Irrigation Engineering Questions and Answers PDF

WATER RESOURCE ENGINEERING
This set of Irrigation Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Canal Falls – Types”.
1. Canal drop or canal fall is needed construction in the canal bed.

a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If the available natural slope is steeper than the bed slope of the
canal, then this is adjusted by the construction of vertical falls or drops in the
canal bed at suitable intervals. But such a drop will not be stable, therefore in
order to maintain this drop a masonry structure is constructed. This is known as
canal fall or canal drop.
2. On what term does the construction of a fall in the case of the main canal
depend?
a) Discharge Capacity of the Canal
b) Length of the Canal
c) Topography
d) Cost of Excavation and Filling versus Cost of fall
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The main does not irrigate any area directly, so therefore the site of
the fall is based on the considerations of economy in cost of excavation and filling
versus cost of fall. The excavation and filling on both sides of the fall should be
balanced because unbalanced work causes extra cost.
3. On what factor in case of branch canals, the construction site for a fall
depends?
a) Cost of Excavation
b) Topography
c) Commanded Area
d) Cost of fall
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: By considering the commanded area of a branch canal or a
distributary canal the location for the falls is decided. The procedure is to fix the
FSL needed at the head of the off taking channels and outlets. Thus the FSL can
be marked at all commanded points and hence deciding appropriate locations for
the falls in canal FSL and therefore in canal beds.
4. How many types of falls are present?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 7
d) 8
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Since the idea of the construction of falls various types of falls have
been designed. Some important falls are ogee falls, rapids, trapezoidal notch
falls, simple vertical drop type and sarda type falls, straight glacis falls, Montague
type falls and inglis falls.
5. What type of fall does diagram represent?
a) Simple Vertical Drop Fall

b) Inglis Fall
c) Straight Glacis Fall
d) Ogee Fall
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The diagram gives clear image that in this fall a high crested fall
takes place into the water cushion below. There is no clear hydraulic jump or
energy dissipation, as the velocity jet enters the deep pool of downstream. Hence
it is a simple vertical drop type fall.
6. What type of fall does the diagram depict?
a) Ogee Fall
b) Trapezoidal Notch Fall
c) Simple Vertical Drop Type Fall
d) Straight Glacis Fall
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The diagram shows that water is gradually led down the convex and
concave curves. It also shows the draw down on the upstream side which results
in lower depths, higher velocities and subsequent soil erosion. The curves
provide smooth surfaces which results in less energy dissipation, which again
causes soil erosion. Hence the diagram is ogee fall type.
7. What number of major defects does the ogee fall have?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Ogee fall has two major defects. Heavy drawdown occurs on the
upstream side, which results in lower depths, higher velocities and bed erosion.
The kinetic energy of the flow will not be dissipated due to smooth transition,
causing erosion on downstream bed and banks.
8. In which fall the depth discharge relationship is unaffected?
a) Trapezoidal Notch Fall
b) Ogee Fall
c) Rapids
d) Straight Glacis Fall
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In this fall the notches could be designed to maintain the normal
water depth in the upstream channel at any two discharges, as the intermediate
values do not vary much. Therefore the depth discharge relationship of the
channel is not affected by the introduction of the fall.
9. Which type of fall is suitable for 60 cumecs discharge and 1.5 m drop?
a) Montague Type Fall
b) Rapids
c) Straight Glacis Fall
d) Baffle Fall
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In this type of modern fall, a straight glacis is provided after the
raised crest. The hydraulic jump is made to happen on this glacis causing
sufficient energy dissipation. If not flumed this fall gives good performance. This
fall is suitable for 60 cumecs discharge and 1.5 m drop.
10. What is the reason for the construction of baffle wall in baffle fall?
a) To Maintain Uniform Velocity Flow
b) To Ensure Formation of Jump
c) To Reduce Soil Erosion
d) To Ensure Uniform Discharge of the Flow
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The baffle wall is provided at a calculated height and a calculated
distance from the toe of the glacis to ensure proper formation of the jump on the
baffle platform. This type of fall is suitable for all discharges and for drops which
are more than 1.5 m.
11. Which type of fall is not adopted in India?
a) Ogee Fall
b) Rapids
c) Inglis Fall
d) Montague Type Fall
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In this type of fall the energy dissipation is incomplete on a straight
glacis due to the vertical component of velocity remains unaffected. So, therefore
due to this reason the straight glacis is replaced by a parabolic curve known as
Montague profile. This curved glacis is difficult to construct and therefore is
costlier. Hence it is not adopted in India.
focuses on “Canal Falls – Location”.
1. Canal drops are provided to _______________

a) dissipate the excess energy
b) increase the driving head of flow of water
c) dissipate excess land slope
d) dissipate inadequate land slope
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: when a canal fall or drop is provided at a suitable section, it brings
down the canal bed line. In this process, water comes down with a great force
and all the potential energy is converted into kinetic energy. The excess energy
of the flow is destroyed with some suitable energy dissipation method.
2. For a canal that irrigates the area directly the fall should be provided at a
location FSL outstrips the G.L before the bed of the canal comes into the filling.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: This is done in case of branch canals and distributary channels
which irrigate the area directly, the FSL is fixed and marked at the head of the off-
taking channel and outlets. In the case of the main canal which does not irrigate
the area directly, the site of the fall is determined by considerations of economy.
3. In case of branch canals and distributary channels, the falls are located with
consideration to _________________
a) command area
b) topography
c) cost economy
d) availability of earth material
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In the case of branch canals and distributary canals, the procedure
is to mark the FSL required on the L-section of the canal. It is done so as to cover
all the commanded points that decide the suitable locations for fall in canal FSL
and in canal beds.
4. By providing a natural drop in one drop _______________________
a) the quantity of unbalanced earthwork decreases
b) the quantity of unbalanced earthwork increases
c) the quantity of balanced earthwork increases
d) number of fall increases
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The number of fall decreases and the quantity of unbalanced
earthwork increases by providing a larger drop in one step. All these factors have
to be worked out before deciding the locations and extent of falls.
5. A canal fall is provided when the available natural slope is flatter than the
designed bed slope of the channel.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When the ground has a steep slope heavy earth filling is required to
construct the canal with a flatter bed slope. The difference between the natural
slope and the designed bed slope is adjusted by constructing vertical falls or
drops in the canal at a suitable interval.
6. Consider the following statements.
I. Possibility of combining some other structure with a fall eg. regulator, road
bridge etc.
II. Cutting and filling are required below and above the fall should not be
necessarily equal.
III. The command should not be reduced due to the lowering of F.S.L and the fall
may be located below the outlets.
Which of the following statement is correct for site selection of a fall?
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II
d) I and III
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The unbalanced earthwork is quite expensive so the excavation and
filling on two sides of the fall should be balanced. The considerations of the
economy in ‘cost of cutting and filling’ versus ‘cost of fall’ form a basis in deciding
the site of a fall in case of the main canal.
focuses on “Canal Regulation”.
1. The process of distribution of water from main canal to branches is termed as

canal regulation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The water enters the main canal from the river and this water has to
be divided into different branches, distributaries in accordance to the relative
demand on these different channels. Therefore this process of distribution of
water is called as canal distribution.
2. The discharge value of water is controlled by?
a) Hydraulic Jump
b) Falls
c) Regulators
d) Velocity of the flow
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The discharge value of water has to be adjusted to any value
necessary to distribute the water effectively. This is done with the help of
regulators.
3. By using canal regulation works we can control discharges, depths, and
velocities in the canals.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Canal regulation works are the structures constructed in order to
control and regulate the discharges, depths, and velocities in the canals. These
structures ensure the efficient functioning of the irrigation canal system.
4. How many types of canal irrigation works are there?
a) 5
b) 4
c) 6
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There are five types of canal irrigation works, namely canal falls,
canal regulators, canal escapes, metering flumes, and canal outlets and
modules.
5. What is the angle made by this off taking channel with parent channel?
a) 15 degrees
b) Zero degrees
c) 20 degrees
d) 10 degrees
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: This off taking channel makes a zero angle with parent channel
initially and then separates out in transition. This is the best ideal alignment.
6. When does the alignment depicted by the following diagram used?
a) To Maintain Proper Energy Dissipation

b) To Control Velocity of the Flow
c) To Control Hydraulic Jump
d) To Avoid Silt Accumulation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The transitions from the main channel to the off taking channel have
to be designed properly so as to avoid the accumulation of silt or say silt jetty. So
therefore to serve as an alternative to the transitions both the channels have to
make an angle with the parent channel upstream of the off take.
7. What does the below diagram represent?
a) Undesired Alignment of off taking Channel

b) Parent Channel Carried Straight
c) Off taking Channel making an angle with the Centre of Parent Channel
d) Canal Outlet
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: This represents that, whenever the parent channel has to be carried
straight then the edge of the canal should be considered in deciding the angle of
the off take channel.
8. How many main functions of a head regulator are?
a) 4
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The main functions of a head regulator are to control and regulate
the water entering the off take channel, to serve as a meter for measuring
discharge, and to control silt entering into the off take channel.
9. How many numbers of conditions of flow are to be followed while designing the
cross regulator and head regulator?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The conditions are considered for the worst conditions of the flow.
The flow of the canal should be taken as it is when there is full supply of
discharge down the channel with all gates of both head and cross regulators fully
open. The discharge in the main channel is low but in the off take channel is
running full, the FSL is maintained by partial opening of the gates of cross
regulator.
10. By what structures the regulator can control the supplies entering the off take
channel?
a) Sluice Gates
b) Falls
c) Piers and Planks
d) Dams
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The regulator consists of essential parts like piers which are placed
across the canal at regular intervals with grooves, in which either planks or gates
can be used to control the supplies entering off take channel.
focuses on “Types of Canal Escapes”.
1. What is the main purpose of the canal escape?

a) To Maintain Uniform Flow in the Canal
b) To Remove Surplus Water
c) To Maintain Constant Velocity of the Flow
d) To Help for Proper Hydraulic Jump
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The canal escape is a side channel constructed to remove surplus
amounts of water from an irrigation channel such as main canal, branch canal,
distributary canal etc into the natural drain.
2. Which of the following is a reason for surplus water present in a canal?
a) No Fall
b) No Proper Hydraulic Jump
c) No Proper Uniform Velocity of Flow
d) Cultivators closing their outlets thinking their demand is over
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The presence of the surplus amount of water in canal can be due to
difficulty in regulation at the head or due to heavy rainfall or due to cultivators
closing their outlets suddenly thinking that the demand of water is over.
3. What is the other name for canal escape?
a) Canal Outlet
b) Escape
c) Surplus Water Escape
d) Canal Inlet
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Due to reasons for surplus amount of water to be present in the
canal, the supplies shall be reduced or stopped from the head works. Therefore
in order to avoid this damage immediate action is needed. This can be achieved
by the means of an escape generally called surplus water escape.
4. In case of breaches in the canal, the escape present in the upstream of the
breach is opened.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In case if a breach occurs in a canal then immediate information is
sent to the head to close the canal supplies immediately. But the water present
from head to breach will cause damage if passed through the breach. So,
therefore the escape existing on the upstream of the breach is opened to allow
the water through the escape.
5. The canal escapes are safety valves that should be provided at regular
intervals.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: To minimize the damage from a breach or any such leakages
causing surplus of water to be present in the canal the canal escapes should be
present at regular intervals depending upon the importance of the channel and
it’s availability of a suitable drainage for the disposal of the escaped water.
6. Which type of canal escape does the figure represent?
a) Weir Type Escape

b) Regular Type Escape
c) Venturi Flume
d) Surplus Water Escape
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In this type of escape the crest of the weir wall is kept at RL equal to
canal FSL. When the water level rises up FSL it gets escaped.
7. What type of escape is preferred these days?
a) Weir Type Escape
b) Venturi Flume
c) Regular Type Escape
d) Tail Escape
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In this type of escape the flow is controlled by gates and the sill of
the escape is kept at bed level. These types of escape give better control and
can be used for completely emptying the canal. Hence these types of escapes
are preferred these days.
8. What is the other name given to weir type escape?
a) Surplus Water Escape
b) Venturi Flume
c) Tail Escape
d) Scouring Escape
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The weir type escape is generally provided at the tail end of the
canal and is used to maintain the required FSL in the tail reaches of the canal.
Hence the name tail escape.
9. What is the purpose of the regulator type escape?
a) To Remove Excess Silt
b) To Maintain Uniform Flow in the Canal
c) To Perform Proper Hydraulic Jump
d) For Distribution of Discharge for the Canals
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The purpose of the construction of a regulator type escape is to
scour off excess bed silt deposited in the bed reaches from time to time.
Therefore, it is also called as scouring escape.
10. Scouring escapes have become obsolete because of?
a) Piers
b) Weir Walls
c) Falls
d) Silt Ejectors
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When the deposited silt is to be scoured out, a discharge higher
than the full supply discharge is let off into the canal from its head. To produce
scouring velocities the gates are raised, to scour out the silt deposited. A cross
regulator may also be provided for better efficiency just the downstream of
scouring escape. Therefore, scouring escapes have become obsolete because
silt ejectors are used nowadays for better efficiency.
focuses on “Types of Cross Drainage Work”.
1. Which of the following CD works carry drainage over the canal?

a) Aqueduct and Syphon Aqueduct
b) Super passage and Syphon
c) Level-crossing and inlets outlets
d) Canal Syphon and Aqueduct
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In Aqueduct and Syphon Aqueduct, the canal is carried over the
natural drain. In level crossing and inlet and outlets, the canal water and drainage
water are allowed to intermingle with each other.
2. The canal water flows freely under gravity in which of the following CD works?
a) Aqueduct and Super passage
b) Super passage and Syphon
c) Canal Syphon and Aqueduct
d) Level-crossing and inlets outlets
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In canal syphon and syphon aqueduct, canal water flows under
symphonic action. The canal and the drainage system approach each other
practically at the same level in CD works like Level crossing and inlets and
outlets.
3. A Super passage is the reverse of ______________
a) syphon
b) aqueduct
c) inlets and outlets
d) syphon Aqueduct
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In Aqueduct, the drainage water runs below the canal either freely or
under symphonic action. In Super passage, the drain is taken over the canal such
that the canal water runs below the drain. Similarly, a syphon is also a reverse of
aqueduct syphon.
4. Which of the following statement is not correct about canal syphon?
a) FSL of the canal is much above than the bed level of the drainage trough
b) To minimize the trouble of silting, a ramp is provided at the exit
c) The canal water flows under symphonic action
d) For siphoning small discharges, barrels are adopted
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: For siphoning higher discharges, horseshoe-shaped, rectangular or
circular barrels are adopted. For siphoning small discharges, precast RCC pipes
are adopted.
5. Which CD work is generally adopted when the drainage discharge is small and
the drain crosses the canal with its bed level equal to or slightly higher than the
canal FSL?
a) Syphon Aqueduct
b) Level crossing
c) Inlets and outlets
d) Aqueduct
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Level crossing is generally adopted when the canal and the
drainage are practically at the same level and for high flood drainage discharge
but short-lived. Aqueduct or super passage is adopted when high flood drainage
discharge is large.
6. The drainage water is sometimes allowed to join the canal water to augment
canal supplies through a hydraulic structure is called as ________________
a) canal outlet
b) canal inlet
c) module
d) level crossing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The structure allows the drainage water to enter the canal and get
mixed with the canal water. It helps in augmenting canal supplies. It is adopted
when high flood drainage discharge is small.
7. The crossing arrangement preferably made at the junction of a huge canal and
a river stream carrying a short-lived high flood discharge at almost equal bed
levels is a __________
a) super passage
b) aqueduct
c) level crossing
d) canal syphon
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: This is a type of cross-drainage works in which the canal water and
the drain get intermixed. The arrangement is generally adopted when a huge
canal crosses a large torrent carrying a high short-lived flood.
8. In a syphon aqueduct provided with a pucca bottom floor, the uplift will occur
on __________
a) the roof slab
b) the bottom floor
c) both the roof slab as well as the bottom floor
d) nowhere since the flow is free in the canal as well as in the drainage channel
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The uplift pressure on the floor of the aqueduct is caused due to
seepage of water from the canal to the drainage and the sub-soil water table in
the drainage bed. The drain bed of the aqueduct is generally depressed and
provided with the pucca floor.
9. Which of the following is a disadvantage of CD works carrying the canal over
the discharge?
a) The damage caused by floods is not rare
b) The canal is not open for inspection and maintenance
c) The CD works are less liable to damage than the earthwork of the canal
d) During heavy floods, the foundations are susceptible to scour or waterway of
the drain may get choked
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In this arrangement, the canal is above the ground hence it is open
to inspection. The damage done by light floods is rare. The CD works are less
liable to damage than the earthwork of the canal when the canal passes below
the drainage.
10. In which of the following arrangement, the perennial drainage discharge is
advantageously used?
a) Level crossing
b) Inlets and Outlets
c) Syphon
d) Aqueduct
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In level-crossing, a regulator is provided across the drainage to
control the discharge. When there are no floods the torrent regulator is kept
closed and during floods, the regulator is opened so as to pass the flood
discharge.
11. The number of inlets should be equal to the number of outlets.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is not necessary to have equal values of escaped discharge and
admitted discharge. There can be fewer outlets for more number of inlets. The
outlet can be combined with some other work where a separate arrangement is
provided for escaping at a small extra cost.
12. Which of the following is a disadvantage of CD works carrying drainage over
the canal?
a) The arrangement is generally constructed when the drain is very big as
compared to the section of the canal
b) The damage caused by floods is not rare
c) The CD works are more liable to damage than the earthwork of the canal
d) The perennial canal is not open to inspection or maintenance
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The main advantage of this arrangement is that the CD works are
less liable to damage than the earthwork of the canal. The major disadvantage is
that the inspection road cannot be provided along the canal hence, it is not open
to inspection or maintenance.
This set of Irrigation Engineering Assessment Questions and Answers focuses on
“Cross Drainage – Aqueducts and Syphon Aqueducts Types”.
1. The canal alignment is finalized only after finalizing the CD works.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The canal alignment may be changed so that the crossing is shifted
to the d/s where drainage bed is low if the conditions are not suitable for the
construction of a siphon-aqueduct. Thus, sufficient headway becomes available
for constructing an aqueduct. The CD works are finalized before the canal
alignment.
2. The relative bed levels of the canal and the drainage may be changed and
manipulated by _________________
a) changing the alignment
b) changing the positions of the water table
c) altering the head level
d) use of dewatering equipment
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The point of crossing is shifted upstream or downstream of the
drainage by suitably changing the canal alignment. It manipulates the bed levels
of the canal and the drainage.
3. The selection of the CD works depends on?
i. Selecting canal alignment
ii. Position of water-table and availability of dewatering equipment
iii. Suitability of soil for embankment
iv. Availability of funds
a) i and ii
b) i, ii and iv
c) i, ii and iii
d) i, ii, iii and iv
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The choice of selection of the suitable type of CD works depends
upon many factors such as suitable canal alignment, nature of available
foundation, the suitability of the soil for embankment, availability of funds,
permissible head loss. The position of water table and availability of dewatering
equipment also affects the choice of site selection.
4. Inlets and Outlets are inferior to aqueduct or super-passage type of work.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Inlets though cheaper are not preferred nowadays since their
performance has not been very satisfactory. They are used when the high flood
drainage discharge is small. Similarly, a super-passage is inferior compared to an
aqueduct and should be avoided whenever possible.
5. In order to reduce the CD works, the artificial canals are generally aligned
along the ridgeline.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Canal drainage works are generally not required when the canal
reaches the watershed line unless the canal alignment deviates from the
watershed line. The canal which takes off from the river has to cross a number of
drains which move from the watershed towards the river before the watershed is
reached.
6. The type of canal alignment which involves maximum CD works is a
______________
a) ridge canal
b) contour canal
c) side slope canal
d) both ridge and contour canal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A watershed line or ridgeline crosses the minimum number of drains
and contour canal crosses the maximum number of drains. When a canal is
aligned as contour canal it requires more CD works. It is a costly construction and
should be avoided as far as possible.
focuses on “Principal Components of a Hydro Electric Scheme”.
1. Forebay provides temporary storage before the water goes to the turbine.
Following perform the function of forebay ____________________
a) river
b) tailrace channel
c) reservoir
d) approach channel
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The reservoir itself acts as a forebay when it is constructed by
building a dam. The water is taken to the powerhouse directly from the reservoir
through penstocks. Following are some functions of forebay:
• To temporarily store water and to meet the instantaneous demand
• Absorbs the short interval variations and fluctuations.
2. The surge tank serves which of the following purposes?
i. It allows the sediment to settle down
ii. It prevents debris from entering powerhouse
iii. It controls pressure variations in pipelines
iv. It regulates flow in the pipelines
a) i and ii
b) ii and iii
c) iii and iv
d) i, ii and iii
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The cylindrical chamber which is connected to the penstocks and
open to the atmosphere is the simplest one. It serves the following functions i.e.
to reduce the pressure fluctuations in the pipe and helps in eliminating additional
water hammer pressure.
3. Identify the correct statement in regard to hydropower.
a) Hydropower stations are generally labour-oriented
b) The gestation period for hydro-power plant is usually small
c) The hydro generators give high efficiency over a wide range of load
d) In a hydropower scheme, the firm power is usually high as compared to tidal
power
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hydroelectric power plants are the most efficient means of
producing energy and the efficiency of today’s hydroelectric plant is about 90%.
Large hydropower plants usually have a gestation period of about 7 years
whereas for smaller plants it is 2 to 5 years.
4. To avoid the possible damage to the wicket gates and turbine runners
_________________ is provided.
a) trash racks
b) surge chamber
c) floating boom
d) racks and trolley arrangement
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Intakes should be provided with trash racks so as to prevent the
entry of debris into the penstocks or to prevent choking up of the nozzles of the
impulse turbines. Trash racks are made up of thin flat steel bars placed 10 to 30
cm apart and the permissible velocity of water entering these is 0.6 to 1.6 m/s.
5. In case of long penstocks, ___________________ is generally provided so as
to absorb water hammer pressure.
a) trash racks
b) surge chamber
c) floating boom
d) racks and trolley arrangement
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The surge tank is mostly employed in a water power plant or in a
large pumping plant to control the pressure variations resulting from rapid
changes in the flow. It is done by admitting a large mass of water in the surge
tank otherwise it would have flown out of the pipeline and returns to the tank due
to closure of pipe end.
6. Sharp bends must be avoided in penstocks while designing components of the
hydroelectric scheme.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Sharp bends cause loss of head and requires special anchorages. It
may be buried under the ground or kept exposed. The penstock can be replaced
by constructing a tunnel through a hill if a considerable saving in length can be
gained.
7. The retarding and accelerating heads are developed more promptly in
________________
a) simple surge tank
b) restricted orifice surge chamber
c) differential surge chamber
d) multi surge chamber
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The differential surge chamber has a central riser pipe in addition to
the main outer tank and the retarding and accelerating heads are developed
more promptly. The capacity of a different type of surge chamber may be less
than that of a simple elementary type for a given amount of stabilizing effect.
8. The correct sequence in the direction of the flow of water for installations in a
hydropower plant is _______________________
a) Reservoir, Surge tank, Turbine, Penstock
b) Reservoir, Penstock, Surge tank, Turbine
c) Reservoir, Penstock, Turbine, Surge tank
d) Reservoir, Surge tank, Penstock, Turbine
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The main components of a hydropower plant is Forebay, intake
arrangement, Penstock, Surge tank, turbines and generators, powerhouse and
tailrace. The water is taken from a reservoir or forebay and is taken down to the
powerhouse by penstock. A surge tank is fitted at some opening made on a
penstock to receive the rejected flow when the pipe is suddenly closed.
focuses on “Hydro Electric Power – Turbines Types and their Selection”.
1. Which of the following is an example of an impulse turbine?

a) Pelton turbine
b) Francis turbine
c) Kaplan turbine
d) Propeller turbine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In the impulse turbine, all the potential energy or head is converted
into kinetic energy or velocity head by passing the water through a contracting
nozzle or by guide vanes before it strikes the buckets. Some types of impulse
turbine are Pelton wheel, Turgo impulse wheel, and Girard turbine.
2. Which of the following is turbine is used for medium heads ranging from 25 to
150 meters?
a) Pelton turbine
b) Kaplan turbine
c) Francis turbine
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For high heads over 150 meters, a low-speed turbine like Pelton
wheel is suitable. Francis turbine is used for medium heads varying from 25 to
150 meters and for low heads, Kaplan and propeller turbines are used.
3. An impulse turbine is essentially a __________________
a) low-speed turbine and is used for high heads
b) low-speed turbine and is used for low heads
c) high-speed turbine and is used for high heads
d) high-speed turbine and is used for low heads
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is a low-speed wheel and is relatively used for high heads over
150 meters. It works under high heads so comparatively less quantity of water is
required. Pelton’s turbine is an important example of an impulse type of turbine.
4. Kaplan turbines are found to be more versatile and costly in their initial cost as
compared to propeller turbines.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Kaplan turbines have an additional arrangement of adjusting the
inclination of the runner blades or vanes on the hub. This causes the Kaplan
turbine to give higher efficiency even under part-load conditions although both the
turbines look alike and behave hydraulically in a similar fashion.
5. An impulse turbine like a Pelton’s turbine is __________________________
a) an open body exposed to the atmosphere
b) a closed body not exposed to the atmosphere
c) a partially open and partially closed body
d) depends on the design requirements
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The water through a contacting nozzle or by guide vanes is made to
strike on a series of buckets. The wheel revolves free in the air and the water is in
contact with only a part of the wheel at a time and the pressure is atmospheric. A
casing is provided in order to prevent splashing and to guide the water
discharged from the buckets to the tail-race.
6. In a reaction turbine like a Francis turbine or a Kaplan turbine
______________
a) the potential head of water is totally changed into the kinetic head
b) the potential head of water is partially changed into the kinetic head
c) the potential head of water is not at all changed into the kinetic head
d) the change of potential head of water totally or partially depends on other
factors as well
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a reaction turbine, only part of the available potential energy is
converted into velocity head at the entrance to the runner. The balance portion
remains as a pressure head. In Francis turbine, there is an inward radial flow of
water and in Francis turbine, there is a mixed flow of water.
7. In a Francis turbine, the water flows through a closed draft tube.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In Francis turbine, the water enters radially inward but leaves in a
parallel direction to the shaft at the center, it is called mixed flow. In the case of a
reaction turbine like Francis turbine, a draft tube is used to connect the outlets of
the runner to the tailrace.
8. For a hydropower plant having 150 m head of stored water behind the dam.
The water in the reservoir is clear and load on the powerhouse is not likely to
fluctuate much. Which type of turbine will be suitable for the same?
a) Pelton turbine
b) Francis turbine
c) Kaplan turbine
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Francis turbines are cheaper than Pelton’s turbine and there is no
special need for Pelton’s turbine because variable loads are not likely to come
and water is not sandy which may certainly need Pelton’s turbines. Hence,
Francis turbine will suffice to our needs.
9. For a hydropower plant working on 150 m head, the water is sandy and the
load on the plant is highly variable. Which type of turbine will generally be
recommended?
a) Pelton Turbine
b) Francis turbine
c) Kaplan turbine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For variable loads (part loads) and sandy water, Pelton’s wheel is
most suitable. These are preferred where the available water source has a
relatively high head at low flow rates.
10. If two identical pumps each capable to deliver a discharge Q against a head
H are connected ___________________________
a) in parallel, the resulting discharge is 2Q against a head H
b) in parallel, the resulting discharge is Q against a head of 2H
c) in series, the resulting discharge is 2Q against a head H
d) in series, the resulting discharge is Q against a head 2H
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Water pumps are installed in parallel as in the case of pumping
water from a sump well using more than one pump. The head remains constant
and the combined discharge of the two pumps is equal to the sum of the
individual discharges for a specific head.
11. If the specific speed in revolution per minute of a turbine is in between 60 to
300, the type of the turbine is ________________
a) Pelton turbine
b) Francis turbine
c) Propeller turbine
d) Kaplan turbine
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The specific speed of a Pelton turbine ranges from 10 to 30. Francis
turbine has a specific speed between 60 to 300 and the specific speed of Kaplan
and propeller turbine lies in between 300 to 1000.
12. A draft tube is essentially required for impulse type turbines.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The entire flow from head race to tail race takes place in a closed
system as the water is under pressure. The wheels of the turbine are submerged
and water enters all around the periphery of the wheel. A closed conduit or
casing like the draft tube is absolutely necessary so as to prevent any access of
atmospheric air into the turbine.
13. Pick the correct choice of turbine required to generate 10,000 HP under a
head of 81 m while working at a speed of 500 rpm.
a) Pelton
b) Kaplan
c) Bulb
d) Francis
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The specific speed is given by the equation: Ns = N. Pt1/2 / H5/4
Where, N = the normal speed of turbine = 500 rpm
Pt = Turbine output in metric horsepower = 10,000 hp
H = effective head = 81 m
Ns = 500 x 100 / 815/4 = 205.76 rpm.
The turbine which is suitable for a head between 25 to 150 m and Ns of 60 – 300
is Francis turbine i.e reaction type turbine.
14. Consider the following statements.
i. Runoff river plants can be located on any river
ii. Runaway speed of a turbine is generally 180% of normal speed
iii. Underground power stations are suited to areas susceptible to landslides
iv. Higher the specific speed, higher will be the discharge and the head
Which of these statements are correct?

a) i and ii
b) ii and iii
c) i and iv
d) ii and iv
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The specific speed is inversely proportional to the specific head,
higher the specific speed, lesser will be the head. Run-off river plants are suitable
only on a perennial river and are not suitable for the constant steady load.
15. The Pumps in series operation allow the head to increase and the pumps in
parallel operation increase the flow rate.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When two or more pumps are connected in series, the same
discharge passes through all the stages. Each stage in pumping operation adds
an additional head to the flow. Thus the combined head is equal to the sum of
individual heads for a specific discharge. In parallel, the head remains constant
and the combined discharge is equal to the sum of individual discharges for a
specific head.
focuses on “Location of Spillway”.
1. The safety valve of a dam is its __________________

a) drainage gallery
b) inspection gallery
c) spillway
d) outlet sluices
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A spillway is essentially a safety valve for the dam and must be
properly designed. It should have adequate capacity to dispose off the entire
surplus water from upstream to downstream at the time of the arrival of the worst
design flood.
2. An ungated spillway starts functioning as soon as the water level in the
reservoir crosses the __________________
a) maximum reservoir level
b) minimum reservoir level
c) maximum conservation level
d) full Supply level
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Maximum conservation level is nothing but normal pool level which
is the maximum elevation to which the reservoir water surface will rise during
normal operating conditions. This is equivalent to the elevation of the spillway
crest or the top of the spillway gates, such uncontrolled spillways are only guided
by the available water head.
3. Which of the following is the simplest type of spillway and may be constructed
on small bunds or thin arch dams?
a) Straight drop spillway
b) Ogee spillway
c) Shaft spillway
d) Siphon spillway
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Straight drop weir or Overfall spillway is a low weir and simple
vertical fall type structure. It is the simplest type of spillway and can be
constructed on small bunds, thin arches, etc. The downstream face of the
spillway may be kept vertical or slightly inclined.
4. The spillway can be best built independently of the dam when there is
_________________________
a) deep narrow gorge with steep slopes
b) deep narrow gorge with gradual slopes
c) wide gorge with a gradual slope
d) wide valley with moderate slopes
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The spillway can be best built independently of the dam where there
is a deep narrow gorge with steep banks separated from a flank by a hillock with
its level above the top of the dam. A concrete or an earthen dam can be
constructed across the main valley and a spillway can be constructed
independently into the saddle under such circumstances.
5. Which of the following is a secondary safety arrangement?
a) Safety valves
b) Spillway gates
c) Subsidiary spillway
d) Energy dissipaters
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If at the worst condition the water rises above the maximum
reservoir level it will overtop such an embankment. A secondary safety
arrangement known as subsidiary dam or emergency spillway or breaching
section is generally provided on large dams for the disposal of excess water,
especially on earthen and rock-fill dams.
focuses on “Gravity Dams – Stability”.
1. The factor of safety against overturning generally varies between

___________
a) 2 to 3
b) 1.5 to 2
c) 0.5 to 1.5
d) 1 to 2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Factor of safety against overturning can be determined by the ratio
of righting moments about the toe to the overturning moments about the toe. The
value generally varies between 2 to 3.
2. What is the maximum permissible tensile stress for high concrete gravity dam
under worst conditions?
a) 500 KN/m2
b) 500 kg/cm2
c) 5 kg/m2
d) 50 KN/m2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The masonry and concrete gravity dams are usually designed in
such a way that no tension is developed anywhere in the structure. The
maximum permissible tensile stress for high gravity dams is taken as 500
KN/m2 under worst conditions. If subjected to such tensile stresses crack
develops near the heel.
3. Which failure occurs when the net horizontal force above any plane in the dam
or at the base of the dam exceeds the frictional resistance developed at that
level?
a) Overturning
b) Crushing
c) Sliding
d) BY development of tension
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Sliding should always be fully resisted. At any horizontal section of
the dam, the factor of safety against sliding is –
FOS = u Ph / Pv where u = coefficient of friction, Ph = Sum of horizontal forces
causing sliding and Pv = Algebraic sum of vertical forces.
4. Which failure occurs when the minimum stress exceeds the allowable
compressive stress of the dam material?
a) Overturning
b) Crushing
c) Sliding
d) By development of tension
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The compressive stress produced if exceeds the allowable stresses
then the dam material may get crushed, a dam may fail by the failure of its own
material. The allowable compressive stress of concrete is generally taken as
3000 KN/m2.
5. Tension cracks in the dam may sometimes lead to the failure of the structure
by?
a) Sliding of the dam at the cracked section
b) Overturning about the toe
c) Crushing of concrete starting from the toe
d) Both overturning and crushing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When tension prevails, cracks develop near the heel and uplift
pressure increases, reducing the net salinizing force. This crack by itself does not
fail the structure but it leads to failure of the structure by producing excessive
compressive stresses.
6. The major principal stress at the toe of a gravity dam under full reservoir
condition neglecting the tailwater effect is given by ____________________
a) Pv
b) Pv tanQ2
c) Pv secQ2
d) Pv sinQ2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When there is no tailwater, the principal stress in such a case is
Pv secQ2 where Pv is the intensity of vertical pressure. This value of principal
stress should not be allowed to exceed the maximum allowable compressive
stress of dam material.
7. Which of the following criteria has to be satisfied for no tension at any point on
a gravity dam?
a) The resultant of all the forces must always pass through the mid-point of the
base of the dam
b) The resultant force for all conditions of loading must pass through the middle
third of the base
c) The resultant of all the forces must pass through the upstream extremity of the
middle third of the base
d) The resultant of all the forces must pass through the downstream extremity of
the middle third of the base
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The minimum vertical stress Pmin is equal to zero in order to ensure
that no tension is developed anywhere. If Pmin = 0, e = B/6 i.e. the maximum value
of eccentricity that can be permitted on either side of the center is equal to B/6.
This concludes the fact that the resultant of all forces must lie within the middle
third of the joint width.
8. The bottom portion of a concrete or a masonry gravity dam is usually stepped
in order to _______
a) increase the overturning resistance of the dam
b) increase the shear strength
c) decrease the shear strength
d) increase the frictional resistance
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The foundation is stepped at the base to increase the shear strength
at the base and at other joints and measures is taken to ensure a better bond
between the dam and the rock foundation. By ensuring a better bond between
the surfaces the shear strength of these joints should be made as good as
possible.
9. The governing compressive stress in a concrete gravity dam which should not
be allowed to exceed the permissible value of about 3000 KN/m2 while analyzing
full reservoir case is ____________________
a) the vertical maximum stress at the toe
b) the major principal stress at toe
c) the shear stress at the toe
d) the principal stress at the heel
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In reservoir full case, the resultant is nearer to the toe and hence,
maximum compressive stress is produced at the toe. The vertical direct stress
distribution at the base is the sum of the direct stress and the bending stress and
is given by the equation –
Pmax = V/B [1 + 6e/B] where V is the total vertical force, e is the eccentricity of the
resultant force from the center of the base and B is the base width.
10. If the uplift increases and the net effective downward force reduces, the
resultant will shift towards the toe.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The resultant shifts towards the toe if the uplift increases and the net
effective downward force reduces. This further increases the compressive stress
at the toe and further lengthening the crack due to the development of tension. It
finally leads to the failure of the toe by direct compression
focuses on “Types of Earthen Dams”.
1. Which of the following earth dam is suitable only on impervious foundation?

a) Zoned embankment type
b) Homogenous embankment type
c) Non-homogenous type
d) Diaphragm type
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Homogenous earth dam may be constructed of uniform and
homogenous material when locally available. The percolation of water is not
checked in such dams. It is suitable only on impervious foundations.
2. Which of the following zone in Zoned type embankment prevents piping
through cracks?
a) Central core
b) Transition zone
c) Outer zone
d) Core wall
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The outer zone is made of fairly pervious material like grit, gravel,
and murrum. The innermost zone is done with fairly impervious material. The
central core is covered by comparatively pervious transition zone which prevents
piping through the cracks which may develop in the core.
3. Which of the following soil material is most preferred for the central core
material of zoned embankment type dam?
a) Highly impervious clay
b) Sands or silty clays
c) Coarse sands
d) Gravels
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Clay shrinks and swells and is highly impervious is not suitable. It is
sometimes mixed with fine sand or fine gravel so as to make it a suitable material
for the impervious central core. Coarse sands and gravels are used in the outer
shell.
4. Which embankment has the thickness of the diaphragm at an elevation less
than 10 meters or the height of the embankment above the corresponding
elevation?
a) Diaphragm type dam
b) Zoned type dam
c) Non-homogenous earth dam
d) Homogenous earth dam
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The thickness of the core differentiates the diaphragm embankment
from the zoned type embankment.
Embankment type The thickness of core or diaphragm
< 10 m or
1. Diaphragm-type embankment
< the height of embankment
2. Zoned-type embankment ≥ 10 m
5. The blanket in earth dam is provided ___________________
a) at the ground level on u/s side
b) at the ground level on the d/s side
c) at the ground level of the D/s side of the dam
d) on the D/s slope
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A blanket of relatively impervious material may be placed on the
upstream face. Since homogenous earth dam poses the problems of seepage, a
homogenous section is generally added with an internal drainage system. This
keeps the seepage line well within the body of the dam.
6. Which of the following statement is correct with reference to earthen dams?
a) These dams are very costly as compared to other types
b) Gravity dams are less susceptible to failure as compared to rigid dams
c) These dams are suitable for construction on almost every type of foundation
d) Highly skilled labor is generally not required
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Earthen dams are suitable for any type of foundation but there has
to be a separate provision for the spillway location. The mode of failure is sudden
and requires high maintenance and the overall life is not so long. It requires low
to moderately skilled labors and moderate capital cost.
7. During the construction of an earthen dam by hydraulic fill method,
development of pore pressure becomes important in the __________________
a) central impervious core
b) pervious outer shell
c) transition zone
d) both central core and outer shell
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In this method, an embankment is created by water and earth slurry
which is discharged inwards to form a central pool at site. When water is pumped
to the site it spreads the coarser material drops out first and the finest at last.
Thus the core material settles within the central pool forming a zoned
embankment and high pore pressures develop in the core.
8. The process of laying and compacting earth in layers by power rollers under
OMC for construction of earthen dams is known as ______________________
a) Rolled fill method
b) Hydraulic fill method
c) OMC method
d) Compaction
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In the rolled-fill method, the embankment is constructed by placing
suitable soil materials in thin layers and compacting the layers with rollers.
Power-operated rollers are used for dams and ordinary road rollers can be used
for low embankments. The best compaction can be obtained at the optimum
moisture content (OMC).
9. The central core of the zoned embankment type earth dam
________________________
a) checks the seepage
b) prevents piping
c) gives stability to the central impervious fill
d) distribute the load over a large area
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The central core or hearting is done with fairly impervious material
and it checks the seepage. The transition zone of mediocre permeability prevents
piping through cracks. The outer zone gives stability to the central fill.
10. Which type of dam is suitable on shallow pervious foundations?
a) Zoned embankment type
b) Homogenous embankment type
c) Both Non-homogenous type and homogenous type
d) Diaphragm type
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Zoned earth dam is also called a non-homogenous or
heterogeneous earth dam and it is suitable on shallow pervious foundations. This
dam is widely constructed and the materials of the zone are selected depending
upon the availabilities.
focuses on “Failure of Earthen Dams”.
1. Stone pitching or riprap is generally provided to avoid _______________

a) over-topping
b) erosion of U/s and d/s face
c) cracking due to frost action
d) gully formation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The waves developed near the top surface due to the winds notch
out the soil from the U/s face and the D/s toe of the dam may get eroded due to
the cross currents and due to tailwater. Stone pitching or riprap should be
provided to avoid such failures.
2. Provision of sufficient freeboard eliminates _______________
i. Over-topping failure
ii. Erosion of U/s face
iii. Erosion of D/s face
iv. Cracking due to frost action
v. Gully formation
Which of the following is/are correct?

a) i and v
b) ii and iii
c) iv and v
d) i and iv
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Over-topping of the dam generally occurs due to insufficient free-
board, inadequate spillway capacity, and clogging of the spillway, etc. Frost
causes heaving and cracking of the soil with seepage and consequent failure, an
additional freeboard allowance of about 1.5 m should be provided as an
additional safety measure.
3. The collection and removal of water before it acquires high downward
velocities is ensured by provision of ____________________
a) berms
b) freeboard
c) burrow pits
d) spoil banks
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The rainwater that acquires high downward velocities causes
consequent erosion which can be reduced by the provision of berms.
The provision of berms serves the following purposes –
• It behaves like a good lining for reducing losses and leakage
• They provide protection against erosion and breaches due to wave action
• They help the channel to attain regime conditions as they help in providing a
wider waterway
• It can be used as borrow pits for excavating soil to be used for filling.
4. In order to prevent the possibility of the cross-flow towards the earthen
embankments, it is necessary to provide _____________________
a) counter berms
b) sides walls of sufficient height and length
c) spoil banks
d) sufficient freeboard
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The cross-currents that may come from the spillway buckets is one
of the reasons for the d/s toe erosion. To prevent the possibility of cross-flow
towards the earthen embankment, sidewalls of the spillway also called diaphragm
walls of sufficient height and length is provided.
5. Sloughing is the process of _________________
a) progressive erosion
b) subsequent removal of soil grains from within the dam
c) uncontrolled seepage through the dam body
d) progressive removal of soil from the D/s face
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The progressive erosion and the subsequent removal of soil grains
from within the dam or from the foundation is piping. The progressive removal of
soil from the d/s face is sloughing.
6. In foundation slide failure___________________________
a) top of embankment gets cracked and lower slope moves outward forming
large mud waves near the heel
b) top of embankment gets cracked and lower slope moves inward forming large
mud waves near the heel
c) bottom of embankment gets cracked and lower slope moves outward forming
d) bottom of embankment gets cracked and lower slope moves inward forming
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The entire dam may slide or just one face slides over the foundation
when the foundation of earth dams is made of soft soils. Then the foundation
bulges out on the side of the movement. The top of the embankment gets
cracked and lower slope moves outward forming large mud waves near the heel.
7. What is the most critical condition of slide of the U/s slope?
a) The sudden drawdown of the reservoir
b) Reservoir full condition
c) Steady seepage condition
d) Sudden drawdown and reservoir full condition
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When the upstream slope is steep and when the soil used in the
construction of the dam is poor and compaction is not adequate, the sudden
drawdown of water causes sliding of the upstream face. This failure seldom leads
to catastrophic failures.
8. When the reservoir is full, the slope which is most likely to slide is
_____________________
a) the upstream slope
b) the downstream slope
c) both upstream and downstream slope
d) no effect
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The D/s slope is most likely to slide when the reservoir is full. For
downstream face also, when the slope is steep and soil used is poor with
inadequate compaction, saturation and softening of soil due to rainfall and
seepage causes sliding of the downstream face.
9. In order to keep the saturation line in a canal embankment well within the toe,
it is necessary to provide _____________________
a) spoil bank
b) counter berm
c) freeboard
d) berm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The saturation gradient line may cut the downstream end of the
bank even after providing sufficient section for bank embankment. By the
provision of counter-berms, the saturation line can be kept covered at least by 0.5
m.
10. Which of the following failures generally occur due to the development of
unaccounted pore pressures?
a) Hydraulic failures
b) Piping through the dam body
c) Sliding in embankments
d) Sloughing of the d/s toe
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Excessive pore pressure developed due to consideration of clay
embedded between sands or silts may reduce the shear strength of the soil. It
becomes incapable of resisting the induced shear stresses leading to the failure
of dam foundation without warning.
1. Aswan dam on Nile River in Egypt was perhaps the first modern dam of the
world. Its construction was completed in the year _________
a) 1664
b) 1798
c) 1902
d) 1931
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The first modern dam of the world was completed in 1902 and is
constructed on the Nile River in Egypt at Aswan. It was designed primarily to
control the flooding of the Nile River, to promote irrigation and for navigation
along the river.
2. Which of the following is the only modern dam that has failed?
a) Koyna dam in India
b) Vega de Tera dam in Spain
c) Mauvoision dam in Switzerland
d) Trinity dam in California, USA
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Vega de Tera Dam in Spain was wrecked by heavy rains resulting in
the failure of the structure due to faulty design and poor construction. The koyna
dam in India was on the verge of failure due to earthquake (in 1968).
3. Earthen dams are _________________
a) rigid dams
b) non-rigid dams
c) overflow dams
d) diversion dams
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Earthen dams, Rock-fill dam, and combined earth and rockfill dam
are all non-rigid dams. Timber dam, Steel dam, Arch dam, Buttress dam, and
solid gravity dam are all rigid dams.
4. The prominent modern dam which has changed its name several times is
_____________
a) Nagarjuna dam
b) Hoover dam
c) Bhakra dam
d) Idukki dam
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The name of the Hoover dam was a political issue and it was first of
all named as Boulder dam. Later it was changed to Hoover dam when Herbert
Hoover became the President of America. In 1933, President Roosevelt changed
this name again to Boulder dam for 14 years and then once again the name was
changed to Hoover dam by Republicans which still exists today.
5. The famous Roosevelt dam in USA is of the type __________________
a) Rock-fill dam
b) Solid Masonry Gravity Dam
c) RCC arch bridge
d) A hollow masonry gravity dam
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Roosevelt dam was completed in 1911 on the Salt River of
Arizona (U.S.A). It was constructed with the solid blocks of concrete which were
of the type known as Solid Masonry Gravity Dam.
6. A _________________ dam is generally called as a weir or barrage.
a) storage dam
b) detention dam
c) diversion dam
d) rigid dam
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A small dam constructed only to raise the water level on the
upstream side for diverting it to the canals is called a diversion dam. Nangal Dam
is an example of a diversion dam. It is actually called a weir or a barrage.
7. Multiple arch dam is an example of _______________
a) Arch dam
b) Shell-arch dams
c) Buttress dams
d) Coffer dam
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In buttress dams, the load is mainly transferred to the supporting
buttresses. The most common types of this dam are Deck slab type and multiple
arch types. The multiple arch dams are used for higher dam heights.
8. Which type of dam design gives a wider choice of materials including earth-fill
and rock-fill dams?
a) Non-overflow dams
b) Overflow dams
c) Rigid dams
d) Non-rigid dams
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Non-overflow dams are not designed to be overtopped. Sometimes
it is combined together with the overflow dam to form a composite single
structure. Overflow dams are designed to pass the surplus water over their crest
and are often called as spillways.
9. The highest concrete gravity dam of the world is the Grand Dixene dam in
Switzerland whose height is ____________
a) 325 m
b) 317 m
c) 285 m
d) 272 m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: This dam is a concrete gravity dam and is the highest gravity dam in
the World with a height of 285 m. The primary purpose of the dam is hydroelectric
power generation.
10. Which of the following is known as a debris dam?
a) Storage dam
b) Detention dam
c) Diversion dam
d) Rigid dam
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The small dams which are constructed to delay and detain the flow
of floodwater are called detention dams. They are called check dams also. It is
sometimes constructed to trap sediments and is often called debris dams
This set of Irrigation Engineering Interview Questions and Answers for
Experienced people focuses on “Factors Governing the Selection of a Particular
Type of Dam”.
1. Topography dictates the first choice of the type of dam. A narrow U-shaped
valley would suggest a ________________________
a) concrete overflow dam
b) spillway
c) arch dam
d) earth dam
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Since the topography of the dam site is the first criterion of the
selection process. For deep gorges, a concrete dam is an obvious choice
whereas an embankment dam with a separate spillway is generally preferred for
broad valleys in plains.
2. A narrow V-shaped valley indicates the choice of _________________
a) concrete overflow dam
b) spillway
c) arch dam
d) earth dam
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The choice of an arch dam is suggested for a narrow V-shaped
valley. A separate site for the spillway must also be available and it is generally
preferred to have the top width of the valley less than 1/4 of its height.
3. Which of the following foundations are suitable for earthen and rock-fill dams?
a) Solid rock foundation
b) Gravel foundation
c) Silt and fine sand foundation
d) Clay foundation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Gravel foundations are suitable for earthen and rock-fill dams as the
coarse sands and gravels are unable to bear the weight of high concrete gravity
dams. However, low concrete gravity dams up to a height of 15 m may also be
suggested.
4. Which foundation suggests the adoption of an earth dam or very low gravity
dam?
d) Clay foundation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Silt and fine sand foundation suggest the adoption of earth dams or
low gravity dams up to a height of 8 m and a rock-fill dam is not suitable on such
foundation. Seepage and settlement through such foundation may be excessive
and must be properly designed to avoid dangers
5. Which foundation is not fit for concrete gravity dam or for rock-fill dams?
d) Clay foundation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Due to enormous settlement, unconsolidated and high moisture
clays are not fit for concrete gravity dams or for rock-fill dams. It can be accepted
for earthen dams but only after special treatment.
6. Which dam is a better choice when the raw materials are not available and
have to be transported from far off distances?
a) Earthen dam
b) Rock-fill dam
c) Concrete gravity dam
d) Hollow concrete dam
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Availability of construction materials sometimes dictates the choice.
A buttress (hollow concrete dam) is a better choice if the material has to be
transported from far off distances. If they are easily available it naturally calls for
a concrete gravity dam.
7. For any width of the valley with any foundation and low height of water to be
stored, the best-suited dam is _____________
a) steel dam
b) buttress dam
c) timber dam
d) solid gravity dam
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For any width of the valley with good foundation steel dam is the
most suited and if the low height of the water is to be stored for any width of the
valley with any foundation timber dam is suited. If gorge with the rocky bed is
available soli gravity dam is suited.
8. Arch dams are constructed in _____________
a) wide valleys with flat side slopes
b) narrow valley with weak abutments
c) moderate valleys with strong abutments
d) narrow valleys with strong abutments
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: An arch dam is very suitable for the narrow valley provided with
good rock abutments are available. They are best suited at sites where the dam
must be extremely high and narrow but the presence of sound abutments is an
important requirement.
9. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the selection of dam
site?
a) For economy, the length of the dam should be as small as possible
b) For a given height, it should store the maximum volume of water
c) The river valley at the dam site should be narrow but should open out
upstream to provide a large basin for a reservoir
d) The general bed level at the dam site should preferably be lower than that of
the river basin
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The general B.L should preferably be higher than that of the river
basin which facilitates drainage problem and will reduce the height of the dam.
The water storage should be largest for the minimum possible height and length
and site should be located in a narrow valley.
10. Which structures are best suited to resist earthquake shocks without danger?
a) Earthen dams
b) Concrete gravity dams
c) Timber dam
d) Both earthen and concrete gravity dams
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The design must include the earthquake forces if the dam is to be
situated in an earthquake zone and the safety is ensured by considering the
worst-case against the increased stress induced by high intensity. The best-
suited dams are earthen dams and concrete gravity dams.
focuses on “Seepage Theories – Bligh’s Creep Theory”.
1. What is the value of Bligh’s coefficient for coarse-grained soil?

a) 15
b) 12
c) 5 to 9
d) 8
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The value of Bligh’s creep coefficient (C) is different for different soil.
S.No. Type of soil
1. Micaceous sand
2. Coarse-grained soil
3. Sand mixed with boulder and gravel and for loam soil
2. For sand mixed with boulder and gravel and for loam soil, the safe hydraulic
gradient should be ___________
a) 1/15
b) 1/12
c) 1/5 to 1/9
d) 1/8
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For Micaceous sand, the safe hydraulic gradient is less than 1/15
and for Coarse-grained soil is 1/12. For light sand and mud, the safe hydraulic
gradient should be less than 1/8.
3. Which of the following is not a limitation of creep theory?
a) No distinction between the vertical and horizontal creep
b) No distinction between effectiveness of outer and inner faces of sheet pile
c) Significance of exit gradient is not considered
d) Only a nominal floor thickness is required on the upstream side so as to resist
water
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The thickness is generally increased by 33% so as to allow a
suitable factor of safety. The water on the upstream side is more than the
downstream side and it counterbalances the uplift caused on that side. Hence,
only a nominal thickness is required.
4. If the value of Bligh’s coefficient for a particular soil is equal to 12 then, what is
the safe hydraulic gradient for that soil?
a) 1/12
b) 1/9
c) 1/15
d) 1/5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The hydraulic gradient i.e. HL/L is equal to the coefficient of creep
1/C.
Bligh’s coefficient = 12
So, safe hydraulic gradient = 1/12.
5. According to Bligh, a vertical cut-off at U/s end of the floor is less useful than
the one at the D/s end of the floor.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The worst condition is that when the water level on U/s side is
maximum and no water on D/s side. It would be more economical to provide
more creep length on U/s side instead of D/s side. A vertical cut-off at U/s end is
more useful than at the D/s end of the floor.
6. Consider the following statements about Bligh’s Creep Theory.
i. Creep length is the length of path traversed by percolating water
ii. To increase the path of percolation vertical cut-off or sheet piles can be
provided
iii. Loss of head per unit creep length is hydraulic gradient
iv. Bligh gave no criteria for the safety of weir against undermining
Which of the following statements are correct?
a) i, ii, iii
b) ii, iii, iv
c) i, iii, iv
d) i, ii, iv
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: According to the theory, safety against piping can be ensured by
providing sufficient creep length. It is given by –
L = CH where, C = Bligh’s coefficient and H = seepage head
OR
Hydraulic gradient (i) ≤ 1/C.
7. As per Bligh’s theory, thickness to be provided by taking a factor of safety
equal to _______
a) 2/3
b) 4/3
c) 1/3
d) 1/2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The thickness to be provided by taking a factor of safety of 4/3 i.e.
Thickness (t) = 4/3 x h / (G-1) where h = ordinate of HGL from top of floor and G
= specific gravity of floor material.
8. Calculate the value of creep length for the following.
a) 50 m
b) 26 m
c) 58 m
d) 36 m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Total creep length, L = b + 2(d1 + d2 + d3)
d1 = 6 m, d2 = 4 m, d3 = 8 m and b = 22 m
L = 22 + 2 x (6+4+8) = 58 m
focuses on “Seepage Theories – Lane’s Weighted Creep Theory”.
1. Lane’s in his theory proposed that horizontal creep is more effective than the
vertical creep.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: He proposed that horizontal creep has less head and is less
effective in reducing uplift than vertical creep. A weightage factor of 1/3 is
proposed for horizontal creep and 1.0 for vertical creep.
2. In Lane’s weighted creep theory, he suggested a weightage factor _________
a) 1/3 for horizontal creep and 1.0 for vertical creep
b) 1/3 for vertical creep and 1.0 for horizontal creep
c) 2/3 for horizontal creep and 1/3 for horizontal creep
d) 2/3 for vertical creep and 1/3 for horizontal creep
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A weightage factor of 1/3 is proposed by Lane for horizontal creep
and 1.0 for vertical creep. The weighted creep length –
L = (1/3) B + V where B = sum of horizontal contacts and sloping contacts less
than 45° to the horizontal and V = sum of vertical contacts and sloping contacts
greater than 45° to the horizontal.
3. Which of the following limitation of Bligh’s theory forms the basis of Lane’s
creep theory?
a) No distinction between the vertical and horizontal creep
b) No distinction between effectiveness of outer and inner faces of sheet pile
c) Significance of exit gradient is not considered
d) Bligh’s theory holds good when the length of the horizontal floor is greater than
or equal to twice the depth of the deepest pile
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bligh calculated the total length of creep by adding the vertical and
horizontal creep together. Lane proposed horizontal creep is less effective in
reducing uplift and introduced the weightage factor for the same.
4. What is the value of Lane’s coefficient for fine sand and coarse sand?
a) 7 and 5
b) 5 and 7
c) 7 and 8.5
d) 7 and 9
View Answer
5. What is the range of Lane’s coefficient for clayey soils?
a) 3.0 to 3.5
b) 2.5 to 3.0
c) 1.6 to 3.0
d) > 3.0
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For clayey soils, the range is 1.6 to 3.0. For boulders, gravel, and
sand it is 2.5 to 3.0 and for gravel and sand, the range is 3.0 to 3.5
focuses on “Seepage Theories – Khosla’s Theory”.
1. The laplacian equation represents two sets of curves intersecting orthogonally.

a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The laplacian equation represents two sets of curves, namely one
set of lines called streamlines and the other set called equipotential lines. These
two sets of lines intersect orthogonally. The resultant flow diagram of these two
sets is a flow net.
2. What is the path represented by the streamlines?
a) Hydraulic Jump
b) Flow Net
c) Energy Dissipation
d) Water Flow
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The streamlines represent a path along which the water flows
through the subsoil. Every particle entering the upstream will trace its own path
and represents its own streamline.
3. How many corrections are needed for the complex profile broken from simple
forms, to be valid?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The corrections needed are correction for mutual interference of
piles, correction for thickness of floor, and correction for slope of the floor.
4. By how many considerations the depth downstream vertical cutoff is
governed?
a) 2
b) 1
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In order to prevent undermining, it is absolutely necessary to provide
a reasonably deep vertical cutoff at the downstream end of the downstream
pucca floor. The depth of this downstream vertical cutoff is governed by two
considerations, namely maximum depth of scour and safe exit gradient.
5. Khosla’s theory of flow nets says that the loss head does not take place
uniformly.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The flow nets proposed by the khosla’s theory says that the loss
head depends upon the whole geometry of the figure, that is the shape of
foundation, depth of impervious boundary and levels of upstream and
downstream beds. If the equipotential lines are traced closer, then the loss of
head is fast and vice versa.
6. What is laplacian equation?
a) d2φ / dx2 + d2Φ/dz2
b) d2Φ / dx2 + d2Φ/dz2
c) dΦ / dx + d2Φ/dy2
d) d2φ / dx2 + d2Φ/dz
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The laplacian equation is based on Φ(flow potential) which is a
combination of flow potential Kh, where K is coefficient of permeability of soil and
h is residual head at any point. The equation is represented as d2Φ/dx2 + d2Φ/dz2.
7. What type of points is needed to be joined to form an equipotential line?
a) Equal Pressure Points
b) Residual Heads which still need Energy Dissipation
c) Velocity Gradient Points
d) Points of intersection of Streamlines and Velocity Components
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Streamlines enter from the upstream with some head (H), but in
case of equipotential lines it is considered that in downstream side water is not
present. So, even though energy dissipation takes place there will some residual
head (h) will be present at certain points on the streamlines. Therefore, joining
these points together forms an equipotential line.
8. The component of which force is to be counterbalanced so that the soil grains
remain stable?
a) Upthrust Pressure Forces
b) Forces due to Velocity Components
c) Pressure Force
d) Seepage Water Force
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The seepage water exerts a force tangential to the streamlines at
each point in the direction of the flow. This force, when resolved has an upward
component from point 5, where the streamline turns upward. So, therefore in
order to keep the soil grains stable the upward component of this force should be
counterbalanced by the submerged weight of the soil grain.
9. What is the name of the gradient pressure at the exit end?
a) Gradient of Pressure
b) Exit Gradient
c) Streamline Gradient
d) Equipotential Gradient
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The upward component of the seepage water force is the disturbing
force, and it is proportional to the gradient pressure of water at that point. This
gradient pressure of water at the exit end is termed as an exit gradient.
10. Which method is evolved by khosla for designing of hydraulic structures?
a) Method of Gradients
b) Method of Variables
c) Method of Independent Variables
d) Method of Flow Nets
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Generally in order to know the seepage below the hydraulic
structures the flownet is used. In other words we must solve the laplacian
equations by mathematical method, or electrical method, or graphical method
with the help of streamlines and equipotential lines and some boundary
conditions. But, this is a time taking process and solving is more complicated. So,
therefore for the designing of hydraulic structures khosla introduced a easy,
simple and accurate approach called a method of independent variables
focuses on “Diversion Head Works – Weir and Barrage”.
1. Into how many groups the gravity weir is sub-divided?

a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: According to the material used and certain design features, the
gravity weir is sub-divided into three groups. They are vertical drop weir, sloping
weir, and parabolic weir. Sloping weir is again classified into two groups, namely
masonry slop weir and dry stone slope weir.
2. In gravity weir, the uplift pressure is due to the seepage of water.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In gravity weir, the uplift pressure is due to the seepage of water
below the floor and is resisted entirely by the weight of the floor.
3. The uplift pressure in non-gravity weir is resisted by the bending action.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In non-gravity type weir the thickness of the floor is relatively kept
less, and the uplift pressure is largely resisted by the bending action of the
reinforced concrete floor.
4. Which type of weir is suitable for any type of foundation?
a) Sloping Weir
b) Vertical Drop Weir
c) Parabolic Weir
d) Masonry Sloping Weir
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: This type of weir is suitable for kind of foundation because it is
provided with or without crest gates, cutoff piles are provided at both upstream
and downstream, to protect against scouring aprons are provided at both up and
down streams, and at downstream to relieve uplift pressure graded inverted filter
is provided.
5. What type of weir does the diagram represent?
a) Parabolic Weir
b) Gravity Weir
c) Dry Stone Slope Weir
d) Vertical Drop Weir
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The figure represents a sloping weir made up of dry stone or rock
fill. It also represents body walls at both upstream and downstream sides and
rock falls laid in the form of glacis with few intervening core walls.
6. What is the main difference between a dam and weir?
a) Height and Duration of Storage
b) Capacity of Water
c) Material used for Construction
d) Location of the Structure
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Weir is an obstruction across the river to raise its water level and
divert into new channel. It can also store water for short duration of time of short
supplies, known as storage weir. The only main difference between dam and weir
is that dam can store water comparatively for longer duration than weir and the
dam is at more height than the weir.
7. What is the difference between a weir and a barrage?
a) Discharge Capacity
b) No Solid Obstruction
c) Storage Capacity
d) Velocity of Flow
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Barrage is almost a similar structure like a weir, but the difference is
that barrage is not a solid obstruction across a river and moreover the heading of
the river is controlled by gates alone. The crest level in barrage is kept at low
level. During floods the gates are kept for discharge of excess waters and when
the flood recedes the gates are lowered, thus solving the silting problem.
8. In which type of weir energy dissipation takes place?
a) Barrage
b) Vertical Drop Weir
c) Sloping Weir
d) Parabolic Weir
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: This weir is similar to the spillway section of a dam. The body of this
weir is kept as a low dam. A cistern is provided at the downstream side for
energy dissipation of the falling waters from upstream to the downstream side.
9. Which type of weir is of recent origin?
a) Vertical Drop Weir
b) Masonry or Concrete Sloping Weir
c) Parabolic Weir
d) Barrage
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: This type weir is of recent origin. They are much suitable for soft and
sandy foundations and are generally used when the difference between the weir
crest and downstream river bed is limited to 3 metres.
10. What number of causes is responsible for the failure of weirs?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 3
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Mainly four causes are responsible for the failure of weirs. They are
piping, rupture of floor due to uplift, rupture of floor due to suction caused by
standing wave, and scouring at the upstream and downstream side of the weir
floor.
focuses on “Diversion Head Works – Gravity and Non-Gravity Weirs”.
1. When the weight of the weir balances the uplift pressure caused by the head of
water seeping below the weir, it is called as ____________
a) gravity weir
b) non-gravity weir
c) vertical drop masonry weir
d) concrete glacis weir
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In Gravity weir, the weight of the weir balances the uplift pressure
caused by the seepage water. In non-gravity weirs, the weight of the concrete
slab and the divide piers together keep the structure safe against the uplift.
2. Which weir is also called Dry Stone Slope Weir?
a) Masonry weir
b) Gravity weir
c) Rock-fill weir
d) Concrete weir
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Rock-fill weir is also called Dry Stone Slope Weir. It is the simplest
type of construction and is economical only when the stone is easily available.
This type of weir is also becoming obsolete with the development of concrete
glacis weir.
3. Which type of weir is suitable for hard clay and consolidated gravel
foundations?
a) Gravity weir
b) Non-gravity weir
c) Masonry weir with a vertical drop
d) Rock-fill weirs with sloping aprons
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: This type of weir was used in all the old head-works and is
particularly suitable for hard clay and consolidated gravel foundations. Masonry
weir is becoming obsolete and all the modern constructions are done by the
modern concrete weirs.
4. Which weir is of recent origin and their design is based on modern concepts of
sub-surface flow?
a) Gravity weir
b) Non-gravity weir
c) Masonry dam with a vertical drop
d) Concrete weir with sloping glacis
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The design of concrete weir with sloping glacis is based on the
modern concepts of sub-surface flow i.e. Khosla’s theory. Sheet piles are driven
at sufficient depths at the upstream and downstream floor end. The hydraulic
jump is formed on the downstream sloping glacis to dissipate the energy of the
flowing water.
5. Which weir is now extensively used especially on pervious foundations?
a) Vertical drop masonry weir
b) Rock-fill weirs with sloping aprons
c) Concrete weirs with sloping glacis
d) Non-gravity weirs
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Modern concrete weirs with sloping downstream glacis are generally
provided with low crest counter-balanced gates. This is now exclusively used on
permeable foundations. Masonry weirs are suitable for hard clay and gravel
foundations. Rock-fill weir is suitable for fine sandy foundations.
6. Which of the following statement is incorrect about Non-gravity weir?
a) The weir floor is designed continuous with the divide piers as a reinforced
structure
b) The weight of the concrete slab balances the uplift pressure
c) The weight of the divide piers also keep the structure against uplift
d) Brick piers have to be used in place of RCC
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The weir floor and divide-pier are designed as a reinforced structure
continuously. The RCC has to be used in place of brick piers and as the weight of
the floor can be much less than that of gravity weir, considerable savings are
obtained
focuses on “Diversion Head Works and its Components”.
1. Into how many components the diversion headwork is divided?

a) 8
b) 5
c) 4
d) 7
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The diversion head work is generally divided into eight component
parts, namely weir, divide wall, fish ladder, pocket or approach ladder, scouring
sluices, silt prevention devices, canal head regulator, and river training works.
2. In order to find the proper location for the head works on the river, the river is
divided into how many stages?
a) 5
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In order to find an appropriate location for the head work on the
river, the river is divided into four stages. They are mountainous stage, boulder
stage, alluvial plain, and delta stage.
3. What does the diagram represent?
a) Divide Wall
b) Plan of Fish Ladder
c) Scouring Sluices
d) Canal Head Regulator
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The figure represents the plan of a fish ladder installed in the
channel, where the water comes to the channel from end and leaves it at the
other end. Baffle walls are also provided in the path to control the silt and
sediment load and also the velocity of the flow, thus helping the fish.
4. Divide wall helps in concentrating scouring action.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If perhaps divide wall is not provided then the currents approach the
scouring sluices from all directions and their effectiveness is reduced. Thus the
dividing wall helps in concentrating the scouring action of the under sluices from
washing out the silt deposited in the pocket.
5. Head regulator helps in controlling the flow in the canal.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As the name itself suggests (regulator) head regulator helps in
regulating the supply of flow easy in a canal, controls silt entry into the canal, and
shut river floods.
6. By constructing which structure we can help the fish in their migration?
a) Scouring Sluices
b) Silt Excluder
c) Fish Ladder
d) Divide Wall
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Before the start of monsoons the fish migrate to the upstream in
search of warm water. So, therefore some provision is made to make some
space available for them to travel. And this achieved by the construction of fish
ladder as they provide the room for movement and also slows down the flow for
easy traveling of fish.
7. What device is placed in front of head regulator for silt removal?
a) Weir
b) Silt Extractor
c) Silt Excluder
d) Barrage
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Silt excluder is placed in front of the head regulator by which the silt
is removed from the water even before the water enters the canal. The
fundamental principle on which this device acts is the fact that stream carrying silt
in suspension, the concentration of silt charge is more in upper layers than in
lower layers. Therefore this device is so designed for separating these two layers
without disturbance.
8. Which device is used for silt removal after it enters the canal?
a) Silt Excluder
b) Silt Ejector
c) Weir
d) Barrage
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: This device can be called as a failsafe device in case the silt
excluder does not work properly or the silt charge is beyond the capacity of the
silt excluder. This device removes or ejects or extracts the silt which has entered
the canal and is thrown out. This device placement is a curative measure and is
constructed at some distance from the head regulator.
9. Depending on how many considerations the capacity of under sluices is fixed?
a) 5
b) 4
c) 2
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The discharging capacity of an under sluice is fixed by the
considerations like to ensure proper scouring and its capacity should be double
the canal discharge, sluices should of sufficient capacity to discharge winter
freshlet, and during floods 10 to 15 percent of maximum flood discharge should
be done.
10. How many river training works are needed on the canal head works?
a) 5
b) 3
c) 4
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Three river training works are needed on the canal head works, to
prevent the river from outflanking the works due to a change in its course and
ensure smooth and an axial flow of water. The works include guide banks,
marginal bunds, and spurs. Guide banks force the river into the restricted
channel, thus ensuring smooth and axial flow near the weir site. In order to
protect the area from submergence due to raise in HFL these marginal bunds are
provided. The spurs are the works that protect the marginal bunds
focuses on “Hydraulic Jump”.
1. When the depth is small, the name for the jump?

a) Undular Jump
b) Direct Jump
c) Strong Jump
d) Oscillating Jump
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Whenever the jump is small the water shall not rise suddenly but will
pass through a number of undulations.
2. When the change in depth is large, then the jump is said to be direct jump.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In certain cases when the jump is high, then the difference in a jump
is large and it occurs suddenly or abruptly.
3. For what limits of Froude number, the jump is said to be weak jump?
a) 1.1 to 2.4
b) 1.9 to 2.9
c) 1.5 to 2.2
d) 1.7 to 2.5
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: According to Froude number from 1.7 to 2.5 a series of rollers
develop on the surface of the jump, but at the downstream side the surface is
smooth. The energy loss is low and a uniform velocity is maintained. The jump
under these conditions is called a weak jump.
4. For the value of Froude number 9 the jump is said to be strong jump.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When the value of Froude number is 9 or more, then the energy
dissipation reaches up to 85% in the flow. The jump under this condition is called
strong jump.
5. How many assumptions are made for the derivation of momentum formula?
a) 6
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For the derivation of momentum formula four assumptions are
made. Namely, the jump happens abruptly, friction is negligible, bed is horizontal,
and flow is streamlined.
6. Depending upon the Froude number, into how many groups the jumps are
classified?
a) 8
b) 6
c) 7
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: According the values of Froude number (F1) the jumps are classified
into six groups. Namely, no jump for F1 = 1, for F1 = 1 to 1.7 the jump is undular
jump, for F1 = 1.7 to 2.5 the jump is weak jump, for F1 = 2.5 to 4.5 the jump is
oscillating jump, for F1 = 4.5 to 9 the jump is steady jump, and for F1 = 9 or above
the jump is strong jump.
7. On which surface the energy dissipation is less efficient?
a) Horizontal Bed
b) Freeboard
c) Level Floor
d) Sloping Glacis
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: On sloping glacis, there is less energy dissipation because the
vertical component of velocity remains intact. And when a jump happens only the
horizontal component of velocity impact the glacis and vertical component
remains unaffected.
8. The length of the jump is how times the height of the jump?
a) 3
b) 5
c) 2
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Generally the length of the hydraulic jump is calculated in a region
where there is a heavy turbulence and it is found to be five times the height of the
jump.
9. In what limits the slopes of the glacis are provided?
a) 2:1 to 5:1
b) 3:1 to 4:1
c) 5:2 to 6:2
d) 4:3 to 7:5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The jump is made to happen on the glacis itself because the glacis
is taken as a horizontal bed and this makes the position of the jump on the glacis
a definite although it is less efficient. So, to make it happen the glacis is provided
with the slope from 2:1 to 5:1.
10. For what value of Froude number the jump is steady jump?
a) F1 = 1
b) F1 = 1.7 to 4.5
c) F1 = 4.5 to 9
d) F1 = 9
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For the value of Froude number from 4.5 to 9, when the
performance of the jump is best, when the jump is well balanced and the energy
dissipation is from 45 to 70%, then the jump is called a steady jump
Irrigation Engineering Questions and Answers –

Canal Irrigation System – Alluvial and Non-alluvial
Canals
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focuses on “Canal Irrigation System – Alluvial and Non-alluvial Canals”.
1. Which of the following statement is not correct about alluvial soils?

a) It is formed by sediment deposition of silt from the flowing water
b) The area of alluvial soil is even
c) It has a flat surface slope
d) Hard foundations are generally available
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The process of silt deposition over a long period of time resulting in
the formation of soil is called alluvial soil. It has a flat surface slope and even
area. Hard foundations are generally not available in this kind of soil.
2. Non-alluvial soils are generally found in a mountainous region.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The disintegration of mountainous rocks over a period of time
resulting in the formation of a rocky plain area called non-alluvial soils. It has
uneven topography and hard foundations are available in this soil.
3. Canal irrigation is generally preferred in __________
a) alluvial canal
b) non-alluvial canal
c) non-perennial canal
d) feeder canal
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Direct irrigation using a weir or barrage (canal irrigation) is generally
preferred in alluvial soil as compared to storage irrigation. Alluvial soil is a fine-
grained fertile soil and due to its porosity and texture provides good drainage
making it highly productive and suitable for agriculture.
4. Which of the following combination is not correct?
a) Feeder canal – no direct irrigation is carried out
b) Protective canal – constructed as a relief work during the famine
c) Lined canal – provided with a lining of impervious material on its bed
d) Contour canal – provision of cross drainage works is not required
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A feeder canal is used to feed another canal and no direct irrigation
is carried out from it. A protective canal is constructed to provide employment in
the famine-affected area. A lined canal is provided with a lining of impervious
material to prevent the seepage of water. A contour canal has to cross the
drainage and hence, cross drainage works are required.
5. Which canal is not provided with any headworks for diversion of river water?
a) Permanent canal
b) Feeder canal
c) Perennial canals
d) Inundation canals
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: An inundation canal is a canal which gets its supplies only when the
water level in the river from which it takes off rises during floods. They obtain their
supplies through open cuts in the banks of the river.
6. The velocity of the flowing water in a navigation canal should be __________
a) high
b) very high
c) small
d) medium
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A navigation canal is constructed to provide various navigation
facilities. The velocity of flowing water should be small for easy movement of
small ships and barges in the direction of flow of water as well as in the opposite
direction.
7. Which one is well traded and is provided with permanent regulation and
distribution works?
a) Inundation canals
b) Permanent canals
c) Alluvial canal
d) Navigation canals
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A permanent canal is the one that is fed by a permanent source of
supply. The provision of permanent regulation and distribution works is made in
the permanent canal. It is further classified as Perennial canals and non-
perennial canals.
8. Which canal acts as an irrigation canal as well as a feeder canal?
a) Feeder canal
b) Carrier canal
c) Inundation canal
d) Permanent canal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A carrier canal is a canal used for both direct irrigation and for
feeding water to another canal. Thus, it acts as an irrigation canal as well as a
feeder canal. Upper Chenab Canal is an example of this type of canal.
9. Hard foundations are generally available in non-alluvial soils.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Non-alluvial soils are formed by the disintegration of mountainous
rocks. Due to its uneven topography and rocky mass formed after disintegration,
hard foundations are generally available.
10. A canal which when fully developed yields enough revenue to cover up its
running cost is known as _____________
a) protective canal
b) productive canal
c) permanent canal
d) inundation canal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: After the development of the canal system the revenue obtained
from the cultivators is such that it is more than the maintenance expenditure. This
exceeding amount of revenue is so adjusted that it is about 2% of the cost of the
canal system. With this rate, the total cost of the project will be recovered in
about 50 years.

Canal Irrigation System – Alignment
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focuses on “Canal Irrigation System – Alignment”.
1. Which type of canal does not need cross drainage structures?

a) Side Slope Canal
b) Contour Canal
c) Watershed Canal
d) Field Channel
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Side slope canal is that type of canal which runs perpendicular to
the ground contours, i.e they run parallel to natural drainage flow and do not
intercept the drainage channels and therefore avoiding the construction of cross
drainage structures.
2. What is the name given to the junction of two streams?
a) Ridge
b) Area of Mixture
c) Merging
d) Area of Mingling
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The dividing line between the catchment areas of two streams is
called ridge or watershed. The main watershed between two streams divides the
drainage area of the two streams.
3. On flatlands what type of canal alignment is used?
a) Side Slope Canal
b) Contour Canal
c) Watershed Canal
d) Field Channel
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For flat lands, the slopes are relatively flat and uniform and it is very
easy, and advantageous to align canals along watershed. Therefore the name of
the alignment is watershed canal.
4. A canal aligned on the watershed saves the cost of constructed cross drainage
works.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: By aligning a canal on the ridge, helps to irrigate the land on both
sides of the canal. Moreover, the drainage flows away from the ridge, this gives
an advantage in a way that the drainage does not cross a canal aligned on the
ridge. Therefore the cost of construction of cross drainage works is reduced.
5. Which type of canal is most useful in hilly areas?
a) Side Slope Canal
b) Contour Canal
c) Watershed Canal
d) Field Channel
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The idea of watershed canal in hilly areas is does not work because
it is highly uneconomical, since the river flows in valley below the ridge. And the
watershed may be hundreds of meters above the river.
6. Contour canal can irrigate only on one side of the canal.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In this canal the river slope is much steeper than the canal bed
slope so therefore the canal encloses more and more area between itself and the
river. It should be noted that more fertile lands are located at the lower levels. In
other words we can say contour canal irrigates only on one side as the other side
is higher.
7. What type of canal necessitates construction of cross drainage works more
than any other types?
a) Side Slope Canal
b) Contour Canal
c) Watershed Canal
d) Field Channel
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In this contour canal the drainage of the river flow is always
perpendicular to the ground contours, and this would certainly require crossing of
natural drains and streams, which necessitates the construction of cross drainage
structures.
8. What type of canal alignment does the diagram represent?
a) Alignment of Side Slope Canal

b) Alignment of Contour Canal
c) Alignment of Watershed Canal
d) Alignment of Field Channel
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The image indicates an alignment of canal perpendicular to the
ground contours. So, therefore the fitting example of this type of alignment is
alignment of side slope canal.
9. Which type of alignment does the given figure represent?
a) Alignment of Side Slope Canal

b) Alignment of Contour Canal
c) Alignment of Watershed Canal
d) Alignment of Field Channel
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The figure shows a river flowing in a hill area, and we can observe
that a canal is aligned along the contours of the area. The canal is connected to
the river by head works. So, from these points we can conclude or say that it an
alignment of contour canal.
10. Which type of canal is the farmer’s responsibility?
a) Contour Canal
b) Side Slope Canal
c) Watershed Canal
d) Field Channel
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The maintenance of field channel is the responsibility of the farmers
because this channel is laid along the field boundaries and supply water to the
fields to meet their requirements.
11. Which type of canal need syphons?
a) Side Slope Canal
b) Contour Canal
c) Watershed Canal
d) Field Channel
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The alignment of watershed canal should run in areas where there
homes, sacred places etc, and does not run in loops of the ridge line but run in
straight. So, for these depressions in the ridge line necessitates construction of
viaducts or syphons to maintain the canal fixed supply level.
12. If a looping is present in the ridge line they how can that area be irrigated
with?
a) Distributary
b) Tributary
c) Weir
d) Canal
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The alignment of watershed canal does not run along the loops of
the ridge line, but instead they run in straight line leaving a small area between
the alignment and the looped ridge line. This area can be irrigated with help of a
distributary which starts from the starting of the loop of the ridge line and runs
along the ridge line and finally joins the alignment at the end of the loop

Canal Regulation
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focuses on “Canal Regulation”.
1. The quantity of water that can be diverted from the river into the main canal
has no dependency on which of the following factor?
a) The water available in the river
b) The capacity of the main canal
c) Water demand of the branch canals
d) The capacity of the branch canal
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: This method of distribution of available water into various canals is
called canal regulation and the flow from the main canal is followed by the branch
canals and then to the distributaries. The flow distribution depends on the
demand for water on various canals.
2. In case of high demand but insufficient supplies, all the smaller channels are
made to run simultaneously and continuously with reduced supplies.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: This alternative is generally not preferred as it causes siltation, weed
growth, seepage, and water-logging. To compensate for these disadvantages
and provide time for sufficient inspections and repairs of the channels,
distributaries are made to run turn by turn with full supplies.
3. Which of the following combination is wrong?
a) Roster – Indication of allotted supplies to different channels
b) Flexible regulation – Allocation of supplies with anticipated demand
c) Head regulator – Regulation of discharge in the canal
d) Chak – Command area of an inlet
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Chak is the command area of an outlet. It is a function of operating
characteristics of the system, peak design requirement of an outlet and field
application rate.
4. Which of the following characteristics is wrong about extensive irrigation?
a) The irrigation extends to a large area with the lowest available supply
b) Agricultural production and protection against famine will be at optimum levels
c) The crop production will be minimal per unit of available water
d) It creates a perpetual scarcity of water
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In spite of the fact that this method requires good control and
monitoring on the release of water, it is usually adopted in India. The production
would be the maximum per unit of available water, though it may not be optimum
of the land covered.
5. What are the categories of the entire water conveyance system?
a) The primary distribution system and secondary distribution system
b) The primary distribution system, the secondary distribution system, and Water
allowance
c) The primary distribution system, secondary distribution system, and tertiary
distribution system
d) The primary distribution system, secondary distribution system, tertiary
distribution system, and Water allowance
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An integral management system designed to deliver a constant flow
of water among irrigators along a tertiary canal is called Warabandi. This entire
water conveyance system is divided into Primary, Secondary and Tertiary
distribution system. Water allowance is just a certain rate of flow which is
allocated to each unit of C.C.A in this warabandi system.
6. Which of the following statement is wrong?
a) The primary and secondary distribution system is fully controlled by the State
Irrigation Department
b) The tertiary system is managed by farmers
c) The distribution of water managed by farmers is done on a seven-day rotation
basis
d) Water allowance is not a compromise between the likely demand and the
supply for a given project
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The value of water allowance decides the carrying capacities of the
water-courses and the distributaries. Hence, it is generally a compromise
between the likely demand and the supply for a given project.
7. What is the correct formula for Flow Time in an hour for an individual farmer?
a) (FT for the unit area) x (area of farmer’s fields) + (his bharai – his jharai)
b) (FT for the unit area) x (area of farmer’s fields) – (his bharai – his jharai)
c) FT for the unit area + (his bharai – his jharai)
d) FT for the unit area – (his bharai – his jharai)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The formula for the flow time an hour for an individual farmer after
the allowance of Bharai and Jharai timings is –
(FT for the unit area) x (area of farmer’s fields) + (his bharai – his jharai)
Bharai is generally zero in case of the tail (i.e. the last farmer) and Jharai is
usually zero for all except for the tail.
8. What is the formula for the Flow Time for the unit area in hours?
a) 168 – (total Bharai – total Jharai) / Total area to be irrigated by the water-
course
b) 168 + (total Bharai – total Jharai) / Total area to be irrigated by the water-
course
c) 168 – (total Bharai – total Jharai)
d) 168 + (total Bharai – total Jharai)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The distribution is done on the basis of seven-day rotation i.e. 24 x 7
= 168 hours.
The bharai time is debited from the common pool time of 168 hours and that
value of bharai which is not efficient for field applications, the tail end farmer is
compensated and allowed a certain recovery of the bharai time is called jharai.
Hence, the formula for Flow Time for a unit area of a land holding is given as –
FT = 168 – (total Bharai – total Jharai) / Total area to be irrigated by the water-
course

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WATER RESOURCE ENGINEERING

1. Canal drop or canal fall is needed construction in the canal bed.

a) Simple Vertical Drop Fall

1. Canal drops are provided to _______________

1. The process of distribution of water from main canal to branches is termed as

a) To Maintain Proper Energy Dissipation

a) Undesired Alignment of off taking Channel

1. What is the main purpose of the canal escape?

a) Weir Type Escape

1. Which of the following CD works carry drainage over the canal?

1. The canal alignment is finalized only after finalizing the CD works.

i. It allows the sediment to settle down

ii. It prevents debris from entering powerhouse

iii. It controls pressure variations in pipelines

iv. It regulates flow in the pipelines

1. Which of the following is an example of an impulse turbine?

ii. Runaway speed of a turbine is generally 180% of normal speed

iii. Underground power stations are suited to areas susceptible to landslides

Which of these statements are correct?

1. The safety valve of a dam is its __________________

1. The factor of safety against overturning generally varies between

1. Which of the following earth dam is suitable only on impervious foundation?

Embankment type The thickness of core or diaphragm

1. Stone pitching or riprap is generally provided to avoid _______________

ii. Erosion of U/s face

iii. Erosion of D/s face

iv. Cracking due to frost action

Which of the following is/are correct?

1. What is the value of Bligh’s coefficient for coarse-grained soil?

S.No. Type of soil

1. The laplacian equation represents two sets of curves intersecting orthogonally.

1. Into how many groups the gravity weir is sub-divided?

1. Into how many components the diversion headwork is divided?

1. When the depth is small, the name for the jump?

Irrigation Engineering Questions and Answers –

1. Which of the following statement is not correct about alluvial soils?

Irrigation Engineering Questions and Answers –

1. Which type of canal does not need cross drainage structures?

a) Alignment of Side Slope Canal

a) Alignment of Side Slope Canal

Irrigation Engineering Questions and Answers –

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