OB Diginity

MATCHING TYPE

A.Calcium Supplement
B. Ampicillin
C. Nifedipine
D. Magnesium Sulfate
E. Miconazole

1.) A 23-year old G1P0 presents at 31 weeks. At her 12 weeks visit she was normotenseive and
had no history of epilepsy. She is admitted as an emergency having had a seizure. On
admission her BP is 150/110 mmHg and dipstick urine analysis reveals 3+ proteinuria.

Answer: D. Magnesium sulfate

2.) A 32 -year old G2P1 presents in her second pregnacny at 28 weeks. Her first pregnancy had
been uncomplicated however she had deliverd at 36 weeks’ gestation. She is admitted with a
history of sudden gush of fluid per vagina. On examination her abdomen is conisstent with 29-
week pregnancy. Speculum examiniation reveals copious amounts of clear fluid. Temperature
and pulse are normal.

B. Ampicillin

3.) A 25 yearold G3P2 on her third pregnancy presents to clinic at 34 weeks of her pregnancy.
She is complaining of intense pruritus. On examination you note cottage cheese like discharge.
Abdominal examination is unremarkable. Dipstick urine analysis demonstrates 3+ glycosuria.

E. Miconazole

Perinatal Infections:
A. Toxoplasmosis
B. CMV
C. Varicella Zoster
D. Chlamydia trachomatis
E. Herpes simplex

4.) Protozoan parasiste that may be acquired from expousure to cat feces or from eating
uncooked meat

A. Toxoplasmosis
.
5.) Primary infection usually presents w/in 7 days of exposure and may be accompanied by
vesicular rashes in the genital area that could be painful ulcers

E. Herpes Simplex

A. Threatened abortion
B. Septic abortion
C. Urinary Tract Infection
D. Inevitable miscarriage
E. Missed abortion

6. A 23-year-old G1P0 presents at 13 weeks of amenorrhea. She is complaining of low

backache and suprapubic discomfort. Routine examination of the patient’s abdomen reveals
that there is suprapubic tenderness. Examination of her vital signs reveals fever of 37.7 C and a
tachycardia of 90 beats per minute. Internal examination reveals that the cervix is closed.
Urinalysis demonstrates leucocytes.

Answer: C. Urinary Tract Infection

Cystitis [urinary tract infection] is characterized by dysuria, urgency, and frequency, but with few
associated systemic findings. Pyuria and bacteriuria are usually found. Microscopic hematuria is
common, and occasionally there is gross hematuria from hemorrhagic cystitis (Fakhoury and
co-workers, 1994). -Williams Obstetrics, 23rd Edition

The typical symptoms of cystitis (urinary tract infection) are dysuria, urinary frequency, and
urgency. Nocturia, hesitancy, suprapubic discomfort, and gross hematuria are often noted as
well. Unilateral back or flank pain is generally an indication that the upper urinary tract is
involved. Fever is also an indication of invasive infection of the kidney. - Harrison’s Principles of
Internal Medicine, 18th Edition

7. A 26-year-old G1P0 presents at 15 weeks of amenorrhea. She is complaining of vaginal

bleeding, low backache, and suprapubic discomfort. Routine examination of the patient’s
abdomen reveals that there is suprapubic tenderness. Examination of her vital signs
demonstrates stable vital signs. Internal examination reveals that the cervix is soft and closed.
Urinalysis is unremarkable.

Answer: A. Threatened abortion

The clinical diagnosis of threatened abortion is presumed when a bloody vaginal discharge
or bleeding appears through a closed cervical os during the first half of pregnancy. With
miscarriage, bleeding usually begins first, and cramping abdominal pain follows a few hours
to several days later. The pain may present as anterior and clearly rhythmic cramps; as a
persistent low backache, associated with a feeling of pelvic pressure; or as a dull, midline,
suprapubic discomfort. Whichever form the pain takes, the combination of bleeding and
pain predicts a poor prognosis for pregnancy continuation. -Williams Obstetrics, 23rd Edition

8. A 32-year-old G1P0 presents in her first pregnancy at 20 weeks amenorrhea. She is

complaining of minor discomfort in the lower abdomen. Her pulse and blood pressure are within
the nromal range and she is afebrile. Abdominal examination is unremarkable. However,
speculum examination reveals a closed cervix. A transvaginal ultrasound scan demonstrates
the fetus to be 8 weeks by CRL with no note of heart activity.

Answer: E. Missed abortion

The term missed abortion is contemporaneously imprecise because it was defined many
decades before the advent of immunological pregnancy tests and sonography. It was used
to describe dead products of conception that were retained for days, weeks, or even months
in the uterus with a closed cervical os. With sonography, confirmation of an anembryonic
gestation or of fetal or embryonic death is possible. -Williams Obstetrics, 23rd Edition

9.Preeclampsia is more common in:

A. Multigravid women
B. Women with congenital heart disease
C. Multiple pregnancy
D. Women with diabetes insipidus

Answer: C. Multiple pregnancy

Preeclampsia often affects young and nulliparous women, whereas older women are at
greater risk for chronic hypertension with superimposed preeclampsia. Also, the incidence is
markedly influenced by race and ethnicity—and thus by genetic predisposition. Other
factors include environmental, socioeconomic, and even seasonal influences (Lawlor, 2005;
Palmer, 1999; Spencer, 2009, and all their co-workers).
The incidence of preeclampsia in multiparas is also variable but is less than that for
nulliparas. Other risk factors associated with preeclampsia include obesity, multifetal
gestation, maternal age older than 35 years, and African-American ethnicity (Conde-
Agudelo and Belizan, 2000; Sibai and colleagues, 1997; Walker, 2000). The relationship
between maternal weight and the risk of preeclampsia is progressive. -Williams Obstetrics,
23rd Edition

10. The treatment of preeclampsia includes:

A. Outpatient observation
B. Metoprolol
C. Early delivery
D. Phenytoin

Answer: C. Early delivery

Termination of pregnancy is the only cure for preeclampsia.
The basic management objectives for any pregnancy complicated by preeclampsia are:
1. Termination of pregnancy with the least possible trauma to mother and fetus
2. Birth of an infant who subsequently thrives
3. Complete restoration of health to the mother.
- Williams Obstetrics, 23rd Edition

11. The infant of a diabetic mother is at increased risk of

A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hypermagnesemia
C. Neonatal Jaundice
D. Hypoglycemia

Answer: D. Hypoglycemia

12. Considering the Bishop’s score:

A. It includes the station of the presenting part
B. It includes the length of the vaginal canal
C. It includes the gestation of the fetus
D. It includes parity of the mother

Answer: A. It includes the station of the presenting part

13. Human milk has the following advantages over formula milk:
A. Human milk contains more lactose.
B. Human milk is associated with an increase in atopic illness
C. Human milk is a good source of iron.
D. Human milk is a good source of Vitamin K.

Answer: A. Human milk contains more lactose.

14. What fetal malformation is most strongly associated with diabetes?

A. Neural-tube defects
B. Congenital Heart Defects
C. Caudal Regression
D. Renal agenesis

Answer: C. Caudal Regression

15. How does breastfeeding affect the risk of HIV transmission?

A. increases
B. decreases
C. unaffected
D. unknown

Answer: A increases

16. What is the difference between gestational hypertension and preeclampsia?

A. Proteinuria is present in preeclampsia, and it is absent in gestational hypertension
B. Patient has a history of hypertension in gestational hypertension
C. Patient exhibits sustained elevated blood pressures in preeclampsia
D. Patient reports lower extremity pitting edema

Answer: A. Proteinuria is present in preeclampsia, and it is absent in gestational hypertension

From Williams 23rd ed:
Gestational Hypertension
● Systolic BP 140 or diastolic BP 90 mm Hg for first time during pregnancy
● No proteinuria
● BP returns to normal before 12 weeks postpartum
● Final diagnosis made only postpartum
● May have other signs or symptoms of preeclampsia, for example, epigastric discomfort
or thrombocytopenia
Preeclampsia:

Minimum criteria:
● BP 140/90 mm Hg after 20 weeks' gestation
● Proteinuria 300 mg/24 hours or 1+ dipstick

Increased certainty of preeclampsia:

● BP 160/110 mm Hg
● Proteinuria 2.0 g/24 hours or 2+ dipstick
● Serum creatinine >1.2 mg/dL unless known to be previously elevated
● Platelets < 100,000/L
● Microangiopathic hemolysis—increased LDH
● Elevated serum transaminase levels—ALT or AST
● Persistent headache or other cerebral or visual disturbance
 ● Persistent epigastric pain

17. An ultrasound is performed at a 28-week prenatal visit. The fetus is found to be in breech
presentation with the hips and knees flexed. What type of breech presentation is this?
A. Frank breech
B. Complete breech
C. Footling breech

Answer: B. Complete breech

From Williams:
With a frank breech presentation, the lower extremities are flexed at the hips and extended at
the knees, and thus the feet lie in close proximity to the head (Fig. 24-2). A complete breech
presentation differs in that one or both knees are flexed (Fig. 24-3). With incomplete breech
presentation, one or both hips are not flexed, and one or both feet or knees lie below the breech
such that a foot or knee is lowermost in the birth canal (Fig. 24-4). Footling breech is an
incomplete breech with one or both feet below the breech

18. The recommended range of weight gain during a singleton gestation for a woman with a
high BMI is:
A. 25-35 kg
B. 28-40 lbs
C. 15-25 lbs
D. 12.5-18 kg

Answer: C. 15-25 lbs

From WIlliams:

Table 8-7. Recommended Ranges of Weight Gain during Singleton Gestations Stratified by
Prepregnancy Body Mass Index

Weight-for-height Recommended Total Weight

Category Gain

Category BMI kg lb

Low < 19.8 12.5–18 28–40

Normal 19.8–26 11.5–16 25–35

High 26–29 7–11.5 15–25

Obese > 29 7 15
19. Gail’s last normal menstrual period was last January 30, 2012. What is her completed AOG
today?
A. 33 3/7 weeks
B. 33 4/7 weeks
C. 34 2/7 weeks
D. 34 3/7 weeks

Answer: B. 33 4/7
1(Jan) + 29(Feb) + 31(Mar) +30(Apr) + 31(May) + 30 (June) + 31(July) + 31(Aug) + 21(Sept) =
235
235/7 = 33 4/7 weeks

20. The fetal heart sounds can first be heard in most women between
A. 15 and 18 weeks AOG
B. 16 and 19 weeks AOG
C. 17 and 20 weeks AOG
D. 18 and 21 weeks AOG

Answer: B. 16-19 weeks

From Williams: The fetal heart can first be heard in most women between 16 and 19 weeks
when carefully auscultated with a standard nonamplified stethoscope.

21. Tina, a 30 year-old, G2P1 (1000) comes to the OPD today for her first prenatal check up.
Her last normal menstrual period was last July 13, 2012. When is her expected date of
confinement?
A. March 6, 2013
B. April 6, 2013
C. March 20, 2013
D. April 20, 2013

Answer: D. April 20, 2013.

Using Naegels’ rule, add 7 days to the date, and subtract 3 months from the LNMP.
Convert the LNMP to numerical value = 7.13.2012 then do the math (7-3).(13+7).2012.
Answer will give you 4.20.2013 or April 20, 2013.

22. Upon further history taking, you discover that Tina’s first child was born anencephalic at
birth. At what dose would you advise Tina to take folic acid supplements to avoid brain defects
for her 2nd child?
A. 400 mg daily
B. 4 ug daily
C. 4 mg daily
D. It is too late for her to take folic acid at her age of gestation.

Answer: C. 4 mg daily
For a normal pregnancy, an intake of 400 ug of folic acid daily is enough to prevent
neural tube defects. But since Tina has a previous child with a neural tube defect, her
folic acid intake should increase to 4 mg daily. - Chapter 8, Prenatal Care, Williams 23Ed
23. A patient is presently on her 2nd pregnancy, a twin gestation at 26 weeks AOG. Her
previous pregnancy is a twin gestation as well, where she delivered at 32 weeks AOG, with one
of the babies ending in a neonatal death. What is her present obstetric score?
A. G2P1 (0101)
B.G4P2 (0101)
C. G2P1 (0201)
D. G4P2 (0201)

Answer: C. G2P1 (0201)

Gravida (# of pregnancies) Parida (# of deliveries) (Term Preterm Aborted Living)
G2 It was stated that she’s now on her 2nd pregnancy
P1 She only delivered once
0 None of her children reached 37 weeks AOG
2 Both the twins were born preterm at 32 weeks AOG
0 None of her children were born before 20 weeks AOG or was said to be < 500g
1 Only one of the twins are alive as of speaking time

24. An 18 year old consulted at the OBAS with a chief complaint of vaginal bleeding. What
should be done first?
A. Request for CBC and blood typing to rule out anemia secondary to bleeding
B. Access an IV line
C. Do a pregnancy test
D. Request for a transvaginal ultrasound

Answer: C. Do a pregnancy test

Vaginal bleeding in any reproductive age warrants a pregnancy test even if she denies
having sexual intercourse, pregnancy must always be ruled out first.

25. A positive contraction stress test consists of?

A. No late or significant variable decelerations
B. Intermittent late decelerations or significant variable decelerations
C. Fewer than 3 contractions in 10 minutes
D. Late decelerations following 50% or more of contractions

Answer: D. Late decelerations following 50% or more of contractions

A is the definition of a negative contraction stress test
B is the definition of an equivocal-suspicious result
C is the definition of unsatisfactory or uninterpretable tracing
D is the definition of a positive contraction stress test

26. A sinusoidal fetal heart rate pattern may be observed in

A. Congenital heart block
B. Maternal administration of terbutaline
C. Fetal anemia
D. MgSO4 administration

Answer: C
27. A patient on her 11th week postpartum with a blood pressure of 150/100 mmHg most
probably has
A. Chronic hypertension
B. Gestational hypertension
C. Pre-eclampsia, mild
D. Pre-eclampsia, severe

Answer: bonus

28. Which of the following is NOT classified as a Category II tracing?

A. Baseline fetal heart rate (BFHR) of 165-170, moderate variability, (+) accelerations, (-)
decelerations, (+) moderate contractions every 3-4 minutes, lasting 40-50 seconds
B. BFHR 140-145, moderate variability, (-) accelerations, (-) decelerations, (+) moderate
contractions every 3-4 minutes, lasting 40-50 seconds
C. BFHR 155-160, minimal variability, (+) accelerations, (-) decelerations, (+) moderate
contractions every 3-4 minutes, lasting 40-50 seconds
D. BFHR 135-140, moderate variability, (+) accelerations, (+) recurrent variable decelerations,
(+) moderate contractions every 3-4 minutes, lasting 40-50 seconds

Answer: B

29. The correct sequence of placental separation is

A. Uterus rises up in the abdomen - uterus becomes globular - sudden gush of blood -
lengthening of the cord
B. Uterus becomes globular - sudden gush of blood - uterus rises up in the abdomen -
lengthening of the cord
C. Sudden gush of blood - uterus becomes globular - lengthening of the cord - uterus rises up
int the abdomen
D. Uterus becomes globular - lengthening of the cord - uterus rises up in the abdomen - sudden
gush of blood

Answer: B

30. Patient CS is a 34 year old G2P1 (1001), currently at 37 weeks AOG. Previous delivery is by
classical CS. What is the incidence rate of rupture for previous classic CS?
A. 1-7%
B. 0.2-1.5%
C. 3-6%
D. 4-9%

Answer: D

31. Mary is a 27 year-old G2P1 (1001) currently on her 30th week age of gestation. Her first
pregnancy was carried to term, delivered by cesarean section for non-reassuring fetal status.
Mary can deliver her second baby vaginally if she satisfies all of the following EXCEPT:
A. She has never had any other uterine surgery
B. She has a clinically adequate pelvis
C. The fetus is in vertex presentation
D. The first cesarean section was a classical cesarean section

Answer: D. The first cesarean section was a classical cesarean section.

There is tendency for the classical CS to rupture/open if vaginal delivery was tried.

32. The least common fetal presentation is:

A. Face
B. Compound
C. Transverse
D. Brow

Answer: D. Brow

33. Diagnosis of preterm labor should fulfill the following criteria EXCEPT:
A. Uterine contractions of 4 in 20 minutes
B. Cervical dilatation of > 1 cm
C. Cervical effacement of > or 80% higher
D. Vaginal bleeding per os

Answer: D. Vaginal bleeding per os.

Not all undergoing preterm labor bleeds vaginally.

34. Which of these is not a risk factor for postpartum atony?

A. A long labour with oxytocin augmentation
B. High parity
C. Multiple pregnancy
D. Epidural for pain relief

Answer: D. Epidural for pain relief

35. Which of these is not a symptom or sign of impending eclampsia?

A. Headaches
B. Epigastric pain
C. Frequency of micturition
D. Blurring of vision

Answer: C. Frequency of micturition

36. With which of these maternal infections is there no risk of intrapartum transmission to the
fetus?
A. Hepatitis B
B. HIV
C. Chlamydia
D. Rubella
Answer: Rubella. A lot of us answered C. Chlamydia but according to Ma’am Dr. Germar was
probably wanted us to focus on infections that could be acquired during the birthing process. C
could be transmitted probably due to physical contact and A & B can be transmitted through the
bodily fluids.

37. During the investigation (?) of a 32 year old para 2 an incidental finding of a pelvic mass is
made. Which is the single best answer?
A. Pregnancy needs to be excluded
B. CT scan is the imaging method of choice
C. Ovarian cancer is the most likely diagnosis
D. Premenopausal status increases the risk of the mass being mlignant.

Answer: A. Pregnancy needs to always be excluded if the patient falls within the reproductive
age group.

38. A 24 year old G2P1 at 28 weeks gestation complains of abdominal pain and small amount
of fresh vaginal bleeding. Her uterus is contracting about 6 in 10 min, there is not much uterine
relaxation between contractions and there is fetal tachycardia, reduced baseline variability and
late deceleration on the CTG.
A. Placenta previa
B. Abruptio placenta
C. Cord prolapse
D. Scar rupture

Answer: B. Abruptio placenta, note that there is pain with the vaginal bleeding.

39. A 19 year old G1P0 at 32 weeks gestation on antibiotics for a confirmed urinary tract
infection complains of abdominal tightening every 3-4 minutes with mucous bloody discharge
per vaina. The ICC examines her and finds her cervix to be 1 cm long 3.5 cm dilated.
A. Placenta previa
B. Preterm labor
C. Chorioamnionitis
D. Incompetent cervix.

Answer: B. Preterm labor, contractions are becoming more frequent and the cervix has begun to
dilate already.

40. A 33 year old G2P1 (previous caesarean section) is having a trial of vaginal birth. She
makes good progress until 5 cm dilatation when she complains of a continuous pain in the
suprapubic area. The midwife notices fresh bleeding per vagina and there are deceleration on
the CTG
A. Placenta previa
B. Abruptio placenta
C. Cord prolapse
D. Scar rupture

Answer: D. Scar rupture, the patient has already had a previous CS and it is one of the main
risks for VBAC.

41. A 25 year old G1P1 (1001) was previously treated for recurrent UTI. She consults the OPD
for persistent pruritus, burning pain, and white discharge in clumps. The organism most likely
involved is:
A. Gardnerella
B. Treponema pallidum
C. Trichomonas vaginalis
D. Candida albicans

Answer: Candidiasis presents with curd-like discharge accompanied by pruritus and burning
sensation.
42. What treatment will you give for the patient in no.41?
A. Erythromycin
B. Fluconazole
C. Metronidazole
D. Penicillin

Answer: Fluconazole

43. A gram positive bacillus which plays a major role in controlling the vaginal flora by producing
hydrogen peroxide:
A. Klebsiella pneumonia
B. Enterobacter sp.
C. Lactobacillus
D. Gardnerella vaginalis

Answer: Lactobacillus

44. Among the ff. epiithelial cell abnormalities seen beyond the adolescent years, which does
not automatically require a colposcopic examination and may be observed?
A. ASC-H
B. LSIL
C. ASC-US
D. HSIL

Answer: ASC-US. Only in ASC-US is observation and repeat pap smear without colposcopy
allowed, because atypia is of undetermined significance. Note, however, that pap smear is
repeated in 4-6 months. It is therefore recommended (but not required!) that in patients who
might be lost to follow up, colposcopy done already.

45. A 30-year old G2P2 (2002) consulted at the OBAS for a 4x4 cm movable, fluctuant,
erythematous, tender mass located at the right labia. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Epidermal inclusion cyst
B. Folliculitis
C. Urethral caruncle
D. Bartholin’s gland abscess

Answer: Bartholin’s gland abscess (Epidermal inclusion cysts are the most common small
vulvar cyst. Bartholin’s duct cysts (which may become tender abscesses) are the most common
of the large vulvar cysts, and may grow to be as big as the scrotum. Note the size of the mass.
Urethral caruncle would be a fleshy outgrowth from the urethra, not the labia.

46. The management for the above case is:

a. Antibiotics
b. Observation
c. Marsupialization
d. Excision

Answer: c. Marsupialization
47. An 18-year old is rushed to the OBAS for a painful mass that developed a few minutes after
she slipped and landed on a plastic garbage bin. On examination, there is a 6 x 5 x 5 cm tender,
fluctuant violaceous mass at the right vulva extending to the periurethral area. What is your
impression?
a. Bartholin’s abscess
b. Vulvar hemangioma
c. Vulvar hematoma
d. Perineal laceration

Answer: b. Vulvar hematoma

48. The most common cause of abnormal uterine bleeding in women of reproductive age
a. Accidents of pregnancy
b. Hormonal imbalance
c. Coagulation disorder
d. Uterine abnormalities

Answer: A. Accidents of pregnancy

49. Oral contraceptive pills inihibit ovulation by

a. Stimulating GnRH release
b. Suppressing FSH/LH
c. Increasing TSH
d. Inhibiting prolactin

Answer: b. Suppressing FSH/LH

50. The most effective method of contraception among the following is

a. Withdrawal method
b. IUD
c. Sterilization
d. DMPA

Answer: c. Sterilization

51. The following statements are true about male condoms EXCEPT
a. Safe and has no systematic side effects.
b. No medical contraindications
c. Absolute protection against sexually transmitted disease.
d. Lower pregnancy rate than female condom.

Answer: c. Absolute protection against sexually transmitted disease.

52. Ella is a 28-year old G1P0 at her 14th week AOG consulting at the OPD. As thee ICC in
charge, you noted her BP to be 150/100. She claims that this is her 1st episode of elevated BP.
What is your next plan?
a. Advise the patient to eat a low salt, low fat diet.
b. Start her on Methyldopa 250mg TID.
c. Refer to your resident and send the patient to OBAS for work-up.
d. Do internal examination to check if the patient is in preterm labor.
Answer: c. Refer to your resident and send the patient to OBAS for work-up.

53. The following are the cornerstones in the management of gestational diabetes mellitus
EXCEPT
a. Diet and exercise
b. Fetal well being studies
c. Monitoring of end organ damage
d. Glucose control with oral hypoglycemic agents

Answer: d. Glucose control with oral hypoglycemic agents

Glucose control through insulin not oral hypoglycemic agents

54. The American College of Obstetrics and Gynecology defines macrosomic infants as those
whose birth weight?
a. 4000g
b. 4500g
c. 4750g
d. 5000g

Answer: b. 4500 g

55. The most common benign neoplastic growth of the cervix:

a. Nabothian cyst
b. Cervical polyp
c. Cervical myoma
d. Inclusion cyst

Answer: b. Cervical polyp

56. A 35 y/o G0 had a check-up for dysmenorrhea and heavy menstrual bleeding. On IE, the
uterus was globular and symmetrically enlarged to 14-16 weeks size. What is the most likely
diagnosis?

A. Myoma uteri
B. Adenomyosis
C. Leiomyosarcoma
D. Endometrial cancer

Answer: B. Adenomyosis

57. A 30 year-old female, G1P1 (1001) with a diagnosis of CIN. The next step in the
management is

A. LEEP
B. Simple hysterectomy
C. Repeat colposcopy after 3-4 months
D. Observe

Answer: A. LEEP
58. Staging of ovarian cancer is

A. Surgicopathologic
B. Histopathologic
C. Clinical
D. Radiologic

Answer: A. Surgicopathologic

59. Bianca is a 24 year-old G0 who consults at the OPD for vaginal discharge that is filthy in
odor. On speculum exam, you note an erythematous vagina and ____ of the cervix. What is
your most likely diagnosis?

A. Trichomonal vaginitis
B. Candidal vaginitis
C. Herpes simplex
D. Syphilis

Answer: A. Trichomonal vaginitis

60. What treatment will you give for Bianca?

A. Erythromycin
B. Fluconazole
C. Metronidazole
D. Penicillin

Answer: C. Metronidazole

61. A uninocular cyst with papillary processes usually occuring unilaterally

Answer: papillary serous cyst

62. A large unilateral multiloculated cyst lined by columnar epithelium and complicated with
pseudomyxoma peritonei

Answer: mucinous cyst

63. A solid benign ovarian tumor

Answer: fibroma

64. An STD typified by painful ulcers and vesicles

Answer: Herpes

65. A non-STD infection typified by a sore vagina with curd like discharge

Answer: Candida
66. A non-sexually transmitted disease typified by an offensive filthy discharge.

Answer: C. Bacterial vaginosis

67. A sexually transmitted disease typified by Gram-negative diplococci, and colonizing

columnar and cuboidal epithelium; 50 percent are found asymptomatically.

Answer: D. Gonorrhea

68. The type of abnormal bleeding is usually determined by:

A. History
B. Physical examination
C. Ultrasound
D. Endometrial biopsy

Answer: A. History

69 What is the most common cause of vaginal bleeding in post-menopausal women?

A. Malignancy
B. Atrophic endometrium
C. Polyp
D. Gonadal failure

Answer: B. Atrophic endometrium

70 The cornerstone in the management of dysfunctional uterine bleeding:

A. Hormonal therapy
B. Total hysterectomy
C. Fractional curettage
D. Endometrial ablation

Answer: A. Hormonal therapy

71. AUB is commonly manifested by these pelvic pathologies, except

A. Submucous myoma
B. Adenomyosis
C. Abdominopelvic kochs
D. Endometrial polyp

Answer: AP Koch’s

72. Mrs. Canlas consults you regarding the calendar rhythm method. She says that she
regularly menstruates with her shortest cycle lasting for 25 days and her longest cycle lasts 30
days. How would you advise her?
A. Observe abstinence during days 7-19
B. Observe abstinence during days 12-14
C. Calendar rhythm is based on the assumption that the ovum has the capability to be fertilized
for about 48 hours after ovulation
D. Calendar rhythm can also be used by patients with irregular menstrual cycles

Answer: 7-19
73. The obligation to avoid causation of harm is called the principle of
A. Autonomy
B. Benificence
C. Non-Maleficence
D. Justice

Answer: nonmaleficence

74. Mainstay treatment of Cervical Cancer

A. Chemoradiation
B. Chemotherapy
C. Radiation
D. Surgery

Answer: chemoradiation

75. To get the best yield, the best tool to use in doing pap smear is/are:
A. Cotton swab
B. Ayre’s spatula
C. Cytobrush
D. Ayre’s spatula and cytobrush

Answer: ayre’s spatula and cytobrush

76. The single most significant risk factor for the development of uterine infection after childbirth
is
A. Route of delivery
B. Prolonged labor
C. Bacterial colonization of the lower genital tract
D.Multiparity

Answer: A. route of delivery

77. The causative agents of genital warts

A. HPV 6, 11
B. HPV 16, 18
C. HPV 32, 36
D. HPV 44, 46

Answer: A. HPV 6, 11

78. With regard to clinical examination of the gynecologic patient

A. Abdominal examination is mandatory as part of the gynecologic examination
B. A companion is always needed for intimate examinations
C. A rectovaginal exam is done solely to check for rectal masses
D. Shifting dullness and fluid thrill can be seen due to urinary retention

Answer: A. Abdominal examination is mandatory as part of the gynecologic examination

79. A 62-year old postmenopausal woman presents to your office with episodic vaginal bleeding
over the past 3 months. You are most suspicious of
A. Perimenopausal spotting
B. Adrenal hyperplasia
C. Cancer
D. Fibroids

Answer: C. cancer

80. A 28-year old presents to you with symptoms of a leiomyoma. Which set of symptoms is
most consistent with a leiomyoma?
A. Hirsutism, ance, amenorrhea, virilization
B. Pelvic pain, dyspareunia, urinary incontinence, menorrhagia
C. Dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, infertility, painful defecation

Answer: B. Pelvic pain, dyspareunia, urinary incontinence, menorrhagia

81. Tubal patency or “pelvic factor” in evaluating infertility is best accomplished by:
A. HSG
B. Hysteroscopy
C. Pelvic MRI
D. Transvaginal UTZ

Answer: HSG

82. A 31 y/o G1P1 (1001) consulted at the OBAS due to syncope. On history she is about 6 wks
pregnant. On pelvic examination she has diffuse lower abdominal tenderness and muscle
guarding. Transvaginal UTZ reveals a thickened endometrium with no adnexal masses
visualized. The patient was in pain throughout the UTZ. On the way to OBAS BP was 90/60.
What is the next step?
A. observe
B. follow up in OPD after 3 days
C. Exploratory laparotomy
D. repeat UTZ after 24 hr

Answer: exploratory laparotomy

83. A patient consults 1A04 with complaints of intense vaginal itching and frothy discharge with
malodorous odor. Pelvic exam reveals greenish-gray discharge with strawberry-like punctate
marks on the cervix. What is the treatment for this patient?

Answer: Metronidazole

84. A 31-year old G2P1 presents for her first prenatal visit for this pregnancy. She’s on her 10th
week AOG. She has a history of Grave’s disease 10 years ago. At that time, she was treated
with radioactive ablation and received thyroid replacement medications for 2 years. She has
been off medications now. What is the most appropriate laboratory test to evaluate for maternal
hypothyroidism

Answer: TSH, FT4

85. A 32 year old G3P2 (2002) came in to the OBAS with a BP of 160/80. What is her MAP?

Answer: MAP = 106

86. A 28 year-old G2P1 (1001) on her 17th week of gestation came in at the OBAS for vaginal
spotting of 2 days. On PE, the patient's BP was 150/100, HR of 98, RR of 20. On IE, the cervix
was closed with the corpus enlarged to 22 weeks AOG, (-) AMT. No fetal heart tones could be
appreciated. The most useful step to be done to confirm your diagnosis would be

Answer: TV-UTZ

87. What is the cut-off significant proteinuria during pregnancy?

Answer: 300 mg/24 hours or 1+

88. Post-term pregnancy refers to

Answer: >= 42 weeks

89. A 31 year-old G6P5 (5015) consults at the OPD for routine pap smear. On speculum exam
you see a 2x2cm necrotic fungating friable mass on the anterior lip of the cervix. You would:

Answer: cervical punch biopsy

90. A 46 year-old patient G3P3 (3003) seeks your opinion regarding a 3 cm submucous myoma
noted on ultrasound as part of her executive check-up. She reports menorrhagia on further
probing. What will be your management?

Answer: TH/THBSO

91. A 44-year old G3P3 (3 0 0 3) consults at the OPD for intermenstrual bleeding. On internal
examination you note that the cervix is closed and smooth with a 4x3cm fleshy polyploid mass
protruding from the cervical os. What is your likely diagnosis?

Answer: endocervical polyp

92. A 45 G0 obese patient complains of menorrhagia for almost 3 months prior to consult. On
transvaginal ultrasound, the endometrial thickness was noted to be 1.2 cm. Management for this
case:

Answer: office endometrial biopsy

93. A 28 year old G1P0 (0 0 1 0) comes to you at the OPD due to inability to conceive. She is
regularly menstruating and has never used any form of contraception. She has been married for
8 years now. Classification of infertility?

Answer: secondary infertility

94. A 65-year old patient complains of vulvar irr

Answer: biopsy
95. A pregnant mother is HBsAg positive. What will you do for the baby upon delivery?

Answer: IV Ig first 12 hours, Hepa B vaccine 1st 24 hours

96. The main mechanism of contraceptive action of copper-bearing IUD is?

Answer: local sterile inflammatory reaction which would serve as spermicide

97. Pica for ice, laundry starch, clay, dirt or other non-food items during pregnancy is usually
associated with deficiency of what element?

Answer: Iron

98. A 32 y/o G2P2(2002) with 3 documented consecutive normal pap smears. HPV test is
negative. When will you repeat the smears?
Answer: 2-3 years

99. A 48 y/o had TAH/BSO for adenomyosis one year ago and prior normal pap smear. Would
you do a pap smear?

Answer: no

100. Staging of cervical cancer is?

Answer: clinical