SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS

A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH

NEET GRAND TEST-

TEST - 2
Name :........................................... Hall Ticket No:

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. The Model NEET- 2019 is of 3 Hrs duration. Time: 02.00 PM –
05.00 PM.
2. The question paper for NEET-2019 consists of 180 questions
comprising 45 questions in Botany, 45 in Zoology, 45 in Physics
and 45 in Chemistry for NEET.
3. All questions are of objective type (Multiple choices only)
4. Each question carries four marks.
5. Negative marking: one mark will be deducted for every wrongly
answered question.
6. Total Marks 720.
7. The candidates are prohibited from carrying any paper to the
examination hall except HALL TICKET.
8. No Calculators, Mini-Cards, Watches with Calculators, Pager, Cell
Phone, Slide rules or outer aids to calculation will be allowed in
the examination hall.
9. Candidates once admitted will not be allowed to leave the hall till
half an hour before the closing of the test.
10. A separate sheet is attached in the middle of this booklet for rough
work, you can detach and use it.
11. A detachable answer sheet with 180 question blocks, with 4 circles
corresponding to 4 multiple choice for each question will be
provided. Use HB Pencil to darken the appropriate circle against
the question number provided in the sheet. Answer should be
marked only on the answer sheet, but not on the question
paper booklet.
 SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA
INSTITUTIONS,
A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
Sec: SR ELITE, AIIMS S60, NEET MPL & LTC-IC
LTC D
Date : 20.04.19
TIME : 3 Hrs. NEET GRAND TEST – 02 Max.Marks : 720

1. If force F = F0 e−t / λ , where 't' is time. (2) 6 m

Then choose the correct option (s). (3) 10 m

(1) The dimensions of F0 are same as (4) 3 m

force 4. A particle is moving along a circular

path of radius 3 meter in such a way
(2) e−t /λ is dimensionless that the distance travelled measured
(3) The dimensions of λ are same as along the circumference is given by
that of time t2 t3
S = + . The acceleration of particle
2 3
(4) All the above are true
when t = 2 sec is
2. A physical quantity 'Q' is related to (1) 1.3 m/s2
four observables x, y, z and 't' by the
(2) 13 m/s2
x2 /5z3
relation Q = . The percentage (3) 3 m/s2
y t
errors of measurements in x, y, z and 't' (4) 10 m/s2
are 2.5%, 2%, 0.5% and 1% 5. R = P + Q and R = P = Q, the angle
respectively. The percentage error in Q
will be between R and P is
(1) 5% (1) 1200
(2) 4.5% (2) 600
(3) 8% (3) 900
(4) 7.75% (4) 300
3. A particle starts from the origin at time 6. A projectile is thrown with an initial
t = 0 and moves along the positive x –
velocity of v = aiˆ + bjˆ , if the range of
axis.
xis. The graph of velocity with respect
to time is shown in figure. What is the projectile is double the maximum
position of the particle at time t = 5 s? height reached by it then
(1) a = 2b
(2) b = a
(3) b = 2a
(4) b = 4a

(1) 9 m
7. A body of mass 5 kg under the action


of constant force F = FX ɵi + FY ɵj has

( )


velocity at t = 0s as v = 6iɵ − 2jɵ m / s and (1) 5


(2) 2
at t = 10s as v = +6ɵjm / s . The force F is :
(3) 3
(1) ( )
-3iɵ + 4ɵj N
(4) 4
 3 ɵ 4 ɵ
(2)  − i + j N 10. A particle initial velocity, v = 3i + 4 j
5 5

(3) (3iɵ − 4jɵ) N and a constant force F = 4i − 3 j acts on

the particle. The path of the particle is
 3 ɵ 4 ɵ
(4)  i − j N
5 5 (1) parabolic
8. A block of mass m is placed on a (2) straight line
surface with a vertical cross section (3) circular
x3
given by y = . If the coefficient of (4) elliptical
6
friction is 0.5, the maximum height 11. There are some passengers inside a
above the ground at which the block stationary railway compartment. The
can be placed without slipping is : track is frictionless. The centre of mass
1 of compartment itself (without
(1) m
6 passengers) is C1 , while the centre of
2 mass of the compartment plus
(2) m
3
passengers system is C2 . If the
1 passengers move about inside the
(3) m
3
compartment along the track then
1 (1) both C1 and C2 will move with
(4) m
2
respect to the ground.
9. Three blocks A, B and C are lying on a
smooth horizontal surface, as shown in (2) neither C1 nor C2 will move with
the figure. A and B have equal masses, respect to the ground.
m while C has mass M. Block A is
given an initial speed v towards B due (3) C1 will move but C2 will be
to which it collides with B perfectly stationary with respect to the
inelastically. The combined mass
ground.
collides with C, also perfectly
5 (4) C2 will move but C1 will be
inelastically, th of the initial kinetic
6 stationary with respect to the
energy is lost in whole process, What is
ground.
value of M/m ?

Sri Chaitanya Page 3 Educational Institutions

12. A circular disc D1 of mass M and A
(1) 41
radius R has two identical discs D2 and 3
D3 of the same mass M and radius R (2) 3A
attached rigidly at its opposite ends (3) A 3
(see figure). The moment of inertia of 7
(4) A
the system about the axis OO1,passing 3
15. A small satellite is in elliptical orbit
through the centre of D1, as shown in
around earth as shown. If L denotes
the figure, will be
the magnitude of its angular
momentum and K denotes kinetic
energy :

(1) 3MR 2
4
(2) MR 2
5
2 (1) L2> L1 and K2> K1
(3) MR 2
3 (2) L2> L1 and K2 = K1
2
(4) MR
(3) L2= L1 and K2 = K1
13. Two discs of moment of inertia I1 and
I2 and angular speeds ω1 and ω2 are (4) L2 = L1 and K2> K1

rotating along the collinear axes 16. If the ratio of lengths, radii and
passing through their plane. If the two young’s modulii of steel and brass
are made to rotate combinedly along wires in the figure are a, b and c
the same axis the rotational K.E of respectively. Then the corresponding
system will be ratio of increase in their lengths would
I 1ω 1 + I 2 ω 2 be
(1)
2 (I 1 + I 2 )
2 Steel
(I 1 + I 2 )(ω1 + ω 2 )
(2) M
2
2
( I 1ω 1 + I 2 ω 2 ) Brass
(3)
2 (I 1 + I 2 ) 2M
(4) None of these
14. A particle performs simple harmonic 2a2 c
(1)
motion with amplitude A. Its speed is b
3a
trebled at the instant that it is at a (2)
2b2 c
2A
distance from equilibrium 2ac
3 (3)
b2
position. The new amplitude of the 3c
motion is (4)
2ab 2
Sri Chaitanya Page 4 Educational Institutions
17. There is a 1 mm thick layer of glycerine 20. An insulator container contains 4
between a flat plat of area 100 cm2 and moles of an ideal diatomic gas at
a big fixed plate. If the coefficient of temperature T. Heat Q is supplied to
viscosity of glycerine is 1.0 kg/m-s this gas, due to which 2 moles of the
then how much force is required to gas are dissociated into atoms but
move the plate with a velocity of temperature of the gas remains
7 cm/s constant. Then
(1) 3.5 N (1) Q = 2RT
(2) 0.7 N (2) Q = RT
(3) 1.4 N (3) Q = 3RT
(4) none (4) Q = 4RT
18. The radius of a soap bubble is r. The 21. ‘x’ gm of steam at 1000C is required to
surface tension of soap solution is T. just melt 2gm of ice at 00C. ‘y’ gm of ice
at 00C is required to just condense 1gm
Keeping temperature constant, the
of steam at 1000C. The ratio of x: y is
radius of the soap bubble is doubled, (1) 32 : 729
the energy necessary for this will be (2) 1 : 27
(1) 24 π r 2 T (3) 8 : 81

(2) 8 π r 2T (4) 1 : 12
22. Two carnot engines A and B are
(3) 12 π r 2 T
operated in series. The first one, A
2
(4) 16 π r T
receives heat at T1(= 600K) and rejects
19. Two rods A and B of identical to a reservoir at temperature T2. The
dimensions are at temperature 300C. If second engine B receives heat rejected
A is heated upto 1800C and B upto T0C, by the first engine and, in turn, rejects
then the new lengths are the same. If to a heat reservoir at T3(=400K).
the ratio of the coefficients of linear Calculate the temperature T2 if the
expansion of A and B is 4 : 3, then the work outputs of the two engines are
value of T is equal
(1) 2000C (1) 500K
(2) 2700C (2) 300K
(3) 2300C (3) 400K
(4) 2500C (4) 600K

Sri Chaitanya Page 5 Educational Institutions

23. A gas can be taken from A to B via two (3) 666Hz
different processes ACB and ADB. (4) 333Hz
When path ACB is used 60J of heat
26. A monochromatic light is incident at a
flows into the system and 30J of work
certain angle on an equilateral
is done by the system. If path ADB is
triangular prism and suffers minimum
used work done by the system is 10J.
deviation. If the refractive index of the
the heat flow into the system in path
ADB is material of the prism is 3 , then the
angle of incidence is
(1) 600
(2) 450
(3) 900
(4) 300
(1) 100J 27. If the focal length of objective lens is
(2) 80J increased, then magnifying power of
(3) 40J (1) Microscope and telescope both
(4) 20J will increase
24. If the temperature of the sun were to (2) Microscope and telescope both
increase from T to 2T and its radius
will decrease
from R to 2R, then the ratio of the
radiant energy received on earth to (3) Microscope will increase but that
what it was previously will be of telescope decrease
(1) 32 (4) Microscope will decrease but that
(2) 16 of telescope will increase
(3) 4 28. A galvanometer, whose resistance is 50
(4) 64 ohm, has 25 divisions in it. When a
25. A musician using an open flute of current of 4 ×10−4 A passes through it,
length 50cm produces second its needle (pointer) deflects by one
harmonic sound waves. A person runs division. To use this galvanometer as a
towards the musician from another voltmeter of range 2.5V, it should be
end of a hall at a speed of 10km/h. If connected to a resistance of
the wave speed is 330m/s, the (1) 200 ohm
frequency heard by the running person (2) 6250 ohm
shall be close to
(3) 6200 ohm
(1) 500Hz
(4) 250 ohm
(2) 753Hz

Sri Chaitanya Page 6 Educational Institutions

29. A bar magnet is demagnetized by 32. A potentiometer wire AB having
inserting it inside a solenoid of length length L and resistance 12r is joined to
0.2m, 100 turns, and carrying a current a cell D of emf ε and internal
of 5.2A. The coercivity of the bar ε
resistance r. A cell C having emf
magnet is 2
(1) 520 A/m and internal resistance 3r is connected.
(2) 1200 A/m The length AJ at which the
galvanometer as shown in figure
(3) 2600 A/m
shows no deflection is
(4) 285 A/m
30. Consider the following statements A
and B and identify the correct answer
A) Primary waves travel in a
medium with speed of light in all
directions.
B) Secondary waves travel in
backward direction only but not 11
(1) L
with speed of light 12
(1) A is false but B is true 5
(2) L
12
(2) A is true but B is false 11
(3) L
(3) Both A and B are true 24
13
(4) Both A and B are false (4) L
24
31. In the given circuit the internal 33. In the figure shown, after the switch S
resistance of the 18V cell is negligible. is turned from position A to position B
If R1 = 400 Ω , R 3 = 100Ω and the energy dissipated in the circuit in
terms of capacitance C and total charge
R 4 = 500Ω and the reading of an ideal
Q is
voltmeter across R 4 is 5 V, then the
value of R2 will be

5 Q2
(1)
8 C
1 Q2
(2)
(1) 450Ω 8 C
3 Q2
(2) 550Ω (3)
8 C
(3) 230Ω 3 Q2
(4)
(4) 300Ω 4 C
Sri Chaitanya Page 7 Educational Institutions
34. The electric field in a region of space is (2) 6 mV


given by, E = E0 ɵi + 2E0 ɵj where (3) 1 mV
E0 = 100N / C . The flux of the field (4) 12 mV
through a circular surface of radius
37. The heat produced in a given resistor
0.02m parallel to the Y – Z plane is
in a given time by the sinusoidal
nearly :
current I 0 sin ω t will be the same as
(1) 0.125Nm2/C
that by a steady current of magnitude
(2) 0.02Nm2/C I0
(1)
(3) 0.005Nm2/C 2
(4) 3.14Nm2/C (2) I0
35. Shown in the figure is a conductor
(3) 2I0
carrying a current I. The magnetic field
intensity at the point O (common I0
(4)
centre of all the three arcs) is 2
I 38. To get output 1 at R, for the given logic
r gate circuit the input values must be
r

r θ
O

5 µ0 I θ (1) X = 1, Y = 0
(1)
24 π r (2) X = 1, Y= 1
µ0 I θ (3) X = 0, Y = 1
(2)
24 π r (4) X = 0, Y= 0
1 µ0 I θ 39. Two amplifiers are connected one after
(3)
24 π r
the other in series (cascaded). The first
(4) Zero amplifier has a voltage gain of 10 and
36. A solid metal cube of edge length 2 cm the second has a voltage gain of 20. If
is moving in a positive y – direction at
the input signal is 0.01 volt, then the
a constant speed of 6m/s. There is a
uniform magnetic field of 0.1T in the output ac signal is
positive z – direction. The potential (1) 1V
difference between the two faces of the
(2) 2V
cube perpendicular to the x – axis, is
(1) 2 mV (3) 3V
(4) 4V
Sri Chaitanya Page 8 Educational Institutions
40. The dominant mechanisms for motion (1) λ0
of charge carriers in forward and
reverse biased silicon p – n junction are e 2 E 02 t 2
(2) λ 0 1 +
(1) Drift in forward bias, diffusion in m 2 υ 02

reverse bias λ0
(3)
e 2 E02 t 2
(2) Diffusion in forward bias, drift in 1+ 2 2
m υ0
reverse bias
λ0
(3) Diffusion in both forward and (4)
 2 2 2
1 + e E 0 t 
 
reverse bias  m 2 υ 02 
(4) Drift in both forward and reverse 44. When a certain photosensitive surface
bias is illuminated with monochromatic
light of frequency υ , the stopping
41. The angular momentum of an electron
− v0
3h potential for the photo current is .
in hydrogen atom is . Here h is the 2
2π When the surface is illuminated by
Plank's constant. The kinetic energy of
υ
this electron is: monochromatic light of frequency ,
2
(1) 4.53 eV the stopping potential is –V0. The
(2) 1.51 eV threshold frequency for photoelectric
(3) 3.4 eV emission is
4υ
(4) 6.8 eV (1)
3
42. A radioactive isotope X with a half-life (2) 2υ
of 1.37 × 10 9 years decays to Y which is 5υ
(3)
stable. A sample of rock from the 3
moon was found to contain both the 3υ
(4)
elements X and Y which were in the 2
ratio of 1 : 7. The age of the rock is 45. The magnetic field of a plane-polarized
(1) 1.96 ×108 years electromagnetic wave moving in the z–
direction is given by
(2) 3.85 ×109 years
  z 107 t  
B = 1.2 × 10−6 sin  2π  −   in SI
(3) 4.11×109 years   240 8  
(4) 9.59 ×109 years units. What is the maximum E-field.
(1) 1000 V/m
43. An electron (mass m) with an initial

(2) 180 V/m
velocity υ = υ 0ɵi is in an electric field


E = E ɵj . If λ = h /mυ , its de Broglie (3) 81 V/m
0 0 0
wavelength at time t is given by (4) 360 V/m

Sri Chaitanya Page 9 Educational Institutions

46. Match the Columns-I and II, and (2) Dentalium
choose the correct combination from (3) Limulus
the options given (4) Aplysia
Column – I Column – II 51. Which of the following groups of
a) Macaca 1) Scale-less skin vertebrates respire through skin?
b) Columba 2) Cloacal chamber (1) Pisces
c) Vipera 3) Pneumatic bones (2) Amphibia
d) Bufo 4) Pinnae are present (3) Reptiles
(1) a - 4, b - 3, c- 2, d- 1 (4) Aves
(2) a - 3, b - 4, c- 1, d- 2 52. Which of the following is helpful in
(3) a - 4, b - 3, c- 1, d- 2 maintaining pollen banks ?
(4) a - 3, b - 4, c- 2, d- 1 (1) sporopollenin
47. Plant which flower once in 12 years is (2) pecto cellulose
(1) Strobilanthus kunthiana (3) cryopreservation
(2) Bamboo (4) pollen kit
(3) Mango 53. Haemolymph of cockroach has
(4) Agave (1) Haemoglobin
48. Bulbils in Agave are modified (2) Haemocyanin
(1) leaves (3) Hemerythrin
(2) adventitious root (4) No respiratory pigment
(3) tap root 54. Pure lines can be obtained by
(4) Floral buds (1) cross pollination
49. Sporopollenin is (2) hybridization
(1) Component of intine (3) continuous selfing and selection
(2) thick in germ pores (4) intervarietal hybridization
(3) responsible for preservation of 55. Mendel conducted hybridisation
pollen as fossils experiment on garden fears for -----
years
(4) more than one options are correct.
(1) 7
50. Which one of them is not an example
(2) 17
of mollusc?
(3) 14
(1) Pinctada
(4) 34
Sri Chaitanya Page 10 Educational Institutions
56. In all connective tissues the cells c) all yellow
secrete fibres of structural proteins, (1) b and c are possible
except in (2) only c is possible
(1) Cartilage (3) only a is possible
(2) Bone (4) a and c are possible
(3) Blood 61. Lower molars in human dentition
(4) Areolar tissue usually have
57. Areolar connective tissue is present in (1) No roots
(1) Yellow bone marrow (2) Three roots
(2) Tendons and ligaments (3) Two roots
(3) Subcutaneous layer (4) Single root
(4) True vocal cords 62. Which of the following is a nucleotide?
58. At which level of vertebral column, (1) adenosine
trachea divides into primary bronchi? (2) deoxy adenosine
(1) 4th thoracic vertebrae (3) guanosine
(2) 5th thoracic vertebrae (4) adenylic acid
(3) 7th thoracic vertebrae 63. A DNA has 5000 base pairs, if the
(4) 7th cervical vertebrae amount of adenine is 20 % then find
59. Volume of air that remains in the lungs out the total number of nucleotides of
after normal expiration is called cytosine present
(1) Tidal Volume (1) 2000
(2) Residual Volume (2) 1500
(3) Functional Residual Capacity (3) 3000
(4) Vital Capacity (4) 4000
60. When a cross is made between pea 64. Increased osmolarity of blood
plant with green seed and plant with (1) Stimulates secretion of glucagon
yellow seeds what proposition of (2) Inhibits secretion of vasopressin
phenotype in offsprings could be (3) Stimulates the secretion of
expected to be green and yellow? aldosterone
a) all green (4) Stimulates secretion of
b) 50% green 50 % yellow. vasopressin

Sri Chaitanya Page 11 Educational Institutions

65. In lac. operon if ‘y’ gene undergoes 69. What is the constraint of conventional
nonsense mutation then what changes breeding wrt breeding for disease
we observe during expression of resistance?
structural gene. (1) introduction of lethal gens
(1) no any enzyme synthesis will (2) introduction of hybrid vigour
occur (3) formation of pure line
(2) permease enzyme will synthesise (4) availability of number of disease
(3) only beta galactosidase will resistant genes.
synthesise 70. Otolith organs are related to sense of

(4) no changes occur in enzyme (1) Touch

synthesis. (2) Hearing

66. Which one of the following is correct? (3) Smell

(1) Serum = Blood - Fibrinogen (4) Balance

(2) Lymph = Plasma + RBC + WBC 71. Common biofertiliser in rice field is

(3) Blood = Plasma + Formed (1) Rhizobium

Elements (2) Azolla, Anabaena relationship

(4) Plasma = Blood – Lymphocytes (3) Frankia

67. Choose incorrect statement wrt (4) Azotobacter

pomato 72. When trochlear nerve is damaged,

(1) it contain desired combination of (1) Shape of lens in eye cannot be

characters altered

(2) it is a somatic hybrid (2) Amount of light that enters into

(3) it is a product of fusion of eye cannot be altered

protoplast of tomato and potato (3) Normal movements of eye ball

(4) more than one options are correct. are impaired

68. In response to a drop in pressure (4) Sharp central vision is lost

detected by stretch receptors in the 73. The technology of biogas production

was developed in India mainly due to
vascular wall, JG cells release:
efforts of
(1) Angiotensin – I (1) IARI,KVIC
(2) Angiotensin – II (2) UNDP
(3) Aldosterone (3) UNESCO
(4) Renin (4) NWAP
Sri Chaitanya Page 12 Educational Institutions
74. In PBR 322 ,if desired gene is inserted (4) biolistics
at the site of Hind lll recognition site, 79. Which one of the following hormones
which selectable marker gene will regulates gene expression by
become inactive? interacting with intracellular receptor
(1) tetR and then with genome?
(2) ampR (1) Oxytocin
(3) lacZ (2) Aldosterone
(4) none of these (3) Adrenaline
75. In mammalian eye, the ‘fovea’ is the (4) Glucagon
centre of the visual field, where 80. Choose correct pair wrt transgenic
(1) The optic nerve leaves the eye plant
(2) Only rods are present in high (1) Round up ready soyabean-
soyabean
concentration glyphosate resistant
(3) More rods than cones are found (2) Golden rice-vitamin
vitamin A rich
(4) High density of cones is found (3) Bt cotton-resistant
resistant to bollworm
76. Gel electrophoresis
resis is used for (4) All of these
separation of 81. Observe the following diagram and
(1) DNA from host identify A, B & C
(2) Strands of DNA
(3) DNA from gel
(4) fragments of DNA
77. PTH stimulates
(1) Reabsorption of Ca2+ by the renal
tubules
(2) Mineralization of bones
(3) Secretion of Ca2+ by the renal
tubules (1) A-Zygomatic
Zygomatic bone, B-Hyoid
B bone
C-Sphenoid
Sphenoid bone
(4) Hypocalcemia in blood
(2) A-Sphenoid
Sphenoid bone, B
B-Hyoid bone
78. Vector less method suitable to transfer
& C-Zygomatic
Zygomatic bone
gene into animal cell is
(1) disarmed retrovirus (3) A-Sphenoid
Sphenoid bone, B-Zygomatic
B

(2) polyethylene glycol bone & C-Hyoid

Hyoid bone

(3) microinjection (4) A-Frontal, B-Occipital

Occipital & C-
C
Zygomatic bone
82. Organism which produce ‘cry’ 87. In a 6 years old girl, the stages of
proteins are all except oogenesis found in her ovary are
(1) Oogonia
(1) Bollworm
(2) Primary oocytes
(2) Bt corn
(3) Ootids
(3) Bt cotton
(4) Secondary oocytes
(4) More than one options
88. During ecological succession
83. The ovaries are located one on each
side of the abdomen and is connected (1) size of individual decrease
to the uterus by (2) niche become specialized
(1) Myometrium (3) community organisation become
(2) Adipose tissue simple
(3) Mesenteron (4) nutrient conservation decrease
(4) Ligament 89. Implants under the skin and injections
84. Approximately how much carbon is are also used as contraceptive devices.
fixed in the biosphere through These devices contain
photosynthesis annually? (1) Progestogens and PTH
(1) 4 ×1013 kg (2) Estrogen and oxytocin
(2) 6 ×10 kg
13
(3) Progestogens - estrogen
(3) 3.3 ×106 kg combination
(4) 4.310 kg (4) Prolactin and oxytocin
85. Foetal membrane that provides the 90. Hormone which suppresses the apical
first blood corpuscles for circulation in dominance is
embryo is (1) auxin
(1) Yolk sac
(2) gibberellins
(2) Allantois
(3) cytokinin
(3) Amnion
(4) ethylene
(4) Chorion
91. The following is NOT the function of
86. In endarch primary xylem
oral contraceptive pills:
(1) protoxylem lies toward periphery
(1) Inhibits ovulation
(2) protoxylem lies toward centre
(2) Inhibits implantation
(3) metaxylem lies toward centre
(3) Alters the cervical mucous
(4) both protoxylem and metaxylem
(4) Stimulates the phagocytes to kill
lies toward centre.
sperms
Sri Chaitanya Page 14 Educational Institutions
92. Which of the following plant will not 97. In Lederberg’s replica plating
respond to photoperiodic cycle? experiment, some bacteria can grow in
penicillin containing medium due to
(1) defoliated plant
(1) Founder’s effect
(2) plant with half leaf
(2) Spontaneous mutation and
(3) plant with one leaf
Natural selection
(4) plant with many leaves
(3) Mutations induced by penicillin
93. Site of oxidative phosphorylation is
(4) Dormancy
(1) mitochondria
98. Electron carrier not involved in cyclic
(2) chloroplast
photophosphorylation is
(3) peroxisome
(1) phaeophytin
(4) both 1 & 2
(2) plastoquinone
94. As compare to the dicot root, monocot
(3) cytochrome b-f of complex
root
(4) plastocyanin
(1) have fewer xylem bundles
99. Philadelphia chromosome occurs in
(2) have more xylem bundles
patients suffering from
(3) undergoes secondary growth
(1) Albinism
(4) have no pith
(2) Phenylketonuria
95. Which of the following pairs is
(3) Hepatitis
incorrectly matched with respect to
(4) Chronic Myeloid Leukemia
convergent evolution?
100. CAM plant among the following is
(1) Lemur - Spotted cuscus
(1) wheat
(2) Flying squirrel -Flying phalanger
(2) maize
(3) Ant eater – Numbat
(3) sugarcane
(4) Bobcat – Numbat
(4) euphorbia
96. Which one of the following options has
101. A man of blood group AB is married to
no significance in the origin of new a women of O blood group. Which
species as per Darwin’s theory? blood group/groups is/are not
possible in their children?
(1) Reproductive isolation
(1) AB and O
(2) Prodigality of reproduction
(2) A and B
(3) Sexual reproduction
(3) Only AB
(4) Internal vital force
(4) Only O
Sri Chaitanya Page 15 Educational Institutions
102. In carbon fixation cycle
(1) 5C compound is converted into
3C compound in reduction step
(2) CO2 is added by RUBISCO
(3) ATP and NADPH are utilized in
105. Sequencing the whole set of genome
that contained all the coding and non-
non
coding sequence and later assigning
different regions in the sequence with
functions are referred to as
(1) ESTs

regeneration (2) Sequence Annotation

(4) Carbon is oxidized (3) BAC

103. Which of the following pedigree can be (4) SNP’s

related to haemophilia ? 106. Mo- Fe protein help in

(1) denitrification
(2) ammonification
(3) nitrification
(1)
(4) nitrogen fixation
107. DNA polymorphism that has been
used to develop the DNA
fingerprinting technology is based on
(1) Single nucleotide polymorphism
(2)
(2) VNTRs
(3) Protein coding genes
(4) Abnormal nucleotide bases
108. Match the following
(3)
Column-I Column
Column-II
a) Potassium i) vitamins
b) Calcium ii) ring of

(4) chlorophyll

104. The transfer of amino group from one c) Magnesium iii) mitotic spindle

amino acid to keto group of keto acid d) Sulphur iv) anion

anion-cation

is balance

(1) deamination (1) a-iv,b-iii,c-ii,d-i

(2) reductive amination (2) a-i,b-ii,c-iii,d-iv

(3) translation (3) a-ii,b-i,c-iii,d-iv

(4) transamination (4) a-iii,b-i,c-ii,d-iv

109. The feeding efficiency of one species Stage of cell
Event
might be reduced due to the cycle
interfering and inhibitory presence of Chromosomes move
(1) Anaphase
the other species even if resources are to equator
abundant. This is referred as Centromere split and
(2) Metaphase
(1) Competitive release chromatids separates
(2) Resource partitioning Pairing of
(3) Interference competition homologous
(3) Zygotene
(4) Competitive exclusion chromosomes takes
110. Mass flow explain place
(1) transport of proton across the Crossing over
membrane in mitochondria between homologous
(4) Prophase
(2) ascent of sap in xylem chromosomes takes
(3) transport of phloem sap place
(4) Both 2 and 3 114. What percent of PAR is captured by
111. Australians introduced a cactus- transducers to sustain the entire living
world?
feeding predator (moth) to control
(1) 1-5%
prickly pear cactus because it
(2) 2-10%
(1) Acts as medium for energy
(3) 0.2-1%
transfer
(4) 0.8-1.6%
(2) Keeps prey population under
115. Which of the following is the largest
control
man-made ecosystem?
(3) Maintain species diversity
(1) Estuary
(4) Predators are prudent in nature
(2) Crop field
112. The spring wood
(3) Grassland
(1) is dark in colour
(4) Forest
(2) is light in colour
116. Chiasmata become visible in
(3) have lower density
(1) zygotene
(4) both 2 and 3 (2) pachytene

113. Choose the correct option (3) diplotene

(4) leptotene
Sri Chaitanya Page 17 Educational Institutions
117. Which of the following is not related to (3) Conduction of historic convention
broadly utilitarian argument in on biological diversity
biodiversity conservation? (4) Where the Chipko movement
(1) Pollination started
(2) Mineral cycle 122. Secondary metabolites
(3) Habitat for wildlife a) Have identificable physiological
(4) Food function
118. Types of placentation present in b) are useful to human beings
Dianthus is c) have ecological importance
(1) marginal (1) a, b, c all correct
(2) free central (2) only a and b correct
(3) basal (3) b and c are correct
(4) parietal (4) only b is correct
119. Which one of the following scientists 123. Recognize the following pie-chart and
found that plots with more species find out the correct matching with
diversity show less year - to - year respect to greenhouse gases.
variation in total biomass?
(1) David Tilman
(2) Paul Ehrlich
(3) Robert May
(4) Edward Wilson
120. Adiantum belongs to which class ? (1) b - CFCs, a - N2O, d - CO2, c - CH4
(1) psilopsida (2) a - CO2, b - CH4, c - CFCs, d- N2O
(2) lycopsida (3) b - CFCs, a - N2O, c - CO2, d - CH4
(3) pteropsida (4) a - CO2, b - N2O, c -CH4, d – CFCs
(4) sphenopsida 124. In animal cells steroidal hormones are
121. Chanda and Bastar are well known for synthesised by
(1) Ex situ conservation (1) RER
(2) Tracts of forests venerated and (2) SER
provided with complete (3) golgi body
protection (4) glyoxysome

Sri Chaitanya Page 18 Educational Institutions

125. What gases are produced during 130. Which one of the following options
‘anaerobic sludge digestion’? gives the CORRECT matching of a
disease with its causative organisms
(1) Methane and CO2 but not H2S
and mode of infection?
(2) Methane, H2S and CO2 Disease Causative Mode of
(3) Methane, H2S and O2 Organism Infection

(4) H2S and CO2 but not Methane (1) Typhoid Salmonella Aerosols
typhi inhalation
126. Claviceps belongs to class
(2) Pneu Streptococcus Droplet
(1) phycomycetes
monia pneumoniae inhalation
(2) ascomycetes
(3) Elephan Wuchereria Contamin
(3) basidiomycetes
tiasis bancrofti ated water
(4) deuteromycetes
and food
127. Which of the following is likely to have
(4) Malaria Plasmodium Bite of
the highest levels of DDT deposition in
vivax female
its body?
Culex
(1) Seagull
mosquito
(2) Crab
131. Cancers may be caused due to
(3) Eel
activation of _____ to _____ or due to
(4) Phytoplankton inactivation of _____
128. Trilocular ovary occur in all except (1) Tumour suppressor gene,
(1) Asparagus oncogene protooncogene
(2) Oncogene, tumour suppressor
(2) Aloe
gene, protooncogene
(3) Colchicum
(3) Protooncogene, oncogene, tumour
(4) Trifolium
suppressor gene
129. Protenema is
(4) Oncogene, protooncogene,
(1) filamatous sporophyte in moss
tumour suppressor gene
(2) gametophyte in ferns
132. What is nature of cell wall in Diatoms?
(3) unicellular and haploid
(1) cellulosic and non silicate
(4) early stage of gametophyte of
(2) proteinaceous and silicate
moss
(3) glyco proteins and silicate
(4) cellulosic and silicate
Sri Chaitanya Page 19 Educational Institutions
133. Choose correct option sp3d in
Information about 3rd Distorted
(1) Flora (3) XeO2F2
single taxon excited tetrahedral
Provide information
state
for identification of
(2) Manual
name of species sp3d2 in
found in an area 2nd square
provide account of (4) XeF4
excited planar
(3) Monograph habitat and
distribution of plants state
Book which contains 137. One mole of an ideal gas at 450k is
(4) Catalogues species of plants expanded iso thermally and reversibly
with key from an initial volume of 5L to 20L,
134. BCG vaccine provides protection Then ∆U for the process is
against ( R = 1.987calmole −1 −1
k )
(1) Measles (1) 263.7 cal
(2) Tuberculosis
(2) 538.1 cal
(3) Cholera
(4) Small pox (3) Zero
135. Which one of the following is the best (4) 92.5 cal
breeding methods for animals that are
138. Which among the following is a
rendered below average in
condensation co polymer?
productivity due to continuous
(1) Buna-S
inbreeding?
(1) Out Crossing (2) Nylon-6

(2) Line breeding (3) Dacron

(3) Close inbreeding (4) Teflon

(4) Interspecific hybridization 139. Which among the following is

incorrect statement?
136. Which among the following is
(1) Milk is oil in liquid type of
incorrect combination ? emulsion
Com Hybridi (2) Gold sol is solid in liquid type of
Shape colloid
pound sation
(3) Process of converting fresh
square precipitate into colloid is called
(1) XeOF4 sp3d2
pyramidal peptisation
(4) Chemical adsorption is
(2) XeO4 sp3d Tetrahedral
multilayered

Sri Chaitanya Page 20 Educational Institutions

140. A 10L cylinder contains He gas at 5 Pt/H2(1atm)/pH=2II
atm. pressure. The gas is used to fill pH =3/H2(1atm)/Pt
cycle tubes of volume 2L at 1atm. The
(1) Spontaneous
number of cycle tubes that can be filled
in are [Temperature remains constant] (2) Non-spontaneous
(1) 8 (3) In equilibrium
(2) 9 (4) Process takes rapidly
(3) 10 145. During bessemerisation of copper, the
(4) 20 reaction taking place in bessemer
convertor is
141. The van’t Hoff factor for 0.1M
(1) Cu2S + 2Cu2O → 6Cu + SO2
Ca(NO3)2 solution is 2.5. The percent
dissociation of Ca(NO3)2 is (2) Cu2O + FeS → Cu2S + FeO
(1) 75% (3) FeO+SiO2→FeSiO3
(2) 91.3% (4) 2Cu+O2 →2CuO
(3) 66% 146. A solution of Al2(SO4)3 in water is
(4) 50% electrolysed using Pt electrodes. The
products at the cathode and anode are
142. In gaseous phase reaction:
respectively
A2(g) → B(g) + ½ C (g), the increase in
(1) H2 , O2
pressure from 100mm to 120mm is
noticed in 10 min. The rate of (2) Al , O2
disappearance of A2 mm.min-1 is (3) H2 , SO2
(1) 4
(4) O2 , Al
(2) 4.75
147. Which among the following is incorrect
(3) 16
statement ?
(4) 3.5
(1) DNA does not contain Uracil
143. Na and Mg crystallize in bcc and fcc
(2) RNA does not contain Thymine
type crystals respectively, then the
number of atoms of Na and Mg (3) Fructose is a reducing sugar
present in the unit cell of respective (4) Maltose is made of α-D glucose
crystals is
148. Which one of the following is
(1) 4, 8
employed as a tranquillizer?
(2) 9, 14
(1) Omeprazole
(3) 6, 8
(2) Mifepristone
(4) 2, 4
(3) N-acetyl paraaminophenol
144. The cell reaction for the given cell is
(4) Valium
Sri Chaitanya Page 21 Educational Institutions
149. The hydrolysis constant of NH4Cl , if
Kb of ammonium hydroxide is 2 × 10-5
is
(1) 5 × 10-10
(2) 2 × 10-9
(3) 1 × 10-8
(4) 5 × 10-12
150. In which direction position of
equilibrium moves upon adding inert
gas to the system : PCl5(g) →PCl3(g) +
Cl2(g) at constant pressure?
(1) towards right side
(2) towards left side
(3) is unaffected
(3) zero
(4) 1.414 h / 2̟
154. Doping of Si with Ga will result in the
formation of
(1) n-type semi conductor
(2) p-type semi conductor
(3) npn diode
(4) pnp diode
155. A gas is cooled and loses 50J of heat.
The gas contracts as it cools and work
done on the system equal to 20J is
exchanged with surroundings. Hence
change in internal energy is
(1) 70J

(4) cannot be predicted (2) 30J

151. How many electrons are there in (3) -30J

16grams methane? (4) -50J

(1) 6.023 × 1023 156. At 300k and 1 atmospheric pressure

10ml of a hydrocarbon required 55Ml
(2) 6.023 × 1024
of O2 for complete combustion and
(3) 3.015 × 1023 40mL of CO2 is formed. The formula of
(4) 1.523 × 1024 the hydrocarbon is:
(1) C4H6
152. Though the oxygen molecule contains
even number of electrons, it is (2) C4H7Cl
paramagnetic. This behavior is (3) C4H8
explained by
(4) C3H8
(1) Valence Bond theory
157. The regions of the atmosphere, where
(2) Molecular orbital theory
clouds form and where we live
(3) VSEPR theory
respectively, are
(4) Debye theory
(1) Troposphere and stratosphere
153. The orbital angular momentum of an
electron with quantum numbers n = 3 (2) Stratosphere and Troposphere
and l = 0 is (3) Stratosphere and Stratosphere
(1) h /6p (4) Troposphere and Troposphere
(2) h / 4p
Sri Chaitanya Page 22 Educational Institutions
158. Propyne and Propene can be (1) HNO3 > H3PO4 > H2SO4
distinguished by (2) HNO3 > H2SO4 > H3PO4
(1) Conc. H2SO4 (3) H2SO4 > HNO3 > H3PO4
(2) Br2 / CCl4
(4) H3PO4 > HNO3 > H2SO4
(3) dil. KMnO4
162. Which of the following complexes
(4) AgNO3 in NH3 formed by Cu +2 ion is most stable
2+
159. Which of the following compounds (1) Cu +2 + 4NH3 ⇌ Cu ( NH3 )4  ; log K = 11.6
give same SN1 and SN 2 product ? 2−
(2) Cu +2 + 4CN − ⇌  Cu ( CN )4  ;log K = 27.3
2+
(3) Cu +2 + 2en ⇌  Cu ( en )2  ;log K = 15.4

Cl (4) Cu +2 + 4H 2 O ⇌  Cu ( H 2 O )4  2 + ; log K = 8.9

(1)
163. Among fluorides of alkali metals, the
Cl
lower solubility of LiF in water is due
to
(1) Ionic nature of LiF
(2)
(2) High lattice enthalpy

(3) High hydration enthalpy of Li +

(3) Cl ion
(4) Low ionization enthalpy of
Lithium
(4) Cl
164. Among the following substituted
160.
silanes, the one which will give rise to
E2 cross linked silicone polymer on
Elimination +
X Saytzeff product Hofmann product hydrolysis is
(1) RSiCl3
Hofmann product is major when base
is (2) R 2SiCl2
(1) CH 3O −
(3) R 3SiCl
(2) CH3CH 2O−
(4) R 4Si
CH 3
165. Eutrophication of lakes is mainly
CH3 − C − O−
caused by
CH 3 (1) Food chains
(3)
(4) Alcoholic KOH (2) Chlorofluoro carbons
161. Correct oxidizing power of oxyacids of (3) SO2 and CO2
N, P and S are (4) Nitrates and phosphates
Sri Chaitanya Page 23 Educational Institutions
166. Incorrect match among the following is
O − CH 2
(1) Plaster of paris - 2 CaSO4. H2O 169. The ether
(2) Bleaching powder - CaCl2. when treated with HI produces
(1) C6H5CH2I + C6H5OH
Ca(OCl)2
(2) C6H5CH2OH + C6H5I
(3) Filler in cosmetics - CaCO3
(3) C6H6 + C6H5CH2OH
(4) Windows of X-ray tubes - Mg + Al
(4) C6H5CH3 + C6H5OH
alloy
170. Which among the following is
167. Which among the following statement
incorrect combination ?
is incorrect ?
(1) acidic strength : para nitrophenol
(1) I1 of N > O but I2 of O > N
< ortho nitrophenol
(2) The ionic radii of Li + , K + , Mg 2+ and (2) acidic strength : HCOOH >
C6H5COOH
Al 3+ in A0 are 0.76, 1.38, 0.720 and
(3) basic strength : (CH3)2NH >
0.535, respectively C6H5NH2
(3) Ea of Cl > F but EN of F > Cl (4) basic strength: C6H5CH2NH2 >
C6H5NH2
(4) Order of bond length :
O-H(covalent bond) > O---H 171. On reacting calgon with MgSO4 , the
(H-bond) product obtained has a chemical
168. In which of the following molecules all formula
the effects namely inductive, (1) Na2  Na4 ( PO3 ) 6 
mesomeric and hyper conjugation (2) Na2  Mg 2 ( PO4 ) 6 
operate?
(3) Na2  Na4 ( PO4 ) 6 

Na2  MgNa2 ( PO3 )6 

COCH 3
(4)

(1) CH 3 172. 1.4 g of an organic compound was

+ digested according to Kjeldahl’s
method and the ammonia evolved was
absorbed in 60 m L of M/10 H2SO4
(2)
+
solution. The excess sulphuric acid
CH − CH 3
requires 20 mL of M/10 NaOH
solution for neutralisation. The
(3)
percentage of nitrogen in the
CH 3 compound is
(1) 3
CH 3 (2) 5
(4)
(3) 24
(4) 10

Sri Chaitanya Page 24 Educational Institutions

173. S + H 2 SO4 → X ( g ) + B( l ) 178.
OH
X + Cl2 → ' Y '( l ) , Then Y is
HNO3 + H2SO4

Zn
∆
→ A  0 → B 
Sn / HCl
→C
< 60 C
(1) SO2
(2) SCl4 In the above sequence, the final
(3) SCl6 organic product ‘C’ is
(4) SO2Cl2 (1) Benzene
174. Na 2 B 4O 7 .10H 2O 
strong
∆
→ X + NaBO 2 + H 2 O (2) Nitrobenzene

The compound ‘X’ is (3) Aniline

(1) B2O3 (4) Azobenzene

(2) H3BO3 179. Acetyl chloride reacts with (CH3)2Cd

(3) B2H6 to give:

(4) BCl3 (1) Ethanal

(2) Ethanoic acid
175. MnO2 ( Black )  → X ( green ) 
+
KOH H
→
O2
(3) Propanone
Y ( Purple) ) + Z ( Black ) .
(4) Ethyl ethanoate
Then X and Y are respectively
(1) KMnO4 , Mn2O7 180.
X
HCl
(2) K2 MnO4 , MnO CO, AlCl 3
any OH −
CH ' Z ' ( major )
(3) K2 MnO4 , KMnO4 3 COC
293K
l
AlC
l3 Y
(4) KMnO4, K 2 MnO4
The major product ‘Z’ is
176. The complex [Pt. (Py) (NH3) BrC ℓ ] will O
have how many geometrical isomers CH = CH − C
(1) 2 (1)
O
(2) 3
C − CH = C
(3) 4
(4) No isomers possible CH 3
(2)
177. ClF3 + H 2O → HF + X . “X” is
(3)
(1) HClO
(2) HClO2 COONa
(4)
(3) HClO3

(4) HClO4
Sri Chaitanya Page 25 Educational Institutions
Sri Chaitanya Educational Institutions,INDIA
A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH

NEET-2017 & 2018 :Rank Vs Marks analysis

Marks
All INDIA RANK
2017 2018
1 697 691
10 686 680
25 681 672
50 675 664
100 669 655
200 658 644
500 641 625
1000 627 610
2000 610 592
4000 590 572
5000 581 565
10000 555 538
20000 518 504
30000 490 479
40000 467 458
50000 447 440
60000 430 424
70000 414 410
80000 399 396
90000 386 384
100000 373 373