction reverse biased for BJT.
(a) Saturation
(b) Linear or active
24
(c) Cut-off
(d) None of the above
34. Which of the following configurations can a transistor set up?
(a) Common base
(b) Common emitter
(c) Common collector
35. In CB configuration a reverse biased collector junction IC= ____ when the emitter
Is left open.
(a) 0
(b) IE
(c) ICBO
36. ICBO flows from ___ to ____ when emitter is open.
(a) Collector , Base
(b) Base, Collector
(c) Collector , emitter
37. The ___ carriers constitute current ICBO
(a) Both minority and majority
(b) Minority
(c) Majority
38. ICBO current is __
(a) Greater than IC
(b) Increase with temperature
(c) Less than ICO
(d) Flows when base junction is forward biased.
39. with rise in temp ICBO___
(a) Increase linearly
(b) Doubles of every 10 C
(c) Decrease linearly.
40. The Alpha DC is always
(a) unity
(b) less than unity
(c) greater than unity
41. The α = ____
(a) IB/IE
(b) IC/IE
(c) IC/IB
(d) None of the above.
42. Smaller the thickness of the base ____ is the value of αdc
(a) Smaller
(b) Larger
(c) Constant.
43. The α is the current gain of ____ configuration
(a) CB
(b) CC
(c) CE
44. In CB configuration input resistance is ______
(a) ∆VEB/∆IE
(b) ∆VCB/∆IE
25
(c) ∆VCB/∆IC
45. The input resistance of CB configuration is measured constant ______
(a) IB
(b) IC
(c) Vcb
(d) Vce
46. The dynamic output resistance of transistor in CB configuration is ___ at constant IE.
(a) ∆VEB/∆IE
(b) ∆VEB/∆IC
(c) ∆VCB/∆IC
1. How much time required for trained personnel to identify fire alarm, to evaluate and reset the condition
back to normal
a) 3 hour
b) 1 hour
c) 30 minutes
d) 3 minutes
2. Input impedance in a cascaded amplifier is:
a. Resistance before first stage
b. Resistance at first stage
c. Resistance before last stage
d. Resistance at last stage
3. Output impedance in a cascaded amplifier is:
a. Resistance before first stage
b. Resistance at first stage
c. Resistance before last stage
d. Resistance at last stage
4. In a wireless system, the amplifier works on:
a. Modulated signal
b. Received signal
c. Output signal
5. N Type Pull inverter, C/L should be:
a) Low
b) High
c) Zero
d) Infinite
6. Transconductance of BPT is:
a) dIE / dIC
b) VBE / IE
c) IE / IC
d) dIC / dVBE
7. If gain of Amplifier is 10 and having negative feedback of 9%. What will the gain be if feedback is removed?
a) 10
b) 90
c) 100
d) 1.2
8. CMOS is better than BJT because it has:
a. High I/P impedance
b. Has better response
c. Stability
d. Bandwidth
9. Binary weighed input digital to Analog convertor has a feedback resistor, Rf=12 K ohms. If 50 Micro Amp of
current flows through the resistor, voltage of circuities:
a) 0.1 V
26
b) 1V
c) 0.6
d) 0V
Hint: V = I X R
10. Ramp voltage at the O/P of OPAMP integrator is: (Confirm answer)
a. Increase linear.
b. Increase or decrease exponentially
c. Is constant.
d. decreases linear
11. For tuning a parallel circuit to higher frequency, the capacitance should be:
a. increased
b. Decreased
c. Change with inductance
12. The C-B configuration is used to give gain of what type:
a. V
b. I
c. R
d. Power
13. In PNP circuit most positive voltage is:
a. Grnd
b. Vc
c. Vce
d. Vbe
14. Rotor of Induction motor is rotating at synchronous speed, what is Torque?
a. High
b. Low
c. Zero
d. Infinity
15. If the signal is doubled at the input of the transmitter what shall be the db to the output
a. 0.5db
b. 2db
c. 3db
d. 4db
16. The underground cable is laid in a marine environment at system voltage, A. what shall be the design of the
cable insulation
a. (1/√3) *A
b. √3 * A
c. √2 * A
d. 2 A
27
17. The system is maintained at 24V output voltage. The input source varies from 120V to 126V. while the
output current varies from 0A to 5 A. What is the min (Max) power rating required for the diode?
Is
Rs
a. 80W
b. 150W
c. 300W
d. 600W
Minimum power rating of Zener = VZ IS = 24 X 5 = 120 W ???
18. The series of cell combine to give output of 230V at no load. The rated output of 300V to provide the power
of 2 MW. If the cells are used in standard battery, what is the internal resistance of total battery.
a. 0.01
b. 0.003
c. 0.05
Hint: R = V2/ P = 3002 / 2 MW = 0.045 = 0.05
19. Input impedance of an inverted op-amp
a. High
b. Low
c. Infinite
d. …..
20. Which has the highest conductivity at room temperature
a. Aluminum
b. Copper
c. Gold
d. Silver
21. What is the top cable used for on the transmission lines
a. Ground
b. Phase
c. Neutral
d. Transmission
22. Permanent magnet has the relative Permeability ___________ than air
a. Higher
b. Lower
c. Same
23. Define Strength of Materials?
a) Strength of Internal resistance of the object applied with the external force
b) Absorbing the Strain
24. Strength of Materials?
a. ability to withstand external forces.
b. ability to withstand internal forces
c. ability to withstand pressure.
d. ability to withstand an applied load without failure or plastic deformation
25. Weak Power System is due to:
a. High Short Circuit
b. Low Short Circuit
28
26. What is System?
a. Closed volume with specified Inputs and Outputs
b. One Input and one Output
c. Different components/ equipment’s used for calculations
27. What is the difference between electrical and electronics.
a) Electrical System generate Electrical Energy/Electronics System utilize Electrical Energy
b) Electrical System generate more Electrical Energy and Electronics System generate less
c) Electrical Energy- Electrical System use Direct Current. Electronics System use indirect
current.
28. If the Fire Panel is to be installed in the field, atmospheric pressure is 52°C and the electronics inside is
allowed to produce only 45°C what is the appropriate method to install:
a) Panel shall be CE certified
b) Panel shall be Class-1 Certified
c) Panel shall be provided with some cooler or purge
29. The visual inspection for the heat detectors as per NFPA 72 shall be conducted:
a. Annually
b. Semi annually
c. Quarterly
d. Monthly
30. The testing of water flow devices as per NFPA72 shall be conducted:
a. Annually
b. Semi annually
c. Quarterly
d. Monthly
31. Frequency of test for manual call point as per NFPA72 is.
a. Semi Annually.
b. Quarterly.
c. Monthly.
d. Annually.
32. Permeability of permanent magnet with respect to a magnetic material
a. Equal
b. Not equal
c. Same
33. 15.Distribution system stability will depend on
a. Power factor
b. Load
c. Voltage regulation
d. Efficiency
34. Visual inspection of zone control valve as per NFPA 72 is (Confirm Answer)
a. Semi Annually.
b. Quarterly.
c. Monthly.
d. Annually.
35. Visual inspection of Supervisor signal device as per NFPA 72 is:
a. Semi Annually.
b. Quarterly.
c. Monthly.
d. Annually.
36. Testing inspection of zone control valve as per NFPA 72 is (Confirm Answer)
a. Semi Annually.
b. Quarterly.
c. Monthly.
29
d. Annually.
37. Testing of Smoke detector as per NFPA 72 is:
a. Semi Annually.
b. Quarterly.
c. Monthly.
d. Annually.
38. Testing of manual Fire alarm box as per NFPA 72 is:
a. Semi Annually.
b. Quarterly.
c. Monthly.
d. Annually.
39. The speed of motors depends on
a. Power factor
b. Stator loses
c. Armature loses
d. Load
Hint:
S = (Ns-Nr) / Ns, when loading the motor, Nr will decrease and S will increase so motor speed
depends on load. If we have f or P in the choices, we choose them. Ns = 120 f / P
40. In Cascade Amplifier, I/P Impedance is from
a) First Stage
b) Last Stage
c) Stage Before First Stage
d) Stage Before Last Stage
41. In Cascade Amplifier, O/P Impedance is from
a) First Stage
b) Last Stage
c) Stage Before First Stage
d) Stage Before Last Stage
42. Given Ie=2mA, Ic=0.98mA, find beta dc
a) 200
b) 100
c) 50
Ib= Ie - Ic = 2 - 1.98 = 0.02mA
Beta dc = Ic / Ib = 1.98 / 0.02 = 99
43. The most Hi Input impedance is obtained in:
a) Bipolar NPN
b) Bipolar PNP
c) MOSFET
d) Both Bipolar and MOSFET
44. KWH is unit of: electrical Energy
45. Cascading Amplifier? used to
a. increase total voltage gain
b. increase input impedance
c. increase output impedance
46. why steel is used in concert structure because
a- they are cheap
b- good bond
c- highly rigid
d- temperature expansion coefficient is same with cement (Concrete)
30
Segregation in concrete
Segregation in concrete is commonly thought as separation of some
size groups of aggregates (sand, gravel, crushed stone, slag,) from
cement mortar in isolated locations with corresponding deficiencies of
these materials in other locations. Segregation results in proportions
of the laid concrete being in variation to those as designed.
Segregation could result from internal factors such as concrete that is
not proportioned properly and not mixed adequately, or too workable
a mix. It also could result from external factors such as too much
vibration, improper transportation, placement, or adverse weather
conditions.
47. this is good voltage regulator-
a. induction motor
b. dc motor
c. synchronous motor
48. stepper motor
a. circular rotation
b. linear rotation
c. fixed angle rotation
Hint:
The stepper motor is known by its property to convert a train of input pulses (typically square
wave pulses) into a precisely defined increment in the shaft position. Each pulse moves the shaft
through a fixed angle.
49. power factor is unity for
a. resistive load
b. inductive load
c. capacitive load
50. silicon control rectifier has ______ terminals
e. cathode, anode, gate (3)
51. common collector transistor has ____ current gain –
a. high
b. low
c. moderate
d. unity
52. NMOS in the R-pull up mode (W/L) will be used for
a. To force Vo to be at VOL
53. The compound which will be used around the earth rod is
a. SE salt and sand
b. E Carbon dust with sand
c. Metal with sand
d. Coral salt with sand
54. What is the term of component arrangement for waves in transmitting and receiving (Check Question)
a. Array
b. Source
c. Dish antenna
55. How is the surge arrester connected to protect the transformer (Check Question)
a. Phase to ground on 12.7 KV transformer side
b. Phase to Phase on 12.7 KV transformer side
c. Phase to ground on 0.48 KV transformer side
d. Phase to neutral to ground on 0.48 KV transformer side
Hint:
A surge arrester is a device to protect electrical equipment from over-voltage transients caused by
external (lightning) or internal (switching) events. a surge arrester is connected to the conductor
just before it enters the transformer (Primary Side?). The surge arrester is also connected to ground
and functions by routing energy from an over-voltage transient to ground if one occurs, while
31
isolating the conductor from ground at normal operating voltages. This is usually achieved through
use of a varistor, which has substantially different resistances at different voltages
56. The Electrical flux passing out through a closed surface is equal to
a. The line integral of the surface
b. Zero
c. The flux density at the surface
d. The total charge enclosed by the surface.
Hint: Gauss's law states that:
the electric field flux through a closed surface equals the enclosed charge divided by the
permittivity of free space.
57. Reinforced concrete will give
a. High tensile strength
b. High CombiXXXXX
c. readily available
58. Efficiency and power factor is good, then what is the load angle?
a. 0
b. 45
c. 85
d. 120
0 because power factor is good when voltage and current are in the same phase without any
phase shift
59. Which is better

a. To have self-target and to achieve it
b. To have a goal and try to try to achieve and to maximize the goal.
60. The Incandescent Lamp will work normally with best efficiency if the power factor is
a. unity
b. 0.5 leading
c. 0.5 lagging
d. Any power factor
61. hysteresis losses occur in
a. Magnetic AC supply
b. Non-magnetic AC supply
c. Magnetic DC supply
d. Non-magnetic DC supply
62. The theoretical output resistance of amplifier is: (Confirm answer)
a. Zero
b. Infinity
c. Depending on the circuit impedance
63. Which of the following equations is not linear?
a. Y = a + bX1 + X1X2
b. 2 – Y = a + b + X1 / X2
c. Y = a + X1 + bX2²
d. Y = aX1 + X 2b
64. Antenna system the source signal is having the following:
a. Frequency = 24 MHZ
b. Bandwidth = …..
c. ….
d. ….
65. Which is the received frequency
a. 6 MHZ
b. 12 MHZ
c. 24 MHZ
32
d. 48 MHZ
66. Transformer with three legs A, B and C in case of homogenous the first leg A has coil with 3 Henry, what is
the Henry at leg C
a. 0.5 H
b. 1 H
c. 2 H
d. 2.5 H
Hint:
The transformer ratio is N1/N2 = V1/V2. (1 - primary and 2- secondary). Inductance of a coil is
proportional to square of the number of turns in the coil. so that gives the inductance ratio as
L1/L2 = (N1/N2)^2.
67. What is the early start and end of activity D

a. ES = 19, EE = …
b. ..
c. ..
d. ..
68. what is the Free Space / Air Path Loss for a

signal between two antennas
???
d is the distance between two antennas.

c is the speed of light (in meter/s)
f is frequency (in Hz)
69. what is the resistance for 100 W and 200 potential

a. 200
b. 100
c. 400
d. 1600
70. In this figure
a. 6Ω, 3Ω and 9Ω are in series
b. 9Ω and 6Ω in parallel and the combination in series with
3Ω
c. 6Ω, 3Ω and 9Ω are in Parallel
d. 3Ω and 6Ω in parallel and the 9Ω series with
71. Certain communication channel has a signal to noise ratio of 7

and a band width of 10 KHZ, what is the channel capacity?
a. 30 bps
b. 80 bps
c. 3000 bps
d. 30,000 bps
Hint:
The Shannon channel capacity, C, is measured in units of bits/sec (bps) and is given by the equation:
33
C is the maximum capacity of the channel, W is the available bandwidth in the channel, and SNR is the
signal to noise ratio, not in DB.
ln 8
C = 10 X 103 log2 (1 + 7) = 10 X 103 log2 8 to calculate with scientific calculator, log2 8 = ln 2 = 3
C = 10,000 X 3 = 30,000 bps
72. An antenna has efficiency aperture of 10 m2 what additional information required to determine
amplification ….
a. Power density
b. Power losses
c. Space losses
d. Total Torque
73. Op-amp has gain of 105 , fault power points fL= 500 KHZ and fH= 1000 HZ, what is the frequency of … (Confirm
answer)
a. 1 X 106
b. 5 X 107
c. 3 X 108
d. 6 X 108
Hint: Fm= Aref (8w) = Aref (2 π fH – 2 π fL)
74. What is analysis technique to determine effect of multi- sources
a. Kirchhoff Law
b. Shannon Law
c. Miller Law
d. Superposition
75. How will you develop a program in computer?
By requirement, design, program, test and implementation
76. In a synchronous motor, if start is running at high speed what will be the starting torque?
a. High
b. Low
c. Zero
synchronous motor requires helper motor for stating because starting torque is zero.
77. Real physics is:
a. Continuous
b. Discrete
78. A fan out of logical gate
a. Externally connected
b. Parallel connected
c. Series connected
79. For tuning a parallel circuit to higher frequency, the
capacitor should be:
a. Increased
b. Decreased
c. Change with induction
80. Type of Op-amp used in distribution level:
Inverting amplifier
81. In the following system boundary, out of the
following which one is correct
a. Sound signal input, sound signal output
b. Sound signal input, electrical signal output
c. Electrical signal input, sound signal output
d. Electrical signal input, electrical signal output
82. Power amplifier in a wireless system will

a. Encode and modulate signal
b. Modulates signal
c. Bandwidth signal
d. Send the signal to antenna
34
83. Resistance of conductor a depends on:
a. Length
b. Cross section area
c. Type of metal
d. Frequency (Skin effect)
e. All of them
84. Lamination sheets of transformers made of:
a. Steel
b. Cast iron
c. Silicon steel
85. Two points H.V wire suspended from: (Confirm the question and answer)
a. Elapse
b. ½ cycle
c. Cataline (catenary)
86. When conductor temperature is high, the resistance is
a. High
b. Low
87. What is assembly language?
a. Smoke detector brand name
b. a programming language for micro processor
88. Fuse blow off by
a. melting
b. cutting
89. a short circuit is identified by:
a. heavy current flow
b. heavy voltage
90. which of the following materials is performed for transmitting energy over long distances
a. Copper
b. Copper conductor steel-reinforced (CCSR)
c. Aluminum conductor steel-reinforced (ACSR)
91. Piezo electric material serves as source of:
a. Resonant waves
b. Musical waves
c. Microwaves
d. Ultrasonic waves
92. Carbon electrodes are not used in
a. Electric arc furnace
b. Dray cells
c. Cinema projector
d. GLS lamps
93. Most likely faults occur in cables
a. Cross or short circuit fault
b. Open circuit fault
c. Break down of cable insulation
d. All of the above
94. Multicore cables generally use
a. square conductors
b. circular conductors
c. rectangular conductors
d. sector-shaped conductors
e. none of the above
95. The material commonly used for insulation in high voltage cables is
a. Lead
b. Paper
c. Rubber
96. the power factor of industrial load is generally
35
a. leading
b. lagging
97. skin effect __________ the conductor resistance
a. increase
b. decrease
98. The effect of corona can be detected by
a. presence of ozone detected by odor
b. hissing sound
c. faint luminous glow of bluish color
d. all of the above
99. In case of traveling cranes, the motor preferred for boom hoist is
(A) AC slip ring motor
(B) Ward Leonard controlled DC shunt motor
(C) Synchronous motor
(D) Single phase motor.
100. When a 6V battery is connected across the primary of a transformer with turns ration of 8, the secondary
voltage will be:
a. 0 V
b. 6 V
c. 48 V
d. 36 V
Hint: battery volt is DC and transformers works only with AC
101. Cable length is 1000 m, time of returning signal is 9.43 µ sec what is speed of wave in the cable?
a. 0.35
b. 0.75
c. 1
d. 2.1
Hint: Speed = 2 X Length / Time = 2L/T
Speed = 2 X1000 / 9.43 X 10-6 = 212 Million m / sec
Then divide the result over speed of light (3 X 108 m/sec)
Speed % = 212 X 106 / 3 X 108 = 0.71
102. Capacitor bank 300 KVA at 240 V connected with motor running at 209 V what are the KVA needed to the
motor? (Check Question)
103. Why transformer rating is in KVA
There are two types of losses in a transformer;
1. Copper Losses (I²R) depends on current which passing through transformer winding
2. Iron Losses or Core Losses or Insulation Losses depend on voltage (V)
104. Hysteresis losses
a. Energy lost as a heat
b. Energy lost as voltage drop
105. An induction motor is identical to
A. D.C. compound motor
B. D.C. series motor
C. synchronous motor
D. asynchronous motor
106. what happens inside a battery during discharging
a. battery capacity decreases due to voltage drop
b. battery capacity decreases due to polarization effect
Hint:
During discharging, the voltage decreases, the rate of decrease depending on the amount of
current drawn from the battery.
107. lead acid battery discharging rate least depends on:
a. Battery Voltage
b. Temperature
c. Concentration of electrolytes.
d. Age of battery
108. Assembly language used for programing
36
a. DSP
b. Microcontroller
c. FPGA
109. Sample of frequency shall be
a. Higher than the tested frequency
b. Lower than the tested frequency
c. Higher than ½ of the tested frequency
d. Lower than ½ of the tested frequency
110. In Frequency modulation, the carrier frequency is
a. Higher than the signal frequency
b. lower than the signal frequency
c. Higher than ½ of the signal frequency
d. lower than ½ of the signal frequency
111. what is the name of the filter?
a. Low pass filter
b. High pass filter
c. Band pass filter
d. Stop band filter
112. What will you do if supplier come and give you invoice of no of computers while the request 24 No.
a. You will return back and send official letter
b. You will take and make a new invoice with the rest
c. You will pay for 20 unit only
113. The system is maintained at 24V output voltage. The input source varies from 120V to 124V. while the
output current varies from 0A to 5 A. What is the value of Rs (Ohm)?
Is
Rs
Rs Vout
Vs
a. 10
b. 4.8
c. 8.4
d. 5
Hint: Rz = 24/5 = 4.8
114. What is the difference between EPROM and EEPROM?
EPROM: Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory. Erased by exposing to ultraviolet that’s
why it has quartz window (opening) to expose to ultraviolet. It is old type operate on low
voltage.
EEPROM (E2PROM): Electrically Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory. Very high storage
density
115. From where the leakage flux appear
a. Linking to primary coils
b. Linking to secondary coils
c. Linking in both.
116. Voltage source V = 120 V, F = 60 Hz. L = 650 mH. C = 1.5 uF. R = 250 ohm
Calculate the current I?
XL = 2πfL = 245.04 ohm

1
XC = 2𝜋𝑓𝑐 = 1768.4 ohm
37
Z = √𝑅 2 + (𝑋𝐿 − 𝑋𝑐)2 = 1543.7 ohm
𝑉
I = 𝑍 = 120 / 1543.7 = 77.73 mA
117. when you connected in star, V = 13.2 KV phase to phase, what is the voltage when connected in delta?
Ans: When we say volt from phase to phase (Phase a to Phase b) in star connection, this is called the line
voltage VL. so VLine = 13.2 KV
VPH = VLine / √3 = 13.2 / √3 = 7.621 KV
In case of Delta Connection: VPH = VLine =
7.621 KV
118. We have something = 10 X 10-6 and current through it is 6 X 10-3 and this thing Dh = I X T what is the period
will be taken?
a. 9 months
b. 18 months
c. 24 months
d. 30 months
Hint: the values are not correct, but it is easy, law is given
119. Which figure describe ohm’s law?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
120. Which one of these is the best for thermal and electrical conductivity
a. Semi-conductors
b. Metal
c. Liquid
d. Gases
121. Architecture Question: the point at which assembled all lines
a. contour line
b. straight line
122. a line connects between points with the same elevation on map:
a. contour line
b. Elevation line
38
123. We have 2 resistances R1 & R2. Resistance value is 4.5Ω when connected in series and 1Ω when connected
in parallel. Find R1 & R2
a. 3Ω, 0.5Ω
b. 1.5Ω, 3Ω
c. 1.5Ω, 0.5Ω
d. 1Ω, 3Ω
124. The current i flow as shown, which is the higher potential?

a. c
b. b
125. I = 5 cos (40 ω t + 30) + 3 cos (40 ω t + 30) + 2 cos (40 ω t + 30), R = 3 find P?
All are the same frequency 40 ω, we will apply superposition
I = ( 5 + 3 + 2 ) cos (40 ω t + 30) = 10 cos (40 ω t + 30)
Im = 10 Amp, IRMS = 10 / √2
P = IRMS2 X R = 150 W
126. Prime use of fast tracking scheduling?
a. To reduce the cost of construction
b. To reduce the duration without affecting scope or cost.
127. Short circuit test for transformer is used to calculate:
a. Core loses
b. Copper losses
c. Hysteresis losses
d. Eddie current losses
128. Engineer is
a. Know ethics, ….., ……, Solve problems
b. Know natural law, and make new knowledge
129.
Ans: a
130. Device used for potential difference
a. Voltammeter
b. Parameter
c. sensor
131. I = 65, R = …, F = 10 KHZ
Z = √𝑅 𝑇 𝐾, K = …. 10-23
132. Find the time constant:
39
Time const. = R Thevenin X C
133. EPROM and EEPROM types of memories are

a. Volatile memory type
b. Non- Volatile memory type
134. A variable resistance R is connected across a source of voltage V. If the value of the resistance R is gradually
varied, the relationship between I and R will be represented by which curve?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
135. Tower crane uses any type of motors:

a. DC shunt motor
b. AC induction motor
c. Differential compound
136. For the shown block diagram what is the
𝑂/𝑃 𝑈
ratio 𝐼/𝑃
=𝑅
a. 0.4
b. 0.63
c. 0.7
d. 2.82
137. If 5V is applied to the shown circuit, what is the value of current?

a. 3 nA
b. 3 uA
c. 1.5 A
d. 21 A
138. Radio signal at sending station with frequency 450 KHZ, it is tuning by signal 540 KHZ, what is the frequency
at receiving?
a. 85 KHZ
b. 540 KHZ
c. 300 KHZ
d. 990 KHZ
139. Logic gate NAND used mainly for construction of flip-flop type:
a. (S-R) Type
b. (J-K) Type
c. D - Type
d. T - Type
140. what is the maximum phase to phase voltage for
induction motor in the figure
a. 380 V
b. 480 V
c. 540 V
d. 679 V
Hint: = 679 / √2
40
141. 10 HP single phase motor, 0.8 P.F., 240 V, Efficiency = 0.6, what is the current?
a. 70 A
b. 52.5 A
c. 64.76
d. 90 A
Hint:
Pout = η X Pin  Pout = η V I cos Ɵ  746 X 10 = 0.6 X 240 I X (0.8)  I = 64.76 A
142. Motor is rated 10 HP, 0.8 P.F., operating at 230 V AC RMS, Efficiency = 0.65, what is the normal operating
current?
Ans:
Pout= 10 HP
Pin= V I cos Ɵ for single phase
Pin= √3 V I cos Ɵ for Three phase
𝑃𝑜𝑢𝑡
η=
𝑃𝑖𝑛
10 𝑋 746 𝑊𝑎𝑡𝑡
1 PH: I = 230 𝑋 0.65 𝑋 0.8 = 62.37 A
10 𝑋 746 𝑊𝑎𝑡𝑡
3 PH: I = = 36 A
√3 𝑋 230 𝑋 0.65 𝑋 0.8
143. what is C between a and b?
144. find the gain Vout/ Vin in the following

diagram:
41
145. what will cause the maximum erroring V SOURCE
a. increase RA by 2 ohm
b. increase RB by 3 ohm
c. increase RD by 3 ohm
d. source current error 1 %
Hint: it is very old method to measure the resistance:
10
RA = RB = RC = RD 1 (Should), Error = 100 X 100 % = 1 %
146. Sustainability is:
a) Using renewable, energy efficient resources etc---
147. Standard Earth Wire Size
a) 20 AWG
b) 16 AWG = 1.5 mm2
c) 12 AWG
d) 10 AWG
148. In a power plant cycle, if efficiency of turbine ( = 80 %) and efficiency of generator(=90%), then overall
efficiency is
a) 170%
b) 100%
c) 72%
d) 10%
149. When boiling water in open pan, which is constant
a). temperature is constant
b). pressure is constant
c). volume is constant
d) All above
150. If calorific value of fuel needs to be high,
a. Water vapor condensed initially when fuel burns
b. Water vapor condensed later when fuel burns
c. Water vapor is not formed while fuel burns
d. Water vapor is formed
151. If water vapor leaves at the eye of centrifugal pump, it is called
a) water hammer
b) cavitation
c) boiling
d) All the above
152. When three phases of fluid co-exist at
a) Saturation point
b) Triple point
c) Critical point
d) Freezing point
153. COP (coefficient of performance) of refrigeration system defined as below
a) Compressor output to compressor input
b) Compressor input to compressor output
c) Cooling load output to compressor input
d) Compressor input to cooling load output
154. In a vapor compression refrigeration cycle, if super heating value increased and condensate value decreased,
a) COP increase
b) COP decrease
155. Inspection Frequency of smoke detector in accordance with NFPA72
a) Weekly
b) Semi-annually
c) Annually
d) Daily
156. classification of alarm system as per NFPA72
a) public and private
42
b) supervising station fire alarm system
c) protected premises fire alarm system
d) all the above
157. Car dashboards are made of what
a. Metal
b. wood
c. Plastic
d. All of the above
158. The function of protective relay in a circuit breaker is
(A) to each any stray voltages
(B) to close the contacts when the actuating quantity reaches a certain predetermined value
(C) to limit arcing current during the operation of circuit breaker
(D) to provide additional safety in the operation of circuit breaker.
159. Low voltage circuit breakers have rated voltage of less than
(A) 220 V
(B) 400V
(C) 1000 V
(D) 10,000 V.
160. The fault clearing time of a circuit breaker is usually
(A) few minutes
(B) few seconds
(C) one second
(D) few cycles of supply voltage.
161. The medium employed for extinction of arc in air circuit breaker is
(A) SF6
(B) Oil
(C) Air
(D) Water.
162. Which of the following circuit breakers is preferred for EHT application
(A) Air blast circuit breakers
(B) Minimum oil circuit breakers
(C) Bulk oil circuit breakers
(D) SF6 oil circuit breakers.
163. For high voltage, ac circuit breakers, the rated short circuit current is passed for
(A) 0.01 sec
(B) 0.1 sec
(C) 3 seconds
(D) 30 seconds.
164. Which of the following is not a type of the contactor for circuit breakers?
(A) Electro-magnetic
(B) Electro-pneumatic
(C) Pneumatic
(D) Vacuum.
165. Interrupting medium in a contactor may be
(A) air
(B) oil
(C) SF6 gas
(D) any of the above.
166. In air blast circuit breakers, the pressure of air is of the order of
(A) 100 mm Hg
(B) 1 kg/cm2
(C) 20 to 30 kg/cm2
(D) 200 to 300 kg/cm2 .
167. SF6 gas is
(A) Sulphur fluoride
(B) Sulphur difluoride
(C) Sulphur hexafluoride
43
(D) Sulphur hexafluoride.
168. SF6 gas
(A) is yellow in color
(B) has pungent odor
(C) is highly toxic
(D) is non-inflammable.
169. SF6 gas
(A) is lighter than hydrogen
(B) is lighter than air
(C) has density 2-times as compared to that of air
(D) has density 5 limes as compared to that of air.
170. In 3 phase neutral will be:
a. Normal neutral
b. Abnormal neutral
Hint: Neutral is for abnormal current, not sure what is meant here.
171. What is the function of a MOSFET?
a. High current gain
172. What is the function of an Operational Amplifier?
a. Filter and amplify
173. What is CMOS?
a. Complementary metal–oxide–semiconductor
174. A diode can be used as a frequency multiplier because of its
A. Junction capacitance
B. Non linearity
C. Avalanche voltage
D. Forward breakover
E. Charge carrier concentration
175. Which of the following is not a common form of data transmission
A. Polarization modulation
B. Frequency modulation
C. Amplitude modulation
D. Phase modulation
E. Pulse modulation
176. A very brief, high voltage spike on an ac power line is called as
A. A bleeder
B. An arc
C. A transient
D. An avalanche
E. A clipped peak
177. Which of the following is not characteristic of an oscillator?
A. Negative feedback
B. Good output to input coupling
C. Reasonably high transistor gain
D. Alternating current signal output
E. Usefulness as a signal generator
178. The other name for beta of BJT is
A. Current amplification factor
B. Voltage amplification factor
C. Power amplification factor
D. Maximum amplification frequency
E. Optimum amplification frequency
179. You can find the Zener diode in
A. The mixer in a super heterodyne receiver
B. The PLL in a circuit for detecting FM
C. The product detector in a receiver for SSB
D. The voltage regulator in a power supply
E. The AF oscillator in an AFSK transmitter
44
180. When the bias in an FET stops the flow of current, the condition is called (Confirm answer)
A. Forward breakover
B. Cutoff
C. Reverse bias
D. Pinchoff
E. Avalanche
181. The VA rating of a transformer is an expression of
A. The maximum frequency at which it can function
B. The type of core material it has
C. The voltage step-up or step-down ratio
D. The impedance transfer ratio
E. None of the above
182. In N-type semiconductor, the minority carriers are
A. Electrons
B. Protons
C. Holes
D. Positrons
183. A disadvantage of a half wave rectifier is the fact that
A. The output voltage is excessive compared to that of a full-wave rectifier
B. The output current is excessive compared to that of a full-wave rectifier.
C. The output waveform is harder to filter than is the case with a full wave rectifier
D. It requires several expensive diodes, whereas a full wave rectifier requires only a single diode
184. A power gain of 30dB is equivalent to which amplification factor?
A. 0.001
B. 1/30
C. 30
D. 1000
Hint: 10 log 1000 = 10 X 3 = 30
185. When the equilibrium condition of system gets changed from one point to another, it is called
a. Process
b. Path
c. Cycle
186. Material under failure due to excessive deformation. The reason may be?
a) material
b) Design and dimensions
c) Both
d) None
187. Power factor is equal to
a. True power / apparent power.
b. Current and voltage phase difference
188. which of these are having least input impedance
a. MOSFET
b. BJT
189. Which one is very weak bond? (answer confirmed)
a) Vander walls Bond
b) Metallic bond
c) Covalent Bond
d) Ionic Bond
190. Which of the following is reverse biased
a. Anode +5v and cathode +10V
b. Anode +5 and Cathode +3.
c. Anode +0.3V and cathode +5V
d. A and C
191. At zero atmospheric pressure.
a. Liquid will remain as liquid.
b. Temperature of liquid will change.
45
c. Volume of Liquid will change.
d. Liquid will into vapor.
192. Once you increase the pipe insulation, the heat transferee will be as following:
a. Convection will increase
b. Conduction will decrease
c. Convection will decrease, then Conduction will decrease
d. Convection will increase, then Conduction will increase
Electrical drives (Cranes)

193. The consideration involved in the selection of the type of electric drive for a particular application depends
on
(A) Speed control range and its nature
(B) Starting torque
(C) Environmental conditions
(D) All of the above.
194. Which of the following is preferred for automatic drives?
(A) Synchronous motors
(B) Squirrel cage induction motor
(C) Ward Leonard controlled dc motors
(D) Any of the above.
195. Which type of drive can be used for hoisting machinery
(C) DC compound motor
(D) Any of the above.
196. The motor normally used for crane travel is
(D) DC differentially compound motor.
197. A wound rotor induction motor is preferred over squirrel cage induction motor when the major
consideration involved is
(A) high starting torque
(B) low starting current
(C) speed control over limited range
(D) all of the above.
Hint:
The wound rotor induction motor is also called slip ring induction motor. For starting the slip ring inductor
motor, we can use rotor resistance starter. starting can be achieved at relative low currents by inserting
extra resistance in the rotor circuit during starting as well. This extra resistance not only increases the
starting torque but also reduces the starting current. But we can't use rotor resistance starter for squirrel
cage induction motor. The cage motor has very low starting torque. Whereas the slip ring motor has high
STARTING torque. We can't control the rotor speed of the cage rotor, but we can control the rotor speed
by slip ring motors.
198. When smooth and precise speed control over a wide range is desired, the motor preferred is
(A) synchronous motor
(B) squirrel cage induction motor
(C) wound rotor induction motor
(D) dc motor.
199. When quick speed reversal is a consideration, the motor preferred is
(A) synchronous motor
(B) squirrel cage induction motor
(C) wound rotor induction motor
(D) dc motor.
200. Stator voltage control for speed control of induction motors is suitable for
(A) fan and pump drives
46
(B) drive of a crane
(C) running it as generator
(D) constant load drive.
201. The selection of control gear for a particular application is based on the consideration of
(A) duty
(B) starting torque
(C) limitations on starting current
202. As compared to squirrel cage induction motor, a wound rotor induction motor is preferred when the major
consideration is
(A) high starting torque
(B) low windage losses
(C) slow speed operation
203. A synchronous motor is found to be more economical when the load is above
(A) 1 kW
(B) 10 kW
(C) 20 kW
(D)100kW.
204. The advantage of a synchronous motor in addition to its constant speed is
(A) high power factor
(B) better efficiency
(C) lower cost
Hint:
Synchronous motors Advantages Vs Disadvantages:
Advantage: One of the major advantage of using synchronous motor is the ability to control the power
factor. An over excited synchronous motor can have leading power factor and can be operated in parallel
to induction motors and other lagging power factor loads thereby improving the system power factor. In
synchronous motor the speed remains constant irrespective of the loads. Synchronous motors usually
operate with higher efficiencies (more than 90%) especially in low speed and unity power factor
applications compared to induction motors.
Disadvantages: Synchronous motors requires dc excitation which must be supplied from external
sources. Synchronous motors are inherently not self starting motors and needs some arrangement for its
starting and synchronizing. The cost per kW output is generally higher than that of induction motors.
These motors cannot be used for variable speed applications as there is no possibility of speed
adjustment unless the incoming supply frequency is adjusted (Variable Frequency Drives) Synchronous
motors cannot be started on load. Its starting torque is zero.
205. In motor circuit static frequency changers are used for
(A) power factor improvement
(B) improved cooling
(C) reversal of direction
(D) speed regulation.
206. In case of traveling cranes, the motor preferred for boom hoist is
(D) Single phase motor.
207. The characteristics of drive for crane hoisting and lowering is
(A) smooth movement
(B) precise control
(C) fast speed control
208. In Ohm’s Law voltage is related to:
a. Power
b. Energy
c. Current
47
209. In Ohm’s Law Current is related to:
a. Power
b. Energy
c. Resistance
d. Voltage
210. In circuits 27 is given in circle and along with 52 mentioned
a. Time delay
b. Overcurrent function in CB
c. Under voltage relay in CB
211. In power system diagram what is the purpose of controlled a device with no. 59
a. Differential relay
b. Directional relay
c. Over voltage relay
d. Under voltage relay
Hint:
ANSI device numbers:
In the design of electrical power systems, the ANSI standard device numbers identifies the features of a
protective device such as a relay or circuit breaker. These types of devices protect electrical systems and
components from damage when an unwanted event occurs, such as an electrical fault. Device numbers are
used to identify the functions of devices shown on a schematic diagram. Function descriptions are given in
the standard.
52 – AC circuit breaker
Voltage:
27 – Under voltage relay
59 - Overvoltage Relay
Current
50-Instantaneous Overcurrent Relay
51 - AC Time Overcurrent Relay
212. Which multiplexer is geographically separated?
a. Frequency multiplexing (FM)
b. Space division multiplexing (SDM)
c. TDMA
d. multiplexing
213. if Vin = 100 sin733t, what is the maximum reverse current in the diode?
a. – 100
b. – 70.71
c. Zero
Hint: Diode will not pass current in reverse direction hence it will be zero
214. Transformer action requires a

a. Constant magnetic flux
b. Increase magnetic flux
c. Alternating magnetic flux
d. Alternating electrical flux
215. 3 phase 3 wire ungrounded system, 11.2 KV and delta connected balanced system, one end connected to
device. Voltage between ground to that device:
a. Half of the voltage
48
b. 11.2 KV
c. Not possible to measure
d. Two times of system
216. The work done in moving a unit positive charge across two points in an electrical circuit is the measure of:
a. Current
b. Potential difference
c. Resistance
d. power
217. Three equal resistances when combined in series are equivalent to 90Ω. The equivalent resistance when
combined in parallel will be ______________
a. 270Ω
b. 30Ω
c. 810Ω
d. 10Ω
218. Which of the following is an ohmic resistor?
a. Diode
b. Germanium
c. Nichrome
d. Diamond
219. Two electric bulbs have resistances in the ratio 1:2. If they are joined in series, the energy consumed in them
are in the ratio _____________
a. 1:2
b. 2:1
c. 4:1
d. 1:1
220. The unit of resistivity is ____________
a. Ohm
b. Ohm/m
c. Ohm-m
d. Mho
221. For an ideal Op-amp, the input and output impedances are:
a. Zero, infinity
b. Infinity, zero
c. 2000, 100
d. Intermediate, zero
222. Terminals of a transistor (BJT):
a. Base, collector & emitter
b. gate, collector & emitter
c. gate, source & drain
d. gate, emitter & drain
223. in digital circuits Schottky transistors are preferred over normal transistors because of their:
a. lower propagation delay
b. lower power dissipation
c. higher propagation delay
d. higher power dissipation
224. the output D in the circuit

a. B(A+C)
b. (A+B)(B+C)
c. AB+BC
d. (A+B)CB
49
Transformer
1. In a transformer
(a) All turns are equally insulated
(b) The end turns are more strongly insulated
(c) The end turns are closely wound
(d) The end turns are widely separated
Hint: to withstand the high voltage, drop due to line surge produced by the shunting capacitance of the end
turns. End turns produce shunt capacitance while circuit is made ON. Thus, to provide protection from line
surge produced by the shunting capacitance of the end turns and to withstand high voltage they are heavily
insulated.
2. Laminated insulations coated with varnish are normally used in the transformer
(a) To reduce reluctance of magnetic path
(b) To reduce the effect of eddy current
(c) To increase the reluctance of magnetic path
(d) To reduce the hysteresis effect
3. The required thickness of lamination in a transformer decreases when
(a) The applied frequency increases
(b) The applied frequency decreases
(c) The applied voltage increases
(d) The applied voltage decreases
Hint:
Laminations, however, are designed according to the frequency range where the transformer is intended to
operate. That is because core loss -- the power wasted in the core (i.e., laminations) is a function of flux
density in the core, and that is tied to frequency and lamination thickness. Get the right lamination thickness,
and you will minimize core loss. Core loss shows up principally as heat, so not only is energy wasted by
improper lamination size, but you increase cooling requirements
4. Oil in transformer is used to
(a) Transfer electrical energy
(b) Insulate the windings
(c) Cool the windings
Hint: Transformer oil's primary functions are to insulate and cool a transformer.
5. The following arrangement will reduce the reluctance of magnetic path of the transformer.
Ans: C
6. The windings of a transformer are divided into several coils because
(a) It is difficult to wind as one coil
b) It reduces voltage per coil
(c) It requires less insulation
Hint:
When the windings are divided to coils with less
number of turns, this will reduce the Vs voltage. This
is done to have different voltages (Vs1, VS2, …) for the
same transformer.
50
7. The size and construction of bushings in a transformer depend upon the
(a) Size of winding
(b) Size of tank
(c) Current flowing
(d) Voltage supplied
Hint:
In electric power, a bushing is an insulated device that allows an electrical conductor to pass safely through
a grounded conducting barrier such as the case of a transformer. Bushings are typically made from porcelain.
All materials carrying an electric charge generate an electric field. When an energized conductor is near a
material at earth potential, it can form very high field strengths, especially where the field lines are forced to
curve sharply around the earthed material. The bushing controls the shape and strength of the field and
reduces the electrical stresses in the insulating material.
8. Transformer humming sound is reduced by the
(a) Proper bracing of transformers assemblies
(b) Proper insulation
(c) Proper design
(d) Proper design of winding
9. Sludge in transformer oil is due to
(a) Decomposition of oil
(b) Decomposition of insulation
(c) Moisture content in oil
10. A transformer used only for electrical isolation between two circuits has turns ratio which is
(a) More than unity
(b) Less than unity
(c) Equal to unity
(d) More than 0.5
11. If 90 percent of normal voltage and 90 percent of normal frequency are applied to a transformer, the percent
change in hysteresis losses will be
(a) 20%
(b) 4.7%
(c) 19%
(d) 21%
Hint:
V2= 0.9 V1
f2 = 0.9 f1
Ph1 = K f1
Ph2 = K f2 = K (0.9 f1)
𝑃ℎ1−𝑃ℎ2
Reduction = 𝑃ℎ1 = (K f1 – 0.9 f1) / K f1 = 0.1
Reduction % = 10 % ???
12. Open circuit test for transformer is used to calculate:
a. Core loses
b. Ohmic losses
c. Hysteresis losses
d. Eddie current losses
13. If 110 percent of normal voltage and 110 percent of normal frequency is applied to a transformer, the
percentage change of eddy current losses will be
(a) 10%
(b) 20%
(c) 25%
(d) 21%
Hint:
V / f = Const.
V2= 1.1 V1
f2 = 1.1 f1
51
Pe1 = K f12
Pe2 = K f22 = K (1.1 f1)2 = K X 1.21 f12
𝑃𝑒1−𝑃𝑒2
Reduction = 𝑃𝑒1 = (K f12 – 1.21 K f12) / K f12 = -0.21
Reduction % = 21 %
14. A transformer has two 2,400 V primary coils and two 240 V coils. By proper connection of the windings, the
transformation ratio that can be obtained is
(a) 10
(b) 5
(c) 20
(d) 9
15. A single-phase, 2,200/200 V transformer takes 1 A at the HT side or no load at a power factor of 0.385
lagging. The iron losses are
(a) 167 W
(b) 77 W
(c) 88 W
(d) 98 W
16. Neglecting resistance, at constant flux density, the power required per kilogram to magnetize the iron core of
a transformer is 0.8 W at 25 Hz and 2.04 W at 60 Hz. The power required per kilogram for 100 Hz is
(a) 3.8 W
(b) 3.63 W
(c) 3.4 W
(d) 5.2 W
17. Select the correct statement:
(a) emf per turn of both the windings are equal
(b) emf per turn in HV winding is more than the emf per turn in LV winding
(c) emf per turn in HV winding is less than the emf per turn in LV winding
18. The flux involved in the emf equation of a transformer has
(a) rms value
(b) Average value
(c) Total value
(d) Maximum value
19. The no-load current in a transformer lags the applied voltage by
(a) 90° – 95°
(b) About 80° – 85°
(c) 0° – 15°
(d) About 110°
20. High leakage impedance transformers are used for applications such as
(a) Power distribution
(b) Electrical toys
(c) Arc welding
(d) Fluorescent lamps
Hint: A welding transformer is an exception in which leakages are intentionally increased to limit short
circuit current by large leakage reactance.
21. A transformer 2,000 kVA, 250 Hz is operated at 50 Hz. Its kVA rating should be revised to
(a) 400 kVA
(b) 10,000 kVA
(c) 2,000 kVA
(d) Cannot be revised
Hint:
The voltage equation of a transformer is given by E = 4.44 × φmf N Volt.
Where, φm is the maximum flux in the core, f is the supply frequency, N is the number of turns in winding
of the transformer. Hence from the above equation, it is clear that the voltage is directly proportional to
frequency. Therefore, with decrease in frequency, the output voltage of the transformer decreases
proportionally. When 250 Hz transformer operated in 50 Hz the output voltage also becomes 50 / 250 or 1
/ 5 times hence VI rating of the transformer will become 1 / 5 times which is 2000 / 5 = 400 KVA.
22. The transformer which will have the largest size is
52
(a) 100 kVA, 25 Hz
(b) 100 kVA, 100 Hz
(c) 100 kVA, 50 Hz
(d) 100 kVA, 60 Hz
23. The magnetic flux of a transformer follows
(a) High reluctance path
(b) Low reluctance path
(c) Low conductivity path
(d) High conductivity path
Hint: Magnetic reluctance = magnetic resistance
24. The efficiency of a transformer is usually in the range of
(a) 50–60%
(b) 65–75%
(c) 70–90%
(d) 90–98%
25. Transformer is laminated to reduce
(a) Hysteresis loss
(b) Eddy current loss
(c) Partly (a) and partly (b)
(d) Increases exciting current
26. Transformer changes the value of
(a) Power
(b) Frequency
(c) Voltage
(d) Current
27. Transfer of electrical power from primary to secondary in a transformer takes place
(a) Electrically
(b) Electromagnetically
(c) Magnetically
(d) None of these
28. The thickness of a 50 Hz transformer lamination is
(a) 0.35 cm
(b) 0.35 mm
(c) 0.33 m
(d) 0.30 cm
29. A power transformer is a constant
(a) Current device
(b) Voltage device
(c) Power device
(d) Main flux device
Hint:
Transformers: A Transformer is a static, alternating electromagnetic device that transfers electrical power
between two or more circuits using electromagnetic induction. It is a constant power device, constant flux
device and a constant frequency device.
Since transformer is a constant power device: Vp Ip = Vs Is As it is a constant flux device we get: IpNp= IsNs
where, Vp and Vs are voltage of the primary and secondary sides respectively Ip and Is are currents of
primary and secondary sides respectively Np and Ns are turns in the coils of primary and secondary sides
respectively Equating the above two equations we get: 𝐕𝐩 𝐕𝐬 = 𝐈𝐬 𝐕𝐩 = 𝐍𝐩 𝐍s
There are basically two types of Transformer available in our power system
1- Power transformer
2- Distribution transformer.
There is a thing about power transformer that a power transformer is either working on its rated capacity
or it will be turned off. So, we can say that if a transformer is supplying a constant power or rated power
we can consider that transformer as a constant power device.
On the other hand, we have distribution transformer which is connected to various loads these loads can
be industrial loads residential loads etc. Demand of the floats can vary time to time so the power supplied
53
by the secondaries of distribution transformer will also very. That is why we cannot say that a distribution
transformer is a constant power device.
30. The value of flux in the emf equation of a transformer is
(a) rms
(b) Average
(c) Maximum
(d) Integral wave cycle
31. The leakage flux in a transformer depends upon the value of
(a) Load current
(b) Supply frequency
(c) Mutual flux
(d) None of these
Hint:
In a transformer, the mutual flux i.e. the flux that links both primary coil and secondary coil, is a little less
than 100%. There is some flux which links only with the primary coil, but not with the secondary coil. This
is called primary leakage flux and it contributes to primary leakage reactance. Likewise, there is some flux
which links only with the secondary coil, but not with the primary coil. This is called secondary leakage flux
and it contributes to secondary leakage reactance. Both the leakage fluxes added together, amounts to
total leakage flux. Leakage flux is both undesirable and desirable. Undesirable, because it makes the voltage
regulation poor due to voltage drop in leakage reactances. Desirable, because it limits the short circuit
current. In certain special transformers, leakage reactance is purposely increased to limit output current.
But in general, it is kept low to achieve better regulation.
32. The voltage regulation of a transformer at full-load 0.8 power factor lag is 6 percent. Its voltage regulation at
full-load 0.8 power factor lead will be
(a) Negative
(b) 54%
(c) Positive
(d) Zero
33. The full-load efficiency of a transformer at 0.85 p.f. lag is 97 percent. Its efficiency at full load 0.85 power
factor lead will be
(a) 99%
(b) 96%
(c) 97%
(d) 98%
Hint:
The efficiency of transformer
Where cosθ2 is power factor. θ2 is positive when power factor is lagging and θ2 is negative when power
factor is leading. But in both cases the value of cosθ2(pf) is positive and same. If the efficiency of a
transformer at full load 0.8 p.f. lag is 90%, its efficiency at full load 0.8 lead will be 90 % too.
34. If a load on secondary side of a transformer increases, the current on the primary side
(a) Remains constant
(b) Increases
(c) Decreases
(d) None of these
35. If a sinusoidal exciting current is applied to a transformer, the mutual flux produced is
(a) Negative
(b) Sinusoidal
(c) Zero
(d) Flat top
Hint: The main reason behind this phenomenon is core saturation. Transformers are constrained in their
performance by the magnetic flux limitations of the core. Ferromagnetic materials cannot support infinite
magnetic flux densities: they tend to “saturate” at a certain level (dictated by the material and core
dimensions), meaning that further increases in magnetic field force (mmf) do not result in proportional
increases in magnetic field flux (Φ).
54
When a transformer’s primary winding is overloaded from excessive applied voltage, the core flux may
reach saturation levels during peak moments of the AC sine wave cycle. If this happens, the voltage induced
in the secondary winding will no longer match the wave-shape as the voltage powering the primary coil. In
other words, the overloaded transformer will distort the wave shape from primary to secondary windings,
creating harmonics in the secondary winding’s output. Harmonic content in AC power systems typically
causes problems.
36. To get sinusoidal flux in a transformer the mutual flux produced is

(a) Non-sinusoidal
(b) Sinusoidal
(c) Direct current
(d) Zero
37. A 220V, 150V bulb is connected in series with the primary of a 220/1,100 V, 50 Hz transformer. If the load on
the secondary side is disconnected, the brightness of the bulb will
(a) Decrease
(b) Increase
(c) Be unaffected
(d) Decrease to a very low value
38. The open circuit test of a transformer gives information about
(a) Core losses of the transformer
(b) Cu losses of the transformer
(c) Exciting current
(d) None of these
39. The short circuit test of a transformer gives the information of
(a) Cu losses of the transformer
(b) Core losses of the transformer
(c) Winding circuit impedance
(d) None of these
40. During testing of a transformer
(a) Both SC and OC tests are performed at rated current
(b) Both SC and OC tests are performed at rated voltage
(c) OC test is performed at rated voltage
(d) SC test is performed at rated current
Hint:
In OC test, transformer is operated at rated voltage and at rated frequency so the maximum will be the flux
in the core. Since the iron or core losses are at rated voltage, the power input is drawn to supply the iron
losses by the transformer under no load.
The SC test is conducted on HV side due to the two main reasons. The first one is, the SC test conducted by
applying rated current and the HV side rated current is much less than the LV side. Therefore, the rated
current is easily achieved at HV side (due to the low current value) as compared to the LV side.
41. All-day efficiency of a transformer is
(a) Equal to its power efficiency
(b) Less than its power efficiency
(c) More than its power efficiency
(d) None of these
Hint: What is the need of All Day Efficiency?
55
Some transformer efficiency cannot be judged by simple commercial efficiency as the load on certain
transformer fluctuate throughout the day. For example, the distribution transformers are energized for 24
hours, but they deliver very light loads for the major portion of the day, and they do not supply rated or
full load, and most of the time the distribution transformer has 50 to 75% load on it.
As we know, there are various losses in the transformer such as iron and copper loss. The iron loss takes
place in the core of the transformer. Thus, the iron or core loss occurs for the whole day in the distribution
transformer. The second type of loss known as copper loss takes place in the windings of the transformer
also known as the variable loss. It occurs only when the transformers are in the loaded condition.
Hence, the performance of such transformers cannot be judged by the commercial or ordinary efficiency,
but the efficiency is calculated or judged by All Day Efficiency also known as operational efficiency or energy
efficiency which is computed by energy consumed during 24 hours.
42. Routine efficiency of a transformer depends upon the value of
(a) Load current
(b) Supply frequency
(c) Power factor of load
(d) Both (a) and (b)
output input − losses losses
Hint: Copper loss = I12R1, Iron loss = Wi, efficiency = = = 1-
input input input
43. A ferrite core has less eddy current loss than an iron core because ferrites have
(a) Lower permeability
(b) High hysteresis
(c) Alnico as the main constituent
(d) High resistance
44. The maximum regulation of a transformer occurs at a power factor of
Ans: b
45. The zero of regulation of a transformer occurs at a power factor of
Ans: b
46. Circular coil sections are used because they
(a) Reduce iron material
(b) Reduce copper material
(c) Have the strongest mechanical shape
(d) All of these
47. A transformer is connected to a constant voltage source. If the supply frequency decreases, the magnetic flux
in the core will
(a) Increase towards saturation
(b) Decrease
(c) Remain unchanged
(d) None of these
Hint:
48. The power in autotransformer is transferred through

(a) Inductive process
(b) Convection process
(c) Conduction process
(d) All of these
Hint:
56
An Auto-transformer is an electrical transformer with only one winding. In an autotransformer, portions of
the same winding act as both the primary and secondary sides of the transformer. The primary voltage is
applied across two of the terminals, and the secondary voltage taken from two terminals, almost always
having one terminal in common with the primary voltage. The primary and secondary circuits therefore
have a number of windings turns in common. Since the volts-per-turn is the same in both windings, each
develops a voltage in proportion to its number of turns. In an autotransformer part of the current flows
directly from the input to the output, and only part is transferred inductively.
49. The cross-sectional area of the common portion of an autotransformer is

(a) Kept constant
(b) Proportionally decreased
(c) Proportionally increased
(d) None of these
Hint:
Let us now right down the mmf balance equation of the transformers.
For the two-winding transformer: MMF balance equation is: N1I1 = N2I2
For the autotransformer: MMF balance equation is (N1 – N2) I1 = N2(I2 – I1)
It may be noted that in case of an autotransformer, the portion EC is common between the primary and
the secondary. At loaded condition current flowing through NEC is (I2 – I1). Therefore, compared to a two-
winding transformer lesser cross
sectional area of the conductor in the
portion EC can be chosen, thereby saving
copper.
50. The efficiency of an autotransformer for the

same output compared to a two-winding
transformer is
(a) Greater
(b) Lesser
(c) Poor
(d) None of these
Hint:
In an auto transformer, as compared to two winding transformer, there is reduction in copper loss because
a single winding serves the function of both primary and secondary windings. The reduction in copper loss
is substantial if transformation ratio is near unity. Hence higher efficiency in auto transformers.
51. The condition for successful parallel operation of transformer is
(a) Correct polarity
(b) Per unit impedance based on their rating should be equal
(c) Identical voltage and frequency rating
(d) Equal ratio of equivalent resistance to reactance
(e) All of these
Hint: The Transformer is said to be in Parallel Operation when their primary windings are connected to a
common voltage supply, and the secondary windings are connected to a common load.
52. During parallel operation of transformers incorrect polarity will result in
57
(a) Open circuit
(b) Dead short circuit
(c) Regeneration of power
(d) Power factor of transformer will be different from that of the connected load
𝑉1
53. In an autotransformer of voltage ratio 𝑉2 and V1 > V2, the fraction of power transferred inductively is
Ans: d
54. A 10 kVA, 400/200 V single-phase transformer with 10 percent impedance draws a steady short circuit line
current of
(a) 50 A
(b) 150 A
(c) 250 A
(d) 350 A
Hint:
For the transformer in the question, rated current is 10,000 VA / 200 V = 50 A.
Drop at rated load is 10 % of 200V = 20V.
Internal impedance = 20V / 50 A = 0.4 Ohms.
When short circuited, the current will be 200 V / 0.4 Ohms = 500 Amps.
short circuited, the current secondary side is 500 amps
primary side=0.5*500=250 A
55. A 400/100 V, 10 kVA two-winding transformer is reconnected as an autotransformer across a suitable voltage
source. The maximum kVA is
(a) 50 kVA
(b) 15 kVA
(c) 12.5 kVA
(d) 8.75 kVA
56. An autotransformer having a transformation ratio of 0.8 supplies a load of 10 kW. The power transferred
inductively from the primary to the secondary is
(a) 10 kW
(b) 8 kW
(c) 2 kW
(d) Zero
57. A single-phase induction regulator is a constant input transformer to obtain smooth variation of the output
voltage by varying the
(a) Ratio of turns between primary and secondary winding
(b) Frequency
(c) Flux-density in the core
(d) Angle between the magnetic forces of the primary and secondary windings
58. In operating a 400 Hz transformer at 50 Hz
(a) Only voltage is reduced in the same proportion as the frequency
(b) Only kVA is reduced in the same proportion as the frequency
(c) Both voltage and kVA rating are reduced in the same proportion as the frequency
59. In performing the short circuit test of a transformer
(a) High-voltage side is usually short-circuited
(b) Low-voltage side is usually short-circuited
(c) Any side is short-circuited with preference
(d) None of these
Hint:
The test is conducted on the high-voltage (HV) side of the transformer where the low-voltage (LV) side or the
secondary is short circuited due to the two main reasons. The first one is, the SC test conducted by applying
rated current and the HV side rated current is much less than the LV side. Therefore, the rated current is
easily achieved at HV side (due to the low current value) as compared to the LV side.
60. In performing open circuit test of a transformer
(a) High voltage is usually kept open
58
(b) Low voltage is usually kept open
(c) Any side can be kept open
Hint:
In OC test, high voltage (HV) winding is kept open and the low voltage (LV) winding is connected to its normal
supply.
61. Transformer core usually uses grain-oriented laminated sheets. The grain orientation reduces
(a) Copper loss
(c) Hysteresis loss
62. In the circuit model of a transformer, the core loss is represented as
(a) Series resistance
(b) Series inductance
(c) Shunt resistance
(d) Shunt inductance
63. While performing short circuit test on a transformer, the impressed voltage magnitude is kept constant, but
the frequency is increased. The short circuit current will
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) Remain the same
64. A transformer has a hysteresis loss of 30 W at 240 V, 60 Hz. The hysteresis loss at 200 V, 50 Hz will be
(a) 20.8 W
(b) 25 W
(c) 30 W
(d) 36 W
Hint:
Ph1 = 30 W @ V1= 240 v and f1=60 Hz
Ph2 = ? W @ V1= 200 v and f2=50 Hz
Ph1 / Ph2 = f1 / f2  30 / Ph2 = 60 / 50  Ph2 = 25 W
65. In a transformer, the exciting current will be in phase quadrature with the impressed voltage provided
(a) Only the leakage impedance drop is ignored
(b) Only the core loss is ignored
(c) Both the leakage and impedance drop and the core loss are ignored
(d) Only no-load copper loss is ignored
66. Magnetizing impedance of a transformer is determined by
(a) Short circuit test
(b) Open circuit test
(c) Both open circuit and short circuit tests
(d) None of these
Hint:
A transformer’s magnetizing impedance is a shunt element associated with its excitation current, i.e. the “no
load” current in the primary windings. The real component of the magnetizing impedance reflects the core
losses of the transformer. Its reactive component describes the mmf required to overcome the magnetic
reluctance of the core.
67. A transformer is to be tested at full-load conditions consuming only losses from the mains. We do
(a) Load test
(b) Open circuit and short circuit tests
(c) Back-to-back test
(d) None of these
68. In a transformer operating at constant voltage if the input frequency increases the core loss will
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) Remain constant
(d) Increase as the square of the frequency
69. Grain-oriented laminated sheet steel in a transformer reduces
59
(a) Copper loss
(c) Hysteresis loss
(d) None of above
70. R1 is the resistance of the primary winding of a transformer. The turns ratio in terms of primary to secondary
is a, the equivalent resistance of the primary referred to as secondary is
(a) R1/a
(b) a2 R1
(c) R1/a2
(d) None of these
71. Choose the correct statement:
(a) emf per turn in high-voltage winding is more than the emf per turn in low-voltage winding
(b) emf per turn in both the finding are equal
(c) emf per turn in both the windings are not equal
(d) None of these
72. If E2 be the induced emf in secondary winding and V2 be the terminal voltage during load, the regulation of
the transformer is given by
Ans: a
73. One transformer has leakage impedance of 1 + j 4 Ω and 3 + j 4 Ω for its primary and secondary windings,
respectively. The transformer has
(a) Low voltage primary
(b) High voltage primary
(c) Medium voltage primary
(d) Insufficient data
74. A single-phase transformer has its maximum efficiency at 60 percent of full load. At full load copper loss will
be
(a) Equal to core loss
(b) Less than core loss
(c) More than core loss
(d) Zero
75. The flux in a magnetic core is alternating sinusoidally at a frequency of 600 Hz. The maximum flux density is 2
T and eddy current loss is 15 W. If the frequency is raised to 800 Hz and maximum flux density reduced to 1.5
T, the eddy current loss will be
(a) Same
(b) Reduced to half
(c) Doubled
(d) Increased by 50%
Hint:
Pe1 = K Bm12 f12
Pe2 = K Bm22 f22
Pe1 / Pe2 = (800)2 (2)2 / (600)2 (1.5)2 = 1
76. The core flux in a transformer depends mainly on
(a) Supply voltage
(b) Supply voltage and frequency
(c) Supply voltage, frequency and load
(d) Supply voltage and load but independent of frequency
More question with explained answers can be found on the following link:
https://electricalstudy.sarutech.com/multiple-choice-questions-on-transformer-page-6/index.html
77. If the signal is power doubled at a given transmitter, what is the decibel (dB) increase?
a. 0.5db
b. 2db
c. 3db
60
d. 4db
78. HDL design is having inputs and outputs. Who should be giving the inputs and outputs in VHDL?
a. Architecture Declaration
b. Entity Declaration
c. Both Architecture and Entity
d. …..
Hint: A design is described in VHDL using the concept of a design entity. A design entity is split into two
parts, each of which is called a design unit in VHDL jargon. The entity declaration represents the external
interface to the design entity. The architecture body represents the internal description of the design entity
- its behavior, its structure, or a mixture of both.
79. For a 12 AWG wire we should use CB rating:
a. 10 A
b. 15 A
c. 20 A
d. 30 A
Hint:
14-gauge wire: 15 amps
80. Three resistors are connected in series l parallel combination what are the possibilities to get different total
resistance:
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
81. Is used to vary transmitted or received signal
a. Waveguide
b. Antenna dish
c. …
d. …
82. Two test terminals: f short circuit 3 A, Connected to conductance of 0.2 S across 5 V (Check question)
a. Current 3 A, conductance 0.2 S
b. Current 1 A, conductance 0.2 S
c. Current 3 A, conductance 0.6 S
d. Current 1 A, conductance 0.6 S
83. Permanent magnet moving coil instrument (PMMC) type instruments normally use:
a. Air friction damping
b. Fluid friction damping
c. Eddy current damping
84. Inter-symbol interface is eliminated by:
a. Nyquist
b. Pulse code
c. SSB Modulator
85. Problem for damping ratio
61
𝑂/𝑃
86. What is the transfer function 𝐼/𝑃
?
𝑂/𝑃 𝐺1 𝐺2
Ans: = + G4
𝐼/𝑃 1+𝐻1 𝐺2
87. The total resistance of a circuit is 680 ohm, the percentage of the volt appearing across 47 ohm resistance
that makes as part of the total series resistance is:
a. 68 %
b. 47 %
c. 69 %
d. 6.9 %
Ans:
𝑉 𝑅1 47
V1 = 𝑅𝑡 = V 680 = V X 0.069 = V X 6.9 %
88. Which one of the following is not described high conductivity?

a. Ceramic
b. Copper
c. Aluminum
d. Silver
89. Wind load formula developed by the Electronic Industries Association

Wind is a mass of air that moves in a mostly horizontal direction from an area of high pressure to an area with low
pressure. High winds can be very destructive because they generate pressure against the surface of a structure. The
intensity of this pressure is the wind load. The effect of the wind is dependent upon the size and shape of the structure.
Calculating wind load is necessary for the design and construction of safer, more wind-resistant buildings and
placement of objects such as antennas on top of buildings.
Define the formula developed by the Electronic Industries Association. The formula for wind load is
F = A x P x Cd x Kz x Gh, where
F: is the force or wind load

A: is the projected area of the object. It is the two-dimensional area of the three-dimensional object that the wind is
hitting. Its units are feet squared (ft2).
P: is wind pressure in pounds per square foot or psf. It can be calculated using wind speed and a conversion factor. It
is given by the equation P = 0.00256 x V2, where V is the speed of the wind in miles per hour (mph).
Cd: is the drag coefficient for an object and is determined based on the size and shape of the object subjected to the
wind. It does not have units. It is the net force in the direction of flow due to pressure on the surface of an
object.
Kz: is the exposure coefficient, and it is calculated by considering the height from the ground to the midpoint of the
object. The units of Kz are feet.
Calculate the exposure coefficient, Kz. Kz is calculated using the formula [z/33](2/7), where z is the height from the
ground to the midpoint of the object.
For example, if you have an antenna that is 3 ft long and 48 ft off the ground, z would be equal to 46.5 ft.
Kz = [z/33](2/7) = [46.5/33](2/7) = 1.1 ft
Gh is the gust response factor. and it is calculated by considering the entire height of the object. The units of Gh are
1/feet or ft-1.
Calculate the gust response factor, Gh. Gust response factor is calculated with the equation
Gh = 0.65+0.60/[(h/33)(1/7)] where h is the height of the object.
For example, if you have an antenna that is 3 ft long and 48 ft off the ground,
Gh = 0.65+0.60/[(h/33)(1/7)] = .65+.60/(51/33)(1/7) = 1.22 ft-1
90. Filaments in incandescent light bulbs are made of

a. Carbon
b. Aluminum
62
c. nickel
d. tungsten
91. certain communication channel has a signal to noise ratio of 7 and bandwidth of 10 KHZ what is the channel
capacity?
1. 30 bps
2. 80 bps
3. 3000 bps
4. 30,000 bps
Hint:
The Shannon channel capacity, C, is measured in units of bits/sec (bps) and is given by the equation:
C is the maximum capacity of the channel, W is the available bandwidth in the channel, and SNR is the signal
to noise ratio, not in DB.
ln 8
C = 10 X 103 log2 (1 + 7) = 10 X 103 log2 8 to calculate with scientific calculator, log2 8 = ln 2 = 3
C = 10,000 X 3 = 30,000 bps
92. An antenna has effective aperture of 10 m2 what is the additional information required to determine
delivered power?
a. Power density
b. Power losses
c. Space losses
d. Total torque
Hint:
In electromagnetics and antenna theory, antenna aperture, effective area, or receiving cross section, is a
measure of how effective an antenna is at receiving the power of electromagnetic radiation (such as radio
waves). The aperture is defined as the area, oriented perpendicular to the direction of an incoming
electromagnetic wave, which would intercept the same amount of power from that wave as is produced by the
antenna receiving it. At any point X, a beam of electromagnetic radiation has an irradiance or power flux density
S(x) which is the amount of power passing through a unit area of one square meter. If an antenna delivers P0
watts to the load connected to its output terminals (e.g. the receiver) when irradiated by a uniform field of
power density S watts per square meter, the antenna's aperture Ae in square meters is given by:
So, the power received by an antenna (in watts) is equal to the power density of the electromagnetic energy
(in watts per square meter), multiplied by its aperture (in square meters). The larger an antenna's aperture, the
more power it can collect from a given electromagnetic field.
93. Radio station 50 KW power emitter and gain 1.5, at 10 KM what will be the output power density? (Check
question)
a. 75 mW/m2 ???
b. 33 mW/m2
Hint:
50,000 𝑋 1,000 𝑋 1.5
PD = 4 𝜋 𝑋 10,000 𝑋 10,000 = 0.059 mW/m2
Antennas, an isotropic radiator is a theoretical, lossless, omnidirectional (spherical) antenna. That is, it
radiates uniformly in all directions. The power of a transmitter that is radiated from an isotropic antenna
will have a uniform power density (power per unit area) in all directions. The power density at any distance
from an isotropic antenna is simply the transmitter power divided by the surface area of a sphere (4πR2) at
that distance. The surface area of the sphere increases by the square of the radius, therefore the power
density, PD, (watts/square meter) decreases by the square of the radius.
63
Pt is either peak or average power depending on how PD is to be specified.
Radars use directional antennas to channel most of the radiated power in a particular direction. The Gain
(G) of an antenna is the ratio of power radiated in the desired direction as compared to the power radiated
from an isotropic antenna, or:
The power density at a distant point from a radar with an antenna gain of Gt is the power density from an
isotropic antenna multiplied by the radar antenna gain.
Suppose the antenna gain is given as 15 dB: Gt (dB) = 10 Log (Gt)
94. What is the total noise figure?
RF Antenna AR1 AR2 AR3

Noise factor 5 dB 15 dB 25 dB
Gain 10 dB 15 dB 20 dB
Band 160 MHZ 16 MHZ 30 MHZ
Ans:
First convert all from dB to linear
Ex: Suppose the antenna gain is given as 15 dB: Gt (dB) = 10 Log (Gt)
RF Antenna AR1 AR2 AR3

Noise factor (F) 3.16 31.62 316.23
Gain (G) 10 31.62 100
Band 160 MHZ 16 MHZ 30 MHZ
31.61−1 316.23−1
F = 3.16 + + = 3.16 + 3.061 + 0.997 = 7.217
10 10 𝑋 31.62
NF = 10 log10 (F) = 10 log10 (7.217) = 8.58
Total Gain =10 + 15 + 20 = 45 dB
Hint:
Noise figure (NF) and noise factor (F) are measures of degradation of the signal-to-noise ratio (SNR),
caused by components in a signal chain. It is a number by which the performance of an amplifier or a radio
receiver can be specified, with lower values indicating better performance.
The effect of bandwidth: Although the system bandwidth is an important factor in many systems and is
involved in the actual signal-to-noise calculations for demodulated signals, noise figure is independent of
device bandwidth.
The noise figure NF is defined as the noise factor in dB
If several devices are cascaded, the total noise factor can be found with Friis' formula
where Fn is the noise factor for the n-th device, and Gn is the power gain (linear, not in dB)
95. Fiber optic communication

a. FDM
b. WDM
c. CDM
64
96. Hard and Soft Real-Time Systems
In the previous section, we said computation must complete before reaching a given deadline. In other
words, real-time systems have timing constraints and are deadline-driven. Real-time systems can be
classified, therefore, as either hard real-time systems or soft real-time systems.
What differentiates hard real-time systems and soft real-time systems are the degree of tolerance of
missed deadlines, usefulness of computed results after missed deadlines, and severity of the penalty
incurred for failing to meet deadlines.
For hard real-time systems, the level of tolerance for a missed deadline is extremely small or zero
tolerance. The computed results after the missed deadline are likely useless for many of these systems. The
penalty incurred for a missed deadline is catastrophe. For soft real-time systems, however, the level of
tolerance is non-zero. The computed results after the missed deadline have a rate of depreciation. The
usefulness of the results does not reach zero immediately passing the deadline, as in the case of many hard
real-time systems. The physical impact of a missed deadline is non-catastrophic.
A hard real-time system is a real-time system that must meet its deadlines with a near-zero degree of
flexibility. The deadlines must be met, or catastrophes occur. The cost of such catastrophe is extremely
high and can involve human lives. The computation results obtained after the deadline have either a zero-
level of usefulness or have a high rate of depreciation as time moves further from the missed deadline
before the system produces a response.
A soft real-time system is a real-time system that must meet its deadlines but with a degree of flexibility.
The deadlines can contain varying levels of tolerance, average timing deadlines, and even statistical
distribution of response times with different degrees of acceptability. In a soft real-time system, a missed
deadline does not result in system failure, but costs can rise in proportion to the delay, depending on the
application.
Penalty is an important aspect of hard real-time systems for several reasons.
· What is meant by 'must meet the deadline'? It means something catastrophic occurs if the deadline is not
met. It is the penalty that sets the requirement.
· Missing the deadline means a system failure, and no recovery is possible other than a reset, so the
deadline must be met. Is this a hard real-time system?
That depends. If a system failure means the system must be reset but no cost is associated with the
failure, the deadline is not a hard deadline, and the system is not a hard real-time system. On the other
hand, if a cost is associated, either in human lives or financial penalty such as a $50 million lawsuit, the
deadline is a hard deadline, and it is a hard real-time system. It is the penalty that makes this
determination.
· What defines the deadline for a hard real-time system?
· It is the penalty. For a hard real-time system, the deadline is a deterministic value, and, for a soft real-
time system, the value can be estimation.
One thing worth noting is that the length of the deadline does not make a real-time system hard or soft,
but it is the requirement for meeting it within that time.
The weapons defense and the missile guidance systems are hard real-time systems. Using the missile
guidance system for an example, if the navigation system cannot compute the new coordinates in response
to approaching mountain terrain before or at the deadline, not enough distance is left for the missile to
change altitude. This system has zero tolerance for a missed deadline. The new coordinates obtained after
the deadline are no longer useful because at subsonic speed the distance is too short for the altitude control
system to navigate the missile into the new flight path in time. The penalty is a catastrophic event in which
the missile collides with the mountain. Similarly, the weapons defense system is also a zero-tolerance
system. The missed deadline results in the missile sinking the destroyer, and human lives potentially being
lost. Again, the penalty incurred is catastrophic.
On the other hand, the DVD player is a soft real-time system. The DVD player decodes the video and the
audio streams while responding to user commands in real time. The user might send a series of commands
to the DVD player rapidly causing the decoder to miss its deadline or deadlines. The result or penalty is
momentary but visible video distortion or audible audio distortion. The DVD player has a high level of
tolerance because it continues to function. The decoded data obtained after the deadline is still useful.
Timing correctness is critical to most hard real-time systems. Therefore, hard real-time systems make
every effort possible in predicting if a pending deadline might be missed. Returning to the weapons defense
system, let us discuss how a hard real-time system takes corrective actions when it anticipates a deadline
65
might be missed. In the weapons defense system example, the C&D system calculates a firing box around
the projected missile flight path. The missile must be destroyed a certain distance away from the ship or
the shrapnel can still cause damage. If the C&D system anticipates a missed deadline (for example, if by
the time the precise firing coordinates are computed, the missile would have flown past the safe zone), the
C&D system must take corrective action immediately. The C&D system enlarges the firing box and
computes imprecise firing coordinates by methods of estimation instead of computing for precise values.
The C&D system then activates additional weapons firing systems to compensate for this imprecision. The
result is that additional guns are brought online to cover the larger firing box. The idea is that it is better to
waste bullets than sink a destroyer.
This example shows why sometimes functional correctness might be sacrificed for timing correctness for
many real-time systems.
Because one or a few missed deadlines do not have a detrimental impact on the operations of soft real-time
systems, a soft real-time system might not need to predict if a pending deadline might be missed. Instead,
the soft real-time system can begin a recovery process after a missed deadline is detected.
For example, using the real-time DVD player, after a missed deadline is detected, the decoders in the DVD
player use the computed results obtained after the deadline and use the data to make a decision on what
future video frames and audio data must be discarded to re-synchronize the two streams. In other words,
the decoders find ways to catch up.
So far, we have focused on meeting the deadline or the finish time of some work or job, e.g., a
computation. At times, meeting the start time of the job is just as important. The lack of required resources
for the job, such as CPU or memory, can prevent a job from starting and can lead to missing the job
completion deadline. Ultimately this problem becomes a resource-scheduling problem. The scheduling
algorithms of a real-time system must schedule system resources so that jobs created in response to both
periodic and aperiodic events can obtain the resources at the appropriate time.
97. Session Hijacking

What is Session Hijacking?
TCP session hijacking is a security attack on a user session over a protected network. The most common
method of session hijacking is called IP spoofing, when an attacker uses source-routed IP packets to
insert commands into an active communication between two nodes on a network and disguising itself as
one of the authenticated users. This type of attack is possible because authentication typically is only done
at the start of a TCP session.
Another type of session hijacking is known as a man-in-the-middle attack, where the attacker, using a
sniffer, can observe the communication between devices and collect the data that is transmitted.
Mitigation
To defend a network with session hijacking, a defender has to implement both security measures at
Application level and Network level. Network level hijacks can be prevented by Ciphering the packets so
that the hijacker cannot decipher the packet headers, to obtain any information which will aid in spoofing.
This encryption can be provided by using protocols such as IPSEC, SSL, SSH etc. Internet security protocol
(IPSEC) has the ability to encrypt the packet on some shared key between the two parties involved in
communication. IPsec runs in two modes: Transport and Tunnel.
In Transport Mode only the data sent in the packet is encrypted while in Tunnel Mode both packet headers
and data are encrypted, so it is more restrictive.
54. What is the use of a station pointer;

a. For making soundings in water bodies.
b. For plotting of soundings in harbor area.
c. For making sunken shipping hazards
d. For making tidal observations.
55. Consider the following statements “collision diagram is used to “
a. Study accident pattern
b. Eliminate accidents
c. Determine remedial measures
d. Make statistical analysis of accidents
66
PMP Questions
Definitions:
Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) captures all elements of projects in an organized fashion. Breaking down large,
complex projects into smaller project pieces provides a better framework for organizing and managing current and
future projects. WBS facilitates resource allocation, task assignment, measurement and control of project cost and
billing. The WBS is utilized at the beginning of the project to define scope, identify cost centers and is the starting point
to developing project plans/Gantt charts and Project Network diagram.
The Organization Breakdown Structure (OBS) groups together similar project activities or “work packages” and relates
them to the organization’s structure. OBS (also known as Organizational Breakdown Structure) is used to define the
responsibilities for project management, cost reporting, billing, budgeting and project control. The OBS provides an
organizational rather than a task-based perspective of the project. The hierarchical structure of the OBS allows the
aggregation (rollup) of project information to higher levels. When project responsibilities are defined, and work is
assigned, the OBS and WBS are connected providing the possibility for powerful analytics to measure project and
workforce performance at a very high level (example business unit performance) or down to the details (example user
work on a task).
Activity: Task(s) of the project that consumes time while people/equipment either work or wait.
Activity-on-arrow (AOA): Activity-on-arrow method for drawing project networks. The activity is shown as an arrow.
Activity-on-node (AON): Activity-on-node method for drawing project networks. The activity is on the node
(rectangle).
Burst activity: An activity that has more than one activity immediately following it.
Critical path: The longest activity path(s) through the network. The critical path can be distinguished by identifying
the collection of activities that all have the same minimum slack.
Gantt chart: A graphic presentation of project activities shown as a time-scaled bar line.
Laddering: is a technique where we break down certain tasks into smaller units and try to fit them into the Project
Plan. Laddering is possible if an activity can be broken down into two or more sub-activities and a
succeeding activity is similarly broken down into the same number of sub-activities as its predecessor.
Hammock activity: is a schedule or project planning term for grouping smaller subtasks that hang between two dates.
The sub tasks are not really related in a hierarchical sense. This means that there is no fixed
sequence of tasks – any of these subtasks can be done at any time, but there is no particular
sequence. The objective is to group dissimilar activities that must be performed to achieve an
overall goal, but their individual sequence is not important or logical.
Concurrent engineering: also known as simultaneous engineering, is a method of designing and developing products,
in which the different stages run simultaneously, rather than consecutively. It decreases
product development time and also the time to market, leading to improved productivity and
reduced costs.
Concurrent engineering: Cross functional teamwork in new-product development projects that provides product
design, quality engineering, and manufacturing process engineering all at the same time.
Lag relationship: The relationship between the start and / or finish of a project activity and the start and / or finish of
another activity. The most common lag relationships are (1) finish-to-start, (2) finish-to-finish, (3)
start-to-start, and (4) start-to-finish.
Merge activity: An activity that has more than one activity immediately preceding (before) it.
Parallel activity: One or more activities that can be carried on concurrently or simultaneously.
Sensitivity: The likelihood that the critical path(s) will change once the project begins to be implemented.
Task Dependencies: Dependencies are the relationships among tasks which determine the order in which activities
need to be performed. There are four (4) types of dependency relationships
Finish to Start: Predecessor must finish before Successor can start. [Land must be purchased
before road building can start]
Start to Start: Predecessor must start before Successor can start. [Road excavating must start
before Asphalt can be laid]
Finish to Finish: Predecessor must finish before Successor can finish. [Laying Asphalt must be
complete before line painting can be completed]
67
Start to Finish: Predecessor must start before Successor can finish. [Road excavating must start
before line painting can be completed]
1. Information to develop a project network is collected from the

A. Organization breakdown structure
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Budget
D. Project proposal
E. Responsibility matrix
2. Which of the following represents an activity on an AON (Activity on Node) project network?
A. An arrow
B. A line
C. A node
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
3. Arrows on an AON project network represents:
A. An activity
B. Project flow
C. Dependency
D. Both B and C are correct
E. Both A and B are correct
4. When translated into a project network, a work package will become
A. A single activity
B. One or more activities
C. A milestone
D. A critical path
E. An arrow
5. Which of the following is provided by a project network but not by the work breakdown structure?
A. Dependencies
B. Sequencing
C. Timing
6. On a project network, the activity times are derived from the
A. Organization breakdown structure
B. Work packages
C. Budget
D. Project proposal
E. Responsibility matrix
7. Part of a project is to Develop Product Specifications. This is best classified as a(n)
A. Event
B. Path
C. Activity
D. Node
E. Milestone
8. An activity that has more than one dependency arrow flowing into it is termed a(n)
A. Parallel activity
B. Critical path
C. Burst activity
D. Merge activity
E. Independent activity
9. The critical path in a project network is the
A. Shortest path through the network
B. Longest path through the network
C. Network path with the most difficult activities
D. Network path using the most resources
68
E. Network path with the most merge activities
10. A/an _________ activity has more than one dependency arrow flowing from it.
A. Parallel
B. Critical path
C. Burst
D. Merge
E. Independent
11. An item on a project network is Design Software Completed. This is best described as a(n)
A. Event
B. Path
C. Activity
D. Node
E. Milestone
12. Activities which can take place at the same time are termed
A. Parallel activity
B. Critical path
C. Burst activity
D. Merge activity
E. Independent activity
13. A sequence of connected, dependent activities is termed a(n)
A. Critical path
B. Parallel path
C. Activity chain
D. Path
E. Dependent chain
14. An AON project network uses which of the following basic building blocks?
A. Arrows
B. Bars
C. Nodes
D. Both A and C are correct
15. Which of the following is not one of the basic rules to follow when developing project networks?
A. An activity cannot begin until all preceding activities have been completed
B. Each activity must have a unique identification number
C. Conditional statements are allowed but looping statements are not allowed
D. An activity identification number must be larger than that of any preceding activities
E. Networks flow from left to right
16. ________ activities must be completed immediately before a particular activity.
A. Merge
B. Burst
C. Predecessor
D. Successor
E. Critical
17. ________ activities are to be completed immediately following a particular activity.
A. Merge
B. Burst
C. Predecessor
D. Successor
E. Critical
18. The forward pass in project network calculations determines the
A. Earliest time's activities can begin
B. Earliest time's activities can be finished
C. Duration of the project
19. The backward pass in project network calculations determines the
A. Latest time's activities can begin
69
B. Earliest time's activities can be finished
C. Critical path
D. Both A and C are correct
20. Which of the following correctly calculates the early finish for an activity?
A. LS + DUR
B. ES + DUR
C. LF +DUR
D. ES + SL
E. LF + SL
21. Which of the following correctly calculates the late start for an activity?
A. EF - DUR
B. ES - DUR
C. LF - DUR
D. ES - SL
E. LF - SLACK
22. The amount of time an activity can be delayed and yet not delay the project is termed
A. Total slack
B. Free slack
C. Critical float
D. Float pad
E. Slip pad
23. Which of the following will correctly calculate the total slack in an activity?
A. LS - ES
B. LF - EF
C. LS - LF
D. LF - ES
24. The laying pipe example in the text illustrates the concept of (I think this is incomplete question)
A. Laddering
B. Hammock activities
C. Critical path
D. Concurrent engineering
E. Forward pass
25. Using a special color copy machine for a tradeshow publication illustrates the concept of (I think this is
incomplete question)
A. Laddering
B. Hammock activities
C. Critical path
D. Concurrent engineering
E. Forward pass
26. If, for some reason, the project must be expedited to meet an earlier date, which of the following actions
would the project manager take first?
A. Check to see which activities cost the least
B. Check to see which activities have the longest duration
C. Check to see which activities are on the critical path
D. Check to see which activities have the most slack
E. Check to see which activities have the highest risk
27. Typically, an activity on a project network represents
A. A single work package
B. One or more tasks from a work package
C. Several work packages
D. A sub-deliverable
E. A cost account
28. Project network logic errors include which of the following?
A. Activities with less than 1-day duration
B. Sequences such as "if test successful build prototype, if failure redesign"
70
C. A sequence such as B succeeds A, C succeeds B, A succeeds C
D. Both B and C are network logic errors
E. A, B, and C are all network logic errors
29. Which company utilized concurrent engineering to design a new line of cars and in the process completed its
development six months ahead of schedule?
A. General Motors
B. Chrysler
C. Ford
D. Nissan
E. Toyota
30. The minimum amount of time a dependent activity must be delayed to begin or end is referred to as:
A. Hammock
B. Laddering
C. Lag
D. Cushion
E. Buffer
31. The requirement for a freshly poured foundation to cure before beginning construction is an example of
which of the following type of lag?
A. Start to Start
B. Start to Finish
C. Finish to Finish
D. Finish to Start
E. Any of these could be correct
32. Concurrent engineering is a good example of good use of
A. Start to Start lags
B. Start to Finish lags
C. Finish to Finish lags
D. Finish to Start lags
33. If testing cannot be completed any earlier than four days after the prototype is built, which of the following
type of lag exists?
A. Start to Start
B. Start to Finish
C. Finish to Finish
D. Finish to Start
34. Which of the following represents an activity on an AOA (Activity on Arrow) project network?
A. An arrow
B. A line
C. A node
35. Nodes on an AOA project network represent:
A. An activity
B. An event
C. Responsibility
D. Both B and C are correct
An event
36. Strategy considered to be under purview of senior management is:
A) Old school thinking
B) A new school of management thought
C) Necessary in a company structure
D) Beneficial to the Project Manager
E) Dependent on company goals
37. Project managers who do not understand the role that their project plays in accomplishing the organization's
strategy tend to make all the following mistakes except:
71
A) Focusing on low priority problems
B) Overemphasizing technology as an end in and of itself
C) Focusing on the immediate customer
D) Trying to solve every customer issue
E) All the above are likely mistakes
38. Project selection criteria are typically classified as:
A) Financial and non-financial
B) Short-term and long-term
C) Strategic and tactical
D) Required and optional
E) Cost and schedule
39. The advent of project management has been most profound in
A) Automobile manufacturing
B) Construction
C) Information technology
D) The U.S. Department of Defense
E) Film making
40. Which of the following choices is not one of the stages of a project life cycle?
A) Conceptualizing
B) Defining
C) Planning
D) Executing
E) Delivering
41. In which of the following stages are you more likely to find status reports, many changes, and the creation of
forecasts?
A) Conceptualizing
B) Defining
C) Planning
D) Executing
E) Delivering
42. Which of these is not part of the "technical dimension" of project management?
A) WBS
B) Budgets
C) Problem solving
D) Schedules
E) Status reports
43. From the list below, which is not a primary characteristic of organization culture?
A) Control
B) Team emphasis
C) History
D) Conflict tolerance
E) Risk tolerance
44. Who is responsible for determining how tasks will be done in a matrix project management structure?
A) The functional manager
B) The project manager
C) Both are responsible
D) This is no pattern of who takes responsibility
E) None of these are true
45. The process of forecasting or approximating the time and cost of completing project deliverables is called
A) Budgeting
B) Predicting
C) Estimating
D) Planning
E) Guesstimating
46. Top-down estimates are most likely to occur during the ______ phase.
A) Concept
B) Planning
72
C) Execution
D) Delivery
E) All of these are equally likely
Hint:
Top-Down Estimating. Top-down estimating is a technique used by upper level management to estimate the
total cost of a project by using information from a previous, similar project. Cost and time estimation is
happening in planning phase of the project.
47. Learning curves are more likely to apply in situations where most of the costs are
A) Materials
B) Labor
C) Overhead
D) Evenly spread over materials, labor, and overhead
E) All of these are equally likely situations for learning curves
48. Which of the following represents an activity on an AON project network?
A) An arrow
B) A line
C) A node
D) Both A and B are correct
E) A, B, and C are all correct
49. Part of a project is to Develop Product Specifications. This is best classified as a(n)
A) Event
B) Path
C) Activity
D) Node
E) Milestone
50. An item on a project network is Design Software Completed. This is best described as a(n)
A) Event
B) Path
C) Activity
D) Node
E) Milestone
51. What is least influential in projects?
a. Time
b. Materials
c. Manpower.
52. Question about bidding procedure. Bidding & Evaluation of Contractors before-----project----?
a. Pre-quantification
b. Fast Tracking
53. If you were awarded a project, you will start work:
a. One week before the approval of the authorities
b. After the approval of the authorities
c. One day before the approval of the authorities
54. what are the activities included in early site work of a project? (Check answer)
b) Road preparation.
c) Replanting of vegetation.
d) Fence and security.
e) HSE.
f) All of the above.
56. Which one of the following is suitable in engineering manner? “Decision shall be based on reason than
situation ’’.
a) Quantity Thinking.
b) Logical Thinking.
c) Interpersonal Skills.
d) Honesty.
57. What is the final estimation done in the project
73
a. Root estimation
b. Assembled
c. Bid estimation
58. Scope Management starts with is:
b. To identify the client requirements
c. Meet the team
d. Review strategic plan
59. Project Control will be:
a. Before construction
b. During construction
c. After construction
d. Throughout the process
60. What is a system:
a. Group of elements having one input and one output
b. Group of elements making a function
61. The forward pass review of the project management will indicate the following:
a. The earliest start of the task
b. The earliest finish of the task
c. Critical path (longest path)
d. Only A & B
e. A, B & C are all correct
62. What is the least level of WBS (Work Breakdown Structure)
a. Deliverable
b. Cost
c. Work package
d. Lowest sub deliverable
63. What is the highest level of WBS (Work Breakdown Structure)
a. Main Deliverable (Major Deliverable)
b. Sub Deliverable
c. Work package
d. Lowest sub deliverable
64. Project Scope Management:
a. Define scope and control scope
b. Executing scope and verify scope
c. Closing process and Create work breakdown structure
d. All of the above
e. Only A & B
65. Project management is ideally suited except
a. Accountability
b. Flexibility
c. Innovation
d. Speed
e. Repeatability
66. A critical path is the ----------------------in the project management:
a. longest
b. shortest
c. none
67. The forward pass review of the project management will indicate the following:
a. The earliest start of the task
b. The earliest finish of the task
c. Critical path (longest path)
74
d. All of the above
68. The back pass review of the project will indicate the following:
a. The latest start of the task.
b. The earliest finish of the task.
c. The critical path.
d. Only A & C
e. All of the above.
69. Intersecting point for WBS and OBS (Organization Breakdown Structure)
a. Cost account
b. Intersect matrix
c. Project matrix
d. None of above
70. For operation and designed auto mobile factory
a. Mechanical Engineer
b. Civil Engineer
c. Chemical Engineer
d. Petroleum Engineer
71. An activity in a project network can be represented by which of the following?
a. Arrow
b. Line
c. Node
d. All of the above
72. Before starting work at site, the major factor has to be checked is?
a. Access to site (EFE)
b. Storage of Water, tools & equipment’s
c. Safety
d. Approval from MMUP / Civil / Defense etc.
e. All of the above
73. Software programming flow
a. Plan, Do, Check, Act
b. Plan, Do, Act, Check
c. Plan, Act, Do, Check
74. First step of Scope planning starts with
a. Budgeting
b. Current earning estimation
c. Objectives and requirements to satisfy customer
75. In network which point getting more inward flow
b. Float
c. Critical path
d. Slack
e. Merging point
76. The best place to build an exhibition and convention center
a. near the Airport
b. in satellite place far from Urban
77. You discover violation of specification at nearly end of the project, what you will do…
a. Inform to Client and ask what to do
b. You will try to find some loophole to escape from the problem arisen
c. Do nothing, its Boss problem ,he will handle it later
d. Punish the violator
78. Fast tracking to be performed in the project
a. Compress the schedule without changing the scope of project
75
b. Compress the schedule without changing the cost of the project
c. All of above
79. Project is awarded, what you will do next
a. Plan the work
b. Develop project charter
c. Develop schedule
d. Define scope
80. Value engineering has the purpose of
b- Reduces cost by reducing scope
c- Modifies work team in order to achieve the best efficiency
d- Achieve the project outcomes with the least cost
81. Interaction between engineers of different disciplines in a project
a. Every engineer should be expert in all engineering specialties
b. All engineers should only know general engineering
c. Engineers can be specialized in different domains; however, they should be able to communicate
together in order to coordinate common issues in the project
82. One of the following is not process of the project:
a. Concept
b. Initiating
c. Planning
d. Executing
e. Closing
83. Final as built drawings for what purpose
a. To keep record for later maintenance
b. To give more work to architect
c. To be used for further renovation
84. Control department work starts
a. From the beginning of the project
b. During construction
c. After construction
85. In what situation we can claim for a change order from the client
a) When client want to add something which is not available in initial scope
b) When major change occurs due to site conditions
c) Design mistake or Error
d) All of the above
86. Design /build contract mean:
a. contractor will do the construction work and design
b. design has to finish before project completed
c. project will finish before design completed
d. both A&B
87. What is change order?
a. change scope
b. change cost
c. change time
d. any change for any work
88. An Engineer received new scope of work which is not included at the original scope, what the action he has to
do:
a) accept the scope and start for supplying the materials
b) he has to inform his boss first
c) refuse to receive the new scope
89. Project management has:
76
a. Replaced middle management
b. Became in all business
c. Only in major projects
d. A & b
e. A, b, and c
90. If you’re having 1000,000 QR and inflation rate is given to be 5%, how much will the initial amount be after 5
years.
Can’t remember the choices, but your refer to Future valve formula
91. During a project phase, Change order (change request) means
a) Change in scope
b) Change in cost
c) Change in Time
d) Change in any work
92. During which of the below process, status reports, change request, forecasts created
a) Estimation
b) Planning
c) Initiation
d) execution
93. According to Brundtland Commission in 1987 report, the Three pillars of sustainability and sustainability
development are
a) Economic, environmental, cultural
b) Economic, environmental, social
c) Political, economic, environment
d) Cultural, political, social
94. If you receive a work order request along with a gift which of the following choices will be suitable?
a) Accept the work order & gift.
b) Reject work order & accept gift.
c) Reject both
d) Some third choice I can’t remember (please note that the question description may not be
accurate 100 %)
95. Below change is least bothered during project phase
a) Scope
b) Time
c) People, performance
d) Cost
ANS: c ( because Scope, time and Time are triple constraints from project point of view. Resource,
performance, etc are least effective)
96. Multiple dependency arrows into one activity is called:
a. Burst activity
b. Critical path
c. Merge activity
d. Independent activity
97. It is considered an acceptable excuse for late completion or non-compliant performance if:
a. Labor strike
b. Hardship
c. Fail to get permit or license
d. Inconvenience
98. A good example of a project is:
a. Automobile factory
b. Applying for insurance claim
c. Writing a book in project management
d. Achieve an academic degree
99. In a construction firm the project manager has conducted the analysis for soil and has designed the frame and
structural which has the budget of $25000. However, he was told to bring down the budget to $20000. How
can he manage it?
77
a. He will change the soil analysis report and framing to bring down the budget with some
effect on Specification
b. He will carry out the soil analysis again to bring some better figures
c. He will bring down the framing to an acceptable and within specification
d. He will do (b) & (c) both
100. Which shall be more sustainable for the Project/Business
a. Economical
b. Environmental
c. Society
d. All the above
101. Supplier offer gifts and prices in exchange of using superior materials, which was not specified in the
specification/ contract. Mention which option will you choose:
a. Accept Gifts
b. Reject Gifts
c. Accept Gift and follow as per the specification.
d. Accept Gift and use the superior material.
102. There is a contradiction in a Specification and a Drawing Note,
a. Details will be preceded by Notes
b. Details will be preceded by Drawing
c. Specification will be preceded by Drawing
d. Drawing will be preceded by Specification
103. The delay time for a series of activities that would not affect if occurred the project timing called:
a. Total Slack (Total Float)
b. Total Slag
c. Critical Float
d. Float pad
e. Critical slag
Free float: is the amount of time that schedule activity can be delayed without delaying the early date of any
immediate following schedule activity.
104. What is sustainable design and sustainable development?
a. Social, development and environment.
b. Environment, Social and economic.
c. Economic, product, Environment.
105. Which one of the following is a non-direct cost?
a. Safety and first aid
b. Maison finishing the job
c. Material used for the job
d. Excavation machine doing an excavation
106. What are the advantages of Design/Bid/Build construction
a. Reduce Project Time
b. Reduce xxxx dealings between the bidders
c. Able to know the Project cost before construction
d. All of the above
107. The method of reducing the Impact of project risk is
a) Migration
b) Mitigation
c) Two more option were given
108. Software development process involves
a) Plan do check act
b) Plan check do act
c) Check Plan do act
d) Check, Plan act do
78
109. The following is not the major reason to implement the Project
a) Marketing demand
b) More manpower
c) Product requirement
d) Utilizing the advantage of increasing the money exchange value
110. Project initial investment is 2,000,000 the annual profit of the project is 150,000. If 20% rate of return
desired, after how many years the initial investment will be gained back.
e. 1.1
f. 2.2
g. 5.5
h. 8.8
Hint:
After 1st year 2,000,000 ----- 20% ------> 150,000
After 2nd year 2,150,000 ----- 20% ------> 430,000
After 3rd year 2,580,000 ----- 20% ------> 516,000
After 4th year 3,096,000 ----- 20% ------> 619,200
After 5th year 3,715,200 ----- 20% ------> 743,040
After 6th year 4,458,240
initial investment is 2,000,000 and after 6 years total value of investment is 4,458,240, which
means after 5.5 years the initial investment returned.
111. TQM stands for:
e) Tool Quality Management
f) Test Quality Management
g) Total Quality Management
112. Which of these is not typical character of a Project Manager
h) Managing non/repeated activity
i) Has in-depth Technical Knowledge
j) Managing Independently a formal organization
k) Has direct link with customer
113. During which of the below process, status reports, change request, forecasts created
a. Estimation
b. Planning
c. Initiation
d. Execution
114. Architecture visit the site gypsum board wall team work with very poor quality, what should his immediate
action be?
a. Stop work immediately
b. Call superintendent responsible for work and inform him
c. Call the owner and tell him
d. Contact main General Contractor
115. Government need to build new library, where should contrast
a. Near recreation & garden areas
b. Near bus station
c. Near school
d. Near jobs office & Government areas
116. Your boss give new assignment which you don’t know it, what you should do?
a. Inform him the truth
b. Get help for good engineer to support you
c. Study it & do his effort to do it
117. If your boss assigned a task for you to do and there are some parts of this tasks that you don’t know how to
deal with it, then what you shall do is:
a. Tell your boss
b. Take the task and do your best efforts to complete it
c. Get expert engineers to help and consult them in this task.
118. The estimation cost of wooden forming work as per soil test is $ 25,000 and the manager want to reduce the
cost to $ 20,000 what shall he do?
79
a. Repeat the soil test
b. Redesign the form work within specification
c. A & b
119. If your boss allocate a new assignment of which part of it you are not sure about
a. Tell your boss to retrieve it from you
b. Take the assignment and do your best to complete
c. Ask for professional help on the part which you do not know about
d. Do the part that you know and learn about the part you do not know and do it.
120. Which statement is true?
a. Project management is used only for primary projects.
b. Project management is replacing the middle management in controlling projects
c. Project management is… (A true statement!!!!)
d. B & C
121. What will a changeover changes?
a. The duration of a project
b. The Scope
c. The cost of project
d. The design of a project
e. A & B
122. Which one of the below is not a pre‐construction activity for project?
a. Safety and employee Building fence
b. Electrical, water and drainage connection
c. Preparing for project material and equipment
d. All of the above
123. In a schedule, one activity is linked with two other ones out from it, the activity called:
a. Independent
b. Critical path activity
c. Burst
d. Merge
e. None of the above
124. Bob is a bidding manager. On the closing date of the bid he received a call from one of the bidding firms asking
him to extend the bidding period by one day as they couldn’t finish the documents. Bob is to:
a. Accept extending the bidding period by one day
b. Apologize and should not accept extending the period
c. Telling the firm about the other firms prices
d. Tell him that he will think about it and revert back
125. The estimated current value for your project is 1,000,000 QR. What is the future value for the project after
5 years when the AIR (Annual Interest Rate) is 9%:
a. 1,380,965 QR
b. 1,538,624 QR
c. 1,766,123 QR
d. 1, 825,951 QR
126. If your boss has already assigned a new project and you are the project manager what is the first thing to do ;
a. Make a report about project processes
b. Make a report about project cost needed
c. Ask your boss about the team work
d. Make modification about planning process.
127. A useful tool to visualize and clarify possible cause of problem
a. Partite analysis
b. Cause and effect diagram
c. Quality control process
128. Which of the engineering characteristic can be best explain “Base your decision on reason rather than
Emotions”
a. Quantitative thinking
b. Logical thinking
80
c. Interpersonal Skills.
d. Honesty
129. Shaker is working with an organization managed by planning and human recourses, Shaker is the
coordinator between his management and his direct subcontractors, Shaker organization called: -
a. Functional
b. Functional Matrix
c. Balanced Matrix
d. Strong Matrix
e. Projectized
Hint:
Sanker has to report to two different departments (managers), so this is matrix organization.
Couldn’t find the term Functional Matrix. Organizations types either functional, matrix (strong or
balanced or weak) or Projectized
130. Critical path can be found on the following schedule developments:-
a. CPM
b. PERT
c. GERT
a. BOTH A&B
131. Which of the below is not true about work packages;
b. Manpower are designated to every Work Packages
c. Every work package has a manager
d. Has Medium to long duration is required for every activity
e. Every Work Package has a specific start date and a specific end date.
f. All the above are true
132. Which of these is not a role of interaction (interaction skills):
a. Law
b. Etiquette
c. Morals
d. ethics
e. Communication
133. What is the most important thing in the WBS;
a. Cost
b. The project
c. Client
134. What is the definition of code of ethics?
a. It’s the accepted standard behavior of humans globally which defines what is correct and what
is wrong taken from philosophy, and professional societies
b. It’s the accepted standards of human’s behaviors referring to his own area local environment,
family culture and society.
c. Its same as morals
d. It's about your communications skills and capabilities.
135. TQM refers to:
a. Tool Quality management
b. Test Quality Manager
c. Total Quality Management
d. Total Quality Manager
136. Project Controls is done during which part of the project:
a. Before project starts
b. During construction phase
c. At project closure time
d. During the entire process
137. For studying detailed variations with time, one uses:
a. indicator
b. digital indicator
81
c. recorder
d. integrator
e. Analog indicator.
138. Acceptable reasons for project stopping except
a. Frustration of the project
b. Natural calamities
c. Labor dispute
139. Which is the best place for constructing an exhibition Centre
i. Near Airport
f. Bus station
g. high population area
h. remote area
140. Which of the following reasons is not an influential reason for adopting a project
a. Lot Employees
b. High foreign Exchange rates
c. Product demand
d. ……………market demand
e. All of the above
141. Which of the following is not the opportunity to do the project?
a. Demand of the product
b. Emerging markets
c. Lot of manpower
d. Favorable exchange rates
e. None of these are Organizational opportunities
142. Backward pass in a project is:
a. Latest finish time of an activity
b. Earliest start time of an activity
c. Activity on critical path
143. As project Management Company which is the incorrect service:
a. Accountability
b. Flexibility
c. Innovation
d. Speed
e. Repeatability
144. In programming flow (Baseline program), the above means:
a. Activity B must start 3 days after start of activity A
b. Activity B can start 3 days after start of activity A
c. Activity B cannot start with 3 days after the start of
activity A
145. An architect inspects site and finds inferior plaster board construction on site, what his immediate action
should be;
a. Stop the work
b. Advise the client that inferior work construction is occurring on site
c. Advise the labor to change the work
d. Advice the contractor’s representative that the inferior construction work is rejected.
146. Critical path means:
a. Longest sequence of activities path in a project.
b. Shortest sequence of activities path in a project.
c. The path that have the maximum resources assigned.
d. The path with the longest tasks in project.
147. In PERT chart the time estimate of activity is calculated by:
a. Normal.
b. Binomial.
c. Logarithmic.
82
148. ASHGHAL responsible for:
a. Responsible of public housing.
b. Responsible of electrical and water services.
c. Responsible of urban planning.
149. ASHGHAL means:
a. Public Works Authority.
b. Professional Accreditation.
c. Urban planning.
d. Engineering Firm.
150. One of the following is not a gypsum board characteristic:
a. Low coast in construction.
b. Can be easily formed in deferent shapes.
c. Can be recycled.
d. Fire resistance.
151. Fast Track project means:
a. Project that starts before design is completed.
b. Cost plus fee project
c. Starts project with huge man power.
152. What is the meaning of crashing in project
a. To increase project resources in order to reduce Project total duration.
b. Project will not finish on time.
c. Project will not achieve its scope.
153. What I the meaning of resource leveling:
a. Technique used to examine unbalanced use of resources over time.
b. Technique used to determine required resources for project tasks.
c. Report given to project manager about resources.
154. A gift offered which is not in contract for approval of special material for a project. The best to do is;
a. Refuse the gift
b. Accept the gift and approve the material
c. Inform the boss of a gift is offered
d. Accept the gift & refuse the material.
155. Work breakdown in a program network is
a. Graphical representation of project overview
b. Top-down breaks up of the project
c. Down to breaks down of the project
156. A critical activity in CPM network has
a. The longest duration of all activities
b. Zero total float
c. Zero free float
d. The shortest duration of all activities.
157. Which one of the following represents an activity?
a. Excavation for foundation
b. Curing of concrete
c. Setting question paper
d. Preparation of breakfast
e. All the above
158. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following;
a. An activity of a project is denoted by an arrow on the network
b. The tail of the arrow indicated the start of activity
c. The head of the arrow indicated the end of activity
d. The arrow is drawn to scale from left to right
83
e. Each activity consumes a given time.
159. The technique for establishing and maintaining priorities among the various jobs of a project, is known as ;
a. Event flow scheduling technique
b. Critical ratio scheduling
c. Slotting technique for scheduling
d. Short interval scheduling
160. Frederick W. Taylor introduced a system of working known as;
a. Line organization
b. Lines and staff organization
c. Functional organization
d. Effective organization
161. In a PERT network the activity durations are given as (optimistic), (pessimistic) and (most likely
time). What is the variance of its activity:
162. Which are the critical activities of the bar chart shown above ;
a. Activities B & E
b. Activities A, D & F
c. Activities A, C & E
d. Activities A & f
163. The process of determining the location of the station (on the map) occupied by the plane table is called as ;
a. Intersection
b. Three point problem
c. Traversing
d. Resection
164. Interaction between engineers of different disciplines in a project
a. Every engineer should be expert in all engineering specialties
b. All engineers should only know general engineering
c. Engineers can specialized in different domains, however they should be able to communicate
together in order to coordinate common issues in the project.
165. Fast tracking to be performed in the project
a. Compress the schedule without changing the scope of project
b. Compress the schedule without changing the cost of the project
c. All of above
166. In what situation we can claim for a change order from the client
b. When client want to add something, which is not available in initial scope
c. When major change occurs due to site conditions
d. Design mistake or Error
e. All of the above
167. What is the change order (1) change in scope (2) change in time (3) change in cost and budget
a. 1&3
84
b. 2&3
c. 1&2
d. Any change in the work
168. It is considered an acceptable excuse for late completion or non-compliant performance if:
a. Labor strike
b. Hardship
c. Fail to get permit or license
d. Inconvenience
169. Dummy activities are placed in a work plan to avoid
a. Merge activity
b. Parallel activity
170. The Manufacturing company gets material from 2 suppliers X & Y,
Task Task Nodes Predecessor Duration
Procure material by X A - 2
Procure material by Y B A 2
Delivery of Material from X C B 7
Delivery of Material from Y D B 11
Assembly and Completion F C&D 2
If X delays the procurement of material by 2 days and company take 10 days to obtain the material, what
shall be the delay(days) for product completion
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
171. At completion of initiation process in a project management
a. Management defines the scope of work
b. Management identify the project manager
c. Management approve the project charter
172. ________ activities must be completed immediately before a particular activity.
A) Merge
B) Burst
C) Predecessor
D) Successor
E) Critical
173. The elements of control will consist of:
a. Authorities, direction, management
b. Authorities, direction, information
c. Authorities, application, information
d. Authorities, application, management
174. _________ details are given by management to marketing service.
a. Customer
b. Employee
c. Supplier
175. The back boon of any organization is:
a. Information
b. Employee
c. Management
d. capital
176. If you’re having 1000,000 QR and inflation rate is given to be 5%, how much will the initial amount be after 5
years.
FV = PV ( 1 - i )n = 1000,000 (1 - 0.05)5 = 773,781
With inflation rate, the FV of money will be reduced.
177. How the Contractor is selected for the construction project.
a. By evaluation cost.
85
b. By Pre-Qualification.
c. …….
d. ……
178. What is meaning of word planning?
Ans: Plans to achieve optimum balance of needs or demands with the available resources.
179. How will you develop a program in computer?
Ans: By Requirement, design, program, test and implementation.
180. Delaying the activity without delaying the project
a) Free Float
b) Slag
c) slack
d) a and c
181. What type of organization is the human infrastructure of the project.
Ans: Project Organization.
182. What is PERT equation formula? (program evaluation & review technique)
Ans: Optimistic time = To
Pessimistic time = Tp Te = (To + Tp + 4Tm) / 6
Most Likely time = Tm Te = (O + P + 4M) / 6
Expected Time = Te
183. Phase of Project life Cycle? 5 development components of project?
Ans: 1) Initiation.
2) Designing / planning.
3) Execution / Construction.
4) Monitoring / Controlling.
5) Completion / Finishing.
184. What Project Management are.
Ans: Planning, organizing, motivating and controlling resources.
185. What is Project Management Triangle?
Ans: Scope……. Cost………Time (Quality)
186. What is PMBOK 9 knowledge areas defined in PMBOK?
Ans: PMBOK (Project management body of knowledge)
9 Knowledge areas:
1) Integration management.
2) Scope management.
3) Time management.
4) Quality management.
5) Cost management.
6) Risk management.
7) Communication management.
8) HR management.
9) Procurement management.
187. What is CPI equal to?
Ans: CPI (Cost performance index) = Budgeted cost of work performance / Actual cost of work
performance. (BCWP/ACWP)
188. In Ecology what is sustainability? Factors of Sustainable design and Development?
Ans: Environment, Social, Economic.
a. Sustainable development: It meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future
generation to meet their own needs.
b. Sustainable Design: It looks at how your product’s development from cradle to grave will affect the four
crucial factors…air acidification, carbon footprint, total energy consumed and water eutrophication.
Example: acid rain, water pollution, global warming, dying animals, plant etc. impact the environment.
189. Float or Slack: In project management the float or slack is the amount of Time that a task in project network
can be delayed without Causing a delay to.
a) Subsequent Task (Free Float)
b) Project Completion date (Total Float)
(Float or slack is a measure of the excess time and resources available to complete a task.)
190. What critical Activity in CPM network?
86
1) Longest Duration of all activities. (critical path)
2) Total Float Zero…………..( critical activity)
191. General conditions and Home office overhead are costs?
a. Direct
b. Indirect Cost.
192. If CPI is 0.95 and SPI is 1.05 the project is?
a. The project is behind schedule and spending less than the planned Cost.
b. The project is ahead schedule and spending more than the planned Cost
c. The project is behind schedule and spending more than the planned Cost.
d. The project is ahead schedule and spending less than the planned Cost.
Hint:
SPI = Schedule performance Index.
If the SPI is greater than one, this means more work has been completed than the planned work. In other
words, you are ahead of schedule. If the SPI is less than one, this means less work has been completed than
the planned work. In other words, you are behind schedule. If the SPI is equal to one, this means work is being
completed at about the same rate as planned, you are on time.
CPI = cost performance Index.
If the CPI is less than one, you are earning less than the amount spent. In other words, you’re over budget. If
the CPI is greater than one, you are earning more than the amount spent. In other words, you are under
budget. If the CPI is equal to one, this means earning and spending are equal. You can say that you are
proceeding exactly as per the planned budget spending, although this rarely happens.
193. What is physical Quantity of Real World?
a) Discrete
b) Continuous
Continuous = Analogue …………… Discrete = Digital.
194. Acceptable reasons for project stopping, except?
a) Frustration
b) Labor dispute
c) Natural calamities.
195. What is Risk management strategy means?
Ans: Mitigation
196. What is last estimate appears in a project?
Ans: Bid Estimation.
197. What is not a characteristic of a project?
a) for internal use only.
B) Reger pmp/pmi
198. Sustainability development refer to?
b. environment, recycling, minimizing wastages.
c. Environmental, social, economic
199. What is the ideal location of an exhibition and convention centers?
Ans: Near to public train and bus station, hotels, restaurants.
200. The lowest element in WBS (Work break down structure) is
a) Work package
b) Deliverable
c) object
d) sub-deliverable
201. The highest element in WBS (Work break down structure) is
a) Work package
b) Deliverable
c) object
d) sub-deliverable
202. When the instrument drift with time, what needs to be done:
a. Change the instrument
b. Calibrate the instrument
c. Move the position …..
203. The _________ activity is important for the completion of the project.
a. Critical
87
b. Burst
c. Merge activity
204. Arrows on an AON (Arrow on node) project network represents?
a. An activity
b. Project flow
c. Dependency
d. Both b and c are correct
e. Both a and b are correct
205. Based on the network diagram, what
is the total project duration?
a. 18
b. 13
c. 31
d. 26
206. An activity that has more than one dependency arrows into a project network department is:
a. Burst activity
b. Critical path
c. Merge activity
d. Independent activity
207. What is the meaning of word planning

Plans to achieve optimum balance of demands with the available resources
208. Scheduling gives information about
A: when work should start and how much work should be completed during a certain period
209. An optimum project schedule implies
A: lowest possible cost and shortest possible time for project
210. Value' for value engineering and analysis purposes is defined as
A: function/cost.
211. PERT and CPM are
A: aids to the decision maker.
212. Critical path can be found on the following schedule developments:
A: CPM, PERT (BOTH A&B)
213. CPM has following time estimate
A: one time estimate
214. Q: PERT has following time estimate
A: three-time estimate
215. CPM is the
A: activity oriented technique
216. PERT is the
A: event oriented technique
217. The performance of a specific task in CPM is known as
A: activity
218. Project activities can be defined on the schedule by:
A: Node
219. Activity B has 4 days LAG compare to A what does it mean
A: 4 day waiting time between Activities A & B
220. Activity (B) has 5 days lead compares to (A) what it means:
A: Activity B start 5 days before A completion
221. The most important of project initiation is:
A: Management provides the budget required
222. PERT
A: Program Evaluation and Review technique
223. CPM
A: Critical Path Method
88
224. QCS
A: Qatar Construction Specification
225. Which of these is not a rule of interaction
A: Law
226. The process of identifying and evaluating contractors for a bid list is called
A: Prequalification
227. One situation for cancel project.
228. What is the most sensitive period in the project?
89
Incomplete Questions for previous exams:
c. One problem related to bandwidth and gain
d. Question about bid engineer
e. question regarding optical communication, frequency division multiplexing
f. CMOS Filter
g. question on : why we do fast tracking for a project
h. Which statement is not correct: (related to semiconductors doping)
i. The term “Pipe lining” (Parallel Operations) is used to indicate (in fetch the command read the memory
in microprocessors 2nd before 1st is finished)
j. Arrow in a project network is used to represent? The project path, the transitions between tasks
k. In initiating stage, what is the last action should management do?
l. What is the final work breakdown structure? ACTIVITY
m. Differentiate CMOS and dynamic logic?
n. What is fast track design ? DESIGN AND BUILT
o. What would happen for a late bidder ?
p. What is dynamic power consumption ? P= A.I.C.V2
q. What is the most important in transmission?
r. Which of the below option is related to transconductance of bipolar transistor?
s. when the motor will reach to high speed the angle will be choose 0 or 85 or 135
t. True or false Question about intrinsic semiconductors
u. True or false Question about semiconductor doping
v. QR 1 million with APR of 9% after 5 years will have a value of ____ (1,450,000, 1,531,000, two more
options)
w. 14.There was a question on the relationship between efficiency and core loss in a saturated transformer.
x. Project fast track scheduling is applied when (when cost increase is anticipated)
y. tunnel diode applications
z. BJT TRANSCONDUCTANCE FORMULA
aa. GAIN OF TRANSISTER FORMULA
bb. faraday laws of electrolsis formula
cc. Difference mode gain/ common mode gain, they give some non-related choices like 555 timer,
comparator formulas
dd. Torque calculation in induction motor? GIVEN Power and speed P=2∏NT/60
ee. what is SVC? Static var compensator- method used for power factor improvemenT
ff. CYCLOCONVERTER coverts? AC TO AC with different frequencies, ac to ac with same frequency, dc to ac
gg. PMP Question … time management
hh. PMP Question … Common sense
ii. Workability is related to …….
jj. PMP Question … Cost Management
kk. Program float & critical path
ll. Composite system
mm. Construction Process ( Curing , concrete place, frame work , dismantling )
nn. Project definition (sorry the choices are not listed)
oo. Definition of scope planning. (Multiple choices)
pp. Project network and critical path calculation (solve problem)
qq. CPM Network diagram merging activity
rr. PERT & CPM – activity based or duration based ?
ss. Which of the following is related to functional organization
tt. Change of some activities on CPM: ans: change the end time of a project.
uu. Question related to the definition of stress.
90

MMUP Electronics V1.5 - With Answers PDF

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

MMUP Electronics V1.5 - With Answers PDF

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

MMUP Electronics

File Version: 1.4

1. What do we call Synchronous motor working on a lead power factor at no load?

4. Which type of motor used in home ceiling fan:

30. Breaking for induction motor

3- General & Non-Electrical Questions:

99. For Fire alarm & smoke detector it is preferable to use

59. Which is better

67. What is the early start and end of activity D

68. what is the Free Space / Air Path Loss for a

d is the distance between two antennas.

69. what is the resistance for 100 W and 200 potential

71. Certain communication channel has a signal to noise ratio of 7

82. Power amplifier in a wireless system will

XL = 2πfL = 245.04 ohm

124. The current i flow as shown, which is the higher potential?

132. Find the time constant:

133. EPROM and EEPROM types of memories are

135. Tower crane uses any type of motors:

137. If 5V is applied to the shown circuit, what is the value of current?

143. what is C between a and b?

144. find the gain Vout/ Vin in the following

Electrical drives (Cranes)

214. Transformer action requires a

224. the output D in the circuit

36. To get sinusoidal flux in a transformer the mutual flux produced is

48. The power in autotransformer is transferred through

49. The cross-sectional area of the common portion of an autotransformer is

50. The efficiency of an autotransformer for the

88. Which one of the following is not described high conductivity?

89. Wind load formula developed by the Electronic Industries Association

F: is the force or wind load

90. Filaments in incandescent light bulbs are made of

Suppose the antenna gain is given as 15 dB: Gt (dB) = 10 Log (Gt)

94. What is the total noise figure?

RF Antenna AR1 AR2 AR3

RF Antenna AR1 AR2 AR3

NF = 10 log10 (F) = 10 log10 (7.217) = 8.58

Total Gain =10 + 15 + 20 = 45 dB

The noise figure NF is defined as the noise factor in dB

95. Fiber optic communication

Penalty is an important aspect of hard real-time systems for several reasons.

· What defines the deadline for a hard real-time system?

97. Session Hijacking

54. What is the use of a station pointer;

1. Information to develop a project network is collected from the

207. What is the meaning of word planning

You might also like