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Electric and Magnetic Forces in Lagrangian

and Hamiltonian Formalism


Benjamin Hornberger

10/26/01

Phy 505, Classical Electrodynamics, Prof. Goldhaber


Lecture notes from Oct. 26, 2001
(Lecture held by Prof. Weisberger)

1 Introduction
Conservative forces can be derived from a Potential V (q, t). Then, as we
know from classical mechanics, we can write the Lagrangian as

L(q, q̇, t) = T − V, (1)


where T is the kinetic energy of the system. The Euler-Lagrangian equa-
tions of motion are then given by
à !
d ∂L ∂L
− = 0. (2)
dt ∂ q̇i ∂qi
In three dimensions with cartesian Coordinates, this can be written as
d ³~ ´ ~
∇~v L − ∇L = 0. (3)
dt
~ ~v means the gradient with respect to the velocity coordinates.
Here, ∇
Now we generalize V (q, t) to U (q, q̇, t) – this is possible as long as L =
T − U gives the correct equations of motion.

1
2 LORENTZ FORCE LAW 2

2 Lorentz Force Law


The Lorentz force in Gaussian Units is given by:
à !
F~ = Q ~ + ~v × B
E ~ , (4)
c
~ x, t) is the electric field and B(~
where Q is the electric charge, E(~ ~ x, t) is
the magnetic field. If the sources (charges or currents) are far away, E~ and
~ solve the homogeneous Maxwell equations. In Gaussian Units, they are
B
given by

~ ·B
∇ ~ =0 (5)

~
∇ ~ + 1 ∂B = 0
~ ×E (6)
c ∂t
~ can be derived from a vector potential A:
The magnetic field B ~

~ =∇
B ~ ×A
~ (7)
If we plug this into Eq. (6), we get
 
~
∇ ~ + 1 ∂A  = 0
~ × E (8)
c ∂t
So the expression in square brackets is a vector field with no curl and can
be written as the gradient of a scalar potential ϕ:

~
~ + 1 ∂ A = −∇ϕ
E ~ (9)
c ∂t
or

~
E~ = −∇ϕ~ − 1 ∂A (10)
c ∂t
This we plug into Eq. (4) for the Lorentz force law and we get
  
~ ³ ´
~ − 1  ∂ A − ~v × ∇
F~ = Q −∇ϕ ~ ×A
~  . (11)
c ∂t
3 LAGRANGIAN FORMALISM 3

If we apply the general general vector relation


³ ´ ³ ´
~a × ~b × ~c = ~b (~a · ~c) − ~a · ~b ~c (12)
to the triple vector cross product in the square brackets, we get
³ ´ ³ ´ ³ ´
~ ×A
~v × ∇ ~ =∇
~ ~v · A
~ − ~v · ∇
~ A.
~ (13)
So the equation for the Lorentz force law is now
  
~ ³ ´ ³ ´
~ − 1  ∂ A + ~v · ∇
F~ = Q −∇ϕ ~ A ~−∇
~ ~v · A
~  . (14)
c ∂t
~ x, t):
Now let’s look at the total time derivative of A(~
d ~ ∂ ~ X ∂ ~
A (~x, t) = A (~x, t) + vj A (~x, t) (15)
dt ∂t j ∂xj
| {z }
=(~v ·∇
~ )A(~
~ x,t)

The right side of the equation corresponds to the first two terms in the
square brackets of Eq. (14), and we can write
 
~ ³ ´
~ − 1 dA + 1 ∇
F~ = Q −∇ϕ ~ ~v · A
~  (16)
c dt c

3 Lagrangian Formalism
3.1 The Lorentz Force Law in the Lagrangian Formal-
ism
~ to the La-
Let’s try to add a vector potential term UA~ (~x, ~v , t) = − Qc ~v · A
grangian:
1 Q ~
L = mv 2 − Q ϕ(~x, t) + ~v · A (17)
2
| {z c
} | {z }
I II

If we apply the Euler-Lagrangian equation of motion (Eq. (3)) on part I


of Eq. (17), we get
3 LAGRANGIAN FORMALISM 4

d~v ~ = 0,
m + Q ∇ϕ (18)
dt
and applying it to part II gives

d ³~ ´ ~ ³ ´
~ ~ = Q dA − Q ∇
∇~v UA~ − ∇U ~ ~v · A
~ =0 (19)
A
dt c dt c
Altogether, the Euler-Lagrangian equation of motion, applied on the La-
grangian of Eq. (17), gives

d~v ~ ³ ´
m + Q ∇ϕ~ + Q dA − Q ∇ ~ ~v · A
~ =0 (20)
dt c dt c
If we identify m d~
v
dt
with the force F~ , given by Newton’s Law, we can solve
Eq. (20) for F~ :
 
~ ³ ´
~ − 1 dA + 1 ∇
F~ = Q −∇ϕ ~ ~v · A
~  (21)
c dt c
which is just the correct expression for the Lorentz Force Law, given by
Eq. (16).

3.2 How does a gauge transformation affect this La-


grangian?
~ and B
As we know, E ~ fields are invariant under gauge transformations

~ (~x, t) → A
A ~0 = A
~ + ∇Λ
~ (~x, t) (22)

1
ϕ (~x, t) → ϕ0 = ϕ − Λ̇ (~x, t) , (23)
c
where Λ(~x, t) is an arbitrary scalar function. If we plug these new scalar
and vector potentials into the Lagrangian (Eq. (17)), it changes to
Q³ ~ (~x, t)
´
L → L0 = L + Λ̇ (~x, t)) + ~v · ∇Λ (24)
c
The expression in brackets is just the total time derivative of Λ(~x, t), so
we get
4 HAMILTONIAN FORMALISM 5

Q d
L0 = L + Λ (~x, t) (25)
c dt
.
But as we know, adding to the Lagrangian a total time derivative of a
function of ~x and t does not change the equations of motion.

So, the Lagrangian for a particle in an electromagnetic field is given by


1 Q ~
L = mv 2 − Q ϕ + ~v · A (26)
2 c

4 Hamiltonian Formalism
4.1 The Hamiltonian for the EM-Field
We know the canonical momentum from classical mechanics:
∂L
pi = (27)
∂ ẋi
Using the Lagrangian from Eq. (26), we get
Q
pi = mvi + Ai (28)
c
The Hamiltonian is then given by
X 1
H= pi ẋi − L = mv 2 + Q ϕ, (29)
i 2
where v resp. ẋ must be replaced by p: Solving Eq. (28) for vi and
plugging into Eq. (29) gives
¯ ¯
1 ¯¯ Q ~ ¯¯2
H= p
~ − A +Q ϕ (30)
2m ¯ c ¯
So the kinetic momentum in is in this case given by
Q ~
P~ = m~v = p~ − A (31)
c
4 HAMILTONIAN FORMALISM 6

Example: Uniform constant magnetic field


~ in z-direction:
We assume B
 
0
~ 
B = B · ẑ =  0 
 (32)
B

The vector potential can then be written as

~=1 B
A ~ × ~r (33)
2
This is an arbitrary choice, but it is easy to prove that it gives the correct
~ Now suppose the particle is bound in a strong central potential
result for B.
~
and B is relatively weak. If we plug the vector potential (Eq. (33)) into the
Hamiltonian (Eq. (30)), we get

|~p|2 Q ~ × ~r + Q
2 ³ ´ ³
~ × ~r · B ~ × ~r
´
H= +Q ϕ− p~ · B B (34)
2m 2mc 8m2 c2 | {z }
~ 2~
B ~ r)2
r2 −(B·~

The last term in this equation can be neglected for a bound particle in a
weak field. For the mixed scalar / cross product in the second term, we can
write

~ × ~r = ~r × p~ · B
p~ · B ~ =L
~ · B,
~ (35)
~ is the angular momentum. So the Hamiltonian is
where L

|~p|2 Q ~ ~
H' +Q ϕ− L·B (36)
2m 2mc
The last term is this Hamiltonian causes the ordinary Zeeman Effect.

4.2 Hamiltonian Equations of Motion


The Hamiltonian equations of motion are given by
∂H ∂H
ẋi = and ṗi = − . (37)
∂pi ∂xi
4 HAMILTONIAN FORMALISM 7

If we apply these equations on the Hamiltonian (Eq. (30)), we get


· ¸
1 Q
ẋi = pi − Ai (38)
m c
 
X µ ¶
1  Q Q ∂Aj  ∂ϕ
ṗi = pj − Aj −Q (39)
m j c c ∂xi ∂xi

Example: Uniform constant magnetic field


Again we look at a constant magnetic field in z-direction (no other potential):
 
0
~ = B · ẑ = 
B 
 0  (40)
B
For the vector potential, we choose
 
0
~  
A = x · B · ŷ =  x · B  (41)
0
~ We
This is again an arbitrary choice which gives the correct result for B.
put this vector potential into the Hamiltonian and get
" µ ¶2 #
1 QB
H= p2z + p2x + py − x = Hz + H⊥ . (42)
2m c
The second part H⊥ of the Hamiltonian can be written as
· ¸ " #2
p2 m QB 2 c
H⊥ = x + x− py (43)
2m 2 | mc
{z } | QB
{z }
2 :=ωL :=q12

where we define the Larmor Frequency ωL := QB mc


and introduce a new
c
coordinate q1 := (x − QB py ). Furthermore, we set px = p1 , py = p2 and
pz = p3 .

p21 1
H⊥ = + m ωL2 q12 (44)
2m 2
4 HAMILTONIAN FORMALISM 8

This is just the Hamiltonian for a harmonic oscillator. In Quantum Me-


chanics, we can use the commutator

[q1 , p1 ] = ih̄, (45)


and for the harmonic oscillator, the energy eigenvalues are
µ ¶
1
En = n + h̄ ωL (46)
2

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