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Review of Preventive and Social Medicine

398. Which of the following is NOT true about Oral Polio (c) Water
Vaccine? [AIIMS May 2014] (d) Mosquitoes
(a) Induces both local and systemic immunity
(b) Maternal antibody is completely protective
408. Zero dose of Polio vaccine is given:
(a) Before giving DPT [DNB 2005]
(c) Live attenuated vaccine
(b) At birth
(d) Requires sub-zero temperature for long term storage
(c) When child is having diarrhoea
399. Newborn child with HIV + and symptomatic, which (d) When child is having Polio
vaccine will NOT be given
(a Measles
[Recent Question 2014]
409. Yellow fever vaccination starts protection after how
many days of injection: [DNB 2005]
(b) OPV vaccine
(a) 5 days
(c) BCG
(b) 10 days
(d) Live J.E.
(c) 15 days
400. Live attenuated vaccine can be given to (d) 20 days
(a) Children under 8 years [Recent Question 2014]
410. Which is a live attenuated vaccine: [DNB 2005]
(b) HIV patients
(c) Patients on steroids
(a) BCG  [Recent Question 2012]
(b) Salk
(d) Patients on radiation
(c) DPT
(d) Tetanus toxoid
Review Questions
411. ‘Ring vaccination is: [DNB 2006]
(a) Given by a ring shaped machine
401. Zero dose of Polio vaccine is which is given: (b) Given to produced a ring shaped lesion
(a) Before giving DPT [DNB 2000]
(c) Given around 200 yards of a case detected
(b) At birth
Epidemiology and Vaccines

(d) Given around a mile of a case detected

(c) When child is having diarrhoea
(d) When child is having Polio 412. The following are live attenuated vaccines except:
(a) Oral polio [DNB 2006]
402. Which is a live vaccine: [DNB 2000]
(b) Yellow fever
(a) BCG  [Recent Question 2013]
(c) Measles
(b) Salk
(d) Influenza
(c) DPT
(d) Tetanus toxoid 413. Use of the following vaccination is generally

403. Zero dose of Polio vaccine is which is given: contraindicated in pregnancy: [DNB 2007]
(a) Hepatitis B
(a) Before giving DPT [DNB 2001]
(b) Cholera
(b) At birth
(c) Rabies
(c) When child is having diarrhoea
(d) Yellow fever
(d) When child is having Polio
404. Which is a live vaccine: [DNB 2001]
414. Zero dose of Polio vaccine is which is given:
(a) Before giving DPT [DNB 2007]
(a) BCG
(b) At birth
(b) Salk
(c) When child is having fever
(c) DPT
(d) When child is having Polio
(d) Tetanus toxoid

405. The following are live attenuated vaccines except:
415. Yellow fever vaccination starts protection after how
many days of injection: [DNB 2007]
(a) Oral polio [DNB 2002]
(a) 5 days
(b) Yellow fever
(b) 10 days
(c) Measles
(c) 15 days
(d) Influenza
(d) 20 days
406. Storage temperature for vaccine is: [DNB 2004]
416. A full course of immunization against Tetanus with
(a) -4°C to 0°C
3 doses of Tetanus toxoid, confers immunity for how
(b) 0°C to 4°C
many years? [DNB 2008]
(c) +2°C to 8°C
(a) 5
(d) +4°C to 12°C
(b) 10
407. Leprosy commonly spreads by: [DNB 2004] (c) 15
(a) Milk (d) 20
(b) Droplet

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417. The neurological complications of DPT are due to: (c) Antibody responses maintained at higher
(a) Pertussis component [Bihar 2003] levels for a longer period of time
(b) Diphtheria (d) Production of antibody more slow
(c) Tetanus
(d) Adjuvant
427. Toxoid vaccines: [UP 2003]
(a) The micro-organism produces exotoxins
418. MMR vaccine is given at what age in India: (b)
(c)
The micro-organism produces endotoxins
The organism killed by heat or chemical
(a) 9 – 12 months [Bihar 2004]
(b) 12 – 15 months (d) These organisms passed repeatedly in the
(c) 15 – 18 months laboratory in tissue culture
(d) 18 – 24 months 428. Which of the following is inactivated vaccine:
419. Which among is live attenuated vaccine: (a) Salk polio vaccine [Kerala 2001] [UP 2004]
(a) Sabin OPV [Bihar 2006] (b) Ty21 typhoral vaccine
(b) Salk OPV (c) HDC-Edmonston-Zagreb measles strain
(c) Purtusis vaccine (d) BCG
(d) Tetanus toxoid 429. All are true statement regarding BCG vaccination
420. For typhoid best vaccine is: [Bihar 2006] Except: [UP 2005]
(a) Typhoid oral (a) Given subcutaneously
(b) Whole cell vaccine (b) It can be given in tuberculin negative patients
(c) Vi polysaccharide vaccine (c) Prevent haematogenous spread
(d) None (d) It is prepared from M. bovis
421. A 5 yrs male boy having no immunization: 430. Immunoglobulins found maximum is secretions:
(a) OPV + BCG + Measles + DPT [Bihar 2006] (a) IgM [UP 2006]

Epidemiology and Vaccines

(b) BCG + OPV + Measles + DT (b) IgG
(c) BCG + OPV + TT (c) IgA
(d) BCG + TT (d) IgD
422. Live attenuated vaccine is:
[UP 2002] 431. The vaccine administered as “Nose drops”:
(a) Salk polio (a) Rubella [UP 2006]
(b) Sabin polio (b) Poliomyelitis
(c) Diphtheria (c) Influenza
(d) Pertusis (d) Measles
423. In
pulse polio immunization programme, VVM 432. Congenital passive immunity is NOT found in:
(Vaccine monitoring vial) to maintain the cold chain, (a) Polio [UP 2008]
which of the following indication to discard the vaccine (b) Mumps
is: [UP 2002] (c) Rubella
(d) Measles
(a) Inner square is white
(b) Inner square is lighter than outer circle
(c) Inner square darker than the outer circle

433. All are correct regarding Premunition except:
(a) It is a state of active immunity [AP 2000]
(d) Outer circle is more dark than inner square (b) Protects an individual
424. DPT vaccine stored in: [UP 2003] (c) Protects entire community
(a) –4°C (d) Immunity depends on the presence of an inactive
(b) 0°C infection with the same species in the host
(c) 4°C
(d) 10°C

434. Rabies: [AP 2003]
(a) Cell culture vaccine is cheaper and effective
425. Freeze dried vaccine is: [UP 2003] (b) BPL vaccine has more number of doses
(c) Cell culture vaccine is less effective
(a) BCG
(b) Rabies (d) None
(c)
(d)
DPT
Hepatitis-B
435. The Following is a live attenuated vaccine:
(a) Cholera vaccine [TN 1994] [TN 2000]
426. True about secondary booster response in comparison (b) Sabin vaccine
to that of primary response are all Except: [UP 2003] (c) Pertussis vaccine
(a) Shorter latent period (d) Human diploid cell vaccine rabies
(b) Antibody is maximum

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436. All are killed vaccines Except:

[Kolkata 2002] 446. Ty 21a is vaccine of: [MP 2005]
(a) Measles (a) Typhoid
(b) Hepatitis B (b) Cholera
(c) Plague (c) Hepatitis
(d) Diphtheria (d) Rota virus
437. Minimum gap that should be allowed in between to 447. Under UIP programme which of the following vaccines
is administered at 9 months of age?
administer two live vaccines: [Kolkata 2004]
(a) 2 weeks (a) DPT-1 [MP 2006]
(b) 4 weeks (b) BCG  [Recent Question 2013]
(c) 2 months (c) Measles
(d) 4 months (d) Hepatitis B-1

438. Which of the following is not a killed vaccine: Recommended dose of anti-rabies serum to be given for
448.
(a) DPT [Kolkata 2004] passive immunization of adult victim of dog bite is:
(b) Rabies (a) 20 i.u.  [MP 2009]
(c) Hepatitis B (b) 40 i.u.
(d) Rubella (c) 60 i.u.
(d) 80 i.u.
439. Human immunoglobulin is given in all except 449. The vaccines is yet to be available for:
(a) Rabies [Kolkata 2009]
(a) Dengue fever [MP 2009]
(b) Hepatitis B
(b) Japanese encephalitis
(c) Measles
(c) Yellow fever
(d) chickenpox
(d) Russian spring summer encephalitis
440. Mg2+ ion is used as an stabilizer in 450. DPT vaccine is stored at what temperature (in °C)?
Epidemiology and Vaccines

(a) OPV [Kolkata 2009] (a) 2-4 [MH 2005]

(b) DPT (b) 4-8
(c) BCG (c) 0
(d) Measles (d) - 20

441.
Active and passive immunization is
done 451. All are live vaccine except: [RJ 2000]
simultaneously in all except: [MP 2001] (a) 17-D
(a) Hepatitis B (b) Rubella
(b) Measles (c) Salk
(c) Rabies (d) Measles
(d) Tetanus
442. Following is a live attenuated vaccine: 452. Toxic shock syndrome is due to which vaccine:
(a) Mumps [RJ 2001]
(a) BCG [MP 2001] (b) Measles
(b) Hepatitis B (c) Salk
(c) Japanese encephalitis (d) Tetanus
(d) Salk
453. Which is not a live vaccine? [RJ 2001]
443. Killed vaccine among following is: [MP 2002] (a) Sabin (b) 17-D
(a) BCG (c) Salk (d) Measles
(b) Salk
(c) Sabin
454. BCG vaccine is: [RJ 2002]
(a) Killed
(d) Yellow fever (b) Live attenuated
444. Vaccine preventable neonatal disease is: (c)
(d)
Toxoid
Cellular fraction
(a) Tuberculosis [MP 2003]
(b)
(c)
Measles
Pertussis
455. BCG is given: [RJ 2002]
(a) Intramuscular
(d) Tetanus (b) Intradermal
445. The strain which is used for production of BCG vaccine (c) Subcutaneous
at commercial level is: [MP 2003] (d) Intravenous
(a) Bacille Calmette Guerin 456. In national immunization programme, total No of OPV
(b) Tween-80 dose are: [RJ 2003]
(c) Danish-1331 (a) 3 (b) 4
(d) PPD-RT-23 (c) 5 (d) 6

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457. Salk vaccine is:

[RJ 2004] 467. Savlon contains [AIIMS May 2010]
(a) Live (a) Cetrimide + chlorhexidine
(b) Killed (b) Cetrimide + chlorhexidine + butyl alcohol
(c) Toxoid
(c) Cetrimide + butyl alcohol
(d) None
(d) Cetrimide + Cetavlon

458. Passive immunization is available for all except:

(a) Tetanus [RJ 2005] 468. There is an outbreak of MRSA infection in a ward of a
(b) Hepatitis hospital. What is the best way to control the infection?
(c) Diphtheria [AIIMS Nov 2010]
(d) Measles (a) Vancomycin given empirically to all the patients

459. Live attenuated vaccine are all except: [RJ 2006] (b) Frequent fumigation of the ward
(c) Wearing masks before any invasive procedure in
(a) Oral typhoid
(b) Influenza ICU
(c) Yellow fever (d) Washing of hands before and after attending the
(d) Pertussis patients

DISINFECTION
469. Sputum is sterilized by all except: [AIIMS Nov 2010]
(a) Autoclaving
(b) Boiling
460. Rideal-Walker Coefficient is employed for the
(c) Cresol
assessment of : [AIIMS June 1991]
(d) Chlorhexidine
(a) Effect of autoclaving
(b) Sufficiency of Pasteurisation 470. Which of the following is used to test the efficiency of
(c) Effect of Incineration

Epidemiology and Vaccines

sterilisation of an autoclave?
(d) Germicidal Power of a disinfectant
(a) Bacillus subtilis [AIIMS November 2011]

461. Standard against which disinfectants are measured is: (b) Clostridium tetani
(a) Chlorine [AIIMS Dec 1991] (c) Bacillus stearothermophilus
(b) Ozone (d) Bacillus pumilus
(c) Phenol
(d) UV Radiation
471. The amount of bleaching powder necessary to disinfect

462. Chlorine exerts a disinfectant action in all except:
choleric stools, is:  [Recent Question 2012]
(a) Bleaching Powder [AIIMS May 2001] (a) 50 gm/lit
(b) Cetrimide (b) 75 gm/lit
(c) Halozone tablets (c) 90 gm/lit
(d) Sodium hypochlorite (d) 100 gm/lit
463. ‘Savlon’ contains:
[AIIMS Dec 1991] 472. Sterilization and disinfection of blood spills is done by:
(a) Chlorhexidine and chlorxylenol
(b) Cetavlon and chlorxylenol
 [DNB December 2010]
(a) Formaldehyde
(c) Cetavlon and hibitane (b) Sodium hypochlorite
(d) Hibitane and chlorxylenol
(c) Tincture iodine
464. Which of the following is not a sporicidal agent? (d) Phenols
(a) Glutaraldehyde [DPG 2007]
(b) Formaldehyde
473. Syringes and glassware are sterilized by:
(c) Chlorine dioxide (a) Irradiation  [DNB June 2011]
(d) Cresol (b) Autoclave
465. Disinfection of water by routine chlorination can be (c) Hot air oven
classified as [Karnataka 2005, 2007] (d) Glutaraldehyde
(a)
(b)
Sterilization
Concurrent disinfection
474. Nosocomial infections are those which develop
[Recent Question 2014]
(c) Terminal disinfection
(a) Within 24 hours after hospitalization
(d) Pre-current disinfection
(b) Within 48 hours of hospitalization
466. Sputum can be disinfected by [DPG 2002] (c) After 48 hours of hospitalization
(a) Boiling (b) Burning (d) After 7 days of hospitalization
(c) Drying (d) Autoclaving

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Review Questions (c) Is useful for rare diseases with expensive

diagnostic tests
475. Disinfectant is one which: [MH 2000] (d) Recall bias is not seen
(a) Kills bacteria and spores
(b) Kills bacteria only
482. A drug company is developing a new pregnancy-test
kit for use on an outpatient basis. The company used
(c) Kills spores only the pregnancy test on 100 women who are known to be
(d) Kills viruses pregnant. Out of 100 women, 99 showed positive test.
Upon using the same test on 100 non-pregnant women,

476. Fibreoptic scopes are sterilized by:
90 showed negative result. What is the sensitivity of the
(a) Glutaraldehyde
(b) Ethylene oxide
[AIIMS Nov 2003 [MH 2002]
[JIPMER 2014]
test ? [AIIMS May 03]
(a) 90%
(c) Autoclaving (b) 99%
(d) Alcohol (c) Average of 90 & 99
(d) Can’t be calculated from the data
MISCELLANEOUS 483. The extent to which a specific health care treatment,
service, procedure, program, or other intervention does
477. As compared to a routine case control study, nested case what it is intended to do when used in a community
control study avoids problems (in study design) related
dwelling population is termed its: [AIPGME 2006]
to:
(a) Temporal association
[AIIMS Nov 04] (a) Efficacy
(b) Effectiveness
(b) Confounding bias
(c) Need for long follow up
(c) Effect modification
(d) Efficiency
(d) Randomization

Epidemiology and Vaccines

484. Iron and Folic acid supplementation forms:

478. When an intervention is applied to community to
evaluate its usefulness, it is termed as a trial for – (a) Health promotion
[AIPGME 02]
(b) Specific protection
(a) Efficacy [AIIMS Nov 05, AIPGME 06] (c) Primordial prevention
(b) Effectiveness (d) Secondary prevention
(c) Efficiency
(d) Effect modification
485. All of the following are true about the Herd Immunity
for infectious diseases except:
479. A total of 5000 patients of glaucoma are identified and (a) It refers to group protection beyond what is afforded
surveyed by patient interviews regarding family history by the protection of immunized individuals
of glaucoma. Such a study design is called: (b) It is likely to be more for infections that do not have
(a) Case series report [AIIMS Nov 2004] a sub-clinical phase [AIPGME 05, 07]
(b) Case control study (c) It is affected by the presence and distribution of
(c) Clinical trial alternative animal hosts
(d) Cohort study (d) In the case of tetanus it does not protect the individual
480.
In assessing the association between maternal 486. Evidence based medicine, which of the following is not
nutritional status and the birth weight of the newborn,
two investigators A and B studied separately and
useful [PGI Dec 07]
(a) Personal Exposure
found significant results with P values 0.02 and 0.04 (b) RCT
respectively. From this information, what can you infer (c) Case Report
­
about the magnitudes of association found by the two (d) Meta Analysis
investigators? (e) Systematic review
(a) The magnitude of association found by
investigator A is more than found by B 487. Discovery of cholera by John Snow was a: 
(b) The magnitude of association found by  [Recent Question 2013] [DNB December 2011]
investigator B is more than that found by A (a) Cohort study
(c) The estimates of association obtained by A (b) Cross sectional study
and B will be equal, since both are significant (c) Natural experiment study
(d) Nothing can be concluded as the information (d) Clinical trial
given is inadequate
[AIPGME 2003] 488. Hypothesis is not tested by:  [DNB June 2011]
481. Which of the following statements is false about nested (a) Descriptive studies
case control study? [AIIMS Nov 1992] (b)
(c)
Analytical studies
Case control studies
(a) Is a cohort study nested in a case control study
(b) It maintains temporal association (d) Cohort studies

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Review Questions (c) Species specificity present

(d) Prevention from infection
489. Reverse cold chain is seen in: Hospital based study among following is:
[UP 2000] 492.
(a) Expired vaccine from PHC to manufactured (a) Cohort [MP 2003]
(b) Carrying vaccine to periphery center (b) Case control study
(c) Testing for potency of vaccine (c) Cross sectional
(d) Stool specimen of polio send for testing (d) Cross over study
490. Disability free life expectancy is measured by:-
(a) Human development index [Kolkata 2005]
In the context of epidemiology-a set of questions is
493.
constructed in such a manner that it takes into account
(b) Physical quality of life index all the important epidemiological factors of a given
(c) Sullivan’s index
(d) Chandler’s index
disease: [RJ 2007]
(a) Health model
491. About premunition all are true except: (b) Epidemiological triad
(c) Epidemiological surveillance
(a) Good for individual [MP 2001]
(b) Good for community (d) Mathematical model

Epidemiology and Vaccines

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