NTSE Previous Year Papers PDF

NTSE
(National Talent Search Examination)
RAJASTHAN
Previous Year Question Papers
(2013-2017)
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RAJASTHAN_NTSE-STAGE - I (YEAR:2012-13) MAT
Directions : (1 to 5) In each question there is a number 12. (1) ACEGF (2) FHJLK
series with one term missing shown by question (3) KMOQP (4) UWYZA
mark (?). This term is one of the alternatives
among the four numbers given under it. That 13. (1) CADGE (2) JHKNL
number is- (3) ECFGI (4) XVYBZ
1. 2, 30, 6, 20, 12, 12, (?) 14. (1) 6253 (2) 1881
(1) 26 (2) 22 (3) 7043 (4) 8210
(3) 20 (4) 24
Directions : (15 to 19) In the following questions there
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2. 6, 20, 36, 48, 50, (?), 0 is a letter series with one term missing shown
(1) 36 (2) 40 by (?). Find this term from the four given
(3) 46 (4) 56
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alternatives.
3. 7, 15, 28, 59, 114, (?) 15. YANWY, DFMBD, IKNGI, NPMLN, (?), XZMVX
(1) 243 (2) 233 (1) RUMSR (2) SUNQS
(3) 213 (4) 223 (3) UWNSU (4) VUMTV
D
4. 25, 49, 89, 145, 217, (?) 16. PEXKW, RFWMU, TGVOS, VHUQQ, XITSO,
(1) 305 (2) 327
(?)
A
(3) 309 (4) 303
(1) ZJSUM (2) YJSUZ
5. 0, 2, 2, 3, 3, 5, 8, 4, 10, (?), 5, 17 (3) ZKSVJ (4) JZSTN
(1) 6
(3) 9
(2) 7
(4) 15
C 17. AYBZC, DWEXF, GUHVI, JSKTL, (?), POQPR
(1) MQDRN (2) QMONR
A
Directions : (6 to 10) These questions consists of a (3) MQNRO (4) NQMOR
number series which contains a wrong term.
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This term is given as one of the four alternatives 18. ZYYZR, ABVUN, (?), BCUTM, XWABT, CDTSL
among the four numbers given below. The wrong (1) YXZAS (2) ZYABT
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term is- (3) XWYZR (4) YXZAB

6. 89, 78, 86, 80, 85, 82, 83 19. deb, ijg, nol, ( ? ), xyv
A
(1) 83 (2) 82 (1) rsp (2) stp

(3) 86 (4) 78
(3) rsq (4) stq
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7. 1, 1, 3, 9, 6, 36, 10, 100, 16, 225

(1) 225 (2) 16 Directions : (20 to 23) In each question there are circles.
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(3) 10 (4) 9 Certain numbers are given inside/outside the

circles according to a particular rule. In each
8. 444, 300, 200, 136, 87, 84, 80
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question one of the circle has a (?) mark inside

(1) 300 (2) 200
it. Choose the correct answer to fill in the space
(3) 136 (4) 87
marked (?) from the given alternatives.
9. 8, 15, 31, 61, 123, 247, 491 5 3 18
(1) 247 (2) 491 7 63 9 11 40 6 7 ? 11
20.
(3) 121 (4) 61 3 2 4
10. 3, 6, 24, 30, 63, 72, 122, 132 (1) 144 (2) 136
(1) 132 (2) 30 (3) 135 (4) 124
(3) 122 (4) 72
8 12 9
Directions : (11 to 14) Each question consists of four 12 64 6 5 75 10 21 ? 12
21.
groups. One set is different from other three in 9 8 14
someway. Find out the different set-
(1) 102 (2) 152
11. (1) PROQN (2) DFCEG
(3) 162 . (4) 172
(3) GIFHE (4) KMJLI
Vibrant Academy (I) Pvt. Ltd. "A-14(A)" Road No.1, IPIA, Kota (Raj.) Ph. 0744-2423406 (www.vibrantacademy.com) [2]
1 3 4
22.
29. 4 30 2 6 86 4 3 78 ?
(1) 91 (2) 108 3 5 2

(3) 116 (4) 119
(1) 6 (2) 7
(3) 8 (4) 9
3 6 2
23. 4 7.50 5 5 11.25 2 5 ? 2

7 32 ?
2 3 9
31 8 25
(1) 10.25 (2) 10.50 30.
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(3) 11.25 (4) 11.50 11 24 9
Directions : (24 to 26) These questions are based on
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letter series in which some of the letters are (1) 50 (2) 48
missing. The missing letters are given in the (3) 47 (4) 51
proper sequence in one of the alternatives
among the four given under each question. Find
out the correct alternatives for each question. 4 20 25
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24. abc – d – bc – d – b – cda
27 81 9
(1) bacdc (2) cdabc
A
31.
(3) dacab (4) dccbd 11 44 ?
25. abb — — ab — b — bba — a
(1) bbbab
(3) abaab
(2) babba
(4) bbabb
C (1) 4
(3) 30
(2) 16
(4) 55
A
26. b — a — bab — ab — a Direction : (32 to 33) Find out the correct alternative of
the questions based on the Dice figures.
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(1) baba (2) babb

(3) abab (4) abba
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Directions : (27 to 31)Out of nine cells of a square one 32.

cell is left blank and in the rest of the cells
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numbers are written which follow some rule. Get

The number opposite side the face having the
the rule and find out the proper option for the
no. 4 will be –
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blank cell (?)

(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 5 (4) 6
B
2 72 56
4
? 0 42
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27. ?
33. 2
12 20 30
(i) (ii) (iii)
(1) 4 (2) 6
(3) 8 (4) 10 Three positions of a Dice are shown. In figure
(iii) which number will come in place of (?).
(1) 5 (2) 3
91 64 73 (3) 6 (4) 1
84 76 61
28.
25 60 ?
(1) 66 (2) 68
(3) 69 (4) 71
34. The following figure is converted into a cube. Its 37. 2873 : 13212014 : : 10242311 : (?)
correct shape will be– (1) 29282423 (2) 28274746
(3) 25272824 (4) 29454430
38. 241214 : 752119 : : 14163234 : (?)

(1) 19174139 (2) 20184240
(3) 21194341 (4) 20224244
39. 25224447 : 23204245 :: 11143229 : ( ? )

(1) 13163431 (2) 24214341
(3) 24214346 (4) 13102421
40. 82224: 133133 :: 62022 : (?)
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(1) 91221 (2) 81312
(1) (2) (3) (4) (3) 153335 (4) 51921
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35. The following figure is converted into a cube. Its Directions : (41 to 45) Words in capital letters in
four positions (A), (B), (C) and (D) are shown. column – I are written in small letters in a code
On the basis of these select correct alternative. language in
column – II. Decode the Language and find out
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the correct alternative for the given letters in
each questions.
Column–I Column–II
A
HERO tbfw
JOIN bakp
C LAZY
MINE
nsvg
pdkt
A
PART rwsx
SAURY wveos
BLUE eglt
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(a) (b) (c) (d) CIGAR usqwp

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WRIT wpxy
(1) a only (2) b only VIRUS pzwoe
(3) a and c only (4) a, b, c and d QUACK jqems
A
Directions : (36 to 40) The following question are based PIRL wprg
on the arrangement of numbers in the form of a
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41. Code for letters in the word TOIL are-

pyramid. In each question there is some
(1) pxba (2) bpgn
relationship between the two numbers on the
B
left of the (::). The same relationship exists (3) bpxg (4) mpxg
between the two terms in the right of which one
42. Code for letters in the word COST are-
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is missing. Find the missing are from the

(1) boqx (2) xqps
given alternatives.
(3) qost (4) xqnr
1
43. Code for letters in the word ULCER are-
2 3 4
(1) ggwmr (2) teqwp
9 8 7 6 5 (3) ktegp (4) gteqw
10 11 12 13 14 15 16
25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17 44. Code for letters in the word SINE are-
26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 (1) ptkl (2) toka
49 48 47 46 45 44 43 42 41 40 39 38 37 (3) ptok (4) optb
50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64
36. 81 80 79 78:77
132220 76 75:74
211412 73 72 71
: 222931 70 69 68 67 66 6545.
: (?) Code for letters in the word ARCH are-
82 83 84
(1)85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92
304345 (2)93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
302123 (1) frsq (2) wfsq
(3) 442931 (4) 312022 (3) wqfp (4) sqfn
46. A and B are brother. C and D are sisters. A’s Directions : (54 to 56) In the following questions some
son is D’s brother. How is B related to C ? relations are written by particular indicators as
(1) Brother (2) Father shown below-
(3) Uncle (4) Son
O = Greater than
Directions : (47) Read the following information carefully + = Equal to
and answer the question given below -  = Not equal to
A + B means A is the daughter of B;
O = Not greater than
A – B means A is the husband of B;
x = Not less than
A x B means A is the brother of B.
= Less than
47. If P + Q – R, which one of the following is true?
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Find out the correct answer for each question.
(1) R is the mother of P
(2) R is the sister-in-law of P 54. If p  q O r, it is possible that -
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(3) R is the aunt of P (1) p × q × r (2) p × q r
(4) R is the mother-in-law of P (3) p q O r (4) p O q O r
Directions : (48 to 50) Find out the missing one from
55. If p q  r, it is not possible that -
the given alternatives.
(1) p  q O r (2) p q  r
D
48. 08 : 28 :: (? ) : 65 (3) p O q r (4) p + q × r
(1) 9 (2) 12
A
(3) 15 (4) 19 56. If p × q O r, it is not possible that –
49. 35 : 91 :: 189 : ( ? ) (1) p  q r (2) p × q + r
(1) 343
(3) 280
(2) 341
(4) 210
C (3) p  q O r (4) p O q + r
A
57. If your birth day 30th June, 2003 falls on
7 13 19 Monday, on what day of the week does your
50. : :: : (?)
11 17 23 birth day fall in the year 2005 ?
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(1) Sunday (2) Tuesday

25 29
(1) (2) (3) Wednesday (4) Thursday
27 31
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23 29 58. On what day of the week India will celebrate

(3) (4) 33 its Republic Day on 26th January, 2015 ?
A
29
(1) Sunday (2) Monday
Directions : (51 to 53) Following four diagrams marked (3) Tuesday (4) Wednesday
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A, B, C and D are given as alternatives. Choose

the best suitable alternative 59. At what angle are the hands of a clock inclined
at 30 minutes past 6 ?
B
diagram marked A, B, C and D, the one that

represent the best relationship amongest the 1 1
(1) 7 º (2) 11 º
three given groups.
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2 2
(3) 15º (4) 23º
(1) (2)
60. A clock is set right at 10 am. The clock loses
18 minutes in 24 hours. What time will the
clock show when the true time is 6 p.m. on
(3) (4)
the following day ?
(1) 5 : 34 p.m (2) 5 : 36 p.m.
51. Birds, Crows, Cats (3) 5 : 33 p.m. (4) 6 : 30 p.m.
52. Snakes, Land creatures, Water creatures

53. Males, Nephews, Nieces
Directions : (61 to 64) Two Sets of the figures are Directions : (65 to 68) In each of the following questions
given. One set of Question-figures and another four figures are given. One of these figures does
set is of Answer-figures. Question-figures are not fit with the rest of the figures. Find out that
arranged in a sequence. One figure from the correct serial number.
Answer figures is to be selected such that it
can be placed after the series of Question-
figures. Find the correct Serial number of the 65.
selected Answer-figure.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
61. Question - Figures
66.
Y
(1) (2) (3) (4)
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Answer - Figures
67.
D
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
A
68.
Answer - Figures
C (1) (2) (3) (4)
A
Directions : (69 to 72) In the following questions there
is some relationship between the two figures
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on the left of (: :) the same relationship exists

(1) (2) (3) (4) between the two terms on the right, of which
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one is missing. Find the missing one from the

63. Question - Figures given alternative.
A

R
B
Answer - Figures
Answer - Figures
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(1) (2) (3) (4)

(1) (2) (3) (4)
Answer - Figures Answer - Figures
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
71. Question - Figures 75. Sequence of folding the paper
Answer - Figures X Y Z
Answer-Figure
(1) (2) (3) (4)

72. Question - Figures (1) (2) (3) (4)
Y
76. Sequence of folding the paper
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Answer - Figures
D
X Y Z
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Answer-Figure
A
Direction : (73 to 76) The following questions are related
to paper cutting. The questions that follow
contain a set of three figures X, Y and Z,
showing a sequence of folding of a piece of
paper. Fig. (Z) shows the manner in which the
C
A
folded paper has been cut. These three figures
are followed by four answer figures A, B, C and (1) (2) (3) (4)
D (IInd Set) from which you have to choose a
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figure which would most closely resemble the 77. X, Y, Z and P are sitting around a circular table
unfolded from of fig. (Z). and discussing their trades .
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(i) X, sits opposite to cook

73. Sequence of folding the paper (ii) Y, sits right to the barber
A
(iii) The washerman is on the left of the tailor

(iv) P, sits opposite Z
R
What are the trades of X and Y ?

(1) Tailor and Barber
X Y Z (2) Barber and Cook
B
Answer - Figures. (3) Tailor and Cook

(4) Tailor and washerman
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78. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are standing

in a circle. B is between F and C, A is between
(1) (2) (3) (4) E and D, F is to the left of D. Who is between
A and F ?
74. Sequence of folding the paper
(1) B (2) C
(3) D (4) E
79. Six students are sitting in a row. K is sitting

between V and R. V is sitting next to M. M is
X Y Z sitting next to B who is sitting on the extreme
Answer - Figures left and Q is sitting next to R.
Who are sitting adjacent to V ?
(1) R and Q (2) B and M
(3) K and R (4) M and K
(1) (2) (3) (4)
80. If 27  3 = 243 86. In a coded language SHIFT is written as
5  4 = 80 UFKDV, Then COVET may be written in coded
Then what is the value of 3  7 ? language as-
(1) 84 (2) 147 (1) EMXCV (2) FNYDU
(3) 63 (4) 23 (3) EXCUV (4) EQUDS
Directions : (81 to 84) The six faces of a cube are 87. If

painted in a manner that no two adjacent faces PET = 4
have the same colour. The three colours used LET = 3
in painting are red, blue and green. The cube JEY = 2
is then cut into 36 smaller cubes in such a Then what is the value of XET?
manner that 32 cubes are of one size and the (1) 1 (2) 5
rest of a bigger size and each of the bigger (3) 6 (4) 8
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cubes has no red side. Answer the following
88. In a coded language if HOME = 2541,
questions.
SHOP = 8256, WORK = 9573, then code for
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81. How many cubes in all have a red side ? SMOKE will be-
(1) 16 (2) 32 (1) 85431 (2) 84531
(3) 8 (4) 20 (3) 83451 (4) 84351
89. What will be the number of Hexagonals in the
82. How many cubes in all have only one side
D
given figure?
coloured ?
(1) 20 (2) 16
A
(3) 0 (4) 8
83. How many cubes are colured on three sides ?

(1) 20
(3) 8
(2) 16
(4) 0
C
A
84. How many cubes are there which have two or
more sides painted?
(1) 2 (2) 4
(1) 36 (2) 28
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(3) 5 (4) 6
(3) 20 (4) 32
90. What will be the number of Parallelograms in
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85. In a coded language NUMBER is written as in

MFNYVI. Then FIGURE may be written in
A
coded language as-

(1) ERHFlD (2) URTVSF the given figure?
(3) GJTFSF (4) URTFIV
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(1) 15 (2) 17
(3) 13 (4) 16
B
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ANSWER KEY
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans 3 1 2 1 4 3 2 4 1 3 2 4 3 4 2
Ques. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans 1 3 1 4 1 3 2 3 3 1 3 2 1 2 3
Ques. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans 2 1 4 4 2 2 4 1 1 3 3 1 4 3 2
Ques. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans 3 1 3 2 2 4 1 4 1 4 3 4 2 3 2
Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans 2 1 4 2 3 1 2 4 4 1 2 3 3 4 1
Ques. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans 4 3 3 4 2 2 4 3 2 4 1 3 2 3 2
RAJASTHAN_NTSE-STAGE - I (YEAR:2012-13) SAT
1. Which is not the unit of Force – 11. The Unit of frequency is –

(1) Poundal (2) Dyne (1) Hertz (2) Joule
(3) Joule (4) Newton (3) Ohm (4) Kilo Calorie
2. The expansion of a sold body depends on – 12. The first Astronaut in space was –
(1) Mass of the solid only (1) H.G. Wales (2) Neel Armstrong
(2) Nature of the sold only (3) Uri Gagarin (4) Robert Godai
(3) Temperature of the solid only 13. Boiling point of Water is –
(4) Nature and temperature of the solid (1) 273°K (2) 0°K
(3) 373°K (4) 100°K
Y
3. Which country is called the country of Wind
mills ? 14. The Process by which a mixture of Sodium
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(1) Holland (2) Britain Chloride and Ammonium Chloride can be
(3) India (4) America separated, is called –
(1) Sublimation (2) Chromatography
4. Who was the first President of Atomic energy (3) Evaporation (4) Distillation
commission in India –
15. The formula of Ammonium Sulphate is –
D
(1) Homi Jahangir Bhabha
(1) NH4SO4 (2) (NH4)2SO4
(2) Vikram Sarabhai
(3) NH4(SO4)2 (4) NH4(SO4)3
(3) Prof. M.S. Swaminathan
A
(4) Prof. Meghnad Saha 16. Isotopes of an element have –
(1) Same Physical Properties
5. The particles of the medium in the transverse
wave move –
(1) Circular Motion (form)
C (2) Different Chemical Properties
(3) Different No. of Neutrons
(4) Different Atomic Number
A
(2) Oval form
17. A Brown and bright element “x” when heated
(3) in direction of the wave motion
in presence of air turns in to black substance
(4) Perpendicular to the direction of the wave
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“y”. If Hydrogen gas is passed over this heating

motion
material again “x” is obtained. “x” and “y” are –
N
6. The Lens used in the Camera is – (1) Cu & CuO (2) S & SO2
(1) Convex Lens (2) Concave Lens (3) C & CO2 (4) Na & NaH
(3) Biconvex Lens (4) Biconcave Lens
A
18. PH of any neutral solution is –

7. Velocity of sound is maximum in – (1) 0 (2) 1
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(1) Water (2) Oil (3) 14 (4) 7

(3) Air (4) Iron 19. A non metal, which is found in liquid state is –
B
(1) Bromine (2) Iodine

8. One Volt is equal to –
(3) Oxygen (4) Carbon
(1) 1 Joule
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(2) 1 Newton/Coulomb 20. The PH of a solution which turns red litmus

(3) 1 Joule/Coulomb Blue will be –
(4) 1 Coulomb/Newton (1) 1 (2) 9
(3) 4 (4) 5
9. On a bulb is written 220 Volt and 60 watt. Find
out the resistance of the bulb and the value of 21. Which of the following is correct electronic
the current flowing through it. configuration of Argon –
(1) 806.66 ohm / 0.27 ampere (1) 2, 8 (2) 2, 8, 8
(2) 500 ohm / 2 ampere (3) 2, 8, 1 (4) 8, 2, 8
(3) 200 ohm / 4 ampere 22. Element “x” which is solid and having high
(2) 100 ohm / 1 ampere melting point, form a Chloride “x Cl3”. This
element “x” would be in which group of Periodic
10. The maximum attraction in a magnet is –
table –
(1) In he centre (2) On the sides
(1) Na (2) Mg
(3) On the poles (4) On the surface
(3) Al (4) Si
23. Methane with the Molecular formula “CH 4” 34. The plants in which vegetative propagation is
has – found, are
(1) 4 Covalent bonds (2) 8 Covalent bonds (1) Bryophyllum (2) Sugarcane
(3) 6 Covalent bonds (4) 2 Covalent bonds (3) Rose (4) All of the above
24. Cell organelle which differentiates plant cell 35. Which of the following is not a plant hormone
from animal cell is – (1) Auxin (2) Gibberellins
(1) Cell Membrane (2) Plastids (3) Cytokinin (4) Adrenaline
(3) Nucleolus (4) Vacuoles
36. Graph drawn from the equation y = x2 – 3x – 4
25. Blood is a type of connective tissue, which
will be :
has –
(1) Circle (2) Parabola
(1) R.B.C. (2) W.B.C.
(3) Straight line (4) Hyperbola
(3) Platlets (4) All of the above
Y
26. Bile Juice is secreted from – 37. For which values of 'a' and 'b' does the following
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(1) Salivary glands (2) Intestinal glands pair of linear equations have an infinite number
(3) Stomach (4) Liver of solutions :
2x + 3y = 7, (a – b)x + (a + b)y = 3a + b – 2
27. When acidity in Stomach increases, the (1) a = 5 , b = 1 (2) a = 4, b = 2
medicine generally used is – (3) a = 1, b = 5 (4) a = 2, b = 4
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(1) Sodium bicarbonate
(2) Sodium Carbonate 38. If b2 – 4ac  0 then the roots of quadratic
(3) Ammonium Carbonate equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 is :
A
(4) Ammonium bicarbonate
b b2  4ac
2a 
(1)
28. Planaria is kept in which group –
(1) Coelentrata
(3) Nematoda
(2) Platyhelminthes
(4) Annelida
C b
2a
b2  4ac
A
2a 
(2) –
2a
29. Which of the following is an example of
Broyophyte –
b2  4ac
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b
2a 
(1) Moss (2) Fern (3)
2a
(3) Pinus (4) Algae
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30. Dissimilarity found in Aves and Mammalia is – b b2  4ac

2a 
(4) –
(1) Warm Blooded Animal 2a
A
(2) Lay eggs

(3) Breathe through Lungs 39. The sum of the third and seventh terms of an
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(4) Four chambered Heart A.P. is 6 and their product is 8, then common
difference is :
31. Substances necessary for autotrophic Nutrition
B
(1)  1 (2)  2
are –
(1) CO2 and H2O (2) Chlorophyll 1 1
(3)  (4) 
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(3) Sun light (4) All of the above 2 4
32. Blood Pressure is measured with an instrument 40. In a given figure in trapezium ABCD if AB || CD
called – then value of x is :
(1) Thermometer
A B
(2) Stethoscope
(3) Sphygmomanometer 2 x–2
(4) Clinical Thermometer O
2x+5 5
33. Phloem tissue in plants are responsible for – D C
(1) Transportation of water
(2) Transportation of food 29 8
(3) Transportation of Amino Acids (1) (2)
8 29
(4) Transportation of Oxygen
1
(3) 20 (4)
20
41. If points (x, 0), (0, y) and (1, 1) are Collinear
2100
then the relation is : 49. Value of is :
2
(1) x + y = 1 (2) x + y = xy (1) 1 (2) 50100
(3) x + y + 1 = 0 (4) x + y+ xy = 0 (3) 250 (4) 299
3 3
42. If sin(A + B) = , cos(A – B) = and 50. The number of straight line drawn from one point
2 2
to any other point are :
0 < A + B  90°, if A > B then the value of
(1) 4 (2) 3
A and B are :
(3) 2 (4) 1
(1) A = 45°, B = 15° (2) A = 60°, B = 30°
(3) A = 0°, B = 30° (4) A = 30°, B = 0°
51. In a given figure PQ || ST, PQR = 110°,
43. If the Angle of elevation of sun increases from RST = 130° then value of QRS is
Y
0° to 90° then the change in the length of
S T
shadow of Tower will be –
EM
(1) No changes in length of shadow P Q 130°
(2) length of shadow increases 110°
(3) length of shadow decreases R
(4) length of shadow will be zero
(1) 20° (2) 50°
44. The perimeter of square and circumference of (3) 60° (4) 70°
D
Circle are equal, the area of square is 121m2,
then the area of circle is : 52. The bisectors of angles of a parallelogram
A
(1) 7 m2 (2) 14 m2 makes a figure which is
(3) 21 m 2
(4) 49 m2 (1) Rectangle (2) Circle
45. A drinking glass is in the shape of frusturm of
a cone of height 14 cm. The diameter of its
C
53.
(3) Pentagon (4) Octagon
The chord of maximum length in a circle is

A
two circular ends are 4 cm and 2 cm. Then the
capacity of glass is : called :
(1) Radius (2) Arc
2 1
(3) Diameter (4) Point
T
(1) 102 cm3 (2) 102 cm3

3 3
54. Area of triangle ABC whose sides are 24 m.

N
2 1
(3) 101 cm3 (4) 101 cm3 40 m. and 32 m. is :
3 3
46. The median and mode of a frequency (1) 96 m2 (2) 384 m2
A
distribution are 525 and 500 then mean of same (3) 43 m2 (4) 192 m2
frequency distribution is :
R
(1) 75 (2) 107.5 55. Curved surface of right circular cylinder is

(3) 527.5 (4) 537.5 4.4 m 2, radius of base is 0.7 m. then the
B
22
47. The author of the book "The Book on games of height is (Take  = )
7
chance" based on probability theory is :
VI
(1) J. Cardon (2) R.S. Woodwards (1) 1 m (2) 2 m

(3) P.S. Laplace (4) P.D. Pherma (3) 3 m (4) 4 m
5 56. Who built Jantar–Mantar ?

48. Rationalising the denominator of is:
3 5 (1) Sawai Jaisingh
(2) Mirza Raja Jaisingh
5
(1)  2  ( 3 + 5)
(3) Raja Mansingh
  (4) Pratap Singh
 5
(2)   2  ( 3 + 5)
57. Who was the author of "Geet Govind" ?
  (1) Sarangdhar (2) Jaidev
5 (3) Madhodas (4) Bihari
(3)  2  ( 3 – 5 )
  58. Kaila Devi Sanctuary is situated in which
 5 district ?
(4)   2  ( 3 – 5) (1) Alwar (2) Dungarpur
 
(3) Karauli (4) Udaipur
59. Who was mainly responsible for “Bang- 73. When was “Indian wildlife Protection Act”
Bhang” ? implemented ?
(1) Lord Litton (2) Lord Rippon (1) 1970 (2) 1972
(3) Lord Meuchale (4) Lord Korzen (3) 1974 (4) 1976
60. In 1913, Dada Saheb Phalke made the movie– 74. Salty Water lake is –
(1) Basant (1) Jaisamand lake (2) Rajsamand lake
(2) Raja Harishchandra (3) Didwana lake (4) Gapsagar lake
(3) Anari
75. The Rainfall that occurs during winter season
(4) Paying guest
is known as –
61. What is Gilotin ? (1) Monsoon (2) Cyclone
(1) Mine of Coal (2) Human Settlement (3) Mango Shower (4) Mavath
(3) Death Machine (4) Shifting Agriculture
Y
76. Who is the first Person of India ?
62. Massai Mara national Park is located in – (1) Prime Minister (2) President
EM
(1) India (2) Pakistan (3) Governor (4) Chief Minister
(3) Sudan (4) Kenya
77. The Country that is not permanent member of
63. In which country first time the cultivation of United Nation Organisation is ?
opium begin ? (1) Russia (2) Britain
(1) Portugal (2) India (3) China (4) India
D
(3) China (4) Britain
78. “The long walk to freedom” is autobiography
A
64. Which treaty was imposed on Germany after of?
first world war ? (1) Nelsen Mandela (2) Mahatma Gandhi
(1) Versailles (2) Paris (3) Barak Obama (4) Amitabh Bachchan
65.
(3) Vienna (4) London
Who opened the first Cricket Club in India ?
C
79. “Code of conduct” is related to ?
(1) War (2) Transportation
A
(1) Britisher (2) Hindu (3) Cereals (4) Election
(3) Jurestreian (4) Muslim
80. Who can seek information from government
T
66. What is “Barkan” ? under “right to information Act” ?

(1) Name of Sand dune (2) Name of Village (1) Any Citizen
N
(3) Name of Tree (4) Name of Mountain (2) Only Government officials
(3) Only elected members of Loksabha
67. Which state coast line is called the Malabar ?
A
(4) Only elected members of Vidhan Sabha

(1) Gujrat (2) Kerala
(3) Rajasthan (4) West Bengal 81. How many languages are there under article
R
8th in the Indian Constitution ?

68. Ranthambore is situated in –
(1) 22 (2) 20
(1) Rajasthan (2) Arunachal Pradesh
(3) 25 (4) 15
B
(3) Assam (4) Madhya Pradesh

82. The first nation of the world which provided adult
69. The full form of C.N.G. is –
VI
franchise is –
(1) Compound Natural Gas
(1) America (2) India
(2) Complex Natural Gas
(3) Brazil (4) Newzealand
(3) Compound New Gas
(4) Compressed Natural Gas 83. Which of the following Country has adopted
the one (single) Party System ?
70. The ore of iron is –
(1) India (2) America
(1) Haematite (2) Uranium
(3) Japan (4) China
(3) Bauxite (4) Lignite
84. In which year Indian National Congress was
71. Gender ratio in India is –
established ?
(1) 880/1000 (2) 940/1000
(1) 1889 (2) 1885
(3) 300/1000 (4) 400/1000
(3) 1985 (4) 1905
72. Bhakra-Nangal Project is situated on the River ?
85. Out of the following which is not a union
(1) Satluj (2) Tungbhadra
territory?
(3) Damodar (4) Mahi
(1) Puducherry (2) Chandigarh
(3) Goa (4) Daman and Div
86. When was the “National Rural Employment 88. When is the National Consumer Day celebrated
Gurantee Act” Passed ? in India ?
(1) December, 24 (2) September, 16
(1) 2001 (2) 2003
(3) March, 8 (4) May, 25
(3) 2005 (4) 2007
89. According to Census-2011 the literacy rate of
87. What is GDP ? Rajasthan ?
(1) Gross Daily Production (1) 48.34% (2) 54.90%
(2) Gross Domestic Production (3) 67.06% (4) 74.04%
(3) Gross Domestic Power
90. In which year did the Economic Liberalisation
(4) Gross Development Production start in India ?
(1) 1991 (2) 1996
Y
(3) 1999 (4) 2004
EM
D
A
C
A
T
N
A
R
B
ANSWER KEY
VI
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans 3 4 1 1 4 1, 3 4 3 1 3 1 3 3 1 2
Ques. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans 3 1 4 1 2 2 3 1 2 4 4 1 2 1 2
Ques. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans 4 3 2 4 4 2 1 4 3 3 2 1 3, 4 4 1
Ques. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans 4 1 2 4 4 3 1 3 2 1 1 2 3 4 2
Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans 3 4 2 1 3 1 2 1 4 1 2 1 2 3 4
Ques. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans 2 4 1 4 1 1 4 4 2 3 3 2 1 3 1
RAJASTHAN_ NTSE-STAGE-I (YEAR:2013-14) MAT
Questions (1 to 4) 9. Statements (I) : Some books are pencils.

Directions : In each of the questions 1 to 4 some of
the letters are missing in the given series with (II) : Some pencils are pens.
one term missing shown by question mark (?) Conclusions (I) : All books are pens.
. This term is one of the alternatives among
the four groups of letters given under if find the (II) : Some pens are books.
right alternative.
(1) Only conclusion I is true.
(2) Only conclusion II is true
1. BEG, DGI, FIK, HKM, (?)
(1) JMO (2) KMO (3) Conclusions I and II both are true
Y
(3) JML (4) JNP (4) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II are
true.
EM
2. KEM, IDL, GCK, (?), CAI
(1) ECJ (2) EBK 10. Statements
(3) FBJ (4) EBJ (I) : Some men are educated.
3. ca (?) cab (?) ab (?) (?) bc (?) (II) : Educated persons prefer small families.
(1) bccaa (2) accab
D
(3) bacaa (4) abaca Conclusions
(I) : All small families are educated.
A
4. JCME, LDOG, NEQI, (?)
(1) PFSJ (2) PESI (II) Some men prefer small families
(3) PESK
Questions (5 to 8)
(4) PFSK
C (1) Only conclusion I is true
A
Direction : In each of the questions 5 to 8 some of the (3) Conclusions I and II both are true
numbers are missing in the given series with (4) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II are
one term missing shown by question mark (?) true.
T
. This term is one of the alternatives among

the four numbers given under it. Find the right 11. Statements
N
alternative.
(I) : Some hens are cows.
5. 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, (?)
A
(1) 70 (2) 66 (II) : All cows are horses.

(3) 65 (4) 64
Conclusion
R
6. 6, 25, 62, 123, (?), 341 (I) : Some horses are hens
(1) 216 (2) 214
B
(3) 215 (4) 217 (II) : Some hens are horses
7. 5, 3, 10, 8, 17, 15, (?), 24 (1) Only conclusion I is true

VI
(1) 26 (2) 27 (2) Only conclusion II is true

(3) 29 (4) 36 (3) Conclusions I and II both are true
(4) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II are
8. 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, (?) true.
(1) 40 (2) 42
(3) 44 (4) 46
Directions : (12 to 13) Select the diagram that best
represents the given relationship.
Questions (9 to 11)
Direction : In each of the questions below are given two 12. Animals, Cows, Dogs
statements and two conclusions numbered I
and II. You have to take the given two
(1) (2)
statements to be true even if they seem to be
at variance from commonly known facts. Read
the conclusions and then decide which of the
given conclusions logically follows from the two (3) (4)
given statements.
13. Students, Children, Animals.
4 6 6 5 1 4 1 5
(1) (2)
21.
(3) (4) The number on opposite side of the face having

the number 3 will be
(1) 1 (2) 2
14. Which of the following Venn diagrams correctly (3) 4 (4) 5
represents cows, horses and animals ?
Questions (22 to 23)
Direction : Give answer on the basis of given figure that
(1) (2)
the different faces are folded in the form of cube.
Y
(3) (4)
EM
15. How many pairs of letters in the word 22.
‘CONTRACTOR’ have as many letters between
them in the word as in the alphabet ?
D
(1) 2 (2) 3
The number on opposite side of the face having
(3) 4 (4) more than 4
the number 4 will be
A
Question : (16 to 19) (1) 1 (2) 2
Direction : In questions 16 to 19 three alternatives are (3) 3 (4) 4
alike in a certain way but the rest one is
different. Find out the odd one and write correct
C
A
answer.
16. (1) AEIF (2) CGKH

(3) EILJ (4) GKOL
T
17. (1) XCJP (2) YEKQ 23.

N
(3) ZGLT (4) AHMV
18. (1) 150 (2) 165

A
(3) 200 (4) 250
19. (1) Coal (2) Graphite The word on opposite side of the face having
R
(3) Diamond (4) Gold the word F will be

(1) B (2) C
B
Questions (20 to 21) (3) D (4) E

Direction : Numbers from 1 to 6 are placed on different
faces of the disc. Questions (24 to 27)
VI
Direction : Words in capital letters in Column I are written

in English small letters according to a code
language in Column II. Decode the language
and find out the correct alternative for the given
20. 1 3 5 3 word in each question.
Column I Column II
ONE cdy
The number on opposite side of the face having TWO sgd
the number 3 will be THREE tsqyy
(1) 5 (2) 4 FOUR dztg
(3) 2 (4) 1 FIVE zmfy
SIX rmh
24. NET
(1) dys (2) cys
(3) tcs (4) csd
25. FOX 34. If the following numbers are written in ascending
(1) ydh (2) dhs order, the sum of the digits of middle number
(3) zdh (4) zgl will be
810, 912 , 910 , 809, 781, 673, 573
26. HER (1) 9 (2) 12
(1) lgc (2) qyt (3) 17 (4) 13
(3) lgs (4) glc
35. How many 3s are there in the following figure
27. SHE series which are just preceded by 6 but not
(1) rqy (2) rcy immediately followed by 7?
(3) rsy (4) yet 3237435637463896351837242
86395
Questions (28 to 30) (1) 1 (2) 2
Directions : In each of the following questions a (3) 3 (4) 4
Y
statement is given followed by two conclusion
I and II. 36. Which name will come at 3rd place in a
EM
telephone directory from the following given
28. Statement : Adversity makes a man wise. names ?
Conclusions (1) AMIT (2) AMINA
(I) : The poor are wise (3) ALOK (4) ABHIMAN
(II) : Man learns from bitter experience. 37. If 1st October is Sunday, then 1st November
D
(1) Only conclusion I is true will be
(2) Only conclusion II is true (1) Monday (2) Tuesday
A
(3) Both conclusions I and II are true (3) Wednesday (4) Thursday
(4) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II are
true. 38. Which two months in a year have the same
29. Statement : Fortune favours the brave.

C calendar ?
(1) June, October
A
Conclusions (I) Risk is necessary for success. (2) April, November
(3) April, July
(II) : Cowards die many times before their death.
(4) October, December
(1) Only conclusion I is true
T
(2) Only conclusion II is true 39. If the first day of a leap year is Monday, then
(3) Both conclusion I and II are true what day will be on the last day of that year ?
N
(4) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II are true (1) Wednesday (2) Tuesday
(3) Thursday (4) Sunday
A
30. Statement : Morning walks are good for health. 40. If 14th September, 2013 is Saturday, then what
Conclusions day will be 22nd December, 2014
R
(I) : All healthy people go for morning walks. (1) Sunday (2) Monday
(II) : Evening walks are harmful (3) Tuesday (4) Wednesday
B
(1) Only conclusion I is true Question (41 to 45)

(2) Only conclusion II is true Direction : In questions 41 to 45 there are four figures
(3) Both conclusions I and II are true given. One of these does not correlate with the
VI
(4) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II are true. rest of the figures. Find out that figure.
31. Ramesh is father of Mohan and Shyam is son 41.

of Mohan . What is the relation between
Ramesh and Shyam ?
(1) Son (2) Brother
(3) Grandfather (4) father
32. B is father of C but C is not son of B. What is (1) (2) (3) (4)
the relation of C with B? 42.
(1) Sister (2) Brother
(3) Daughter (4) Nephew
33. If 23 52 = 48, then 43  35 = ?
(1) 78 (2) 98
(3) 96 (4) 69
(1) (2) (3) (4)
43. 47. Problem-Figures
x
o
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)

44.
Answer-Figures
Y
(1) (2) (3) (4)
45.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
EM
48. Problem-Figures
(1) (2) (3) (4)
D
Questions (41 to 45)
A
Direction : In questions 46 to 50 there are two sets of
figures. One set contains problem-figures while (1) (2) (3) (4)
the other has answer-figures. There is a
sequence according to which the problem-
figures are arranged. You have to select one
C Answer-Figures
A
figure from the set of answer-figures which can
be placed in sequence after the set fo problem-
figures. Find out the correct figure.
T
46. Problem-Figures
N
(1) (2) (3) (4)
49. Problem-Figures
A
+ O P + T P O T
R
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Answer-Figures P T T O O + + P
B
(1) (2) (3) (4)

VI
Answer-Figures
P + P T + O O T
(1) (2) (3) (4)
O T O + P T + P
(1) (2) (3) (4)
50. Problem-Figures
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Answer-Figures
Y
(1) (2) (3) (4)
EM
D
A
C
A
T
N
A
R
B
VI
ANSWER KEY
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans 1 4 1 4 3 2 1 2 4 2 3 3 3 1 3
Ques. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans 3 2 2 4 3 3 2 4 2 3 2 1 2 4 4
Ques. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans 3 3 3 3 3 2 3 3 2 2 2 4 1 2 4
Ques. 46 47 48 49 50
Ans 1 3 3 3 3
RAJASTHAN_ NTSE-STAGE-I (YEAR : 2013-14) LANGUAGE
There are 40 questions in this paper. Each 13. This is a public place. You ............ park your
question carries 1 mark. car here.
(1) must not (2) should not
1. Heat ...................... gas.
(3) cannot (4) need not
(1) expands (2) expanded
(3) expand (4) has expanded 14. Your sister does not like apples. You ............
2. We reached the theatre after the film ............ send them.
(1) started (2) starts (1) must not (2) should not
(3) will start (4) had started (3) cannot (4) need not
Y
3. It .......... since yesterday afternoon. 15. You have done your work. You ........ go home.
(1) rained (2) rain (1) will (2) could
EM
(3) rains (4) has been raining (3) may (4) must
4. I .......... to cinema last night. 16. He has three buildings in Jaipur. He ............
(1) go (2) went be a rich man.
(3) am going (4) shall go (1) shall (2) should
D
5. While she .......... the milk boiled over. (3) must (4) can
(1) read (2) has read 17. When I was a young man, I ............. run ten
A
(3) reads (4) was reading miles.
6. I shall wait here untill you ............ ready. (1) should (2) could
(1) would be
(3) are not
(2) are
(4) will be
C
18.
(3) can (4) might
She said to me, “Wait here till I return,“ She

A
7. America ............ by Columbus. ordered me .........
(1) is discovered (1) to wait there till she returned
T
(2) will be discovered (2) that to wait there till I returned

(3) was discovered (3) to wait there till I return
N
(4) is being discovered (4) to wait there till she returns

8. Woollen clothes ............. in winter. 19. She said to me “Are you unwell ?”
A
(1) are worn (2) worn She asked me ............... .

(3) wear (4) have been worn (1) if I am unwell
R
(2) if she was unwell

9. English ............. all over the world.
(3) if was I unwell
(1) speak
B
(2) was spoken (4) if I was unwell

(3) is spoken 20. The postman said to her. “I have a letter for
VI
(4) has been spoken you”.

The postman told her ........... .
10. Smoking .......... here.
(1) that I have a letter for her
(1) is prohibited (2) was prohibited
(2) that she had a letter for her
(3) will be prohibited (4) prohibit
(3) that he has a letter for you
11. The truck .......... at present. (4) that he had a letter for her
(1) will be loaded (2) is being loaded 21. Teacher said to Ravi. “What is your name ?”
(3) is loaded (4) was loading Teacher asked Ravi.........?
(1) what is his name
12. ......... you close the window. Please ?
(2) what his name is
(1) Might (2) should
(3) would (4) May (3) what his name was
(4) what was his name
22. The teacher said to the class. “Do not make a 32. Ten miles ............. not a big journey.
noise.” (1) are (2) is
The teacher told the class .............. . (3) were (4) have
(1) not to made a noise
33. Your car and mine ...... both at the door.
(2) not to make a noise
(1) are (2) is
(3) do not make a noise
(3) was (4) have
(4) did not make a noise
34. The police ......... arrested the thief.
23. I apologize .............. my misbehaviour.
(1) have (2) has
(1) to (2) for
(3) is (4) were
(3) about (4) at
For Question number 35- 36, select the word that
Y
24. Will you go for a walk ............. me ? best expresses the meaning of the given word:
(1) for (2) by
35. Modest
EM
(3) with (4) off
(1) boast (2) show
25. I have complete faith ............ God. (3) humble (4) Impolite
(1) to (2) on
36. Ruinous
(3) at (4) in
D
(1) fruitful (2) successful
26. It is very difficult for her to part .......... her (3) lustrous (4) disastrous
belongings. For Question number 37- 38, select the
A
(1) with (2) from word which means the opposite of the
(3) to (4) off given word :
27. Good citizens always abide ......... the law.

C
37. Vague
(1) indistinct (2) clear
A
(1) with (2) by (3) pleasant (4) profound
(3) of (4) for
38. Transparent
28. Fate smiled ......... him in all his ventures.
T
(1) bright (2) big

(1) over (2) at
(3) colourless (4) opaque
N
(3) with (4) on

For Question number 39- 40, select the word
29. The leaves of the tree ............. in autumn.
meaning of the given phrasal verbs
A
(1) fall (2) falls

(3) fell (4) was fallen 39. Make up for
R
(1) compensate (2) decorate

30. These days the number of books ...........
(3) make someone quiet (4) fill up
increasing in the library.
B
(1) is (2) were 40. Set out

(3) are (4) was (1) put something out (2) start a journey
VI
31. My friends as well as I ............ going to attend (3) execute (4) continue
the camp.
(1) is (2) am
(3) are (4) was
ANSWER KEY
Que s. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans 1 4 4 2 4 2 3 1 3 1 2 3 1 4 3
Que s. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans 3 2 1 4 4 3 2 2 3 4 1 2 4 1 1
Que s. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans 3 2 1 1 3 4 2 4 1 2
RAJASTHAN_ NTSE-STAGE-I (YEAR:2013-14) SAT
1. The velocity-time graph of a body falling from 5. Lenz's law is a consequence of the law of
rest under gravity and rebounding from a solid conservation of
surface is represented by (1) momentum (2) charge
(3) angular momentum (4) energy
6. For hearing distinct echoes, the minimum

distance of the obstacle from the source of
(1) (2) sound must be (Given velocity of sound = 344
t t
O O m/s)
Y
(1) 17.2 m (2) 34.4 m
(3) 172 m (4) 344 m
EM
7. Three equal resistors connected in series
across a source of V voltage together dissipates
(3) (4) 5 W power. If the same resistors are connected
t t
O O in parallel across the same source of voltage
D
V, the power dissipated will be
(1) 20 W (2) 25 W
2. The gravitational force between two objects of
A
(3) 40 W (4) 45 W
mass 1 kg each, separated by a distance of 1
m in vacuum will be
(A) zero
(3) 13.350 × 10–11 N
(2) 6.675 × 10–11N
(4) 3.337 × 10–11 N
C
8. Every hot object emits
(1) infrared rays (2) visible rays
A
(3) X-rays (4) ultraviolet rays
3. The force F is acting on an object of mass m.

9. A bullet of mass 10 g travelling horizontally with

T
The direction of displacement ( r ) and force a velocity of 160 ms –1 strikes a stationary

 wooden block and comes to rest in 0.02 s.
N
( F ) of the object is shown by an arrow to the The distance of penetration of the bullet into
right side. Work done by the force wil be the block will be
A
(1) 1.20 m (2) 1.60 m

r (3) 2.00 m (4) 2.40 m
R
F 10. The correct relation between u,  and r for a

B
lens will be
(1) positive (2) negative
(symbols represent traditional meaning)
(3) zero (4) either positive or
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2u u
negative (1) r = (2) r =
u– 2(u – )
4. The value of current I and voltage V in the given
1 1 1 1
circuit will be (3) r = (4) = +
u r u 
I 11. When a body is immersed in a liquid, the

+
12V V buoyant force that acts on the body will be
–
(1) vertically downwards
(2) vertically upwards
(3) horizontally right side
(1) 2A, 4V (2) 4A, 2V (4) horizontally left side
(3) 1A, 2V (4) 2A, 1V
12. The distance between the objective lens and 20. At room temperature liquid non-metal is
the eye-piece of an astronomical telescope will (1) carbon (2) bromine
be (3) mercury (4) iodine
f0 fe 21. Neutronless neutral atom is

(1) f (2) f (1) H (2) He
e 0
(3) Na (4) K
(3) f0 + fe (4) f0 – fe
22. Displacement reaction is
13. Salt made of non-metallic elements only is
(1) CaO (s) + H2O(l)  Ca(OH)2 (aq)
(1) NaCl (2) NH4Cl
(2) Pb() + CuCl2(aq)  PbCl2(aq) + Cu(s)
(3) AlN (4) MgCl2
(3) MnO2() + 4HCl(l)  MnCl2\(s) + 2H2O(l) +
Y
Cl2(g)
14. By which property are gases and liquids
(4) C6H12O6 + 6O2  6CO2 + H2O
different from solid ?
EM
(1) Volume (2) Mass 23. pH of soda water is
(3) Conductivity (4) Fluidity (1) 7 (2) < 7
(3) > 7 (4) 0
15. The action of cleaning of oily dirt by soap is
24. Three crops that contribute maximum to global
D
based on
(1) solubility in water foodgrain production are
(2) hydrophilic property (1) Wheat, Rice and Maize
A
(3) hydrophobic property (2) Wheat, Rice and Barley
(4) presence of both hydrophilic and (3) Wheat, Maize and Sorghum
hydrophobic groups C
25.
(4) Rice, Maize and Sorghum
Cell organelle 'Bioplast' was given another name
A
16. Adding an alpha particle to nucleu of sodium by Benda, which is
atom, product will be (1) Chloroplast (2) Mitochondria
(1) Na+ (2) Mg2+
T
(3) Ribosome (4) Lysosome

2+
(3) Al (4) Al
26. In plants abscisic acid controls
N
(1) growth in shoot (2) flower formation

17. Benzene has .................. number of covalent
(3) cell division (4) fall of leaf
A
bonds.
(1) 6 (2) 9 27. The source of energy in any star is
(1) Nuclear fission reaction
R
(3) 12 (4) 15
(2) Nuclear fusion reaction
18. False statement for second period elements (3) Solar energy
B
is (4) Fossil fuel

(1) change in number of electrons produces
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ions 28. The use of disposable paper-cups is more

(2) numbers of protons and electrons are equal beneficial over disposable plastic-cups,
in neutral atom because
(3) number of neutrons is less than the number (1) it is cheaper
of protons in atoms (2) it is easily available
(4) change in the number of neutrons in atom (3) it can be reused
produces isotopes (4) its recycling process has no harmful impact
on environment
19. Which metal cannot displace hydrogen from
29. The endosperm of angiosperms is
dijute acids ?
(1) haploid (2) diploid
(1) Cu (2) Mg
(3) triploid (4) polyploid
(3) Zn (4) Na
30. The author of the book 'Systema Naturae' is
(1) Lamarck (2) Darwin
(3) Theophrastus (4) Carolus Linnaeus
31. In which of the following animals joined legs
40. If sin  – cos  = 2 sin (90° – ), then tan  =
are not found ?
(1) Palaemon (2) Scorpion (1) 2 –1 (2) 2
(3) Housefly (4) Leech
(3) 1 – 2 (4) 2 +1
32. Which of the following diseases is not related
41. If a cos  – b sin  = c, then a sin  + b cos =
with sexual transmission ?
(1) Syphilis (2) Gonorrhoea (1)  a 2  b 2  c 2 (2)  a 2  b 2 – c 2
(3) Allergy (4) AIDS
(3)  c 2 – a 2 – b 2 (4) None of these
33. Which of the following enzymes is related with
digestion of protein ? 42. From the top of a 7 m high building, the angle
Y
(1) Lipase (2) Pepsin of elevation of the top of a cable tower is 60°
(3) Sucrase (4) Amylase and the angle of depression of its foot is 45°.
EM
The height of the tower in metre is
34. The structure that connects a bone with (1) 7( 3 – 1) (2) 7 3
muscles is known as
(1) Tendon (2) Cartilage (3) 7 + 3 (4) 7( 3 + 1)
D
(3) Ligament (4) Areolar tissue
43. If the system of equations kx + 3y – (k – 3) = 0,
12 x + ky – k = 0 has infinitely many solutions,
A
35. Cell organelle that allows certain substances
to enter or come out from the cell is then k =
(1) Ribosome (2) Plasma membrane (1) 6 (2) – 6
(3) Centrosome (4) Golgi body
C (3) 0 (4) None of these.
A
36. If x, y, z are positive real numbers and a, b, c 44. The median of first 12 prime numbers is
are rational numbers, then the value of (1) 13 (2) 14
(3) 15 (4) 17.
T
1 1 1
+ + is
1  xb–a  x c –a 1  x a–b  x c –b 1  xb–c  x a–c 45. A die is thrown twice. The probability that 5
N
will not come up either of the time is

(1) – 1 (2) 0
(3) 1 (4) None of these 35 25
A
(1) (2)
36 36
37. If 3 is the least prime factor of number a and 7
R
is the least prime factor of number b, then the 1 11

(3) (4)
least prime factor of a + b is 36 36
B
(1) 2 (2) 3 46. If the diameter of a sphere is decreased by

(3) 5 (4) 10 25%, by what percent does its curved surface
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area decrease?
(1) 43.75% (2) 21.88%
38. If 9, a, b, – 6 are in Arithmetic progression, (3) 50% (4) 25%
then a + b =
(1) 1 (b) 5 47. In figure, A, B, C and D are four point on a
(3) 15 (4) 3 cirlcle. AC and BD intersect at a point E such
that BEC = 125° and ECD = 30°. Then
39. If 2 is a root of the equation x2 + bx + 12 = 0 BAC =
and the equation x2 + bx + q = 0 has equal A D
roots, then q = E
(1) 8 (b) – 8 125° 30°
(3) 16 (4) – 16
B C
(1) 95° (2) 110°

(3) 85° (4) 105°
48. ABC and BDE are two equilateral triangles 55. (1 + tan  + sec ) (1 + cot  – cosec ) is
such that D is the mid-point of BC. Ratio of the equal to
areas of triangles ABC and BDE is (1) 0 (2) 2
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (c) 1 (4) – 1
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
56. The club which was most successful
49. In ABC, AB = 6 3 cm, AC = 12 cm and constituted by th men and women of France,
after the Constitutionof 1791 was
BC = 6 cm. The angle B is
(1) Liberty club (2) Zollverein
(1) 120° (2) 60° (3) Jacobin club (4) Equality club
(3) 90° (4) 45°
57. The great Indians who were influenced by the
Y
50. In figure, ABC is a quadrant of a circle of radius
thoughts of French Revolution were
14 cm and a semicircle is drawn with BC as
(1) Haider Ali & Tipu Sultan
EM
diameter. The area of the shaded region is
(2) Tipu Sultan & Raja Rammohan Roy
B
(3) Lala Lajpat Rai & Tilak
(4) Bahadur Shah Jafar & Laxmibai
D
A C 58. The use of wood was much needed in 1850s
2
(1) 98 cm (2) 154 cm2 to spread the Indian Railway tracks. It was used
A
(3) 56 cm2 (4) None of these (1) in Buildings (2) in Railway wagons
(3) in Furniture (4) in Sleepers
51. The ratio of the volume of a cube to that of a
sphere which exactly fits inside the cube is
(1) 6 :  (2)  : 6
C
59. The shepherds of Himachal Pradesh are called
(1) Gujjar (2) Gaddi
A
(3) Bakarwal (4) Bhotia
(3)  : 12 (4) 12 : 
60. The first Indian community to start playing the

T
52. If  ,  are the zeros of polynomial game of Cricket was

f(x) = x2 – p(x + 1) – c, then ( + 1)( + 1) =
N
(1) Parsee (2) Christian

(1) c – 1 (2) 1 – c (3) Marathi (4) Bengalee.
(3) c (4) 1 + c
A
61. The institution like Indian Parliament that was

53. The area of a triangle is 5 square units. Two of established after the French Revolution in
R
its vertices are (2, 1) and (3 , – 2). The third France was
vertex lies on y = x + 3. The third vertex is (1) Duma (2) Zollverein
B
(3) House of Lords (4) National Assembly

7 3  3 3
(1)  ,  (2)  – , 
2 2  2 2
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62. The founder of 'Hoa Hao' movement in Vietnam

was
 3 13  7 5
(3)  – ,  (4)  ,  (1) Confucius (2) Laotse
 2 2  2 2 (3) Huynh Pho So (4) Liang Qichao
54. In figure, if QT  PR, TQR = 40° and SPR 63. In which Conference were international
= 30°, then y is Monetary Fund and World Bank established ?
P (1) Brussels (2) Bretton Woods
30° T (3) Vienna (4) Washington
90°
64. Bombay was a group of how many islands in

40° y
R
17th Century ?
Q S
(1) Seven (2) Nine
(1) 70° (2) 110°
(3) Eleven (4) Five
(3) 90° (4) 80°
65. In which text did Jyotiba Phule write about the 72. Where is the national headquarters of Software
injustices of Caste system ? Technology Parks of India ?
(1) Amar Jivan (2) Gulamgiri (1) Bengaluru (2) Chennai
(3) Indirabad (4) Indralekha. (3) New Delhi (4) Pune.
66. Hill station located in Palani Hills is 73. National Highway -7 passes through how many
(1) Panchmarhi (2) Kodaikanal states of India ?
(3) udagamandalam (4) Panchgani (1) 6 (2) 5
(3) 8 (4) 7
67. The correct pair amongst the following is
(1) Chamba – River Chenab
74. Consider the following statements and choose
(2) Kanchipuram – River Parvati
the correct option
Y
(3) Nanded – River Godavari
Statement I : Humus content is less in Laterite
(4) Ujjain – River Son
EM
soils.
68. Match the following column : Statement II : Red laterite soils are suitable for
Column – I Column – II corps of cashewnut.
(A) Uttarakhand(i) Sariska Wildlife Sanctuary Statement III : Laterite soils are found in Kerala
(B) Asam (ii) Periyar Tiger Reserve and Tamil Nadu.
D
(C) Rajasthan (iii) Manas Tiger Reserve (1) Statement I and Statement II are true, but
(D) Kerala (iv) Corbett National Park Statement III is false
A
ABCD ABCD (2) Statement II and Statement III are true, but
(1) iii iv ii i (2) iv ii i iii Statement I is false
(3) iii i iv ii (4) iv iii i ii C (3) Statement I and Statement III are true, but
Statement II is false
A
69. By using code, arrange the following cities of
India from south to north : (4) All the three statements are true.
(A) Amritsar (B) Anantapur
T
(C) Alwar (D) Amaravati 75. According to Census 2011, the state having
highest density of population is
(1) B, C, D, A (2) B, D, C, A
N
(1) Kerala (2) West Bengal

(3) D, C, B, A (4) D, B, A, C
(3) Uttar Pradesh (4) Bihar
A
70. 'Mango showers' are

(1) Western disturbances in Punjab and 76. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct
answer :
R
Himachal Pradesh
(2) Rainfall by north-east trade winds in coastal List – I
(A) Division of powers among organs of
B
Tamil Nadu
(3) Pre monsoon rains in Kerala and Karnataka government
(4) Cloud burst in Khasi hills. (B) Division of powers between Centre and
VI
States
71. Consider the following statements : (C) Sharing of powers among different social
Assertion (A) : Manganese is used in the groups
manufacturing of steel. (D) Sharing of powers between two or more
Reason (R) : Nearly 10 kilogram of manganese than two parties
is needed to make one tonne of steel. List – II
Select the correct option from the given I. Community goverment
alternatives. II. Coalition government
(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false III. Separation of powers
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the IV. Federal government
correct explanation of (A) A B C D A B C D
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the (1) I II III IV (2) III IV I II
correct explanation of (A) (3) II III IV I (4) IV III II I
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
77. The organ of government which makes laws is 85. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct
(1) Legislature (2) Executive answer :
(3) Judiciary (4) Press. List –I
(A) Organisation of employees
1
78. The institution is which rd reservation for (B) Long term movement
3
(C) Support to common or general interest
women has been constitutionally given, is (D) Political party
(1) Lok Sabha List –II
(2) State Legislature I. Narmada Bachao Andolan
(3) Panchayati Raj institution II. Asom Gana Parishad
(4) Judiciary III. FEDECOR
IV. BAMCEF.
Y
79. Which right of the Constitution of India negates ABCD ABCD
the bonded labour and child labour ?
EM
(1) III IV II I (2) I II IV III
(1) Right to equality
(3) IV I III II (4) II III I IV
(2) Right to liberty
(3) Right to religious freedom 86. Which work of the following is an economic
(4) Right against exploitation. activity ?
D
(1) Teacher teaches his son
80. How many seats are reserved for Scheduled
(2) Service rendered by a wife to her sick
Castes in the Lok Sabha ?
A
husband
(1) 84 (2) 47
(3) Service to a patient rendered by a nurse
(3) 32 (4) 22
81. 'Maharashtrawadi Gomantak party' is related

to which state ?
C87.
(4) Growing vegetables in kitchen garden.
People deposit money in the bank because

A
(1) Maharashtra (2) Goa (A) Get interest
(3) Kerala (4) Andhra Pradesh. (B) Money remains secured
T
(C) Money is used in country's development

82. Who was the editor of 'Young India' magazine? (D) Value of money increases
N
(1) Jawaharlal Nehru (1) A and B (2) B and C

(2) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(3) A, B and C (4) A, B, C and D
(3) Mahatma Gandhi
A
(4) Bal Gangadhar Tilak 88. Which of the following statements are true for
National Rural Employment Guarantee Act ?
R
83. Which country holds 'Veto Power' in United

(A) Right to work with guarantee of job
Nations ?
(B) 100 days employment in a year
B
(1) Germany (2) Japan

(C) Implemented in all theregions of the country
(3) Italy (4) France.
(D) Provision of unemployment allowances
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84. Which state was created on the basis of (1) A, B and C (2) B, C and D
culture, geography and ethnicity ? (3) A, B and D (4) A, B, C and D.
(1) Uttarakhand (2) Punjab
(3) Gujarat (4) Maharashtra. 89. Since five years Lalita's father is working in
Government school as a teacher. To purchase
goods from a government ration shop which of
the following cards should he possess ?
(1) BPL card (2) APL card
(3) Aadhar card (4) Antyodaya card.
90. Which of the following statements are true for
mid-day meal scheme ?
(A) Increase in attendance of children in school
(B) Improvement in nutrition status of the
children
(C) Improvement in examination results of the
children
(D) Increase thein terest towards games in the
children.
(1) A and B (2) B and C
(3) A and D (4) C and D
Y
EM
D
A
C
A
T
N
A
R
B
VI
ANSWER KEY
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans 3 2 3 1 4 1 4 1 2 1 2 3 2 4 4
Ques. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans 4 4 3 1 2 1 2 2 1 2 4 2 4 3 4
Ques. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans 4 3 2 1 2 3 1 4 3 4 2 4 1 3 2
Ques. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans 1 1 3 3 1 1 2 2 4 2 3 2 4 2 1
Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans 4 3 2 1 2 2 3 4 2 3 2 3 1 4 4
Ques. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans 2 1 3 4 1 2 3 4 1 3 3 1 3 2 1
RAJASTHAN_ NTSE-STAGE-I (YEAR : 2014-15) MAT
Direction : In each of the questions 1 to 4 some of
the letters are missing in the given series with one 10. Statements (i) Some chalks are charis.
term missing shown by question mark (?). This term (ii) Some chairs are tables.
is one or the alternatives among the four gropus Conclusions (i) Some chalks are tables
of letters given under it. Find the right alternative. (ii) Some tables are chalks
(1) Only conculusion I is true
1. A, F ,J , M, ? (2) Only conculusion II is true
(1) O (2) N (3) Both conculusion I & II are true
(3) Q (4) P (4) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
2. BD, HJ, NP, ?, ZB
11. Statements :
Y
(1) QS (2) TV
(i) Without rains the crops will not be good
(3) YC (4) TU (ii) The crops were good
EM
3. FOX, IQV, LST, OUR ? Conclusions :
(1) RPW (2) RWP (I) There were rains
(3) QVS (4) SXU (II) Crops were good due to good fertilizers
(1) Only conculusion I is true
4. qpo, nml, ? (2) Only conculusion II is true
(1) ghf (2) ijk (3) Both conculusion I & II are true
D
(3) kji (4) hgi (4) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
A
Direction : In each of the question 5 to 8 some of the 12. Which of the following Venn diagrams correctly
numbers are missing in the given with one term missing represnts persons, trees and environment ?
shown by question mark (?). This term is one of the
alternatives among the numbers given under it. Find
the right alternative.
C
A
5. 65, 48, 64, 49, 63, ? (1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) 53 (2) 52
(3) 51 (4) 50 13. Which of the following Venn diagrams correctly
T
represnts Jaipur, Rajasthan and India ?

6. 7, 23 , ? , 79, 119
N
(1) 47 (2) 49
(3) 44 (4) 46
A
7. 16, 8 ,12 , ?, 105

(1) 6 (2) 30 (1) (2) (3) (4)
(3) 24 (4) 35
R
14. In the above diagram, how many literates are

8. 748, 737 ,716 , 685, 644 ? in employment ?
B
(1) 634 (2) 643

Literate
(3) 503 (4) 593 2
Rural
VI
Directions : (9 to 11) In each of the questions below 3 4 6 7

aree given two statements and two conclusions 5 1
8 Employment
numbered I and II. You have to take the given two
statements to be true and then decide which of the (1) 5 (2) 11
given conclusions logically follows from the two given (3) 10 (4) 6
statements.
15. In the above diagram the number of men who
9. Statements (i) All rats are cats. are married and in service is :
(ii) All cats are dogs.
Married
Conclusions (i) All rats are dogs. 2 3 4
(ii) some cats ae rats. 6
(1) Only conculusion I is true 7 8
(2) Only conculusion II is true
5
(3) Both conculusion I & II are true Men
(4) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
(1) 2 (2) 6
(3) 9 (4) 17
Direction : In questions 16 to19 three alternaitves are 23. Which alternative is correct in the folowing
alike in a certain way but the rest one is figurs of dice ?
different. Find out the odd one and write correct
answer.
6
16. (1) ACEGF (2) FHJLK
(3) KMOQP (4) UWYZA 1 5
2
17. (1) 125 (2)110
(3) 300 (4) 250 3 4
18. (1) 28,4 (2) 35,5

(3) 63,7 (4) 56, 8 6 6
3 4
19. (1) Cement (2) Brick (a) 2 (b) 5
Y
(3) sand (4) colour
EM
20. In the given dice the colour of opposite side of 6 4
the face having blue colour will be : 3 1
(c) 2 (d) 5
Blue Red
Yell
Gr e
(1) Only A (2) Only B
ow
en
Red Yellow
D
(3) Both (A) & (C) (4) A, B, C and D
(1) Red (2) Green 24. If in a coded language the word "East" is written
A
(3) Yellow (4) Blue as "Fast" and "BAT" is written as "CAT", then
in the same coded language "RAT" will be
21. Which alternative is correct in the given written as :
figures of dice ?
B A B
C (1) TAP
(3) PAT
(2) SAT
(4) QAT
A
C E D 25. If P =16, NC = 17 and AEO = 21, then what is
A D F the value of NEHLA ?
(1) 41 (2) 40
T
(i) (ii) (iii) (3) 48 (4) 46

(1) E is opposite of A
N
(2) C is opposite of E 26. In a coded language "Red colour pen = 276".

(3) C is opposite of D "Geen colour flower = 789" an "White colour
pen = 247". Then code for white is :
A
(4) F is not oppostie of A

(1) 2 (2) 5
Direction (22 & 23) : Answer on the basis of given (3) 4 (4) 7
R
figure that the different faces are folded in the

27. In a coded language 'NUMBER is written as
from of cube.
'PSOZGP'. Then in the same coded language
B
'BLOOD' will be written as ?

R
(1) ZJMMB (2) ZNMQB
G P B W (3) DJQMF (4) DNQQF
VI
Y Directions : (28 to 30) In each of the following questions

a statement is given followed by two
22. Which figure of cube is not correctly formed conclusions I and II. Read the conclusion and
in the following figure ? then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the two given
statements.
Y W P P 28. Statements : All students are boys
P R Y B No boy is dull
G B B W
Conclusions
(i) : There is no girl student in the class
(1) (2) (3) (4) (ii) : No student is dull
(2) Only conclusion
(3) Both conclusions I and II are true
29. Statements : All poets are intelligent 39. If 14 th july of 1995 was Friday, then what was
: All singers are intelligent the day on 30th March of 1994 ?
Conclusions : (1) Sunday (2) Monday
(I) All singers are poet (3) Tuesday (4) Wednesday
(II) : Some intelligent persons are not signers
(1) Only conclusion I is true 40. If 4 day before today it was Monday, what day
(2) Only conclusion will it fall on after 3 days ?
(3) Both conclusions I and II are true (1) Sunday (2) Monday
(4) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true (3) Tuesday (4) Wednesday
30. Statements : A car is required on rent – an Direction : (41 to 45) In questions 41 to 45 there are
advertisuement four figures given. One of these does not
Conclusions correlate with the rest of the figures. Find
(i) : All types of vehicles are available on rent
Y
out that odd figrue.
(ii) : People will respond to the advertisement
EM
41.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
31. A and B are brothers, C and D are sisters. The
son of A is brother of D. Then the relation of B
D
with C is :
(1) Husband (2) Brother
A
(3) Uncle (4) Nephew 42.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
32. Ram is the brother of Deepak, Sunita is sister
of Rajesh, Deepak is the son of Sunita. How is
Ram related to Sunita. How is Ram releated
to Sunita ?
C
A
(1) Son (2) Brother 43.
(3) Nephew (4) Father (1) (2) (3) (4)
T
33. If 79  86 = 6897, then the value of 53  47 =

(1) 5347 (2) 7435
N
44.
(3) 2491 (4) 3574
34. If the numbers 719, 609, 689, 834, 937, 980, (1) (2) (3) (4)
A
600, 798, 610 are arranged in ascending order,

then the multiplicaiton of difits of the mid
45.
R
number is:
(1) 96 (2) 9
(3) 17 (4) 63 (1) (2) (3) (4)
B
Direction : (46 & 47) In questions 46 & 47 there are

35. If P > Q, Q > R and R > S, then P ? S.
(1) P > S (2) P = S two sets of figures. One set contains problem-
VI
(3) P < S (4) P  S figures while the other has answer-figure. There
isa sequence according to which the problem-
36. Urmila has 23rd rank from the right and15th figures are arranged. You have to select one
rank from the left. Then, how many persons
are there in the row ? figure problem-figures. Find the out the corect
(1) 37 (2) 38 figure.
(3) 9 (4) 8 46. Problem– figures
37. If 4th day of any month was Sunday, what will
be the day on 27th day of the same month ?
(1) Monday (2) Tuesday
(3) Wednesday (4) Saturday Answer – figures
38. If 3rd January, 2004 was Monday, what will be
the day on 5th April, 2004 ?
(1) Wednesday (2) Monday
(3) Sunday (4) Tuesday (1) (2) (3) (4)
47. Problem– figures 49. In the following question. three figures showing
a sequence of folding a paper are given. Which
could resemble the figure when the third figure
= = is unfolded ?
= = = Problem– figures Answer – figures
Answer – figures
= = = =
(1) (2) (3) (4)
= 50. Choose the correct mirror image of the given
(1) (2) (3) (4) problem figure form given four aiternatives.
48. How many triangles are present in the following
Y
figure ?
EM
A
E D
D
(1) (2) (3) (4)
F
A
B C
(1) 14 (2) 10
(3) 12 (4) 09 C
A
T
N
A
R
B
VI
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 2 2 3 4 1 2 4 3 4 1 1 3 3 2
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 4 1 3 4 2 3 4 2 2 2 3 3 3 4 2
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 3 1 2 4 1 1 2 1 4 2 4 2 1 4 4
Que. 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. 2 4 3 3 4
RAJASTHAN_ NTSE-STAGE-I (YEAR:2014-15) LANGUAGE
There are 40 questions in this paper. Each 12. Rekha has been learning swimming for years.
question carries 1 mark. She.......... swim very well now.
(1) could (2) can
1. Wait until I tell this story. It .............your hair
(3) might (4) have to.
stand on end.
13. According to the school rules, every
(1) is making (2) will make
student........... attend the morning assembly.
(3) made (4) are making.
(1) might (2) must
2. Rajveer wants to work in France so he (3) can (4) would.
.............French these days. 14. ......you please tell me the way to the airport ?
Y
(1) learn (2) are learning (1) Might (2) Shall
(3) is learning (4) learnt (3) Must (4) Would.
EM
3. Reckless driving ..........many accidents. 15. " .........I get you a chair?" "Yes, please."
(1) causes (2) cause (1) Shall (2) Have to
(3) are causing (4) have caused. (3) Had to (4) Might.
4. When the burglar broke into the house all the 16. I have a lot of new dresses. You .........buy any
D
members of the family........the television. for me.
(1) watched (2) has watched (1) might not (2) may
(3) need not (4) could not.
A
(3) was watching (4) were watching.
17. The kings were very rich and ........lead a life of
5. Everything is going on well. The Students'
luxury.
Union............ any problem so far.
(1) has not presented (2) does not present
C (1) can
(3) will
(2) may
(4) could.
A
(3) have not presented (4) do not present.
18. Saroj said to me, "I have no time for you."
6. William ..........many great poems on nature. Saroj told me that
(1) write (2) are writing (1) I have no time for her
T
(3) wrote (4) have written. (2) she had no time for her
N
7. No vehicles .................... to park here. (3) I have no time for her

(1) is allowed (2) has been allowed (4) she had no time for me.
19. Mohit said to Asha, "Why did you insult my
A
(3) is being allowed (4) are allowed.

brother ?"
8. A diary............ to Mary for her thirteenth Mohit asked Asha
R
birthday last month. (1) why he had insulted her brother

(1) is given (2) was given (2) why she had insulted his brother
B
(3) have been given (4) will be given. (3) why he has insulted her brother
9. The names of the merit holders............ next (4) why she has insulted his brother.
VI
week. 20. Ashok said to Poonam, "Do you know how to

(1) will be announced operate a computer?"
(2) is announced Ashok asked Poonam if
(3) have been announced (1) she knew how to operate a computer
(4) was announced. (2) he knew how to operate a computer
(3) she had known how to operate a computer
10. The pressure of steam in the engine ..........by
(4) he had known how to operate a computer.
this red button.
21. Rajni said to her brother, "Don't write in my
(1) have been controlled (2) are controlled
notebooks."
(3) is controlled (4) were controlled.
Rajni forbade her brother
11. The room looks tidy. It......... just now. (1) not to write in his notebooks
(1) has been cleaned (2) have been cleaned (2) not to write in her notebooks
(3) are cleaned (4) will be cleaned. (3) to write in his notebooks
(4) to write in her notebooks.
22. The teacher said to the boys, "Work hard if 32. Either Hari or I .............at mistake today.
you want to get success." (1) am (2) is
The teacher told the boys (3) are (4) were.
(1) to work hard if he want to get success
33. Five years .........a long period to repay the loan.
(2) to work hard if they wanted to get success
(1) are (2) were
(3) to work hard if they want to get success
(3) has (4) is
(4) to work hard if he wanted to get success.
34. Both a book and a computer ..........our good
23. Valli was a small girl but she was able to take
friends.
care ........herself.
(1) IS (2) are
(1) in (2) on
(3) has (4) have.
(3) of (4) to.
Y
24. Which company do you work ........? For Question Nos. 35 - 36 select the word
(1) for (2) after that best expresses the meaning of the
EM
(3) of (4) from. given word :
35. Haughtily
25. The poet was sitting in his house all....... (1) confidently (2) proudly
himself. (3) lovingly (4) angrily
(1) between (2) by
D
(3) to (4) of. 36. Hostile
(1) unfriendly (2) politcly
26. Her face was bright .................... happiness.
A
(2) friendly (4) kindly.
(1) to (2) about
(3) for (4) with For Question Nos. 37 - 38 select the word
27. The Star Club is superior .................... the

Golden Club in cricket
C which means the opposite to the given
word:
A
37. Lamentation
(1) among (2) at
(1) sorrow (2) joy
(3) to (4) about.
(3) wonder (4) shame
T
28. He pushed his way _______ the crowd to the

38. Valour
door.
N
(1) misery (2) suffering

(1) on (2) through
(3) pain (4) cowardice
(3) about (4) under
A
29. When a group of boys........ sitting under a tree For Question Nos. 39 - 40 select the
some monkeys came there. meaning of the given phrasal verbs:
R
(1) are (2) were 39. Look for

(3) was (4) is (1) in search of (2) to remember
B
(3) to plan for future (4) to show a low

30. Not only my neighbour but all the members of opinion.
his family........ honest.
VI
(1) is (B) are 40. Put off

(3) have (4) was. (1) to decline (2) to postpone
31. Early to bed and early to rise ..............a man (3) to neglect (4) to refuse
healthy, wealthy and wise.
(1) make (2) makes
(3) were making (4) are making.
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 3 1 4 1 3 4 2 1 3 1 2 2 4 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 3 4 4 2 1 4 2 3 1 2 4 3 2 3 2
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 2 1 4 2 2 1 2 4 1 2
RAJASTHAN_ NTSE-STAGE-I (YEAR:2014-15) SAT
1. A person takes time t to go once around a 8. The value of equivalent resistance between the
circular path of diameter 2R. The speed () of point A and B in the given circuit, will be
this person would be R R
A
t 2R
(1) (2)
2R t
R R
R 2
(3) (4) 2R.t
t B
R R
2. A body of mass 2 kg is moving on a smooth
Y
floor in straight line with a uniform velocity of 4R
(1) 6 R (2)
10 m/s. Resultant force acting on the body is 11
EM
(1) 20 N (2) 10 N 11R R
(3) (4) .
(3) 2 N (4) zero 4 6
9. The far point of a myopic person is 75 cm in
3. The S.I. unit of pressure is front of the eye. The nature and power of the
(1) N. m2 (2) N/m2 lens rquired to correct the problem, will be
D
(3) m2/N (4) N/m. (1) convex lens, – 1.33 D
(2) concave lens, – 1.33 D
A
4. The frequency of a source of sound is 50 Hz. (3) concave lens, + 1.33 D
How many times does it vibrate in one minute ? (4) convex lens, + 1.33 D.
(1) 50
(3) 3000
(2) 300
(4) 30000.
C
10. An electron enters in a magnetic field at right
angle to it as shown in figure. The direction of
force acting on the electron will be
A
5. A person of mass 50 kg runs up to staircase of
40 steps in 6 sec. If the height of each step is
15 cm, then his power will be (If g = 10 m/s2) Magnetic field
T
(1) 300 W (2) 500 W

N
(3) 600 W (4) 1000 W

Electron
6. The focal length of a concave mirror in air is f.
A
(1) to the left (2) to the right

 4 (3) out of the page (4) into the page
If it is immersed in water  n   , then the
 3
R
11. When 1 J of work is done to move a charge of

focal length will be 1 C from one point to another point then the
potential difference between two points in a
B
4
(1) f (2) f given circuit will be
3
(1) 1 V (2) 4V
VI
(3) 8 V (4) zero.

3
(3) f (4) 4f.
4 12. A certain household has consumed 200 units
7. A student was asked to draw a ray diagram for of energy during a month. Its value in joules
will be
formation of image by a convex lens for the
(1) 3.6 × 1010 (2) 7.2 × 1010
following positions of the object : (3) 3.6 × 10 8
(4) 7.2 × 108
(A) between F and 2F
(B) at F 13. On additon of which metal the blue coloured
copper sulphate solution turns into colourless
(C) at 2F
solution ?
(D) between F and optical centre (1) Ag (2) Hg
The position for which virtual image can be (3) Zn (4) Au
formed among these is
14. IUPAC name of the first member of homologous
(1) B (2) A series of ketones is
(3) C (4) D. (1) Ethanone (2) Propanol
(3) Methanone (4) Propanone
15. The nature of solution when sodium carbonate 25. The hormone present in higher concentration
is dissolved in water will be in fruits and seeds is
(1) acidic (2) basic (1) Auxin (2) Gibberellin
(3) neutral (4) amphoteric (3) Cytokinin (4) Ethylene
16. An element A belongs to third period and 26. The substance essential for photosynthesis is
second group of periodic table. The number of (1) glucose (2) oxygen
(3) nitrogen (4) water
valence electron / electrons of element A is
(1) one (2) two 27. In plants the cells necessary for exchange of
(3) three (4) four gases from atmosphere are
(1) subsidiary cells
17. The chemical reaction HNO3 + KOH  KNO3 (2) bark cells
+ H2O is an example of (3) guard cells
Y
(1) neutralization (4) phloem parenchyma cells
(2) double displacement
EM
28. The group of amphibian plants is
(3) neutralization and double displacement (1) Funaria, Marchantia
(4) combination (2) Marsilia, Horse-tail
(3) Pinus, Cycas
18. pH of a solution is zero. The nature of this
(4) Typha, Hydrilla.
solution is
D
(1) acidic (2) basic 29. The human made synthetic chemical used in
(3) neutral (4) amphoteric refrigerator is
A
(1) LPG (2) CFC
19. The difference in number of crystalline water (3) CH4 (4) PVC.
molecules in a molecule of gypsum and a
molecule of plaster of Paris is
C 30. The example of an egg laying mammal is
(1) Bat (2) Whale
A
5 (3) Echidna (4) Kangaroo
(1) (2) 2
2
31. Which of the following follows a general
principle of fooling the immune system by
T
1 3
(3) (4) putting particular infection into the body ?
2 2
(1) AIDS (2) Vaccination
N
20. An alkyne has 4 numbers of hydrogen atoms. (3) Antibiotic (4) Antiseptic
What will be the number of carbon atoms in it?
A
32. Skeletal muscles are

(1) Two (2) Three
(1) striated and voluntary
(3) Four (4) Five (2) unstriated and voluntary
R
21. Number of molecules in 14 g of carbon (3) striated and involuntary

(4) unstriated and involuntary
monoxide is
B
(1) 12.044 × 1023 (2) 6.022 × 1023 33. Sphygmomanometer measures

(3) 3.011 × 1023
(4) 1.5050 × 10 23 (1) wall pressure (2) blood pressure
VI
(3) diffusion pressure (4) air pressure

22. The boiling point of a gas is –80°C. This
34. Knightia is a fossil of
temperature is equivalent to
(1) tree trunk (2) invertebrate
(1) –193 K (2) 193 K (3) fish (4) dinosaur skull
(3) 353 K (4) – 353 K
35. The method of mechanical barrier to avoid
23. Which of the following solutions does not show pregnancy is
Tyndall effect ? (1) condoms (2) contraceptive pills
(1) Milk (2) Starch solution (3) surgical methods (4) abortion
(3) Ink (4) Sugar solution 1 1 1
 xb  bc  x c  ca  xa  ab
24. The cell organelle storing substances like 36. The value of  c  . 
  xa

 .  b 
 is
starch, oil and proteins is x    x 
(1) Vacuole (2) Lysosome equal to
(3) Plastid (4) Golgi body (1) 1 (2) – 1
(3) 0 (4) abc.
37. The HCF of any two prime numbers a and b, is 47. The lengths of two parallel chords of a circle
(1) a (2) ab are 6 cm and 8 cm. If the smaller chord is at
(3) b (4) 1 distance 4 cm from the center, then the distance
of the other chord from the center is
38. The total two-digit numbers which are divisible (1) 5 cm (2) 4 cm
by 5, are (3) 3 cm (4) 2 cm
(1) 17 (2) 18
(2) 19 (4) 20. 48. In the figure given below, ABC is an equilateral
39. 2
If the roots of the equation 2x + ax + b = 0 are triangle. D, E, F, G, H and I are the trisector
reciprocals to each other, then the value of b is points of the sides as shown. If the side of the
(1) 1 (2) – 2 triangle ABC is 6 cm, then the area of the
(3) 2 (4) 1 regular hexagon DEFGHI is
Y
40. If sin (A + B) = cos (A – B), then the value of A
(A + B) is
H G
EM
 
(1) (2)
4 2 I F
3 
(3) (4)
4 8 B D E C
D
41. If sin  + sin2  = 1, then the value of cos2  + (1) 3 3 cm2 (2) 4 3 cm2
cos4 is
A
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 5 3 cm2 (4) 6 3 cm2
(3) 1 (4) 0
49. In the given figure, DBC = 22° and DCB =
42. The angle of elevation of the top of a building
from the foot of tower is 30° and the angle of
elevation of the top of the tower from the foot of
C 78° then BAC is equal to
A D
A
the building is 60°. It the tower is 30 m high,
then the height of the building is
(1) 30 m (2) 20 m 78°
T
(3) 15 m (4) 10 m 22°

B C
N
43. If the system of equations 3x + y = 1, (2k – 1)x

+ (k – 1)y, = (2k + 1), has no solution, then the (1) 90° (2) 80°
value of k is
A
(3) 78° (4) 22°

(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) – 2 (4) 1. 50. In the given figure, ABC is an equilateral
R
44. The mean of the first ten even natural numbers triangle whose side is 2 3 cm. A circle is
is drawn which passes through the midpoints D,
B
(1) 10 (2) 11 E and F of its sides. The area of the shaded

(3) 12 (4) 13 region is
VI
45. A die is thrown twice. The probability of the

sum being odd, is
1 1
(1) (2)
2 3
1 1
(3) (4)
4 6
46. If the heights and radii of a cone and a
hemisphere are same then the ratio of their
volumes is
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 3
(1)
1
4
4 – 3 3 cm 2  (2)
1
4
 
2 – 3 cm 2
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 1
(3)
1
4
 – 3 3 cm 2 (4)
1
4
 
3 – 3 cm 2
51. If a cylinder of radius 3 cm and height of 10 cm 59. Nazi youth group for children below 14 years
is melted and recast into the shapes of small of age was
spheres of diameter 1 cm, then the number of (1) Strom Troopers (2) Gestapo
spheres so formed is (3) Jungvolk (4) Ghettoes
(1) 135 (2) 270
(3) 540 (4) 1080 60. 'Plant more wheat, wheat will win the war'. The
statement is of
52. The graph of y = p(x) is given below. The number (1) President Wilson
of zeroes of polynomial p(x), is (2) Churchill
(3) Tzar Nicholas II
Y (4) Franklin D. Roosevelt
61. The tactful diplomatic alliance between

Sardinia-Piedmont and France was engineered
Y
X' X by
(1) Mazzini (2) Cavour
EM
(3) Garibaldi (4) Victor Emmanuel
Y'
62. The film 'Raja Harishchandra' (1913) was made
(1) 3 (2) 2
by
(3) 1 (4) 0
(1) Gulzar
D
53. The centre of a circle passing through the points (2) Basu Bhattacharya
(7, - 5), (3, - 7) and (3, 3) is (3) Dada Saheb Phalke
(1) (5, -6) (2) (5, -1) (4) C. Ramchandran
A
(3) (3, 2) (4) 3, -2)
63. Which novel is known as the first modern novel
In the given figure, ODC ~ OBA, BOC =
54.
115° and CDO = 80°. Then OAB is equal to
C of Malayalam ?
(1) Henrietta Temple
(3) Chandrakanta
(2) Pariksha Guru
(4) Indulekha
A
D C
80° 64. In Trinidad the annual Muharram procession is
known as
T
O 115° (1) Karvala (2) Hosay

(3) Hassan (4) Haidos.
N
80° 65. The proposal of 'Non-cooperation Movement'

A B was passed by Congress in the session held
A
at
(1) 80° (2) 35°
(1) Nagpur (2) Kanpur
(3) 45° (4) 65°
R
(3) Amritsar (4) Lucknow

55. tan 43° tan 45° tan 47° is equal to
66. In India Tropic of cancer passes through the
B
1 state of
(1) 3 (2)
3 (1) Bihar (2) Orissa
VI
(3) 1 (4) 2. (3) Jharkhand (4) Uttar Pradesh
56. The writer of 'The Social Contract' is 67. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct
(1) Rousseau (2) Montesquieu answer :
(3) Tilak (4) Mirabeau. List-I List-II
(A) Mt. Everest (i) 8598
57. Napoleon Bonaparte was defeated at Waterloo
in (B) Kanchenjunga (ii) 8481
(C) Makalu (iii) 8848
(1) 1518a (2) 1815
(D) Dhaulagiri (iv) 8172
(3) 1915a (4) 1819 A B C D
58. The world's biggest stock exchange 'Wall Street (1) iii ii iv i
Exchange' is located in (2) ii i iii iv
(1) France (2) China (3) i iii i ii
(3) U.S.A. (4) Japan (4) iii i ii iv
68. Which of the following is not tributary of Ganga? 79. In the context of assessing democracy which
(1) Yamuna (2) Satluj among the following is not according to
(3) Ghaghara (4) Kosi. democratic system ?
(1) Free and fair elections
69. In India total forest area as per Forest Report, (2) Dignity of the individual
2011 is (3) Majority rule
(1) 21.05% (2) 20.06% (4) Equal treatment before law.
(3) 22.07% (4) 19.80% 80. When did the Constitution of India come into
effect ?
70. Which state in India has Kaziranga National
(1) 9th November, 1946
Park ? (2) 15th August, 1947
(1) Bihar (2) West Bengal (3) 26th November, 1949
(3) Jharkhand (4) Assam (4) 26th January, 1950
Y
71. Which type of resource is solar energy ?
81. What is the period of Indian Lok Sabha ?
(1) Replenishable (2) Human-made
(1) 3 years (2) 5 years
EM
(3) Biotic (4) Non-recyclable
(3) 6 years (4) 4 years
72. Hirakud Dam is situated on the river
(1) Godavari (2) Tapi 82. Who is the highest formal authority of India ?
(3) Mahanadi (4) Yamuna (1) President (2) Prime Minister
(3) Governor (4) Chief Minister
D
73. Non-food crop is
(1) Wheat (2) Rice
83. How many seats are reserved for Scheduled
(3) Cotton (4) Bajra
A
Tribes in the Lok Sabha ?
74. Which of the following is a non-ferrous mineral? (1) 84 (2) 41
(1) Bauxite (2) Manganese (3) 32 (4) 47
75.
(3) Nickel
Seaport of India is
(4) Cobalt C
84. Which of the following rights is reserved under
A
(1) Delhi (2) Hyderabad the Constitution of India ?
(3) Vishakhapatnam (4) Amritsar (1) Right to work
(2) Right to adequate livehood
T
76. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (3) Right to protect one's culture
answer :
(4) Right to privacy
List -I List - II
N
(A) Union of India (i) Prime Minister

85. What is the literacy rate of women in India ?
(B) State (ii) Sarpanch
A
(C) Municipal (iii) Governor (1) 54% (2) 76%

(D) Gram Panchayat (iv) Mayor (3) 36% (4) 60%
A B C D
R
(1) iv i ii iii 86. Working capital is

(2) ii iii iv i (1) Computer (2) Generator
B
(3) i iii iv ii (3) Building (4) Raw material

(4) iii iv i ii
87. Example of barter exchange is
VI
77. The Government body which implements law (1) Purchasing wheat with money
is (2) Purchasing fruits with money
(1) Legislature (2) Judiciary (3) purchasing milk with money
(3) Executive (4) Press (4) purchasing sugar with wheat
78. Who among the following is the founder of the 88. Consumer Protection Act was enacted in India
Bahujan Samaj Party ? in
(1) Kanshiram (2) Sahu Maharaj
(1) 1986 (2) 1982
(3) B. R. Ambedkar (4) Jyotiba Phule.
(3) 1984 (4) 1988
89. Suitable measure to compare economic 90. Private sector's major objective is to
development of two countries is (1) provide benefits to public
(1) Gross Domestic Product (2) provide benefits to government
(2) Gross National Product (3) earn profits
(3) Individual income (4) serve the people.
(4) Per capita income
Y
EM
D
A
C
A
T
N
A
R
B
VI
ANSWER KEY
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 4 2 3 2 1 4 3 2 4 1 4 3 4 2
Ques. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 3 1 4 2 3 2 4 3 3 4 3 1 2 3
Ques. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 2 1 2 3 1 1 4 2 3 1 3 4 1 2 1
Ques. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 1 3 4 2 1 3 1 4 2 3 1 2 3 3 1
Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 2 3 4 2 1 3 4 2 3 4 1 3 3 1 3
Ques. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. 3 3 1 3 4 2 1 4 3 1 4 4 1 4 3
RAJASTHAN_ NTSE-STAGE-I (YEAR : 2015-16) MAT
Questions (1 - 4) Questions (9 - 11)
Direction : In each of the question 1 to 4 some of the Direction : In each of the questions below are given
letters are missing in the given series with one term two statements and two conclusions numbered
missing shown by question mark (?). This terms is I and II. You have to take the given two
one of the alternatives among the four groups of letters statements to be true even if they seem to be
given under it. Find the right alternative. at variance from commnly known facts. Read
1. Z, W, S ? the conclusions and then decide which of the
(1) P (2) O given conclusions logically follows from the two
(3) N (4) Q given statements.
Y
9. Statements (i) : All pencils are pens.
2. AN, CP, FS, ? (ii) : All pens are markers.
EM
(1) IV (2) JW Conclusions (I) : All pencils are markers.
(3) KX (4) LY (II) : Some pens are pencils.
3. MYZ, LWX, ?, JST (2) Only conclusion II is true
(1) KUV (2) IQR (3) Both conclusions I and II are true
D
(3) HOP (4) GMN (4) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
A
10. Statements (i) : Some players are singers.
4. bdf, hjl ______ , tvx
(ii) : All singers are tall
(1) nrp (2) pnr
Conclusions (I) : Some players are tall
(3) nqr (4) npr C (II) : All players are tall.
A
Questions (5 - 8)
Direction : In each of the question 5 to 8 some of the
numbers are missing in the given series with
T

one term missing shown by question mark (?).
This terms is one of the alternatives among 11. Statements (i) : All stones are diamond.
N
the four numbers given under it. Find the right (ii) : Some diamonds are pearl.
alternative. Conclusions (I) : Some pearl are stone.
A
5. 8, 27, 64, ?, 216, 343. (II) : All diamonds are pearl.

(1) 125 (2) 81 (1) Only conclusion I is true
R
(3) 100 (4) 196 (2) Only conclusion II is true

B
6. 5, 11, 19, ____ 41. (4) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
(1) 28 (2) 29
12. Which of the following Venn diagrams correctly
VI
(3) 30 (4) 35 represents Doctors, Nurse, Human being
7. 120, ? 24, 6, 0. (1) (2)

(1) 100 (2) 70
(3) 60 (4) 20
(3) (4)
1 1
8. 729, 81, 9, 1, ,?, . 13. Which of the following Venn diagrams correctly
9 729
represents Delhi, India and Asia ?
1 1
(1) (2)
27 81 (1) (2)
1 1
(3) (4)
243 486
(3) (4)
Questions (14 - 15) Questions (22 - 23)
Give answer on the following Venn diagram Direction : Answer the questions on the basis of cube:
Te ache r 22. A cube of side 6 cm is divided in the cubes of
side 2 cm. Then the total number of cubes is :
0
12 (1) 9 (2) 27
5 Doctor (3) 81 (4) 216
5 20 14
17
23. In the given figure of cube which is opposite
16 M usicia n face of 3 ?
14. How many persons are related to all three ?
(1) 20 (2) 12
(3) 32 (4) 17
Y
15. How many persons are related to any two ?
EM
(1) 32 (2) 34
(3) 43 (4) 27
(1) 1 (2) 4
Questions (16 - 19)
(3) 5 (4) 6
D
Direction : In questions 16 to 19 three alternatives are
alike in a certain way but the rest one is
24. If in a coded language the word ‘REKHA’ is
A
different. Find out the odd and write correct
answer. written as ‘AHKER’ then in the same code
language ‘HEMA’ will be written as :
16. (1) ABNO (2) CDPQ
(3) EFRS (4) GHUT
C (1) AMEH
(3) MAHE
(2) EMAH
(4) EAMH
A
17. (1) 144, 12 (2) 121, 11
25. If in a coded language the word CHILDREN is
(3) 80, 9 (4) 100, 10
written as EJKNFTGP then TEACHER will be
T
18. (1) Pen (2) Pencil written as

(1) VGCEJTG (2) VGCEJGT
N
(3) Chalk (4) Blackboard

(3) VGCJEGT (4) VGCGEJT
A
19. (1) Haryana (2) Gujarat

26. In a coded language the given alphabets are
(3) Rajasthan (4) Shimla
written in special codes.
R
ABCDESUVMN
20. In the given dice the opposite side of the 3
7 91 34 206 5 8
face is having which number ?
B
Then code 973578 will be :

(1) BADMAN (2) BACMAN
VI
(3) DUEMAN (4) MANSDE

27. In a coded language ‘RUSTY’ is written as
96872. Then in the same coded language
‘ZXWV’ will be written as :
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 6 (1) 1354 (2) 1543
21. In the given two positions of a dice, when 2 (3) 1345 (4) 1534
is below the dice which number is on the
dice ? 28. A is uncle of B, B is daughter of C, C is the
wife of D’s son. Then how is A related to D ?
(1) Son (2) Brother
(3) Father (4) Maternal uncle
(1) 3 (2) 5
(3) 1 (4) 6
29. Ram travels 8 km to south, then moves to right
and travels 6 km and at the end he again moves
right and travels 8 km. Then the distance of
Ram from initial point is : 34.
(1) 6 Km (2) 8 km
(3) 10 km (4) 14 km
30. If the meaning of  is ‘+’,  is ‘×’, is ‘÷’ and

 is ‘–‘ , then the value of 24 6  5  6  14 is:
(1) 34 (2) 20
(3) 14 (4) 2
Y
Question (31-34)
Direction : In questions 31 to 34 there are two sets of Direction : In questions 35 to 37 there are four figures
EM
figures, one set contains problem figures while given. One of these does not correlate with the
the other has answer -figures. There is a rest of the figures . Find out that odd figure.
sequence according to which the problem
figures are arranged. You have to select an
35.
D
answer - figure which can be added in sequence
in the problem-figures .Choose the correct
figure.
A
31.
C
36.
A
T
. 37.
N
38. How many triangles are there in the figure below

A
?
R
32.
B
(1) 5 (2) 6
VI
(3) 8 (4) 10
39. How many parallelograms are there in the figure
below ?
33. (1) 14 (2) 15

(3) 16 (4) 18
Direction : In questions 40 to 42 find the correct mirror Questions (45-46)
image of the given figure. Direction : In the following Questions 45-46 , figures
Question-Figure Answer-Figures showing a sequence of folding a paper are
given. Which could resemble the figure in the
40. Answer-figures.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
45.
41.
Y
EM
46.
D
A
42.
C
A
47. Find the number of blocks when the given stack
of blocks is separated :
T
N
43. The water image of the given figure is

A
(1) 3 (2) 4
R
(3) 5 (4) 6
48. In the given figure, the total number of cubes

B
44. The water image of the given figure is is :

VI
(1) 25 (2) 55
(3) 85 (4) 35
49. In the given figure squares are folded and a
cube is formed. Then the number opposite to
2 is :
(1) 1 (2) 3
Y
(3) 5 (4) 6
EM
50. In the standard die the sum of opposite faces
always remains :
(1) 8 (2) 7
(3) 6 (4) 5
D
A
C
A
T
N
A
R
B
VI
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 3 2 1 4 1 2 3 2 3 1 4 4 3 1 2 4 3 4 4 3
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 4 2 4 1 2 1 3 1 1 2 4 1 4 3 4 3 2 4 4 1
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. 4 3 4 1 2 3 3 2 3 2
RAJASTHAN_ NTSE-STAGE-I (YEAR : 2015 -16) LANGUAGE
1. Earlier Vivek ……………on 17 th floor of a 10. My sister said to me, “Please bring me a
multi-storeyed building. So, he knows how to sketch-pen set.”
use a lift. My sister requested me………………. a
sketch-pen set.
(1) live (2) lived
(1) that I should bring her
(3) lives (4) is living.
(2) if I bring her
(3) to bring her
2. Sonali………………. an English newspaper (4) to brought her.
daily.
(1) reads (2) read 11. The old lady said, “I am going on a holiday.”
Y
(3) was reading (4) were reading. The old lady said………. on a holiday.
(1) that she was going (2) if she was going
EM
3. Himani…………………. this test recently. (3) that I am going (4) that I was going.
(1) pass (2) passed
12. Lencho said to the post-office clerks, “You are
(3) have passed (4) has passed.
a band of cheats.”
Lencho blamed the post-office clerks
D
4. Look before you ……………….. that……… a band of cheats.
(1) leap (2) leapt (1) you are (2) you were
(3) they are (4) they were.
A
(3) are leaping (4) leaps.
5. The senior staff………………….bonus by the 13. It is a difficult puzzle. You…………………..

company last year.
(1) is given (2) will be given
C also try it.
(1) could (2) should
A
(3) shall (4) will.
(3) was given (4) has given.
14. Smoking is prohibited in schools too. Nobody
T
6. A long bridge………………over the village river ………..use tobacco products there.

presently. (1) may (2) will
N
(1) is being built (2) was being built (3) can (4) could
(3) was built (4) will be built.
A
15. We ……………love our county.

(1) should (2) may
7. ‘Vande Matram’ song……………..by Bankim
(3) will (4) can
R
Chandra Chatterjee.
(1) is being written (2) was being written 16. Religion helps us keep to the right path in life.
B
(3) had written (4) was written. So, we ………….follow our religion.
(1) could (2) may
8. Second-hand books …………. on this foot-path (3) must (4) shall.
VI
every Sunday.
(1) bought and sold 17. A bunch of grapes………… all that the fox
(2) is bought and sold wanted.
(3) are bought and sold (1) is (2) am
(4) will be bought and sold. (3) was (4) were.
9. The watchman said to the lady, “I cannot stay 18. Coffee and biscuits………….. a refreshing
here all the time.” snack.
The watchman told the lady that…………… all (1) is (2) was
(3) were (4) are.
the time.
(1) he cannot stay there 19. One of the soldiers……….. wounded last night.
(2) he could not stay there (1) is (2) am
(3) he could not stay here (3) was (4) were.
(4) he cannot stay here.
20. A good number of patients……………… 31. Add a question tag :
diagnosed of Dengue last year. I sold all my notes, ……………...
(1) is (2) are (1) ain’t I? (2) didn’t I ?
(3) was (4) were. (3) did I ? (4) aren’t I ?
21. ‘Have you any sugar ?’ 32. Add a question tag:

‘Yes. But I don’t have …………...’ Never betray anyone,…………….. .
(1) many (2) more (1) shall them ? (2) should we ?
(3) much (4) some (3) shall they ? (4) should they ?
22. The athletes were prepared to face…………. 33. to Anil / should / I / back / go
challenge. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
(1) a (2) all (1) (c) (b). (e) (d) (a) (2) (b) (c) (d) (e) (a)
Y
(3) every (4) several. (3) (a) (b) (d) (c) (e) (4) (d) (b) (c) (e) (a).
EM
23. I quietly went out …………….the door to see 34.
the snake. two dollars / down to / the bargain I he / managed
(1) into (2) to (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
(3) from (4) through. (1) (b) (a) (c) (d) (e) (2) (d) (e) (c) (b) (a)
(3) (b) (c) (d) (e) (a) (4) (a) (e) (c) (b) (d).
D
24. The rich man promised the warden to
pay…………….. the poor girls. For Question Nos. 35–36 select the word that best
A
(1) in (2) on expresses the meaning of the given word:
(3) for (4) of. 35. Stifled
25. W e lived in an ancestral house made

………..limestone.·
C (1) tough
(3) hard
(2) suffocated
(4) free.
A
(1) in (2) of 36. Conceit
(3) from (4) by. (1) pride (2) shame
(3) hate (4) JOY·
T
26. Kishore was looking all………………. for his

lost ATM card. For Question Nos. 37 - 38 select the word which means
N
(1) in (2) near the opposite to the given word:

(3) around (4) about 37. Temporary
A
(1) stable (2) fix

27. The king lost all his resources…………….. his (3) permanent (4) mobile.
R
courage helped him regain his kingdom.

(1) as (2) and 38. Kindle
(3) yet (4) so. (1) light (2) put out
B
(3) put in (4) put up.

28. ……………….of all his supports, he was left
VI
all alone in his odd times. For Question Nos. 39 - 40 select the meaning of the
(1) Besides (2) Because given phrasal verbs:
(3) Despite (4) Instead. 39. Break away
(1) escape (2) split
29. Raghu had better…………….. at a boarding (3) end relationship (4) stop working.
school.
(1) study (2) to study 40. Look out
(3) studying· (4) studied. (1) check (2) be careful
(3) search (4) bring.
30. She went to the village market………………. 41. Put the most suitable word:
the necessary commodities . Can you tell me………… you found my keys?
(1) for buy (2) to buy (1) how (2) whose
(3) buying (4) to be bought (3) which (4) who.
42. Fill in the blank with correct determiner: 47. Choose the correct Negative sentence of the
.................. student in the class had a book. given Affirmative sentence:
(1) All (2) Every Ram is the cleverest boy in the school.
(3) Neither (4) Few. (1) No boy in the school is as clever as Ram.
(2) Ram is as clever as other boys.
43. Fill in the blank with correct modal : (3) No boy is cleverest in school as Ram is.
I……………….. get there on time. (4) Ram is cleverest of all.
(determination)
(1) can (2) may 48. Fill in the blank with proper word from the
(3) could (4) will options given below:
The bus has……………… arrived, now the
44. Use the appropriate preposition to complete passengers are getting down.
the given sentence: (1) while (2) just
Y
When the doctor arrived the patient was (3) Since (4) because
lying…………………. the floor.
EM
(1) under (2) above 49. Choose the correct noun form of the given
(3) on (4) over. adjective:
‘Pure’
45. She is seeking admission ………………any of (1) purify (2) purely
the management colleges. (3) purification (4) purified
D
(1) by (2) at
(3) for (4) to. 50. Give synonym of the given word:
A
Pious
46. Choose the correctly punctuated sentence. (1) evil (2) holy
(1) hari, latif, ali and I saw an old, lean weak
bullock on the road.
(2) Hari Latif Ali and I saw an old lean weak
C (3) ill-will (4) vulgar
A
(3) Hari, Latif, Ali and I saw an old, lean, weak
T
(4) Hari, Latif, Ali and I saw an old lean weak

N
A
R
B
VI
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 1 4 1 3 1 4 3 2 3 1 4 2 3 1 3 3 1 3 4
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 3 3 4 3 2 3 3 1 1 2 2 2 1 2 2 1 3 2 1 2
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. 1 2 4 3 4 3 1 2 3 2
RAJASTHAN NTSE - STAGE - I (YEAR : 2015 -16) SAT
1. A car travels 40 kms at an average speed of 10. When light travels from medium X to medium
80 km/h and then travels 40 kms at an average Y as shown
speed of 40 km/h. The average speed of the
car for this 80 km trip is
(1) 40 km/h (2) 45 km/h
(3) 48 km/h (4) 53 km/h
2. The term ‘mass’ refers to the same physical

concept as (1) both the speed and the frequency decrease
(1) weight (2) inertia (2) both the speed and the frequency increase
(3) force (4) acceleration. (3) both the speed and the wavelength decrease
Y
(4) both the wavelength and the frequency are
3. A 5.0 kg object is moving horizontally at 6.0
unchanged.
EM
m/s. In order to change its speed to 10.0m/s,
the net work done on the object must be 11. A candle C is kept between two parallel mirrors,
(1) 40 J (2) 90 J at a distance 0.2 d from the mirror 1. Here d is
(3) 160 J (4) 20 J the distance between mirrors. Multiple images
of the candle appear in both mirrors. How far
D
4. The momentum of an object at a given instant
is independent of its behind mirror 1 are the nearest two images of
(1) inertia (2) speed the candle in that mirror?
A
(3) velocity (4) acceleration. (1) 0.2d, 1.8d (2) 0.2d, 2.2d
(3) 0.2d, 0.8d (4) 0.2d, 1.2d
5. The pressure exerted on the ground by a man
is greatest when
(1) he stands with both feet flat on ground
C 12. For a 1 MW wind energy generator, the
minimum land area required for establishment
A
(2) he Stands flat on one foot
of wind energy farm is about
(3) he stands on the toes of one foot
(1) 100 hectares (2) 50 hectares
(4) all the above yield the same pressure.
T
(3) 20 hectares (4) 2 hectares

6. A sound wave has a wavelength of 3.0m. The
N
distance from a compression centre to the 13. Milk of magnesia is an example of which type
adjacent rarefaction centre is : of colloid ?
(1) 0.75 m (2) 1.5 m (1) Gel (2) Emulsion
A
(3) 3.0 m (4) 6.0 m (3) Sol (4) Foam

R
7. Of the following, the copper conductor that has 14. The number of gram moles of aluminium ions
the least resistance is present in 0.051 g of aluminium oxide is
(1) thin, long and hot
B
(1) 0.001 (2) 0.051

(2) thick, short and cool (3) 0.102 (4) 2
(3) thick, long and hot
VI
(4) thin, short and cool. 15. Number of valence electrons in Cl atom is
(1) 16 (2) 7
8. Four 20  resistors are connected in series
(3) 17 (4) 18
and the combination is connected to a 20 V
emf device. The potential difference across any 16. Isotopes of an element have
one of the resistors is (1) the same physical properties
(1) 5V (2) 2V (2) different chemical properties
(3) 4V (4) 20V. (3) different number of neutrons
9. The magnetic field lines due to an ordinary bar (4) different atomic number.
magnet
17. Which of the following hydrocarbons undergoes
(1) form closed curves
addition reactions?
(2) cross one another near the poles
(3) are more numerous near the N-pole than (1) C 2 H 6 (2) C 3 H 8
near the S-pole.
(4) do not exist inside the magnet. (3) C 3 H 6 (4) CH 4
18. Which of the following statements is not a 27. In plants transport of soluble products in the
correct statement about the trends when going process of photosynthesis occurs in
from left to right across the periods of periodic (1) xylem (2) phloem
table ? (3) both of these (4) none of these.
(1) The elements become less metallic in
28. Which among the following hormones is
nature
associated with wilting of leaves ?
(2) The number of valence electrons increases
(1) Abscisic acid (2) Gibberellin
(3) The atoms lose their electrons more easily
(3) Cytokinin (4) Auxin.
(4) The oxides become more acidic,
29. Seed is modification of
19. Acetic acid, with the molecular formula CH3
(1) ovary (2) ovule
COOH has
(3) thalamus (4) all of these
(1) 8 covalent bonds (2) 7 covalent bonds
Y
(3) 9 covalent bonds (4) 10 covalent bonds. 30. How many types of muscle tissue are found ?
(1) Striated and unstriated
20. An element reacts with oxygen to give a
EM
(2) Striated and cardiac
compound with a high melting point. This
(3) Cardiac and unstriated
compound is also soluble in water. The element
(4) Striated, unstriated and cardiac
is likely to be
(1) calcium (2) carbon 31. Which characters are present in a vertebrate ?
D
(3) silicon (4) iron (1) Notochord, triploblastic, coelomate and
bilateral symmetry
21. Metals in the middle of the activity series can
(2) Notochord, diploblastic, coelomate and
A
be easily extracted from their
radial symmetry
(1) Carbonates (2) Sulphides
(3) Notochord, triploblastic, acoelomate and
(3) Nitrates (4) Oxides
22. Pb (s )  CuCl 2 ( au )  PbCl 2( aq )  Cu (s )

C bilateral symmetry
(4) Notochord, triploblastic, acoelomate and
A
radial symmetry.
The above reaction is an example of a
(1) combination reaction 32. Synapse is
(1) gap between two muscle cells
T
(2) neutralization reaction

(3) decomposition reaction (2) gap between two bones
(3) gap between two neurons
N
(4) displacement reaction

(4) gap between muscle and bone.
23. Adding an alpha particle to the nucleus of
A
sodium atom produces which new element ? 33. Regeneration is found in

(1) Mg (2) P (1) tapeworm (2) leech
(3) hydra (4) ascaris
R
(3) Al (4) Ne.
24. Which among the following cell organelles is 34. Which of the following groups constitutes a
B
able to make its own proteins? correct food chain?

(1) Lysosome (1) Grass  Rabbit  Snake  Eagle
(2) Golgi apparatus (2) Grass  Goat  Fox  Lion
VI
(3) Plastid (3) Goat  Grass  Elephant  Snake

(4) Endoplasmic reticulum (4) Grass  Wheat  Frog  Goat.
25. Intercalary meristem is present 35. Which cell organelle is known as “powerhouse
(1) at the base of the leaves and both the sides of the cell”?
of node (1) Mitochondria (2) Lysosome
(2) in the roots (3) Golgi apparatus
(3) at the tip of the leaves (4) Endoplasmic reticulum
(4) at the shoot apex
26. Which among the following is an example of

36. 12

 2 2  33  .......  12 2  650 , then the
fungi?
(1) Anabaena (2) Euglena
 
value of 2 2  4 2  63  .......  24 2 is
(1) 1300 (2) 2600
(3) Mycoplasma (4) Agaricus
(3) 2500 (4) 42250
37. The square root of x b 2 x b 22 ab x a 2  b 2 is 44. If the difference of two numbers is 5 and
difference of their squares is 300, then sum of
a b the numbers is
(1) x 2 a  b  (2) 2
x (1) 1500 (2) 6
a  b 2 (3) 12 (4) 60
(3) 2 (4) x a  b
x
45. If the equation ax2 + 2x — 2 = 0 has real and
38. If (x+ 2), is a factor of 2x3 - 5x + k, then the distinct roots, then the value of a is
value of k is
1 1
(1) 6 (2) –6 (1) a  (2) a 
(3) 26 (4) –26 2 2
39. For which value of p the following pair of linear 1 1
(3) a  (4) a 
Y
equations 3x + py = 7, px + 3y = 15 will have
2 2
no solutions?
(1)  9 (2)  5
EM
46. If a + b + c = 0, then the value of
(3)  3 (4)  4
a  b 2  b  c 2  c  a 2
40. A tower is on a horizontal plane. The angles of is
ab bc ca
elevation of top of the tower from two points on
(1) 1 (2) 2
D
a line passing through the foot of the tower at
distances 49 m and 36 m are 41° and 49°. The (3) 3 (4) -3
height of the tower is
A
(1) 40m (2) 42 m 47. In the given figure O is the centre of a circle,
(3) 44m (4) 46 m XY, PQ, AB are tangents of the circle. If XY ||
41. Sides AB and CD of a quadrilateral. ABCD are

extended as in figure. Then a + b is equal to
C PQ, then the value of  AOB is
A
A
X Y
D
b C
y O
T
P Q
N
x a B
A B
(1) 800 (2) 90°
A
(1) x+2y (2) x-y (3) 70° (4) 100°

(3) x+y (4) 2x+y.
R
42. In the figure O is the centre of the circle and cos  sin 
48. – is equal to
 POR = 80o. Then  RQS is 1– tan  cot  – 1
B
(1) sin   cos  (2) cos   sin 

R
VI
S 1
(3) 2 sin  (4)
cos   sin 
Q 80º O
49. A card is drawn from a well shuffled pack of 52
cards. The probability that card is a red ace is
P 1 1
(1) (2)
13 26
(1) 30° (2) 40°
(3) 1400 (4) 50o 3 1
(3) (4)
43. If every side of a triangle is doubled then a new 52 2
triangle is formed. The ratio of areas of these
50. Value of tan 20 o tan 40 o tan 50 o tan 70 o
two triangles is
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 3 1
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 2 : 3 (1) 0 (2) (3) 3 (4) 1
3
51. Sum of last two terms of an A.P. is 60. If first 61. Young Italy, a secret society was formed by
term is 11 and common differences 2, then the (1) Metternich
number of terms in the A.P. is : (2) Giuseppe Mazzini
(1) 22 (2) 20 (3) Bismarck
(3) 11 (4) 19 (4) Hitler.
52. If the difference of circumference and diameter 62. The thinker Confucius belonged to the country
of a circle is 60 cm, then the area of the circle (1) England (2) America
is (3) China (4) Japan.
(1) 49 cm 2 (2) 14 cm 2 63. Jallianwalla Bag incident took place on
(1) 10th April, 1919 (2) 13th April, 1919
49
(3) 196 cm 2 (4)  cm 2 (3) 14th April, 1919 (4) 18th April, 1919.
Y
4
53. If the areas of three adjoining faces a cuboid 64. Dandi is located in
EM
are a2, b2 and c2 respectively, then the volume (1) Gujarat (2) Rajasthan
of the cuboid is (3) Maharashtra (4) Punjab.
(1) a 2 b 2 c 2 (2) abc 65. The Great Depression began in
3 3 3
(3) a b c (4) (1) 1927 AD (2) 1929 AD
abc
D
(3) 1930 AD (4) 1931 AD
54. In the given figure ABCD is a trapezium in
66. Which island was known as Amindiv whose
A
which AB||DC and AB : DC = 3 : 2, The ratio of
name was changed in 1973?
the areas of AOB and COD is
(1) Lakshadweep (2) Maldives
D
O
C C
67.
(3) New Moore island (4)Car-Nicobar.
Match List — I with List — II correctly and

A
choose the correct code from the following
A B List List
(A) Kaveri (i) Nasik
T
(1) 3 : 2 (2) 2 : 3
(B) Godavari (ii) Betul
(3) 4 : 9 (4) 9 : 4
(C) Tapi (iii) Brahmagiri
N
55. If the mean of 5, 9, x, 7, 4, y is 7, then relation (D) Krishna (iv) Mahabaleshwar

between x and y is Code :
A
(1) x + y = 42 (2) x + y = 17 A B C D
(3) x - y = 10 (4) x- y = 42. (1) i ii iii iv
R
(2) iii i ii iv
56. Tithe is
(3) ii iii i iv
(1) religious tax (2) implied tax
(4) iv iii ii i
B
(3) taille tax (4) feudal tax.

57. Who was Rasputin? 68. Stalagmite and Stalactite caves are located in
VI
(1) King (2) Monk (1) Mawsynram

(3) Revolutionary (4) Prime Minister. (2) Cherrapunji
(3) Shimla
58. The railway line which was to be constructed (4) Jammu and Kashmir
between Multan and Sukkur was
(1) North Valley Railway 69. Which state(s) has/have the highest reserved
(2) Indus Valley Railway forest ratio ?
(3) Southern State Railway (A) Kerala
(4) West Valley Railway. (B) West Bengal
59. Who adopted the ‘Scorched Earth Policy’? (C) Jammu and Kashmir
(1) Portuguese (2) French (D) Maharashtra.
(3) Dutch (4) German. Choose the correct answer from the codes
given below:
60. Raikas belong to the state of (1) only (B) (2) (A) and (D)
(1) Rajasthan (2) Bihar (3) (A) and (C) (4) all of these
(3) Uttar Pradesh (4) Karnataka
70. With reference to water availability per person 78. Find out the wrong explanation of functioning
per year India’s rank in the world is of United Nations
(1) 131st (2) 133rd (1) Who lands money to governments whan
they need it ? International Monetary Fund
(3) 137th (4) 157 th
(I.M.F. )doas so.
71. Roof water harvesting system is a compulsory (2) What happens whan a country attacks
structure in which state ? another country in an unjust manner ? Tha U.N.
Security Council an organ of U.N. is responsible
(1) Bihar (2) Meghalaya
far maintaining peace and security among
(3) Tamil Nadu (4) Karnataka. countries.
(3) The weightage of vote of every member of
72. Match List — I and List — II and choose the
lnternational Monetery Fund is equal.
correct code from the following (4) Each parmanant member of Security Council
Y
List - I List–Il has veto power.
(A) Waler (i) Jharkhand
EM
79. Find out the correct explanation :
(B) Dahiya (ii) Himalayan region
(1) Referendum— Only used for a specific
(C) Khil (iii) Madhya Pradesh
government policy.
(D) Kuruwa (iv) SE. Rajasthan. (2) Coup — A coup is legal system, in which
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii D-iv system the government hands over all rights
D
(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii and powers to the military.
(3) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv (3) Martial law — A system of rules, that takes
effect when a military authority takes control
A
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i.
of the normal administration of justice.
73. Rubber is related to which type of vegetation? (4) Communist State — In communist state
(1) Tundra
(2) Tropical rain forest
C all political parties have complete liberty to
compete for power.
A
(3) Mountain forest 80. Pay attention on the following points
(4) Tropical deciduous forest. (A) A democratic government is a better
government because it is a more accountable
T
74. Koderma mines located in Jharkhand is rich in form of government.

which minerals? (B) Democracy improves the quality of decision
N
(1) Bauxite (2) Mica making.

(C) Democracy provides a method to deal with
(3) Iron ore (4) Copper
A
the differences and conflicts.

(D) Democracy enhances the dignity of
75. Which of the following states is not connected
citizens.
R
with Hajira-Vijaypur-Jagdishpur pipeline ? Which are the factors involved in comprising

(1) Madhya Pradesh (2) Maharashtra Indian democracy ?
B
(3) Gujarat (4) Uttar Pradesh (1) A and B (2) A and C

(3) A, B and C (4) A,B,C and D.
76. Which among the following is not correctly
VI
81. Which among the following statements is a

matched ? moral reason regarding the. desirability of
(1) Popular unity — Salvador Alende power sharing?
(2) Solidarnosc or solidarity — Lech Walesa (1) Power sharing is good because it helps to
(3) National League for Democracy reduce the possibility of conflict between social
— Augusto Pinochet groups.
(4) Bath party — Saddam Hussein. (2) Social conflict often leads to violence and
political instability. Hence power sharing is a
77. Identify the correct order regarding the granting good way to ensure the stability of political
order.
of universal adult franchise
(3) Tyranny of the majority is not just oppressive
(1) Argentina, India, Malaysia, Greece for the minority, it often brings ruin to the
(2) Malaysia, Greece, India, Argentina majority as well,
(3) India, Argentina, Greece, Malaysia (4) A democratic rule involves sharing power
(4) Greece, Malaysia, India, Argentina. with those affected by its exercise and who
have to live with its effects.
82. Let us look at some of the key features of 86. Which one of the following is an activity of the
federalism tertiary sector ?
(A) There are two or more levels (or tiers) of (1) Mining (2) Tourism
government. (3) Diary (4) Agriculture.
(B) Different tiers of government govern the
same citizens, but each tier has its own 87. In which state of India, is Amul Dairy situated?
jurisdiction. (1) Rajasthan (2) Bihar
(C) The existence and authority of each tier of (3) Gujarat (4) Karnataka.
government is constitutionally guaranteed.
88. The ‘National Consumers’ Day’ is celebrated
(D) All states in the Indian Union have identical
on
powers.
(1) 24th December (2) 24th November
Which facts are correct regarding Indian
(3) 24th September (4) 24th October.
Federalism
Y
(1) B and D (2) A and D 89. National income of any country is divided by
(3) A, B and C (4) A, B ,C and D its total population, we get
EM
(1) personal income
83. Find the correct sequence of ‘anguages in the (2) gross domestic product
ascending order according the proportion of (3) private income
speakers as described in 8th Schedule of the (4) per capita income.
Constitution of India
D
(1) Hindi, Marathi, Telugu, Bangla 90. Among the following which is the method to
(2) Hindi, Bangla, Telugu, Marathi estimate the poverty line?
A
(3) Hindi, Telugu, Bangla, Marathi (1) Investment method (2) Income method
(4) Hindi, Bangla, Marathi, Telugu. (3) Capital method (4) All of these.
84. Match the following and choose the correct

answer from the code
C
91. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(1) Centre of curvature of a concave mirror lies
A
List - I in front of it whereas that of convex mirror lies
(A) Power is shared among different behind the mirror.
organs of government such as the (2) Centre of curvature of a concave mirror lies
T
legislature, executive and judiciary behind it whereas that of convex mirror lies in
(B) Power is shared among different front of the mirror.
N
social groups power (3) Centres of curvature of both concave and

(C) The fundamental provisions of the convex mirrors lie in front of the mirror.
A
constitution cannot be unilaterally (4) Centres of curvature of both concave and

changed by one level of government convex minors lie behind the mirror.
(D) The constitutionalisation of 3rd tier
R
92. Element X forms a chloride with the formula

of Indian democratic system.
XCI2 which is solid with a high melting point. X
List – II
B
would belong to the same group of periodic

(i) Community Government
table as
(ii) Horizontal distribution
(1) Na (2) Mg
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(iii) In 1992
(3) Al (4) Si
(iv) Federalism.
Code: 93. Calculate the number of molecules in 8g O2
(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii (1) 8 x 1023 (2) 6.02 x 1023
(2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv 23
(3) 1.51 x 10 (4) 8
(3) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
(4) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii. 94. Which of the following is correct for fungi ?
85. Match the following and choose the correct (1) Prokaryotic and saprophytic
answer from the given code (2) Eukaryotic and autotrophic
List – I List –II (3) Prokaryotic and autotrophic
(A) Union list (i) Computer software (4) Eukaryotic and saprophytic
(B) State list (ii) Banking
(C) Concurrent list (iii) Education 95. Iodine is essential for the synthesis of which
(D) Residuary powers (iv) Police. hormone?
(1) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv (2) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i (1) Adrenaline (2) Thyroxine
(3) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv (4) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii. (3) Insulin (4) Oxytocin.
96. ‘Oriental Cricket Club’ first Indian Cricket Club 99. In which state of India maximum fair price
was founded at shops are run by the co-operatives?
(1) Madras (2) Bombay (1) Maharashtra (2) Delhi
(3) Kanpur (4) Calcutta. (3) Tamil Nadu (4) Gujarat.
97. Which of the following is not associated with 100. Informal sources of credit do not include
Coriolis force? (1) moneylenders (2) cooperatives
(1) Cyclones (2) Ocean currents (3) traders (4) friends.
(3) Prevailing winds (4) Jet streams.
98. The local government structure goes right up

to the………… level.
Y
(1) Village (2) Ward
(3) State (4) District.
EM
D
A
C
A
T
N
A
R
B
VI
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 2 3 4 3 2 2 1 1 3 1 4 3 1 2 3 3 3 1 1
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 4 4 3 3 1 4 2 1 2 4 1 3 3 1, 2 1 2 3 1 3 2
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 3 2 3 4 1 3 2 1 2 4 3 3 2 4 2 1 2 2 3 1
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 2 3 2 1 2 1 2 1 4 2 3 4 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 4
Que. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. 4 3 2 1 4 2 3 1 4 2 1 2 3 4 2 2 4 4 3 2
RAJASTHAN NTSE-STAGE - I (YEAR : 2016 -17) MAT
Direction : In cach of the questions 1 to 4 a letter 10. Statements: (i) Some fruits are mangoes.
series is given with one term missing shown (ii) Some fruits are not guavas.
by question mark (?). This term is one of the Conclusions : (I) All fruits are mangoes.
alternatives among the four groups of letters (II) All mangoes are fruits.
given under it. Find the right alternative. (1) Only conclusion I is true
1. A, D, G, J, ?. (2) Only conclusion II is true
(1) I (2) M (3) Both conclusions I and II are true
(3) X (4) None of these. (4) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
2. LO, JQ, HS, ?
(1) FU (2) FQ 11. Statements (i) No horse is dog.
Y
(3) EV (4) DW. (ii) All dogs are elephants.
Conclusions (I) No elephant is horse.
EM
3. A, C, F, J, O, ?. (II) Some elephants are dogs.
(1) P (2) T (1) Only conclusion I is true
(3) S (4) U. (2) Only conclusion II is true
4. ZXV, TRP, NLJ, ?. (3) Both conclusions I and II are true
(1) HEF (2) HFD (4) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
D
(3) EFH (4) IGE.
12. Which of the following Venn diagrams correctly
Direction : In each of the questions 5 to 8 a number
A
represents quadrilateral, rectangle and square?
series is given with one term missing shown
by question mark (?). This term is one of the
5.
alternatives among the four numbers given
under it. Find the right alternative.
121, 144, 169, ? , 225, 256.
C (1) (2)
A
(1) 196 (2) 296
(3) 220 (4) 222.
T
6. 5, 10, 20, ?, 80.

(1) 35 (2) 40
N
(3) 45 (4) 50. (3) (4)

7. 4, 8, 9. 27, 16, ? , 25, 125.
A
(1) 8 (2) 16
(3) 25 (4) 64. 13. Which of the following Venn diagrams correctly
R
represents female, mother and doctor ?

8. 2, 3, 5, 8, ?, 17.
(1) 6 (2) 12
B
(3) 13 (4) 15.

(1)
Direction : Questions (9-11) In each of the questions
VI
below two statements and two conclusions

numbered I and II are given. You have to take
the given two statements to be true even if they
seem to be at variance from commonly known
facts. Read the conclusions and then decide (2)
which of the given conclusions logically follows
from the two given
9. Statements : (i) All dancers are singers.
(ii) All singers are teachers.
Condusions: (I) All dancers are teachers. (3)
(II) Some singers are dancers.
(3) Both conclusions I and II are true (4)
(4) Neither conclusion 1 nor conclusion II is
true.
Questions ( 14 - 15 ) Direction : Questions (22 – 23) Answer the questions
Give answer according to the following Venn on the basis of cube :
diagram : A cube is painted blue on all faces and it is cut
into 64 small cubes of equal size. Now answer
the following questions :
22. How many cubes are not painted on any
face ?
(1) 8 (2) 16
(3) 27 (4) 54.
23. How many cubes are there which are painted

14. Total number of teachers is on one face only ?
Y
(1) 12 (2) 31 (1) 8 (2) 16
(3) 19 (4) 22. (3) 24 (4) 32.
EM
15. How many artists are there who are writer but 24. If in a coded language the word 'RAMESH' is
not teacher ? written as ‘AEHRMS’ then in the same code
(1) 8 (2) 14 language 'POET' will be written as
(3) 13 (4) 22 (1) EPTO (2) PEOT
D
(3) ETOP (4) OTPE.
Direction: In questions 16 to 19 three alternatives are
A
alike in a certain way but the rest one is 25. If in a coded language the word SCHOOL is
different. Find out the rest one is different. Find written as UAJMQJ then PRINCIPLE will be
out the odd one and write correct answer
16. (1) ABYZ
(3) IJQR
(2) EFUV
(4) MNOP.
C written as
(1) RTKPEKRCN
(3) RPKLEGRJG
(2) NPGLAGNJB
(4) RPKLEKRJG.
A
17. (1) (10)3 (2) (100)2  10 Questions (26–27)
(3) 23 × 53
T
(4) 2000 – 2 Following alphabets are written in a special

coded language like :
N
18. (1) Pacific Ocean (2) Asia B LAC K WHITE

(3) Europe (4) Africa 01 234 5 6789
26. Then code 62830 will be written as
A
19. (1) Nepal (2) Pakistan (1) HATCB (2) HATEC

(3) Sri Lanka (4) Australia (3) HATBC (4) HATCE.
R
20. In the given die the opposite side of the face 3 27. 'BHICK' will be coded as
is having which number ?
B
(1) 06734 (2) 6734

(3) 6743 (4) 06743.
VI
28. Sailesh introduces Mahipal as the son of the

only brother of his father's wife. How is Mahipal
(1) 2 (2) 4 related to Sailesh ?
(3) 5 (4) 6 (1) Cousin (2) Son
(3) Maternal uncle (4) Son-in-law.
21. The two positions on a dice are shown below.
If 1 is at the bottom then what will be on the 29. Ramesh travels 3 km to east then moves to
top ? right and travels 5 km and at the end he again
moves right and travels 15 km. Then the
distance and direction of initial point from
Ramesh is
(1) 13 km south-west
(2) 13 km north-east
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 12 km north-east
(3) 4 (4) 5 (4) 12 km south-east.
30. How many 5s are there in the following
sequence which are immediately followed by
3 but not immediately preceded by 7 ?
43657536457357353 34.
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3
Direction : Questions (31–34) In questions 31 to 34
there are two sets of figures. One set contains
problem-figures while the other has answer-
figures. There is a sequence according to which
the problem-figures are arranged. You have to
select an answer-figure which can be added in
Y
sequence with the problem-figures. Choose the
Direction : Questions (35–38)
correct figure.
In questions 35 to 38 there are four figures
EM
given. One of these does not correlate with the
rest of the figures. Find out that odd figure.
31.
35.
D
A
C 36.
A
37.
T
32.
N
A
38.
R
Direction : Questions (39 – 40)

B
In questions 39 to 40, find the correct mirror

image of the given figures, when mirror is
placed on right side of the figure.
VI
33.
39.
40.
Direction : Questions (41 - 42) In questions 41 and 42
find the correct water image of the given figure. 46.
47. In the given figure squares are folded and a

41.
cube is formed. Then how will it be seen from
the following ?
42.
Y
Direction : Questions (43 - 44) In the following Question
figures showing a sequence of folding and
EM
cutting a paper are given. W hich could
resemble the figure in the answer figure ?
(1) (2)
D
43.
A
(3) (4)
48. How many numbers between 11 to 50 are there

C which are exactly divisible by 7 but not divisible
by 3 ?
A
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) 6.
T
49. Determine the number of pentagons in the

44.
following figure :
N
A
R
(1) 5 (2) 6
(3) 8 (4) 10.
B
Direction : Questions (45 – 46) In the following figure

there is a question figure, which is embedded 50. Determine the number of triangles in the
following figure :
VI
one out of four figures. Trace out the correct

alternative.
45.
(1) 5 (2) 6
(3) 8 (4) 10.
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 1 4 2 1 2 4 2 3 4 2 1 3 2 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 4 4 1 4 4 2 1 3 4 3 1 1 1 2 2
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 3 4 1 4 1 3 3 4 2 2 4 2 4 1 2
Que. 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. 2 3 2 2 4
RAJASTHAN NTSE - STAGE - I (YEAR : 2016 -17) LANGUAGE
Language Comprehensive Test 2. Why we ( India ) have not conquered any nation
Subject : English ? Not grabbed their land and culture ?
(1) Because we were a weak nation
There are 50 questions in this paper. Each
(2) Because we respect the freedom of others
question carries 1 mark. (3) Because we did not respect the freedom of
Direction for Question No. 1-5 : Read the others
passage and answer the questions based (4) Because we were a greedy nation.
on it.
I have three visions for India. In 3000 years of 3. The author’s first vision is that of freedom. What
our history people from all over the world have kind of freedom is it ?
(1) It is to live and enjoy freely
Y
come and invaded us, captured our lands,
(2) It is to grab others’ land
conquered our minds. From Alexander onwards
(3) It is the freedom that we must protect and
EM
the Greeks, the Turks, the Moguls, the
nurture and build on
Portuguese, the British, the French, the Dutch, (4) It is to enforce our way of life.
all of them came and looted us, took over what
was ours. Yet we have not done this to any 4. What is the second vision of the author ?
other nation. We have not conquered anyone. (1) His second vision is Independence
D
We have not grabbed their land, their culture (2) His second vision is to respect others
and their history and tried to enforce our way (3) His second vision is to take over on others
A
of life on them. Why ? Because we respet the (4) His second vision for India is Development.
freedom of others. That is why my FIRST 5. According to the author what should we do to
VISION is that of FREEDOM. I believe that
India got its first vision of this in 1857, when
C stand up to the world ?
(1) W e must be strong as military and
A
we started the War of Independence. It is this economic powers
freedom that we must protect and nurture and (2) We must invade others' lands and conquer
build on. If we are not free, no one will their minds
T
respect us. (3) We must respect the strength of others

We have 10 per cent growth in most areas. (4) We must work with great minds.
N
Our poverty levels are falling. Our achievements Choose the correct options to fill in the blanks :
arc being globally recognised today. Yet we 6. Mayank always..................newspaper in the
A
lack the self confidence to see ourselves as a morning.

developed nation, self-reliant and self assured. (1) read (2) reads
R
Isn't this incorrect ? MY SECOND VISION for (3) was reading (4) is reading.
India is DEVELOPMENT. For fifty years we
7. Listen! Someone................at the door.
B
have been a developing nation. It is time we

(1) is knocking (2) are knocking
see ourselves as a developed nation. We are
(3) knocks (4) knocked.
among top five nations in the world in terms of
VI
GDP. I have THIRD VISION India must stand 8. Kezia's father...................home just now.
up to the world. Because I believe that unless (1) come (2) came
India stands up to the world, no one will respect (3) has come (4) had come.
us. Only strength respects strength. We must
9. First prize....................by Wanda last year.
be strong not only as a military power but also
(1) were won (2) was won
as an economic power. (3) are won (4) is won.
1. In 3000 years many countries invaded India. 10. A Poem.................by Roshani now.
What damage did they do to us ? (1) is being recited (2) was being repited
(1) They gave India freedom (3) will be recited (4) are being recited.
(2) They worked for India's development
(3) They looted us, took over what was ours 11. National Anthem.................everyday in the
(4) They helped us to be strong and powerful. prayer assembly.
(1) will be sung (2) is sung
(3) sang (4) is singing.
12. Prizes...................by the chief guest in the 23 ....................knowledge is dangerous thing.
annual function next week. (1) The little (2) A little
(1) give away (3) The few (4) A few.
(2) has been given away
(3) will be given away 24. Geeta : Would you lend me.............money ?
(4) was given away. Deepika : Certainly, I will.
(1) many (2) several
13. Zameer said to me, "What are you doing ?" (3) some (4) much.
Zameer asked me...................doing.
(1) what was I (2) what he is 25. The snake came into the room...................the
(3) that what I was (4) what I was. window.
(1) by (2) from
14. He said, "Hurrah! I have won the match."
(3) at (4) through.
He exclaimed with joy...............the match.
Y
(1) if he was won (2) that he had won 26. Many people died for the sake.................their
(3) that he won (4) that he is won. motherland.
EM
(1) of (2) to
15. Anjana said to her father, "I want to buy a new
dress." (3) for (4) from.
Anjana told her father that................to buy a 27. What is the time.................your watch ?
new dress. (1) in (2) from
D
(1) he wanted (3) by (4) on.
(2) she was wanted
28. Shambhu is so rude...............:... nobody can
A
(3) she wanted
(4) she wants. face him publicly.
(1) yet (2) as
16. There are clouds in the sky. It.................rain
today.
(1) should (2) may
C
29.
(3) that (4) so.
Children are fond of.................sweets.

A
(3) could (4) will. (1) to eat (2) eating
(3) eat (4) are eating.
17 ................you lend me one thousand
T
rupees ? 30 .....................my sister was washing clothes,

(1) Must (2) May the ring slipped off her finger.
N
(3) Would (4) Might. (1) Because (2) While

18. Father warns his children : It's poison, (3) Although (4) Therefore.
A
you...................touch it. 31. Add a question tag :

(1) needn't (2) couldn't Clean India Campaign is growing popular day
R
(3) can’t (4) mustn't.

by day,................
19. Jaiprakash as well as his colleagues (1) isn't it ? (2) is it ?
B
.....................determined to achieve the goal (3) wasn't it ? (4) don’t it ?

this year.
32. Add a question tag :
VI
(1) am (2) are

Devendra won't take a test.....................
(3) is (4) were.
(1) shall he ? (2) won't he ?
20. The poet and playwright......................... (3) will he ? (4) shan’t he ?
(1) are dead (2) is dead
(3) are dying (4) were dead. For Question Nos. 33 -34 select the proper grammatical
arrangement of the given sentences :
21. Both Jaysree and Jyotirmay.............playing 33. Believe / do not / what / he says / in
badminton now. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
(1) is (2) were (1) (b) (a) (e) (c) (d) (2) (c) (b) (a) (e) (d)
(3) was (4) are.
(3) (a) (e) (b) (c) (d) (4) (d) (c) (b) (a) (e).
22. The number of farmers using modem
34. Farmers / Indian / work / hard / very
technology in agriculture .....................
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
growing more and more.
(1) (b) (d) (c) (a| (c) (2) (c) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) are (2) was
(3) (a) (c) (e) (b) (d) (4) (b) (a) (c) (e) (d).
(3) is (4) were.
For Question Nos. 35–36 select the word that best 44. He sat in his favoured corner by the fire.
expresses the meaning of the given word : In the above sentence 'favoured' functions as
35. downcast a/an
(1) joy (2) sad (1) Verb (2) Adjective
(3) hopeful (4) hate. (3) Adverb (4) Noun.
36. workaholic 45. Choose the correct Negative sentence of the
(1) A person who finds it difficult to stop working given affirmative sentence :
(2) A person who does not find it difficult to December is the coldest month of the year.
stop working (1) December is as cold as other months
(3) A person who is least interested in working (2) No month is coldest of the year as
(4) A person who works time to time. December is
(3) No other month of the year is as cold as
For Question Nos. 37–38 select the word which means
Y
December
the opposite of the given word :
(4) None of these.
37. Former
EM
(1) recently (2) early 46. Which of the following can be the appropriate
(3) lately (4) latter. word for the blank space :
On the day of the .................of my new office,
38. Ally
I was overwhelmed with a sense of
(1) Enemy (2) Friend
achievement.
D
(3) Companion (4) Relative
(1) inauguration (2) inaugurate
For Question Nos. 39 – 40 select the meaning of the (3) inaugural (4) inaugurator.
A
given phrasal verbs :
39. Taken somebody in 47. Which of the following is correctly spelt:
(1) abhored by (2) attracted by (1) Bcautifull (2) Beehive
(3) disliked by
(4) let somebody stay in
C
48
(3) Bihave (4) Childhud.
....................can get driving licence for all
A
40. Give away vehicles.
(1) distribute (2) contribute (1) 16 year and above (2) 18 year and above
(3) collect (4) gather. (3) 15 year and above (4) 14 year and above.
T
41. The poem " The Road not Taken' is written by For Question Nos. 49–50 sclcct the meaning of the
N
(1) Coates Kinney (2) Robert Frost underlined phrases / idioms.

(3) W. B. Yeats (4) James Kirkup. 49. The police caught him red-handed.
A
(1) in the act of doing something wrong

42. Who composed the poem " A Tiger in the
(2) with his hands smeared with blood
Zoo' ?
(3) when his hands were red
R
(1) Robert Frost (2) John Berryman

(4) in the act of painting the hands red.
(3) Robin Klein (4) Leslie Norris.
50. They won the match by hook or by crook.
B
43. He came ‘in'

(1) by using all the instruments
Here ‘in' is
(2) by using the hooks
(1) Preposition (2) Noun
VI
(3) by using the crooks

(3) Adverb (4) Adjective.
(4) by any means possible.
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 2 3 4 1 2 1 2 2 1 2 3 4 3 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 3 4 3 2 4 3 2 3 4 1 3 3 2 2
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 1 3 1 4 2 1 4 1 4 1 2 4 3 2 3
Que. 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. 1 2 2 1 4
RAJASTHAN NTSE- STAGE-I (YEAR : 2016 -17) SAT
Q.1 The brakes applied to a car produce an Q.9 The path of ray of light in different media of
acceleration of 8 m/s2 in the opposite direction refractive indices n1, n2, n3 and n4 is shown in
to the motion. If the car takes 3 seconds to figure. The velocity of light will be maximum in
stop after the application of brakes, the the medium whose refractive index is -
distance it travels during the time will be -
n1
(1) 30 m (2) 36 m
n2
(3) 25 m (4) 40 m
n3
Q.2 A bullet of mass 10 gm moving with 100 m/s
is embedded in a block of 1 kg which is initially n4
Y
in rest. The final velocity of the system will
be - (1) n1 (2) n2
EM
(3) n3 (4) n4
(1) 1 m/s (2) 1.5 m/s
(3) 0.5 m/s (4) 2 m/s Q.10 Which one of the following phenomena is an
example of scattering of light?
Q.3 The magnitude of buoyant force depends on (1) Bending of rod at interface of air and water
which one of the following properties of fluid?
D
(2) Twinkling of stars
(1) Mass of object (2) Size of object (3) Tyndall effect
(3) Density of liquid (4) Size of container (4) Mirage in desert during summer
A
Q.4 The value of 200 units of energy into joules Q.11 An electron enters in a magnetic field at right
angles to it, as shown in figure. The direction
will be -
(1) 7.20 × 108 J (2) 7.20 × 107 J
C of force acting on the electron will be
A
8
(3) 72 × 10 J (4) 7.20 × 106 J
Electron
Q.5 In which of the following media, the speed of
T
sound will be maximum? Magnetic field

(1) Glass (2) Ethanol
N
(3) Air (4) Vacuum (1) to the right (2) to the left
(3) out of paper (4) into the paper
Q.6 The weight of a body of mass 15 kg on moon
A
is - Q.12 Three 6  resistors are connected in parallel

(1) 24.5 N (2) 2.45 N and the combination is connected to a 15 V
R
(3) 245 N (4) 0.245 N battery. The current through any one of the
resistors will be -
B
Q.7 The work required to increase the velocity of a (1) 2.5 A (2) 2.0 A
particle from 18 km/h to 72 km/h, if mass of (3) 5 A (4) 10 A
particle is 2 kg, is -
VI
Q.13 The minimum order of temperature required

(1) 275 J (2) 225 J for nuclear fusion is -
(3) 15 J (4) 375 J (1) 1015 K (2) 106 K
3
(3) 10 K (4) 102 K
Q.8 The image formed by a concave mirror is
observed to be real, inverted and larger than Q.14 What will be the mass/mass percentage of a
the object. Where should be the position of solution containing 30 gm of common salt in
the object? 200 gm of water ?
(1) At the centre of curvature (1) 3 % (2) 1.2 %
(2) Between the principal focus and centre of (3) 13.04 % (4) 22 %
curvature Q.15 Cheese is an example of which type of colloid?
(3) Beyond the centre of curvature (1) Gel (2) Foam
(4) Between the pole of the mirror and its (3) Sol (4) Solid sol
principal focus
Q.16 Which process is used to separate a mixture Q.27 In a cell which cell organelle other than nucleus
of two miscible liquids A & B having boiling contains DNA ?
points 56ºC and 65ºC respectively ? (1) Lysosome (2) Golgi bodies
(1) Distillation (3) Endoplasmic reticulum (4) Mitochondira
(2) Fractional distillation
Q.28 Which plant group is called amphibious
(3) Sublimation
plants ?
(4) Steam distillation
(1) Algae (2) Fungi
Q.17 Number of valence electrons in Magnesium (3) Bryophyta (4) Pteridopohyta
is -
Q.29 The tissue which makes the plants hard and
(1) 12 (2) 10
stiff is -
(3) 8 (4) 2
(1) Parenchyma (2) Chlorenchyma
Y
Q.18 Total number of atoms in 4 gms of oxygen (3) Collenchyma (4) Sclerenchyma
molecule is -
Q.30 Which of the following plant hormones induces
EM
(1) 6.022 × 1023 (2) 7.52 × 1022
(3) 1.5055 × 10 23
(4) 0.0752 × 1023 cell division ?
(1) Auxin (2) Gibberellin
Q.19 Number of which among the following is same (3) Ethylene (4) Cytokinin
in Al+3 and F– ?
(1) Proton (2) Neutron
D
Q.31 The undifferentiated mass of cells in tissue
(3) Atomic mass (4) Electron culture is called -
(1) Tissue (2) Embryo
A
Q.20 W hich of the following is pH of basic
(3) Callus (4) Spore
solution ?
(1) 7 (2) 4.2
(3) 3.5 (4) 10.2
C Q.32 Amrita Devi Bishnoi of Rajasthan is related
with
A
Q.21 Which metal does not react with oxygen at (1) Plant conservation (2) Education
high temperature ? (3) Sports (4) Politics
(1) Mg (2) Al
T
(3) Ag (4) Zn Q.33 Which radiation harms ozone layer in the

atmosphere ?
N
Q.22 Which reagent is able to dissolve gold and (1) Ultraviolet radiation (2) Infrared radiation
platinum ? (3) Radio radiation (4) Red radiation
(1) Nitric acid (2) Aqua-regia
A
(3) Hydrochloric acid (4) Sulphuric acid Q.34 Which cell organelles is called ‘suicide bags’
?
R
Q.23 Which metal is most reactive ? (1) Centrosome (2) Chromosome

(1) Na (2) Ca (3) Lysosome (4) Mesosome
(3) K (4) Zn
B
Q.35 The lining of oesophagus and mouth is covered

Q.24 Identify X in the following reaction –
with which type of tissues ?
VI
CH3–CH2–OH   (X) + H2O

Hot , conc.
H 2SO 4
(1) Cuboidal epithelium
(2) Squamous epithelium
(1) Ethane (2) Methane
(3) Columnar epithelium
(3) Ethene (4) Ethanol
(4) Stratified squamous epithelium
Q.25 Electronic configuration of an atom is 2, 8, 1.
Which of the following elements is similar with Q.36 Which is the odd one ?
it in chemical reactivity ? (1) Planaria (2) Liver-fluke
(1) K (2) Cl (3) Ascaris (4) Tape-worm
(3) N (4) Ar
Q.37 An egg laying mammal is
Q.26 Ethanol is made unfit for drinking by adding - (1) Kangaroo (2) Bat
(1) Propanol (2) Methanal (3) Whale (4) Echidna
(3) Methanol (4) Ethanal
Q.38 Normal human blood pressure is Q.47 If AP and BP are bisectors of the angle A and
(1) 80/120 mm of Hg angle B of a parallelogram ABCD, then value
(2) 120/80 mm of Hg of the angle APB is :
(3) 100/80 mm of Hg D C
(4) 80/100 mm of Hg
P
Q.39 Central Nervous system consists of brain and
(1) Spinal cord (2) Spinal nerves
(3) Cranial nerves (4) All the nerves
A B
Q.40 Rajasaurus is a fossil of (1) 30° (2) 45°
(1) Tree trunk (2) Invertebrate (3) 60° (4) 90°
(3) Fish (4) Dinosaur
Y
Q.48 In the following figure O is the centre of circle
Q.41 The cube root of x + y + 3x1/3 y1/3 (x1/3 + y1/3) and ACB = x°, OBA = y° then the value of
EM
is : x° + y° is :
(1) x + y (2) x1/3 + y1/3
1/3
(3) (x + y) (4) (x + y)3
C
D
Q.42 Expressing 0. 23 + 0.2 3 as a single decimal, x°
we get
O
A
(1) 0. 465 (2) 0.465
y°
(4) 0.4654
(3) 0.465
C A B
A
Q.43 If (x+ 2 ), is a factor of kx2 – 2 x + 1, then (1) 90° (2) 120°
the value of k is : (3) 150° (4) 180°
3 2
T
(1) – (2) – Q.49 In the following figure ACB = 90° and CD 

2 3
AB. If AD =4 cm and BD = 9 cm then the ratio
N
3 2 BC : AC is:
(3) (4)
2 3 C
A
Q.44 In the equations 3x + 2y = 13xy and 4x – 5y

= 2xy. The values of x and y that satisfy the
R
equations are:
(1) (2, 3) (2) (3, 2 )
A B
B
1 1 1 1 D
(3)  ,  (4)  ,  (1) 3 : 2 (2) 2 : 3
 2 3 3 2
VI
(3) 16 : 81 (4) 81 : 16
Q.45 The angles of elevation of the top of a tower
from two points at a distance of 9 m and 16 m Q.50 If in a right angled triangle the hypotenuse is
from the base of the tower and in the same to be 1 cm longer than the base and 2 cm
straight line in the same direction with it are longer than the altitude, then the perimeter of
complementary. Then height of the tower is : the triangle is :
(1) 12 m (2) 15 m (1) 24 cm (2) 20 cm
(3) 20 m (4) 25 m (3) 12 cm (4) 10 cm
Q.46 If sin = p and cos = q then the value of Q.51 If the roots of a quadratic equation 2x2 + 3kx +
8 = 0 are equal, the value of k is :
p  2p 3
is :
2q 3  q 2 3
(1) ± (2) ±
(1) sec (2) cosec 3 2
(3) cot  (4) tan
3 8
(3) ± (4) ±
8 3
Q.52 If a = x – y, b = y – z and c = z – x then the Q.59 If mode of any series is 5 and median is 3
value of a3 + b3 + c3 is : then mean of that series is :
(1) 3(x–y)(y – z)(z – x) (1) 1 (2) 2
(2) (x – y)3(y – z)3(z – x)3 (3) 3 (4) 4
(3) (x + y + z)3
Q.60 In the following figure of triangle ABC, E is the
(4) x3 + y3 + z3
midpoint of median AD. The ratio of areas of
the triangles ABC and BED is :
Q.53 If tangents PA and PB from a point P to a
circle with centre O are inclined to each other A
at an angle of 110°, then POA is equal to :
A
E
Y
P
O
EM
B D C
B (1) 1 : 4 (2) 3 : 4
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 4 : 3
(1) 65° (2) 55°
Q.61 Which among the following is not correctly
D
(3) 45° (4) 35°
matched in relation to the symbols of the
Q.54 Two coins are tossed once. The probability of French Revolution?
A
getting at least one tail is : (Attribute) (Significance)
(1) Broken Chains – Being freed
(1)
1
2
(2)
1
3
C (2) Breast plate with eagle
(3) Sceptre
– Willingness to make peace
– Symbol of royal power
A
1 3 (4) The winged woman
(3) (4)
4 4 – Personification of the law
T
Q.55 Value of tan25° tan35° tan45° tan55° tan65° Q.62 Match List-I with List-II correctly and choose
is : the correct code from the following :
N
(1) 0 (2) 1 List-I

(A) Napoleon defeated at Waterloo
A
(3) 2 (4) 3 (B) Formation of the Hindustan Socialist

Republican Army
Q.56 The first term of an A.P. is 5, the last term is (C) Formation of Comintern
R
45 and the sum is 400. Then the fourth term of (D) Lahore Congress
A.P. is : List-II
B
(1) 13 (2) 11 (i) 1929

(3) 15 (4) 14 (ii) 1919
VI
(iii) 1928
Q.57 A cow is tied with a rope of length 12 m at a (iv) 1815
corner of rectangular field of dimensions 25m Code :
× 45m. If the length of the rope is increased to A B C D
23m, then the additional grassy area in which (1) iii ii iv i
(2) iv iii ii i
22
the cow can graze is (take  = ): (3) i iv ii iii
7 (4) ii iv i iii
(1) 300.5 m2 (2) 312.5 m2
(3) 315.5 m2 (4) 302.5 m2 Q.63 Find out the correct explanation :
(1) Livre : Unit of currency in France,
Q.58 If a metallic sphere of radius 6 cm is melted discontinued in 1794
and recast into the shape of a cylinder of radius (2) Clergy : Building belonging to community
3 cm, then the height of the cylinder is : devoted to a religious life
(1) 30 cm (2) 25 cm (3) Tithe : Tax to be paid directly to the state
(3) 35 cm (4) 32 cm (4) Taille : A tax levied by the church
Q.64 In which state of India is Gujranwala Q.73 What is ‘X’ in the following map ?
situated ?
(1) Gujarat (2) Rajasthan
(3) Karnataka (4) Punjab
Q.65 Who wrote the novel ‘Godan’ ?

(1) Muhammad Basheer
(2) Rabindranath Tagore
(3) Bhudeb Mukhopadhyay
(4) Premchand
Q.66 Who was Charles Dickens ? (1) Jhelum River (2) Chenab River
(1) King (2) Novelist (3) Ravi River (4) Indus River
Y
(3) Revolutionary (4) Monk
Q.74 How much is the length of Kaveri River ?
EM
Q.67 Pay attention on the following points : (1) 1400 km (2) 1500 km
(A) The Non-cooperation-Khilafat Movement (3) 860 km (4) 760 km
began in January 1921.
(B) In February 1922, Mahatma Gandhi Q.75 Which one of the following is the characteristic
decided to withdraw the Non-Cooperation of cold weather season in India ?
D
Movement (1) Warm days and Warm nights
Choose the correct answer from the codes (2) Cold days and Cold nights
A
given below : (3) Warm days and Cold nights
(1) only (A) (2) only (B) (4) Cold days and Warm nights
Q.68
(3) both (A) and (B) (4) none of these
By which name is the tribe of camel herder

C Q.76 Match List-I and list-II and choose the correct
code from the following :
A
List – I List – II
called in West Rajasthan ?
(A) Sunderbans (i) Uttarakhand
(1) Bhakar (2) Faal
(B) Nanda Devi (ii) Tamil Nadu
T
(3) Bugyal (4) Dhandi

(C) Gulf of Mannar (iii) Karnataka
Q.69 Where was the Imperial Forest Research (D) Nilgiris (iv) West Bengal
N
Institute established in 1906 ? A B C D

(1) Dehradun (2) Calcutta (1) iii ii i iv
A
(2) ii iii iv i
(3) Udaipur (4) Bombay
(3) i iv iii ii
Q.70 Which one of the following incidents happened (4) iv i ii iii
R
first ?
Q.77 According to the Census 2001, a ‘literate’
(1) Convocation of Estates General
B
person is one who

(2) Overthrow of the Jacobin Republic (1) can read and write his/her name
(3) Debates over socialism in Russia (2) can read and write in any language
VI
(4) Proclamation of the Weimar Republic (3) knows the three – reading, writing &
arithmetic
Q.71 When was the first one-day international
(4) is above 7 years and can read and write
cricket match between England and Australia
any language with understanding
played ?
(1) 1971 (2) 1972 Q.78 Assertion (A) : Black soil has high capacity
(3) 1973 (4) 1974 to hold moisture.
Assertion (B) : Black soil develops in areas
Q.72 Approximately how much is land boundary of with high temperature and heavy rainfall.
India ? (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains
(1) 15200 km (2) 7516.6 km (A)
(3) 6100 km (4) 2000 km (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not
explain (A)
(3) (A) is true and (R) is false
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true
Q.79 Match List-I and List-II and choose the correct Q.85 Choose the correct statement describing the
code from the following : word ‘code of conduct’ :
List-I List-II (A) A set of norms and guidelines to be followed
(A) Extinct species by political parties
(i) Nicobar Pigeon (B) A set of norms and guidelines to be followed
(B) Vulnerable species by candidates in Election
(ii) Asiatic Cheetah (C) Guidelines for Election Commission
(C) Endangered species (D) Compulsory voting for voters
(iii) Black Buck (1) A, B, C (2) A, B
(D) Endemic species (3) B, C (4) C, D
(iv) Asiatic Elephant
A B C D Q.86 Which of the following statements properly
Y
(1) iii ii i iv define the ‘Constitution’ ?
(2) ii iv iii i (A) Constitution protects the rights of citizens.
EM
(3) i iii iv ii (B) It determines the functioning of
(4) iv i ii iii governments.
(C) It determines the process of legislation.
Q.80 Based on the data provided which of the (D) It decides the name of person who is going
D
following crops is most probably indicated ? to be the President.
Equatorial crop having moist and humid (1) A, B, D (2) B, C
climate, rainfall more than 200 cm, (3) A, B, C (4) B, C, D
A
temperature above 25ºC, main producer state
is Kerala. Q.87 Which one of the following is the institution,
(1) Coffee
(3) Jute
(2) Rubber
(4) Sugarcane
C functioning for International law, Security,
Social equity and World peace ?
A
(1) International Monetary Fund
Q.81 Which of the following cities is not connected (2) United Nations Organisation
with National Highway No. 8 ? (3) World Bank
T
(1) Delhi (2) Mumbai (4) None of these

(3) Kolkata (4) Jaipur
N
Q.88 Who among the following was the pioneer, to

Q.82 Nagercoil of Tamil Nadu is famous for abolish caste inequality and establish social
A
(1) Solar Energy (2) Wind Power harmony ?

(3) Thermal Power (4) Tidal Energy (1) Sir Sayed Ahmed Khan
R
(2) Dadabhai Naoroji

Q.83 Which of the following statements about the
(3) W.C. Bonerjee
relationship of Democracy and Human Rights
(4) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
B
is/are correct?
(A) When there is democracy then Rights are
Q.89 Select the mismatched statement given below:
VI
certain.
(1) Democracy evolves through public struggles
(B) Every democratic state gives rights to its
(2) Peaceful and non-violent struggles
citizens.
strengthen democracy
(C) Rights are not necessary for Democracy.
(3) Democracy exists only through struggles
(D) Every country that gives rights to its
(4) Freedom of expression is the identity of
citizens is a democratic country.
democracy.
(1) A, C, D (2) A, B
(3) B, C (4) A, B, D
Q.90 With reference to democratic system, which
Q.84 Who acts as the Supreme Commander of statement does not match ?
defence forces of India ? (1) Democracy and development go together
(1) The Chief of Air staff (2) Inequality does not exist under dictatorship
(2) The Chief of Army staff (3) Inequalities exist in democracy
(3) The President of India (4) Democracy provides freedom of expression
(4) The Chief of Navy and livelihood.
Q.91 There are some statements with reference to Q.96 The accepted average calorie requirements per
power sharing in Indian democratic system. person per day for rural and urban areas in
Select the irrevelevant statement : India are -
(1) Participation of public in general election (1) 2400 calories and 2100 calories
(2) Activeness of Gram Panchayat (2) 2100 calories and 2400 calories
(3) Activities of Army (3) 2300 calories and 2000 calories
(4) We participated in Gram Sabha (4) 2000 calories and 2300 calories
Q.92 Homogeneous Society means - Q.97 Annapurna Yojna was started in which year ?
(1) Similar kind of cultural heritage (1) 1995 (2) 1996
(2) Exist Caste based differences (3) 2000 (4) 2004
(3) Absence of community feeling
(4) Different kinds of living style of people Q.98 Human Development Report is published by -
Y
(1) UNDP (2) UNESCO
Q.93 Select the mismatched pair from the following (3) WHO (4) WTO
EM
names of organizations :
(1) Bhartiya Janta Party, Indian National Q.99 With development in India, in production sector,
Congress, Akali Dal the importance of which sector has increased
(2) Communist Party of India, Telugu Desam ?
Party (1) Primary sector
D
(3) Akhil Bhartiya Vidyarthi Parisad, National (2) Secondary sector
Student Union of India (3) Tertiary sector
A
(4) Bahujan Samaj Party, Trinamool Congress. (4) Primary and Secondary sectors
Q.94 Under ‘Green Revolution’ in India to increase

the production of wheat and rice which of the
following measures were adopted ?
C
Q.100 Globalisation has enabled which large Indian
com pany to emerge as multinational
company ?
A
(1) High Yielding varieties (1) Tata Motors (2) Infosys
(2) Chemical fertilizers (3) Ranbaxy (4) All of these
(3) Irrigation facilities (4) All of these
T
Q.95 For Human Capital Formation investment is

N
done in which of the following ?

(1) Education and medical care
A
(2) Education, training and medical care

(3) Education and entertainment
R
(4) Medical care and entertainment

B
ANSWER KEY
VI
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 1 3 1 1 1 4 2 3 3 3 1 2 3 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 4 3 4 4 3 2 3 3 1 3 4 3 4 4
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 3 1 1 3 4 3 4 2 1 4 2 2 1 3 1
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 4 4 1 1 3 4 1 4 4 2 1 4 4 2 3
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 2 2 1 4 4 2 3 4 1 1 1 1 1 4 3
Que. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. 4 4 3 2 2 3 2 4 3 2 3 2 4 3 2
Que. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. 3 1 3 4 2 1 3 1 3 4

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NTSE

(National Talent Search Examination)

VIBRANT ACADEMY (India) Private Limited

term is- (3) XWYZR (4) YXZAB

(1) 83 (2) 82 (1) rsp (2) stp

7. 1, 1, 3, 9, 6, 36, 10, 100, 16, 225

(3) 10 (4) 9 Certain numbers are given inside/outside the

question one of the circle has a (?) mark inside

(1) 91 (2) 108 3 5 2

23. 4 7.50 5 5 11.25 2 5 ? 2

(1) baba (2) babb

Directions : (27 to 31)Out of nine cells of a square one 32.

numbers are written which follow some rule. Get

blank cell (?)

38. 241214 : 752119 : : 14163234 : (?)

39. 25224447 : 23204245 :: 11143229 : ( ? )

40. 82224: 133133 :: 62022 : (?)

(a) (b) (c) (d) CIGAR usqwp

41. Code for letters in the word TOIL are-

is missing. Find the missing are from the

(1) Sunday (2) Tuesday

23 29 58. On what day of the week India will celebrate

A, B, C and D are given as alternatives. Choose

diagram marked A, B, C and D, the one that

52. Snakes, Land creatures, Water creatures

on the left of (: :) the same relationship exists

one is missing. Find the missing one from the

69. Question - Figures

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Answer - Figures Answer - Figures

(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

(i) X, sits opposite to cook

(iii) The washerman is on the left of the tailor

What are the trades of X and Y ?

Answer - Figures. (3) Tailor and Cook

78. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are standing

79. Six students are sitting in a row. K is sitting

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Directions : (81 to 84) The six faces of a cube are 87. If

83. How many cubes are colured on three sides ?

85. In a coded language NUMBER is written as in

coded language as-

1. Which is not the unit of Force – 11. The Unit of frequency is –

“y”. If Hydrogen gas is passed over this heating

18. PH of any neutral solution is –

(1) Water (2) Oil (3) 14 (4) 7

(1) Bromine (2) Iodine

(2) 1 Newton/Coulomb 20. The PH of a solution which turns red litmus

30. Dissimilarity found in Aves and Mammalia is – b b2  4ac

(2) Lay eggs

(3) Sun light (4) All of the above 2 4

The chord of maximum length in a circle is

(1) 102 cm3 (2) 102 cm3

54. Area of triangle ABC whose sides are 24 m.

(1) 75 (2) 107.5 55. Curved surface of right circular cylinder is

(1) J. Cardon (2) R.S. Woodwards (1) 1 m (2) 2 m

5 56. Who built Jantar–Mantar ?

66. What is “Barkan” ? under “right to information Act” ?

(4) Only elected members of Vidhan Sabha

8th in the Indian Constitution ?

(3) Assam (4) Madhya Pradesh

Questions (1 to 4) 9. Statements (I) : Some books are pencils.