TABS Academy

MCAT 3rd Weekly Test 2020 Total Allowed: 2 Hrs

ENGLISH
Note: Choose the correct answer.
1. The continental United States is _______ that there are four time zones.
a) Much big b) Too big c) So big d) Very big
2. A seventeen-year-old is not _____ to vote in an election.
a) Old enough b) As old enough c) Enough old d) Enough old as
3. Costner’s going to be nominated to receive the Academy Award for best director, ________?
a) won’t he b) didn’t he c) doesn’t he d) isn’t he
4. ________in the world export diamonds.
a) Only little nations b) Only few nations
c) Only a little nations d) Only a few nations
5. Warning: ________ or operate heavy equipment while taking this medication.
a) Please no drive b) Would you please no driving
c) Please don’t drive d) Have you please not driven
6. Political demonstrations on American campuses have abated__________.
a) after 1970 b) in 1970 c) for 1970 d) since 1970
7. Robots will have taken over many of the jobs that people do today __________.
(a) By 2020 (b) in 2020 (c) for 2020 (d) since 2020
8. He interviewed several candidates who the thought had the experience and qualifications he required.
(a) Who he thought
(b) Whom he thought
(c) of whom he thought
(d) He thought who
(e) Which he thought
9. Most students like to read these kind of books during their spare time.
(a) These kind of books (b) These kind of book
(c) this kinds of books (d) those kind of books
10. Complaining that he couldn’t hear hardly anything, he asked Dr. Brown, the otologist, whether
he should get a hearing aid.
(a) Complaining that he couldn’t hear hardly anything.
(b) Complaining that he couldn’t hardly hear anything.
(c) He complained that he couldn’t hear hardly anything.
(d) Complaining that he could hear hardly anything.
(e) Because he couldn’t hear hardly anything.
11. She always says the truth
(a) She always speaks the truth (b) she always tell the truth
(c) she always speak the truth (d) she always speaks truth
12. I have passed my matric in 2006.
(a) I had passed my matric in 2006 (b) I passed my matric in 2006
(c) I have done my matric in 2006 (d) I have passed my matric in 2006
TABS Academy
MCAT 3rd Weekly Test 2020 Total Allowed: 2 Hrs

Note: Detect error:

Before who lives used to take
13. she died, Andrew Jackson’s daughter, in the family mansion, . tourists
A B C D
No error.
though her home. E
who to represent
14. The animals were chosen the Democratic and Republican parties, the donkey and the
A B
where created renowned cartoonist No error
elephant, by the Thomas Nast. .
C D E
to realize that organized
15. It seems strange , when Harvey Firestone the Firestone Tire and Rubber
A B
1900,rubber had been No error
Company in tires a novelty. .
C D E
ancient concept states that revolves around is questioned
16. The that the sun Earth by Copernicus in the
A B C D
No error
sixteenth century. .
E
𝐬𝐜𝐨𝐮𝐭𝐬 𝐭𝐡𝐞𝐢𝐫 𝐬𝐞𝐥𝐯𝐞𝐬 𝐟𝐨𝐫 𝐜𝐚𝐦𝐩𝐢𝐧𝐠 𝐍𝐨 𝐞𝐫𝐫𝐨𝐫
17. All the got ready the long trip. .
𝐀 𝐁 𝐂 𝐃 𝐄
𝐄𝐢𝐭𝐡𝐞𝐫 𝐢𝐬 𝐭𝐨 𝐦𝐚𝐫𝐫𝐢𝐚𝐠𝐞 𝐍𝐨 𝐞𝐫𝐫𝐨𝐫
18. she or her parents opposed his . .
𝐀 𝐁 𝐂 𝐃 𝐄
𝐈 𝐡𝐚𝐯𝐞 𝐧𝐨𝐭 𝐬𝐞𝐞𝐧 𝐬𝐢𝐧𝐜𝐞 𝐲𝐞𝐚𝐫𝐬 𝐍𝐨 𝐞𝐫𝐫𝐨𝐫
19. my family five . .
𝐀 𝐁 𝐂 𝐃 𝐄
𝐡𝐚𝐝 𝐧𝐨 𝐦𝐞𝐧𝐭𝐢𝐨𝐧 𝐡𝐢𝐬 𝐰𝐡𝐨𝐦
20. The racing champion made in speech of the mechanics on his success had
𝐀 𝐁 𝐂 𝐃
𝐍𝐨 𝐞𝐫𝐫𝐨𝐫
depended. .
𝐄
TABS Academy
MCAT 3rd Weekly Test 2020 Total Allowed: 2 Hrs

PHYSICS
21. If A  B = 0 and B. A = − AB , then the angle between A and B is:

 
(a) (b) (c)  (d) zero
4 2
⃗ xQ
22. The angle between the vectors P ⃗ and Q
⃗ xP
⃗ is:
(a) 0 (b) 60 (c) 180 (d) 360
23. The area of a parallelogram whose adjacent sides are A = 2iˆ + 3 ˆj and B = iˆ + 4 ˆj will be (in square

units).
(a) 25 (b) 20 (c) 15 (d) 5

24. The scalar product of two vectors F and V with magnitude of F and V is given by:
𝐹
(a) FV sin𝜃 (b)FV tan𝜃 (c) 𝑉 cos𝜃 (d) FV cos𝜃

⃗ = 𝐶 is equal to the:
25. The magnitude of product vector 𝐶 𝑖. 𝑒. 𝐴 𝑥 𝐵
(a)Sum of the adjacent sides (b)Area of the parallelogram
(c)Product of the four sides (d) Parameter of the parallelogram
26. If two vectors are perpendicular to each other, their dot product is:
(a)Product of their magnitude (b)Product of their x-components
(c)Zero (d) One
27. If 𝑖̂, 𝑗̂, 𝑘̂ are unit vectors along x, y and z-axes then 𝑖̂. 𝑗̂ = 𝑗̂. 𝑘̂ = 𝑘̂ . 𝑖̂ =?
1
(a)1 (b) -1 (c) − 2 (d) 0

⃗ the direction of the product vector is:

28. In the vector product of two vectors 𝐴 & 𝐵

(a)Perpendicular to 𝐴
⃗
(b) Parallel to 𝐵
⃗
(c) Perpendicular to 𝐵
⃗
(d) Perpendicular to the plane joining both 𝐴 & 𝐵
29. 𝑘̂ 𝑥 𝑖̂ =_______.

(a) 𝑗̂ (b) −𝑗̂ (c) 𝑘̂ (d)− 𝑘̂

⃗ and ⃗C, are three vectors then according to distributive law of vector product is
30. Let 𝐴, 𝐵

(a) ⃗A x(B
⃗ + ⃗C) = ⃗A x ⃗B + ⃗A x⃗⃗⃗C

(b) ⃗A. (B
⃗ + ⃗C) = ⃗A. ⃗B + ⃗A. ⃗C

(c) ⃗A x (B
⃗ . ⃗C) = ⃗A . ⃗B x ⃗A . ⃗C

(d) ⃗A . (B
⃗ x ⃗C) = ⃗A . ⃗B x ⃗A . ⃗C
TABS Academy
MCAT 3rd Weekly Test 2020 Total Allowed: 2 Hrs

31. The scalar product of a vector F with itself is equal to

𝐹
(a)F (b)F2 (c) 2 (d) 2F

⃗ = 𝐴𝑗̂, then 𝐴. 𝐵
32. If 𝐴 = 𝐴𝑖̂, 𝐵 ⃗ is equal to
(a) Zero (b) A (c) – A (d) A2
⃗ is equal to
33. If two non-zero vector A and B are parallel to each other then 𝐴. 𝐵
(a) Zero (b) AB (c) A + B (d) A - B
⃗ ) points along positive z-axis, then the vectors 𝑎 and 𝑏⃗ must lie in
34. If (𝑎 𝑥 𝑏
(a) zx-plane (b) yz-plane (c)xy-plane (d) None of these
ˆ ˆ
35. If A = A1 i + A2 ĵ and B = B1 i + B2 ĵ are non-parallel vectors, then the direction A  B is

(a)Along A (b)Along x-axis (c)Along y-axis (d)Along z-axis

36. Area of the parallelogram in which the two adjacent sides are A and B is given by
(a)AB sin  (b)Ab (c)AB cos  (d) Zero

37. The cross product of vector F with itself (i.e. F  F ) is equal to

(a)F (b) 2F (c)1 (d) Zero
38. Which of the following is true

(a) A  B = -( B  A ) (b) A  B = B  A (c) A  B = C  A (d) A  B = A  C

39. A force of 30 N acts on a body and moves it 2m in the direction of force. The work done is
(a)60 J (b)15 N (c)0.06 J (d) Zero
40. Identify the vector quantity
(a) Time (b) Work (c) Heat (d) Angular momentum
41. Identify the scalar quantity
(a)Force (b)Acceleration (c)Displacement (d) Work
42. x- and y-components of the velocity of a body are 3 ms-1 and 4 ms-1 respectively. The magnitude of
velocity is
(a)7 ms-1 (b)1 ms-1 (c)5 ms-1 (d)2.64 ms-1
43. Which of the following is correct

(a) iˆ  ĵ = 0 (b) iˆ  ĵ = 1 (c) iˆ  ĵ = k̂ (d) iˆ  ĵ = - k̂

44. Which of the following is correct

(a) iˆ . ĵ = k̂ (b) iˆ . ĵ = iˆ (c) iˆ . ĵ =1 (d) iˆ . ĵ = 0

45. The dot product of two vectors is negative when
(a)They are parallel vectors (b) They are anti-parallel vectors
(c)They are perpendicular vectors (d) None of the above is correct
TABS Academy
MCAT 3rd Weekly Test 2020 Total Allowed: 2 Hrs

46. If two forces of 10N and 20N are acting on a body in the same direction, then their resultant is
(a)10N (b) 20N (c) 30N (d) 200N
47. A vector having zero magnitude is called:
(a)A unit vector (b) A position vector
(c)A negative vector (d) A null vector
48. A vector is a physical quantity which is completely specified by:
(a)Both magnitude & direction (b)Magnitude only
(c)Direction only (d) None of these
49. A scalar is a physical quantity which is completely specified by:
(a)Direction only (b)Magnitude only
(c)Both magnitude & direction (d) None of these
50. The x-component of the resultant is positive and its y-component is negative, then the result is true
for.
(a)An angle of (180o-  ) with y-axis (b)An angle of (90o-  ) with x-axis
(c)An angle of (360o-  ) with x-axis (d)None of these
51. The numerical ratio of displacement to distance is:
(a) Always more than one (b) Always less than one
(c) Always equal to one (d) Equal to or less than one
52. Which of the following is true
(a) distance depends on path (b) displacement depends upon path
(c) Both depend upon path (d) Neither distance nor displacement depend upon path
53. Which of the following is correct for displacement
(a) displacement is the shortest distance between two points
(b) displacement doesnot depends upon path
(c) displacement is the distance covered in a straight line
(d) All of them
54. The dot product of two vector ⃗A and ⃗B can not be
(a) Greater than AB (b) Smaller than AB (c) Equal to AB (d) Half of AB
55. 𝑖̂. (𝑘̂ 𝑥𝑗̂)
(a) 1 (b) – 1 (c) 0 (d) 𝑖̂
56. Area of parallelogram is determined by using
(a) Dot product (b) Vector product (c) Scalar product (d) Head of tail rule
1
⃗ =
57. If 𝐴 . 𝐵 ⃗ | then angle between 𝐴 and 𝐵
|𝐴𝑥𝐵 ⃗ is
√3

(a) 0o (b) 30o (c) 60o (d) 90o

TABS Academy
MCAT 3rd Weekly Test 2020 Total Allowed: 2 Hrs

58. The angle between (3𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂) and (𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂ ) is

(a) 0o (b) 30o (c) 60o (d) 90o
⃗ ≠ 0, and 𝐴 𝑥 𝐵
59. If 𝐴 ≠ 0, 𝐵 ⃗ = 0 then both vector are

(a) Perpendicular (b) Diagonal (c) Normal (d) Antiparallel

60. If John is standing at a point defined by a vector 5𝑖̂ + 6𝑗̂ + 7𝑘̂ and Mathew is standing at a point

defined by a vector 2𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂ + 4𝑘̂. What is the magnitude of the distance between John and Mathew?
(a) 3 (b) 3√3 (c) 3√2 (d) 9
TABS Academy
MCAT 3rd Weekly Test 2020 Total Allowed: 2 Hrs

CHEMISTRY
61. In a reaction 4 mol of H2 and 4 mol of sulphur combine to form H2S. the limiting reactant is
a) H2 b) O2 c) Both A and B d) None
62. How many moles present in 25.5 g of NH3________.
a) 2.0 b) 1.5 c) 1 d) None of these
63. The molecular formula of a compound represents_______.
a) The composition of the compound b) The number of various kinds of atoms in a compound
c) The total number of atoms of a compound d) All of these
64. Which of the following statement is wrong?
a) Molecular mass of Na2S is 78 a.m.u b) Molecular weight of NaCl is 58.5 a.m.u
c) Molecular mass of He is 2 a.m.u d) Molecular mass of glucose is 180 a.m.u
65. The Emp: formula of C3H8O3 is
a) C3H8O3 b) CH4O c) CHO d) CH3O
66. Which of the following contain three significant figures?
a) 1.035 b) 0.035 c) 0.0010 d) 1030
67. Stoichiometric calculation of a reaction gives us ______.
a) Theoretical yield b) Actual yield c) Experimental yield d) All of these
68. According to equation (2SO2 + O2 → 2SO3) 128 g of SO2 will
a) Req: 0.5 mol of 11.2 dm3 O2 at Stp
b) Req: 1 mol of 22.4 dm3 O2 at Stp
c) Req 1.5 mol of 33.6 dm3 O2 at Stp
d) None of these
69. 8 g sample of Helium contains
a) 4.8x101 dm3 at Stp b) 120.4x1023 atoms c) 2 moles d) All of these
70. Which of the following has empirical formula CH2O?
a) Ethanoic acid b) Acetic acid c) Glucose d) All of these
71. The standard exponential notation form of 100.25 is ________.
a) 1.00x101 b) 1.0025x102 c) 1.002x102- d) 0.10025x103
72. Emp: and Mol: formula of a same compound
a) Always diff: b) Always same c) May be same or diff: d) none
73. 20dm3 of Ethene (C2H4) for combustion requires ____dm3 of oxygen.
C2H4 + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 2H2O
a) 20 b) 40 c) 60 d) 90
74. The number of oxygen atoms in 33g of CO2 are______.
a) 1.806x1023 b) 12.06x1023 c) 18.06x1023 d) 9.03x1023
75. Molecular formula of diff: compounds is
a) Always diff: b) Always same c) May be same d) May be diff:
76. 4g of H2 react with 4gm of O2 to produce H2O. The limiting reactant is ______.
a) H2 b) H2O c) O2 d) None
77. Select the correct information for 15dm3 of N2 according to equation
N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3
g g g
3 3
(a) Required 15dm H2 and produce 30dm of NH3
(b) Required 30dm3 H2 and produce 15dm3 of NH3
(c) Required 45dm3 H2 and produce 30dm3 of NH3
(d) Required 30dm3 H2 and produce 45dm3 of NH3
78. Limiting reactant gives
a) Theoretical yield b) Excess yield c) Exact yields d) Both A and C
79. A compound contains 50% sulphur and 50% oxygen by mass. What is the formula of the compound?
a) SO b) SO2 c) SO3 d) None
TABS Academy
MCAT 3rd Weekly Test 2020 Total Allowed: 2 Hrs

80. The molecular formula of a hydrocarbon which has molecular mass 78 and empirical formula is CH.
a) C2H2 b) C6H12O6 c) C6H6 d) C2H5
81. Which pair of molecules produced on complete combustion of organic compounds mostly?
a) CO2 & CO b) CO & H2O c) H2O & CO2 d) All of these
82. The empirical formula mass of glucose is______.
a) 60 b) 30 c) 90 d) 15
83. C2H2 + 2H2 → C2H6
Reaction mixture contains 20 cm3 of each reactant the vol. in cm3 of product formed is.
(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 30 (d) 40
84. N2 + O2 → 2NO
In above Gaseous reaction for 14g of Nitrogen. Select the correct information.
(a) Required 32g O2 and produce 22.4 dm3 at stp of NO
(b) Required 16g O2 and produce 44.8dm3 at stp of NO
(c) Required 11.2dm3O2 at stp and produce 30g NO
(d) Required 22.4dm3 O2 at stp and produce 60g NO
85. H2 + S → H2S
If reaction mixture contains 4g-H2 and 64gS. The limiting reactant is
(a) H2 (b) S (c) H2S (d) None
86. 80gram an oxide of Iron contains 56g Fe. (Mr = 160) the empirical formula is
(a) FeO (b) FeO2 (c) Fe2O (d) Fe2O3
87. CaO + CO2 → CaCO3
Acc. To equation 28g CaO and 44g CO2 react to form 50g of product select the incorrect
information.
(a) CaO is in excess about 28g (b) CO2 is excess about 22g
(c) CaO is a limiting reactant (d) CO2 is a limiting reactant
(e) Both B and C are correct
88. The value of a and b is respectively in XaYb when 50% of each X and Y present (X=32 amu, Y =
16amu).
(a) 1:1 (b) 1:2 (c) 1:2 (d) 2:3
89. The number of atoms in 30g of NO are
(a) 6.02x1023 (b) 12.06x1023 (c) 3.01x1023 (d) A.O.T
90. Methane reacts with the steam to form hydrogen and carbon monoxide as shown below.
CH4 + H2O → CO + 3H2
What volume of hydrogen can be obtained from 100 cm3 of methane (at the same temperature &
pressure)?
a) 300 cm3 b) 200 cm3
3
c) 150 cm d) 100 cm3
e) 50 cm3
91. Hydrogen reacts with oxygen as shown in the equation below:
2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(1)
How much gas will remain in vessel if 2dm3 of hydrogen are reacted with 2dm3 of oxygen at room
temperature?
a) 0 dm3 b) 3 dm3
3
c) 1 dm d) 5 dm3
e) 2 dm3
92. Which of the following compounds contain the highest percentage by mass of nitrogen?
a) Ammonia, NH3 b) Ammonium carbamate, NH2CO2NH4
c) Ammonium carbonate, (NH4)2CO3 d) Hydrazine, N2H4
e) Urea, (NH2)2CO
TABS Academy
MCAT 3rd Weekly Test 2020 Total Allowed: 2 Hrs

93. Which of the following is the molecular formula of a hydrocarbon which contains 85.7% carbon &
14.3% hydrogen by mass?
a) CH2 b) CH4
c) C2H2 d) C2H4
e) C2H6
94. Which one of the following is the molecular formula of a hydrocarbon which contains 80% by mass
of carbon?
a) CH4 b) C2H4
c) C2H6 d) C3H6
e) C4H10
95. 3.050 contains __________ sig: figures.
(a) Three (b) two (c) one
(d) None
96. Equal amount of CO and O2 react of form CO2, the Limiting reactant is
(a) CO (b) O2 (c) CO2 (d) None
97. A reactant which gives large yield called
(a) Active reactant (b) Excess reactant (c) Limiting reactant (d) None
98. Ethanol on complete combustion produce CO2 and H2O (steam). If reaction flask contains 20cm3 of
C2H5OH and 60cm3 of O2, Total volume of flask is
(a) 20cm3 (b) 30cm3 (c) 50cm3 (d) 100cm3
99. The amount of sulphur required to produce 40 g of sulphur trioxide is ______.
a) 8 g b) 64 g c) 16 g d) 32 g
100. How many atoms are there in 1 mole of SO3?
a) 6.02x1023 b) 2 (6.02x1023) c) 3 (6.02x1023) d) None
101. H2 + S → H2S
If reaction mixture contains 1g-H2 and 32gS. The limiting reactant is
(a) H2 (b) S (c) H2S (d) None
102. The molecular formula of a hydrocarbon which has molecular mass 26 and empirical formula is
CH.
(a) C2H2 (b) C6H12O6 (c) C6H6 (d) C2H5
103. The total number of Anions present in 1 mole of (NH4)2NO3 are_____.
a) 3.01x1023 b) 6.02x1023
23
c) 12.04x10 d) 18.06x1023
104. The empirical formula mass of Ethane is______.
(a) 60 (b) 30 (c) 90 (d) 15
105. 4.25g of NH3 contains.
(a) 0.5moles (b) 12.04x1023atom (c) 3.01x1023Nand 9.03x1023H atoms
3
(d) 6dm at ntp (e) A.O.T
106. The No. of digits (sig: fig) in rounded of number are ____ the digits (sig: fig) in actual number
(a) equal (b) less (c) greater (d) A.O.T
107. Which of the following has maximum number of moles?
a) 4g H2 b) 36g H2O c) 73g HCl d) 34g NH3
(e) All have same moles
108. The mass in gram of hydrogen in 0.25 mole of NaOH is _______.
a) 1g b) 0.5g c) 0.25g d) 0.125g
109. In exponential notation, 0.568 is written as _______.
a) 5.68 x 10-2 b) 5.68 x 10-1 c) 5.68 x 10-3 d) None of these
110. Equal masses of He and Hydrogen contains, same
(a) No. of moles (b) No. of molecules (c) Volume at Stp (d) None
111. The mass in gram of 0.125 mole of NaOH is _______.
a) 40g b) 10g c) 20g d) 5g
TABS Academy
MCAT 3rd Weekly Test 2020 Total Allowed: 2 Hrs

112. The vol: at Stp of CO2 produced by 3g of carbon is

C + O2 → CO2.
(a) 5.6dm3 (b) 2.8dm3 (c) 8.4dm3 (d) None
113. Acc: to equation. 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O, Correct data for 1g of Hydrogen is
(a) Req: 32g O2 and produce 36g H2O
(b) Req: 16g O2 and Produce 18g H2O
(c) Req: 8g O2 and Produce 9g H2O
(d) Req: 4g O2 and Produce 4.5g H2O
114. Stoichiometry gives
(a) Experimental yields (b) Theoritical yields
(c) Practical yields (d) Both A and C
115. 20dm of Ethene (C2H4) on combustion produce ____dm3 of Gaseous products:
3

C2H4 + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 2H2O

(a) 20 (b) 40 (c) 60 (d) 80
116. Least No. of the elements are
A. Non-metal B. Solid, metals
C. Gaseous non-metals D. Metalloids
117. 0.000 contains _______ significant figures.
(a) Three (b) Four (c) One (d) None
118. 5.555 when rounded off will not give
(a) 5.5 (b) 5.6 (c) 5.56 (d) Both B and C
3
119. The No. of moles and mass in grams of 550cm of Neon at STP are respectively.
(a) 0.5 and 5g (b) 0.25 and 10g
(c) 0.125 and 2.5g (d) 0.025 and 0.5g
120. Uncertainity always associated with extremely right most digit of a number is due to
(a) Determinate error (b) Systematic error
(c) Random error (d) All of these
TABS Academy
MCAT 3rd Weekly Test 2020 Total Allowed: 2 Hrs

BIOLOGY
121. Chemical composition of mucoids?
(a) Nucleic acid and protein (b) Lipid and protein
(c) Carbohydrate and Protein (d) Carbohydrate and lipid
122. Select the correct statement regarding NAD (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide)
I. Vitamin constituent
II. Act as co-enzyme.
III. Carrier of electron
(a) I and II (b) I and III (c) II and III (d) I, II and III
123. Experiment on bacteriophage experimentally confirmed that______?
(a) RNA must be the genetic material
(b) DNA must be the carrier of information between nucleus and cytoplasm
(c) Deoxyribonucleic acid must be the genetic material
(d) Ribonucleic acid must be the carrier between nucleus and cytoplasm
124. Glycolipid in plant cell found in
(a) Energy producing cell organelle mitochondria
(b) Energy producing cell organelle chloroplast
(c) Energy storing vacuole
(d) Glycolipid is absent in plant
125. What will happen in concentration of substrate increases in a chemical reaction?
(a) Enzyme activity will keep on increasing.
(b) Enzyme activity 1st increase then decrease.
(c) Enzyme activity will increase and then maintain a steady level.
(d) Enzyme activity will not increase at all.
126. “The active site of each enzyme has distinct shape and distribution of charges”. This statement refers to
the_______?
(a) Key–lock theory (b) Induce fit model
(c) Mosaic model (d) Above statement is incorrect
127. Cell use RNA to make?
(a) DNA (b) Protein
(c) Chromosomes (d) Carbohydrate
128. The holoenzymes in which prosthetic group is an inorganic ions are known as____?
(a) Co-factor (b) Co-enzyme
(c) Allosteric group (d) Apoenzyme
129. Select the mismatched
(a) Co-enzyme  NADP (b) Co-factor  Manganese
(c) FMN  Co-factor (d) Proteozyme Amylase
130. All are correct regarding characteristics of enzymes except?
(a) Specific in nature and their action
(b) Their molecules are much smaller than the substrate
(c) React with both acidic and alkaline substances
(d) Chemically unchanged during and after reaction
131. Substance which obstruct enzymatic reactions by binding to a part of the enzyme away from the active site.
(a) Competitive inhibitor (b) Non-Competitive inhibitor
(c) Activators (d) Co-factors
132. Each enzyme contain groove or dimple _________?
(a) Allosteric site (b) Active site
(c) Binding site (d) Reactive site
133. Enzyme activities can be accelerated by
(a) Organic co-enzymes like NAD and FAD (b)Inorganic Co-factors like ADP & NADP
(c) Organic co-factors like FMN and ATP (d) Inorganic Activators like Mn, Ni Mg & CL
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134. What will happen to enzyme activity when substrate concentration increases by three folds?
(a) Enzyme activity reduce two half (b) Enzyme activity increase to three time
(c) Enzyme activity increase two time (d) Enzyme activity reduce three time
135. Enzymes are
I. Proteinaceous in nature
II. All are protein in nature
III. Lower the amount of activation energy
(a) I only (b) I and II (c) III only (d) I and III
136. Conjugated molecule which is weakly acidic and soluble in water
(a) Glycolipid (b) Glycoprotein (c) Nucleoprotein (d) Lipoprotein
137. Two nucleotides are linked by _________________ of one another
(a) Pentose (b) Phosphate (c) Nitorgenous base (d) None of these
138. Nucleoside refer to
(a) Nitrogenous base and phosphate (b) Pentose and Phosphate
(c) Nitrogenous base and pentose (d) Nitrogenous base and Hexose
139. Inhibitors which are mimics of substrate called
(a) Competitive inhibitors (b) Non-competitive inhibitors
(c) Competitive activators (d) Non-competitive activators
140. An enzyme(carbonic anhydrase) which is help in transport of Co2 through blood activated by
(a) Mg (b) Ca (c) Zn (d) C
141. Protein part of holoenzyme is called
(a) Apoenzyme (b) Proteozymes (c) Co-factors (d) Co-enzymes
142. Which one of the following is the mechanism of action of enzymes?
(a) They act upon substrate molecules to release new substrate molecules.
(b) They actually increase the amount of energy of activation.
(c) Enzymes dramatically decrease the amount of energy of activation.
(d) Enzymes break product molecules to release new product molecules.
143. If by adding substrate molecules in a reaction, initially it increases but after a period of time it
maintain a steady level this shows that?
(a) Enzyme molecules become saturated with substrate
(b) Enzyme molecules denatured.
(c) No effect on enzyme activity.
(d) Both “a” and “b”.
144. Most vitamins are ________ or raw material from which _______ are made?
(a) Co-enzymes and co-factor (b) Co-factor and Co-enzymes
(c) Co-enzymes and co-enzymes (d) Co-factor and Co-factor
145. All are activators for enzymes except
(a) Mg (b) Ca (c) Zn (d) C
146. An enzyme accelerates a metabolic reaction by?
(a) Increase overall free energy change for the reaction.
(b) Making an endergonic reaction occur spontaneously.
(c) Lowering the activation energy.
(d) Making the substrate molecule more stable.
147. Which statement about enzyme is not true?
(a) They consist of protein, with or without a non-protein part.
(b) They change the rate of catalyzed reaction.
(c) They are sensitive to heat.
(d) They are non-specific in their action.
148. The rate of an enzyme catalyzed reaction?
(a) Is constant under all conditions.
(b) Decrease as substrate concentration increase.
(c) Cannot be measured.
(d) Can be reduced by inhibitors.
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149. Choose the correct statement regarding enzymes?

I. They act on specific substrate
II. Decrease the amount of energy of activation.
III. Activated by certain organic ions
(a) I only (b) II only (c) I and II (d) I and III
150. In a chemical reaction in which two glucose molecules are condensed to form maltose molecule
enzymes are required in?
(a) Small amounts. (b) Huge amounts.
(c) Enzymes are not required at all. (d) Enzymes are used but their role is not clear.
151. Which one of the following is pure proteinaceous enzyme?
(a) Amylase. (b) Pepsin.
(c) Lipases. (d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’.
152. Enzyme molecule has a specific site in which substrate molecule attaches, known as active site. The
site other than active site is known as?
(a) Active site. (b) Specific site.
(c) Allosteric site. (d) Non specific site.
153. Induced fit model of enzyme action was presented by?
(a) Koshland. (b) Fischer.
(c) Thomas Cech. (d) Sidney Altman.
154. What is apoenzyme?
(a) Protein part of enzyme. (b) Non protein part of enzyme.
(c) Co factor. (d) Co enzyme.
155. Inorganic non protein part of enzyme molecule is known as?
(a) Protein part of enzyme. (b) Non protein part of enzyme.
(c) Co factor. (d) Co enzyme.
156. What is coenzyme?
(a) Protein part of enzyme. (b) Non protein part of enzyme.
(c) Non protein organic part of enzyme. (d) Non protein inorganic part of enzyme.
157. Fisher proposed a _____________ theory of enzyme activity?
(a) Lock and key theory. (b) Induced fit model.
(c) Role of substrate in enzyme activity. (d) Role of pH in enzyme activity.
158. The rate of enzymatic reaction is ______on the substrate concentration?
(a) Directly. (b) Inversely.
(c) Both of these (d) above statement is wrong.
159. The activity of almost every enzyme in a cell is regulated by:
(a) Feed-back inhibition (b) Positive feedback
(c) Negative feedback (d) Feedback control
160. The pH at which enzyme perform its best activity is known as?
(a) Minimal pH (b) Optimal pH.
(c) DefinedpH. (d) All of these.
161. If the amount of an enzyme is increased by two folds the reaction rate will be ____?
(a) No change. (b) Double.
(c) Three time. (d) Depend upon the enzyme.
162. Chemical molecules which attached at allosteric site and inhibit enzyme activity are known as?
(a) Inhibitors. (b) Competitive inhibitors.
(c) Non competitive inhibitors. (d) Activators.
163. Which one of the following is true for competitive inhibitors?
(a) They attach at active site. (b) Compete with substrate molecules.
(c) Their effects are reversible. (d) All of these.
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164. An mRNA codon for the amino acid lysine is AAG.

How many lysine molecules are present in the polypeptide, containing five amino acids, coded for by
the following DNA template?
TTCGGTTTCTTATTC
(a) 0. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4.
165. All are correct regarding DNA else?
(a) One Complete turn of DNA is 3.4 x 10-9m
(b) The uprights of the ladder are made up of deoxyribose and phosphoric acid part of nucleotide
(c) Each pair of nucleotides is held together by two/three hyderogen bonds.
(d) Both polypeptide strands remain separated by 2nm
166. The statement describe the base pairing in DNA is
(a) Purine bases always pair with purine bases
(b) Purine bases can only pair with pyrimidine bases
(c) Adenine cannot pair with thymine
(d) Hydrogen bonding can only takes place between pyrimidine
167. A temperature beyond optimum
(a) Can affect the shape of an enzyme
(b) Lowers the energy of an enzyme
(c) Makes cells less susceptible to disease.
(d) Both a and c.
168. What is the advantage of DNA having two complementary strands
(a) Two chromatids can pair-up
(b) Semi-conservative replication is possible
(c) Both Transcription and replication occursimilterasly
(d) Bond between phosphate group
169. A DNA molecules has 28% of Adenine as base of a cell what is the % of Cytosine in the DNA
(a) 18% (b) 22% (c) 28% (d) 36%
170. A bacteria a growing for many generations on a medium containing N15 isotopes. It contains 36% of
Adenine in its DNA. The same bacterium was transferred to a medium in which only Nitrogen
source is N14. What was the percentage of guanine in DNA?
(a) 14% (b) 18% (c) 28% (d) 36%
171. A DNA analysed and calculated the relative amount of four nitrogenous bases. The result are shown
in table
Purine Pyrimidine
Adenins base 1 Base 2 base 3
28.2% 21.5% 27.8% 22.5%
What are 1,2,3 bases?
(a) Cytosine thymine guanine (b) Cytosine Guanine thymine
(c) Guanine thymine cytosine (d) thymine cytosine guanine
172. Following events occur in the replication of DNA.
i) Bonds between complementary bases break
ii) Bonds
iii) DNA molecule uncoil
iv) Opposite strands separate
v) Sugar – phosphate bond form.
vi) Free nucleotides align with complementary nucleotides on each strand.
(a) i→iii →v→iv→ii→vi (b) iii→i→iv→vi→ii→v
(c) iii→vi→i→iv→v→ii (d) iv→iii→i→vi→v→ii
173. What is the effect of the enzymes deoxyribonuclease?
(a) DNA broken at specific site (b) DNA fragments joined together
(c) DNA replication (d) DNA transcription
TABS Academy
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174. Pyrimidine bases contain 4carbon atoms and purine bases contain 5.
How many carbon atoms are there in a nucleotide containing cytosine?
(a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d) 11
175. Which of the following statements about the structure of DNA is incorrect.
(a) One complete turn require 3.4 nm and 10 base pairs
(b) Backbone of each strand runs in opposite directions relative to each other.
(c) Each pair of nucleotides in held together by three hydrogen bonds.
(d) The width of the DNA strand is a constant 2nm.
176. The nitrogenous bases present in RNA are the same as those present in DNA except that
(a) Adenine replaces Cytosine (b) Adenine replaces thymine
(c) Uracil replaces Adenine (d) Uracil replaces thymine
177. A fragment of DNA
-A -T
-G -C
-T -A
-C -G
How many hydrogen bonds are involved in holding these 2 strands of DNA together.
(a) 10 (b) 8 (c) 6 (d) 4
178. It was found during study of an organism that it contains 18% Adenine, 32% Guanine, 32% Cytosine
and 18% Thymine.
I. Genetic material in RNA
II. Genetic material in DNA
III. Genetic material may be double stranded
Which statement(s) can be made about this organism
(a) I only (b) I and II (c) II and III (d) I, II and III
179. What is the function of some enzyme in a seed during germination
(a) To break down insoluble food into soluble substances
(b) To increase the rate of photosynthesis
(c) To increase water absorption
(d) To make starch from storage
180. A polypeptide chain has following sequence of Amino acid
A→B → C → D → B → E → C
mRNA codon are
amino acid A- UGU, amino acid B- GAU, amino acid C-CAC
amino acid D-UAG, amino acid E AAG
Which of the following sequences of nitrogenous base at DNA to synthesis above polypeptide?
(a) ACACTTGTGATGCTATTCGTG
(b) ACACUAGUGAUGCUAUUCGUG.
(c) ACACTAGTGATGCTAAACGTG
(d) ACACTAGTGATCCTATTCGTG.
181. Synthetic mRNA → Polypeptide produce
UUU UUUUUUUUU → Phenylalanine – Phenylalanine – Phenylalanine -Phenylalanine
AAA AAAAAAAAA → Lysine - Lysine -Lysine - Lysine
UUU AAA UUU AAA → Phenylalanine - Lysine -Phenylalanine – Lysine
What are DNA code for phenylalanine and lysine.
Phenylalanine Lysine
(a) AAA TTT
(b) AAA UUU
(c) GGG CCC
(d) TTT GGG
182. If the sequence of nucleotide bases in DNA is TAGC, then the sequence of bases in tRNA will be?
(a) ATGC (b) TAGC (c) UTGC (d) UAGC
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183. Following are the stages in the cellular synthesis of protein

I. Movement of mRNA from nucleus to cytoplasm
II. Peptide linkage
III. Transcription
IV. Polypeptide formation
V. mRNA attachment
(a) I→III→II→V→IV (b) I→V→III→IV→II
(c) III→I→V→II→IV (D) III→IV→I→II→V
184. Codes at DNA for amino acids are
CGG – Alanine, TTT- Lysine, GCG –arginine,
AAA Phenylalanine, CCA-Glycine, CAA- valine.
A polypeptide chain –Arginine – Glycine- Lysine- Valine - alanine
C G C G U U A A A G U U G C C

Which triplet contain error

(a) 1st (b) 2nd (c) 3rd (d) 4th
185. Three consecutive bases in the DNA molecule work as the code for each amino acid in a protein molecule.
What is maximum number of different triplets that could occur.
(a) 16 (b) 24 (c) 60 (d) 64
186. The DNA code for glutamic acid is CTC or CTT the code for Valine is CAA or CAT. In sickle cell
haemoglobin, valine is present instead of glutamic acid. Assuming a single base pair substitution has
occurred what is the mRNA code in the affected mutant.
(a) CUU (b) GAA (c) GAG (d) GUA
187. Insulin is a protein containing 51 amino acids. These include 17 of the 20 different amino acids commonly
occurring in proteins. What are the minimum number of different kinds of tRNA molecules involved in the
synthesis of insulin?
(a) 3 (b) 17 (c) 20 (d) 51
188. Insulin molecule is composed of two polypeptide chains, one consisting of 20 amino acids and
other consisting 31. What is the minimum number of nucleotide base of DNA required to code for
this molecule.
(a) 20 (b) 51 (c) 102 (d) 153
189. One complete turn of double helix of DNA contain 10 pairs, of bases with 3.4nm length. What is the
length of the DNA coding a protein of 150 amino acids?
(a) 153nm (b) 300nm (c) 120nm (d) 15nm
190. In a genetic engineering experiment a piece of DNA containing 6000 nucleotides in transcribed and
translated into protein, How many amino acids are required.
(a) 1000 (b) 2000 (c) 3000 (d) 4500
191. A synthetic mRNA molecule is made by using 2 types of nucleotides only i.e Adenine and Cytosine
how many different codon could it contain.
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16
192. An mRNA CODON for amino acid alanine is GCC. How many alanine molecules are present in the
polypeptide, containing eight amino acids, coded by the following DNA template?
TCG GCC TAC CGG GCC CAT GCC AAT
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
+2
193. Magnesium (Mg ) is an inorganic activator for the enzyme
(a) Mangnase (b) Phosphatase (c) Carbonic anhydrase (d) Lipase
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194. Diagram represent anti codon

W X

What do w, x, y respect
W X Y
A C5H10O4 Nitrogenous base Phosphate
B C5H10O4 Phosphate Nitrogenous base
C C5H10O5 Nitrogenous base Phosphate
D C5H10O5 Phosphate Nitrogenous base
195. A polypeptide chain of ten amino acid contain 4 different kinds of amino acid what is the
theoretical minimum number of tRNA molecules are required to translate the mRNA of this
protein.
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 12
196. DNA molecules carries information in
(a) Its amino acid sequence (b) Its sugars and phosphates in back bone
(c) Order of nucleotides in the molecule (d) Total number of nucleotides it contain
197. Chromonemata exhibits deeper staining regions along their lengths, giving the threads the
appearance of strings of beads, these intensely staining areas are the
(a) Centromere (b) Chromonema (c) Chromosomes (d) Chromomeres
198. The length of chromosome from centromeres to its terminal end is called
(a) Chromatids (b) Arm (c) Centrosome (d) Chromomeres
199. Arrange the steps of catalytic action of an enzyme in order and choose the right option:
i. The active site of enzyme is in close proximity of the substrate and breaks the chemical bonds of the
substrate.
ii. The binding of substrate induces the enzyme to alter its shape fitting more tightly around the substrate.
iii. The enzyme releases the products of the reaction and the enzyme is free to bind to another substrate
iv. The substrate binds to the active site of the enzyme fitting into the active site
(a) IVIIIIII (b) IIIIIIIV
(c) IVIIIIII (d) IIIIVIII (e) IIIIIIIV
200. What is a ribozyme?
(a) An enzyme that uses RNA as a substrate
(b) An RNA with enzymatic activity
(c) An enzyme that catalyzes the association between the large and small ribosomal subunits
(d) An enzyme that synthesizes RNA as part of the transcription process
(e) An enzyme that synthesizes RNA primers during DNA replication
TABS Academy
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ANSWER KEYS MCAT

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

C A D D C D A A B D A B C A D
16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

D B B C A C C D D B C A D A A
31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45.

B A B C D A D A A D D C C D B
46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60.

C D A B C D A D A B B C C D B
61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75.

D B D C A D A B C D B C C D C
76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90.

C C D B C C B A C D D E B B A
91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100. 101. 102. 103. 104. 105.

B D D C D A B D C D A A B D D
106. 107. 108. 109. 110. 111. 112. 113. 114. 115. 116. 117. 118. 119. 120.

B E C B D D A C B D D D A D C
121. 122. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128. 129. 130. 131. 132. 133. 134. 135.

C D C B C A B A C B B B D B D
136. 137. 138. 139. 140. 141. 142. 143. 144. 145. 146. 147. 148. 149. 150.

C B C A C A c a c d C D D C A
151. 152. 153. 154. 155. 156. 157. 158. 159. 160. 161. 162. 163. 164. 165.

D C A A C C A A A B B C D C D
166. 167. 168. 169. 170. 171. 172. 173. 174. 175. 176. 177. 178. 179. 180.

B A B B A C B A B C D A C A D
181. 182. 183. 184. 185. 186. 187. 188. 189. 190. 191. 192. 193. 194. 195.

A D C B D D B D A A C B B D B
196. 197. 198. 199. 200.

C D B C B