Professional Documents
Culture Documents
3001 MCQ in EST (TYS Only) PDF
3001 MCQ in EST (TYS Only) PDF
3001 MCQ in EST (TYS Only) PDF
A. 100Ω
B. 65Ω
C. 75 Ω
D. 50 Ω
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 2
A. 70 deg F
B. 30 deg C
C. 290 Kelvin
D. 25 deg C
A. 800 Hz
B. 1500 Hz
C. 3400 Hz
D. 1000 Hz
A. dBw
B. dBk
C. dBm
D. NPR
A. 25%
B. 75%
C. 100%
D. 50%
If the modulation index of an AM wave is doubled, the antenna current is also doubled, the
AM system being used is
A. A5C
B. A3J
C. A3H
D. A3
19. ECE Board Exam April 1997
What particular circuit that rids FM of noise?
A. HPF
B. Phase shifter
C. Limiter
D. LPF
A. 1000 TU
B. 10 TU
C. 100TU
D. 1 TU
When waves bend away from straight lines of travel, it is called _________.
A. Refraction
B. Reflection
C. Rarefaction
D. Diffraction
33. ECE Board Exam April 1997
Highest frequency that can be used for skywave HF communications between two given
points on earth.
A. Gyro frequency
B. Maximum usable frequency
C. Critical frequency
D. Virtual frequency
A. A layer
B. D layer
C. E layer
D. F layer
A. 8500 km
B. 6370 km
C. 7270 km
D. 7950 km
A. Rhombic
B. Hertz
C. Marconi
D. Dipole
A. 6.6 times
B. 3.3 times
C. 10.89 times
D. 9.9 times
What do you call the energy that was not radiated into space or completely transmitted?
A. Incident waves
B. Captured waves
C. Standing waves
D. Modulated waves
A. 4
B. 5
C. 3
D. 6
When testing transmitter to prevent interfering with other stations, which type of antenna
must be used?
A. Dummy antenna
B. Hertzian antenna
C. None of these
D. Void antenna
A. Antenna
B. Transmitter
C. Transmission line
D. Transceiver
A. 42.9 MHz
B. 61.3 MHz
C. 38.5 MHz
D. 53.5 MHz
51. ECE Board Exam April 1997
Full duplex transmission means
A. One way transmission
B. 24-hour transmission
C. Broadcast transmission
D. Two-way simultaneous transmission
A. STX
B. ETX
C. SOH
D. BCC
A. Folding frequency
B. Resonant frequency
C. Natural frequency
D. Critical frequency
A. 38
B. 40
C. 44
D. 42
A. 0.2 dB
B. 0.3 dB
C. 0.09 dB
D. 0.38 dB
A. Step-index multimode
B. Step-index single mode
C. Graded index mode
D. Graded index multimode
A. 800 THz
B. 20 MHz
C. 200 MHz
D. 2 GHz
A. Sound intensity
B. Loudness
C. Coherence
D. Sound stress
79. ECE Board Exam April 1997
_______ is the transmission of sound from one room to an adjacent room thru common
walls, floors or ceilings.
A. Reverberation
B. Refraction
C. Flanking transmission
D. Reflection
A. Fundamental
B. Midrange
C. Period
D. Harmonic
A. 10 log I/I(ref)
B. 10 log I(ref)/I
C. 30 log I/I(ref)
D. 20 log I/I(ref)
A. 48µs
B. 52 µs
C. 62 µs
D. 50 µs
A. 119 GHz
B. 183 GHz
C. 310 GHz
D. 60 GHz
RADAR means
A. Radio detection and rating
B. Radio detection and ranging
C. Radio distance and ranging
D. Radio delay and ranging
A. Act. No.`3846
B. D.O. No. 11
C. D.O. No. 88
D. D.O. No. 5
A. 0 to 20 KHz
B. Above 2 GHz
C. 8 to 1.43 GHz
D. 5 to 8 GHz
Band of light waves, that are too short to be seen by human eye.
A. Visible
B. Infrared
C. Ultraviolet
D. Amber
A. 50 dB
B. 30 dB
C. 40dB
D. 20 dB
A. All of these
B. Thermal noise
C. Johnson’s noise
D. White noise
A. Isotropic
B. Rhombic
C. Half-wave dipole
D. Dummy
A. Transmission zone
B. All of these
C. Fraunhofer
D. Fresnel
19. ECE Board Exam April 1997
Designates the sensation of low or high in the sense of the base and treble.
A. Frequency
B. Intensity
C. Pitch
D. SPL
A. Impulse noise
B. White noise
C. Thermal noise
D. Gaussian noise
A. Reflectometer
B. Wavemeter
C. Altimeter
D. Multimeter
A. 1.28x10-19 J
B. 1.6 x10-19 J
C. 1.22 x10-16 J
D. 1.9 x10-14 J
If a fiber optic system has a rise time of 38.55 ns, the source rise time is 12 ns and the
detector rise time is 12 ns, what is the cable rise time?
A. 34.61 ns
B. 14.55 ns
C. 52.55 ns
D. 26.25 ns
A. Hybrid diversity
B. Space diversity
C. Polarized diversity
D. Frequency diversity
A. De Morgan’s Principle
B. Faraday’s Law
C. Huygen’s Principle
D. Fresnel’s Law of optics
A. 8.2345 MHz
B. 150.50 MHz
C. 2.4555 MHz
D. 35.535 MHz
A. Elliptical polarization
B. Horizontal polarization
C. Vertical polarization
D. Circular polarization
51. ECE Board Exam April 1997
The use of telecommunication for the transmission of signals to initiate, modify or terminate
functions of equipment at a distance.
A. Tracking
B. Telemetry
C. Telecommand
D. Space telemetry
A. 14/11 GHz
B. 30/17 GHz
C. 8/7 GHz
D. 6/4 GHz
The sinusoidal carrier is pulsed so that one of the binary states is represented by a carrier
while the other is represented by its absence.
A. FSK
B. ASK
C. PSK
D. QAM
A. NPR
B. dBm
C. dBW
D. dBrn
A. Administration
B. The union
C. Country
D. Telecommunications office
A. Below 2 GHz
B. At 300 MHz
C. Above 10KHz
D. Above 10GHz
60. ECE Board Exam April 1997
Determine the dynamic range for a 10 bit sign magnitude code.
A. 1023
B. 425
C. 511
D. 756
A. Frequency
B. Wavelength
C. Volume
D. Pitch
A. E.O. 109
B. Act 3846
C. E.O. 59
D. E.O. 546
A. More
B. Intense
C. Less
D. Same
69. ECE Board Exam April 1997
A radio communications service use in radio regulation between specified fixed points
provided primarily for the safety of air navigation and for the regular efficient and
economical air transport.
A. Space operation service
B. Space service
C. Aeronautical mobile service
D. Aeronautical fixed service
A. Rarefaction
B. Reflection
C. Refraction
D. Diffraction
An earth satellite whose period of revolution is equal to the period of rotation of the earth
about its axis.
A. Geosynchronous
B. Steerable
C. Passive
D. Active
A. Parasitic elements
B. Transcendental elements
C. Feed-points
D. Driven elements
A. Hemispheric beam
B. Spot beam
C. Zone beam
D. Global beam
A. Satellite system
B. Satellite network
C. Space system
D. Multi-satellite link
The difference between the original and reconstructed signal gives rise to
A. S factor
B. Quantizing noise
C. S/N
D. Fade margin
A. Coast station
B. Ship earth station
C. Coast earth station
D. Maritime station
92. ECE Board Exam April 1997
Modulation in which no signal is present between pulses
A. Pulse modulation
B. QAM
C. PSK
D. FSK
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. H
A. Flare
B. Dark current
C. Glitch
D. Ghost
Test Yourself – Exam 05
An increase in the effective power radiated by an antenna in a certain desired direction at the
expense of power radiated in other directions.
A. Antenna gain
B. Antenna back lobe ration
C. Antenna total ration
D. Antenna efficiency
A. High power
B. Efficiency
C. Lesser noise
D. Cheaper
A. Saturation
B. Hue
C. Chrominance
D. Luminance
This is referred to as a fixed radio station that broadcasts program material from studio to
transmitter by radio link.
A. Aural BC intercity relay
B. Aural broadcast STL
C. Shortwave station
D. Remote-pickup
A. Gateway
B. Coupler
C. Transformer
D. Converter
A. A fading effect caused by phase differences between radio wave components of the
same transmission, as experienced at the receiving station.
B. A fading effect caused by small changes in beam heading at the receiving station.
C. A fading effect caused by the time differences between the receiving and transmitting
stations.
D. A fading effect caused by large changes in the height of the ionosphere, as experienced at
the receiving station.
A. At feed point
B. Near the center
C. At center
D. Near the feed point
A. A3E
B. A3J
C. F3
D. R3A
A. Franchise
B. SEC document
C. Business permit
D. Radio station license
A. Bidirectional
B. Perfect circle
C. Unidirectional
D. Omnidirectional
A. Glass fiber
B. Infrared
C. Light waves
D. Laser
A. Isolator
B. Circulator
C. Coupler
D. Diode.
A. Peak limiting
B. Quantization noise
C. Granular noise
D. Slope overload
Station located on an object which is beyond and is intended to go beyond the major portion
of the earth’s atmosphere.
A. Terrestrial station
B. Space station
C. Satellite station
D. Mobile satellite station
A. Fixed station
B. Base station
C. Land station
D. Coast station
A. Peak limiting
B. Quantization noise
C. Granular noise
D. Slope distortion
A. Radiation
B. Emission
C. Encoding
D. Tracking
A. Drift
B. Flash over
C. Frequency deviation
D. Deviation ratio
A. Frequency
B. Wavelength
C. Direction
D. Speed
A. Oscilloscope
B. Phonoscope
C. Radioscope
D. Audioscope
A. Iridium system
B. Plutonium system
C. Indium system
D. Gallium system
A. Announce
B. Broadcast
C. Transmit
D. Media
73. ECE Board Exam April 1998
At the ends of a half-wave antenna, what values of current and voltage exist compared to the
remainder of the antenna?
A. Minimum voltage and minimum current
B. Equal voltage and current
C. Minimum voltage and maximum current
D. Maximum voltage and minimum current.
A. Facsimile
B. ACSSB
C. Xerography
D. Television
A. Magnifier
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class A
91. ECE Board Exam April 1998
The latest government regulation in the telecommunication which provides policy for the
provision of local exchange carrier service.
A. E.O. 546
B. E.O. 109
C. Act 3948
D. E.O. 59
A. Voice mode
B. Asynchronous mode
C. Synchronous mode
D. Packet mode
Refers to a type of beam antenna which uses two or more straight elements arranged in line
with each other.
A. Dipole antenna
B. Yagi antenna
C. Whip antenna
D. Rhombic antenna
A. Digipeaters
B. Terminal adapters
C. Local repeaters
D. Terminal repeaters
100. ECE Board Exam April 1998
The executive branch of government in charge of policy making in the telecommunications.
A. National telecommunications commission
B. Telecommunications control bureau
C. Department of transportation and communications
D. Bureau of telecommunications
Test Yourself – Exam 06
When adjusting an RF filter on a transmitter using a dummy load, how much watts
dissipation should it stand to test a 150 watts transmitter?
A. 75 watts
B. 300 watts
C. 50 watts
D. 150 watts
A. W
B. F
C. C
D. E
A. Electric hazard
B. Cross talk
C. Immunity to noise
D. Shielding
What kind of effect is referred to a varying light producing a varying voltage output of a
detector?
A. Current effect
B. Voltage effect
C. Resistive effect
D. Photovoltaic effect
A. 30 to 300 kHz
B. 30 to 300 GHz
C. 3 to 30 MHz
D. 3 to 30 GHz
A. 401.125MHz
B. 401.00625MHz
C. 401.025MHz
D. 401.0125MHz
23. ECE Board Exam April 1998
Determine the effective radiated power of 20 kW TV broadcast transmitter whose antenna
has a field gain of 2.
A. 40 kW
B. 80,000 watts
C. 40,000 watts
D. 8,000 watts
A. 100% modulation
B. 0% modulation
C. 50% modulated
D. Over modulated
One of the following is not among the major components required on board ship under the
global maritime distress and safety system.
A. On board radio facilities
B. Radio operator telegraphy onboard
C. Shore base facilities
D. Radio personnel on board
A. Occupied bandwidth
B. Transmission bandwidth
C. Necessary bandwidth
D. Frequency bandwidth
Refers to one of the front end circuit of a VHF TV superheterodyne receiver which is usually
a separate circuit coupled to the mixer.
A. Antenna feed
B. AGC
C. RF amplifier
D. Local oscillator
A. www
B. http
C. gov
D. infoseek
A law that specifically requires the service of a duly registered electronics and
communications engineer in the designing installation and construction, operation and
maintenance of radio stations.
A. Act 3846
B. LOl 1000
C. R.A. 5734
D. Dept. order 88
A. Four
B. Six
C. Three
D. Two
A. 1.0025 MHz
B. 10.525 MHz
C. 0.5 MHz
D. 10 MHz
A. 401.010 MHz
B. 401.0125 MHz
C. 401.025 MHz
D. 401.00625 MHz
The stability of transmitted signal from a simple Hartley oscillator single transmitter which is
coupled to and antenna wire affected by ______.
A. Chirping of oscillator
B. Closer coupling between the oscillator and the antenna.
C. Location of antenna
D. Material of antenna
A. 405.030 MHz
B. 405.025 MHz
C. 405.050 MHz
D. 405.075 MHz
An entity, relying on the transmission, switching and local distribution facilities of local
exchange and inter-exchange operators, and overseas carriers, offers enhanced services
beyond those ordinarily provided by such carriers.
A. International carrier
B. Value-added service provided
C. Inter-exchange carrier
D. Local exchange carrier
A. Chrominance
B. Luminance
C. Brightness
D. Contrast
58. ECE Board Exam April 1998
________ is the method of encoding audio signals used in US standard 1544 kbit/s 24
channel PCM systems.
A. Shannon’s law
B. A-law
C. Newton’s law
D. Mu-law
A. Passive satellite
B. Synchronous satellite
C. Active satellite
D. Geosynchronous satellite
A. 20
B. 2
C. 10
D. 200
A. Polar division
B. Time division
C. Fiber division
D. Frequency division
A. Goldsmith
B. MOPA
C. Alexanderson
D. Hartley
A. Band control
B. Phase control
C. Marker amplitude control
D. Sweep output control
A. Unbalanced line
B. Open-wire line
C. Balanced line
D. Coaxial line
84. ECE Board Exam April 1998
How do you eliminate radio frequency variation of an oscillator transmitter caused by its
supply voltage?
A. Use new power supply
B. Lossen power supply shielding
C. Use of regulated power supply
D. Use of high capacitor in the supply circuit
A. 2.5 ch.
B. 2 ch.
C. 4 ch.
D. 3 ch.
One of the following is a possible cause for a slow drift of frequency in a self-exited
transmitter oscillator circuits resulting to a poor frequency stability.
A. Loose shielding
B. Heating of capacitor in the oscillator
C. Poor soldered connections
D. Faulty capacitor, resistor, tubes or resistors
2. What is the maximum line-of-sight distance between a paging antenna 250 ft high and a pager
receiver 3.5ft of the ground?
A. 25 km
B.25mi
C. 70.73 km
D. 70.73 mi
3. What is the path attenuation between transmitter and receiver at a frequency of 1.2 Ghz and a
distance of 11,000 mi?
A. 119 dB
B. 115dB
C. 179dB
D. 174dB
4. What is the uplink receiver frequency if the downlink transmitter is on channel 4 (3.84 Ghz)?
A. 6.065 GHz
B. 6.84 GHz
C. 6.65 GHz
D. 6.05 GHz
5. What is the maximum theoretical data rate of the above problem if one transponder is used for
binary transmission?
A. 36 Mbps
B. 72 Mbps
C.18 Mbps
D. 144 Mbps
6. What is the quardband between transponder channels in the commercial C-band for satellite
communications?
A. 6 MHz
B. 36 MHz
C. 4 MHz
D. 2 MHz
7. What is the typical satellite transponder bandwidth?
A. 24 MHz
B. 500 MHz
C. 36 MHz
D. 48 MHz
10. How many transponder channels are realized in the commercial C-band without frequency
re-use?
A. 24
B. 12
C. 36
D. 48
11. Which band of frequencies used by military for its satellites and radar?
A. C band
B. X band
C. L band
D. P band
12. For navigation as well as marine and aeronautical communications and radar, ____ band is
used.
A. L
B. K
C. S
D. J
13. What is the current frequency band given most attenuation for satellite communications?
A. Ku
B. C band
C. J
D. P
14. What satellite subsystem monitors onboard conditions such as temperature and battery
voltage and transmits this data back to a ground station for analysis?
A. Communications subsystem
B. AKM
C. TTC
D. Transponder
15. Which of the following satellite subsystem provides stabilization in orbit and senses changes
in orientation?
A. Attitude control subsystem
B. TTC
C. AKM
D. Transponder
16. What is the typical center frequency spacing between adjacent channels (transponders) in
satellites?
A. 36 MHz
B. 40 MHz
C. 500 MHz
D. 4 MHz
18. What is considered as the most advanced satellite system developed for cellular telephones?
A. Iridium
B. Globalstar
C. ANIK
D. Molniya
24. What is the orbital period of each satellite in the GPS constellation?
A. 6 h
B. 12 h
C. 5 h
D. 15 h
25. What term is normally associated with specifying the location of a celestial body in space?
A. Constellation
B. Galaxy
C. Satellite
D. Ephemeris
27. What material is most often used for the outer covering of coaxial cables?
A. PVC
B. Teflon
C. PE
D. Polystyrene
28. What is the dielectric constant of polyethylene (PE) insulator?
A. 2.5
B. 3.3
C. 2.27
D. 2.1
29. Polytetrafluoroethylene (PTFE) is also widely used insulator and is known as.
A. polystyrene
B. teflon
C. ceramic
D. bakelite
30. What is the characteristic impedance of a two-wire line with the following data: diameter =
0.023in., spacing =0.5 in., insulation = PE.?
A. 300Ω
B. 250Ω
C. 305Ω
D. 301Ω
31. What is the characteristic impedance of a coaxial line with the following data: inner diameter
= 0.2 in., center conductor diameter = 0.06 in., insulation = Teflon.
A. 200Ω
B. 75Ω
C. 50Ω
D. 150Ω
32. A pair of current-carrying conductors is not considered a transmission line unless it is at least
___ λ long at the signal frequency.
A. 0.1
B. 0.3
C. 0.2
D. 0.4
33. If the operating frequency is 450 MHz what length of a pair of conductors is considered to be
a transmission line?
A. 2.19 ft
B. 2.19 m
C. 0.219 ft
D. 0.219 m
34. What is the physical length of the above transmission line at 3/8λ long?
A.0.82 m
B. 0.82 ft
C. 0.82 in
D. 0.82 cm
35. Which of the following coaxial cable connectors is called the UHF connector?
A. PL-259
B. BNC
C. N-type connector
D. F connector
36. What connector is popular in attaching test instruments like oscilloscopes, frequency
counters, spectrum analyzers, etc?
A. UHF connector
B. PL-259
C. BNC
D. SMA
37. Which coaxial cable connector is least expensive and is widely used for TV sets,VCRs and
cable TV?
A. N-type connector
B. F-type connector
C. BNC
D. PL-259
38. Which coaxial connector is a more complex and expensive but do a better job in maintaining
the electrical characteristics of the cable through the interconnections?
A. N-type connector
B. F-type connector
C.BNC
D. PL-259
39. The velocity factor in transmission lines vary from ___ to ___.
A. 0.6 to 0.8
B. 0.3 to 0.5
C.0.5 to 0.9
D. 0.8 to 0.9
43. What is the velocity factor of coaxial cable with a characteristic impedance of 50Ω and
capacitance of 30pF/ft and inductance of 75 nH/ft?
A. 0.58
B.0.68
C. 0.98
D. 0.81
44. What is transit time (time delay) of a 50-ft length transmission line of the above problem?
A. 50 ns
B. 100 ns
C. 75 ns
D. 65 ns
45. What do you call a transmission line used specifically for the purpose of achieving delay?
A. Delay line
B. Flat line
C. Resonant line
D. Non-resonant line
46. What is the time delay introduced by a 75-ft coaxial cable with a dielectric constant of 2.3?
A. 1.54 ns
B. 11.5 ns
C. 115.6 ns
D. 1156 ns
47. Assume a frequency of 4 MHz, determine the phase shift offered by the line in the above
problem.
A. 108.5˚
B. 106.5˚
C. 115.5˚
D. 166.5˚
48. Find the load impedance that must be used to terminate RG-62A/U to avoid reflections?
A. 93Ω
B. 75Ω
C. 50Ω
D. 300Ω
49. Find the equivalent inductance per foot of the above cable?
A. 13.5 nF/ft
B. 13.5 pF/ft
C. 116.8 nH/ft
D. 116.8 pF/ft
50. An RG-11/U foam coaxial cable has a maximum voltage standing wave of 52 V and a
minimum voltage of 17 V. Find the value of the resistive load.
A. 24.59Ω
B. Either A or C
C. 228.75Ω
D. Neither A nor C
51. Sound provides all sorts of information. What information is related to mental processes of
knowledge, reasoning, memory, judgement and perception?
A. Cognitive
B. Affective
C. Digital
D. Analog
54. Attack is a sound characteristic that refers to the way a sound begins. Which of the following
is NOT an attack of sound?
A. Hard
B. Soft
C. Crisp
D. Simple
55. At what loudness level do pitch (in mels) and frequency (in Hz) are numerically equal?
A. 0 dB
B. 20 dB
C. 60 dB
D. 40 dB
56. The basic voice band has how many octaves?
A. 10
B. 4
C. 5
D. 3
59. If the loudness level is 100 phons, what is this in sone unit?
A. 100
B. 90
C. 106
D. 96
65. What is the amount of sound reduction provided by a barrier – wall, floor, or ceiling called?
A. Sound Attenuation
B. Transmission loss
C. Sound absorption
D. Barrier loss
66. What is the frequency of a 2-cm sound wave in sea water at 25˚C?
A. 76 kHz
B. 76 Hz
C. 76 MHz
D. 76 mHz
67. A choir consisting of 36 individuals all of whom can sing with the same intensity. A soloist
sings a certain passage and then is joined by the remainder of the choir members for a repeat of
the passage. What is the difference in the sound intensity level in the two cases?
A. 3 dB
B. 6 dB
C. 36 dB
D. 15.6dB
68. For the safety and comfort of factory workers, the sound-intensity level in a certain factory
must remain below 85 dB. What is the maximum sound intensity allowed in this factory?
A. 3.2 x 10-4 W/m2
B. 3.2 x 10-6 W/m2
C. 3.2 x 10-10 W/m2
D. 3.2 x 10-3 W/m2
71. The noise from an airplane engine 100 ft from an observer is found to have an intensity of
45dB. What will be the intensity when the plane flies overhead at an altitude of 1 mi?
A. 10.5 dB
B. 34.5 dB
C. 35 dB
D. 20.5 dB
74. What is sound pressure level if the RMS sound pressure is 100 μbars?
A. 114 dB
B. 11.4 dB
C. 94 dB
D. 57 dB
78. Which of the following is NOT an acoustical defect to be avoided in acoustical designs?
A. Reverberation
B. Flutter echo
C. Distortion
D. Sound concentration
79. What absorber in which efficient absorption is only possible over a very narrow band
approaching 1.0 (total absorption)?
A. Porous material
B. Helmholtz resonator
C. Panel Absorber
D. Membrane absorber
80. How many voice signals (4 kHz max.) would fit into a 5 MHz spectrum?
A. 1250
B. 500
C. 1000
D. 1500
82. What is the actual length in feet of a one-quarter wavelength of a coax with a velocity factor
of 0.695 at 45 MHz?
A. 17.82
B. 19.26
C. 16.28
D. 16.97
83. Determine the terrain sensitivity loss for a 4-GHz carrier that is propagating over a very dry,
mountainous area.
A. -1.25 dB
B. -3.05 dB
C. -2.01 dB
D. -5.01 dB
84. A satellite transmitter operates at 4GHz with an antenna gain of 4dBi. The receiver 40000 km
away has an antenna gain of 50 dBi. If the transmitter has a power of 8 W, find (ignoring
feedline losses and mismatch) the EIRP in dBW.
A. 50
B. 69
C. 49
D. 30
85. A radio signal moves from air to glass. The angle of incidence is 20°. Calculate the angle of
refraction. The relative permittivity of the glass is 7.8.
A. 7.8°
B. 5.04°
C. 6.04°
D. 7.04°
86. At a certain time, the MUF for transmission at an angle of incidence of 75° is 17 MHz. What
is the critical frequency?
A. 4.4 MHz
B. 3.5 MHz
C. 6.5 MHz
D. 1.5 MHz
87. A properly matched transmission line has a loss of 1.5 dB/100m. if 10 W is supplied to one
end of the line, how many watts reach the load, 27 m away?
A. 10 W
B. 7.2 W
C. 9.9 W
D. 9.1 W
92. A transmission line of unknown impedance is terminated with two different resistances, and
an SWR is measured each time. With a 75 Ω termination, the SWR measures 1.5. With a 300 Ω
termination, it measures 2.67. What is the impedance of the line?
A. 100 Ω
B. 212 Ω
C. 300 Ω
D. 112 Ω
93. What is the high frequency sound that cannot be heard by the human ear?
A. Ultrasonic
B. Transonic
C. Subsonic
D. Supersonic
96. What is the actual length in feet of a one-half wavelength of a coax with a velocity factor of
0.63 at 28 MHz?
A. 44.28
B. 43.46
C. 11.07
D. 46.27
99. What is actual length in feet of a one-half wavelength of a coax with a velocity factor of 0.59
at 26 MHz?
A. 11.16
B. 40.29
C. 42.46
D. 46.28
100. The agreed standard for measuring loudness is the loudness sensation produced by a 1000
Hz sine wave _____ dB above the listener’s threshold of hearing.
A. 80
B. 50
C. 30
D. 40
Test Yourself – Exam 08
1. What is the refractive index of an ionospheric layer with 100x10 5 free electrons per m3 ?
Assume frequency to be at 20 MHz.
A. 0.99
B. 0.15
C. 0.78
D. 0.85
5. What phenomenon causes the radio-path horizon distance to exceed the geometric horizon?
A. E-layer skip.
B. D-layer skip.
C. Auroral skip.
D. Radio waves may be bent.
6. What propagation condition is usually indicated when a VHF signal is received from a station
over 500 miles away?
A. D-layer absorption
B. Faraday rotation
C. Tropospheric ducting
D. Moonbounce
8. The bending of radio waves passing over the top of a mountain range that disperses a weak
portion of the signal behind the mountain is
A. eddy-current phase effect
B. knife-edge diffraction
C. shadowing
D. mirror refraction effect
12. The band of frequencies least susceptible to atmospheric noise and interference is:
A. 30 – 300 kHz
B. 300 – 3000 kHz
C. 3 – 30 MHz
D. 300 – 3000 MHz
13. What is the relationship in degrees of the electrostatic and electromagnetic fields of an
antenna?
A. 0 degree
B. 45 degrees
C. 90 degrees
D. 180 degrees
14. For a space wave transmission, the radio horizon distance of a transmitting antenna with a
height of 100 meters is approximately:
A. 10 km
B. 40 km
C. 100 km
D. 400 km
17. If a transmitting antenna is 100 meters high and a separate receiving antenna is 64 meters
high, what is the maximum space wave communication distance possible between them?
A. 18 km
B. 72 km
C. 164 km
D. 656 km
18. A receiver is located 64 km from a space wave transmitting antenna that is 100 meters high.
Find the required height of the receiving antenna.
A. 36 meters high
B. 64 meters high
C. 100 meters high
D. 182.25 meters high
19. Which of the following is not one of the natural ways a radio wave may travel from
transmitter to receiver?
A. Ground wave
B. Micro wave
C. Sky wave
D. Space wave
20. Which of the following terrain types permits a ground wave to travel the farthest?
A. Salt water
B. Fresh water
C. Sandy
D. Rocky
21. What is the input terminal impedance at the center if a folded dipole antenna?
A. 300 ohms
B. 72 ohms
C. 50 ohms
D. 450 ohms
22. What is the term used to describe a spread spectrum communications system where the
center frequency if a conventional carrier is altered many time per second in accordance with a
pseudo-random list of channels?
A. Frequency hopping
B. Direct sequence
C. Time-domain frequency modulation
D. Frequency compandored spread spectrum
23. What is the velocity factor for non-foam dielectric 50 or 75 ohm flexible coaxial cable such
as RG 8, 11, 58 and 59?
A. 2.70
B. 0.66
C. 0.30
D. 0.10
24. If a transmission line has a power loss of 6 dB per 100 feet, what is the power at the feed
point to the antenna at the end of a 200 foot transmission line fed by a 100 watt transmitter?
A. 70 watts
B. 50 watts
C. 25 watts
D. 6 watts
26. What term is used to describe a spread spectrum communications system in which a very fast
binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier?
A. Frequency hopping
B. Direct sequence
C. Binary phase-shift keying
D. Phase compandored spread spectrum
27. Which of the following frequency bands is best suited for ground wave propagation?
A. 30 to 300 kHz
B. 300 kHz to 3 MHz
C. 3 MHz to 30 MHz
D. 30 MHz to 300 MHz
28. Which of the following frequency bands is best suited for sky wave propagation?
A. 30 to 300 kHz
B. 3 MHz to 30 MHz
C. 30 MHz to 300 MHz
D. 3 GHz to 30 GHz
29. What is the seventh harmonic of a 100 MHz quarter wavelength antenna?
A. 14.28 MHz
B. 107 MHz
C. 149 MHz
D. 700 MHz
30. Which if the following layers of the ionosphere has no effect on sky wave propagation during
the hours of darkness?
A. D
B. E
C. F1
D. F2
31. Skip distance can be maximized by using the ____ radiation angle possible and the ____
frequency that will be refracted at that angle.
A. lowest, lowest
B. lowest, highest
C. highest, lowest
D. highest, highest
32. What is the meaning of the term “velocity factor” of a transmission line?
A. The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance
B. The index of shielding for coaxial cable.
C. The velocity of the wave on the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in
a vacuum.
D. The velocity of the wave on the transmission line divided by the velocity of light
in a vacuum.
33. What is the term for the ratio of actual velocity at which a signal travels through a line to the
speed of light in a vacuum?
A. Velocity factor
B. Characteristic impedance
C. Surge impedance
D. Standing wave ratio
34. Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter than its electrical
length?
A. Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable
B. RF energy moves slower along the coaxial cable
C. The surge impedance is higher in the parallel feed line
D. The characteristic impedance is higher in the parallel feed line
35. What would be the physical length of a tpical coaxial transmission line that is electrically
one-quarter wavelength long at 14.1 MHz?
A. 20 meters
B. 3.51 meters
C. 2.33 meters
D. 0.25 meter
36. To obtain the most reliable sky wave propagation the ____ should be used.
A. Lowest useable frequency (LUF).
B. Maximum useable frequency (MUF).
C. Optimum useable frequency (OUF).
D. Critical frequency
37. What is the deviation ratio for an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of
plus or minus 5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation rate of 3kHz?
A. 60
B. 0.16
C. 0.6
D. 1.66
38. Tropospheric scatter is a method of sky wave propagation for which of the following
frequency bands?
A. 300 kHz to 3 MHz
B. 3 MHz to 30 MHz
C. 30 MHz to 300 MHz
D. 300 MHz to 3 GHz
40. What type of transmission is radiated from an aircraft’s radio altimeter antenna?
A. An amplitude modulated continuous wave
B. A pulse position modulated UHF signal
C. A differential phase shift keyed UHF signal
D. A frequency modulated continuous wave
41. The polarization of a radio wave:
A. Is perpendicular to the electrostatic field of the antenna
B. Is the same direction as the electrostatic field of the antenna.
C. Is the same direction as the magnetic field of the antenna.
D. Is perpendicular to both the electrostatic and magnetic fields of the antenna.
42. A coaxial cable has 7dB of reflected power when the input is 5 watts. What is the output of
the transmission line?
A. 5 watts
B. 2.5 watts
C. 1.25 watts
D. 1 watt
44. Most AM broadcasts employ ___ polarization while most FM broadcasts employ ___
polarization of the radio wave.
A. vertical, vertical
B. vertical, horizontal
C. horizontal, vertical
D. horizontal, horizontal
45. How does the gain of a parabolic dish type antenna change when the operating frequency is
doubled?
A. Gain does not change
B. Gain is multiplied by 0.707
C. Gain increases 6 dB
D. Gain increases 3 dB
46. What is the frequency range of an aircraft’s Very High Frequency (VHF) communications?
A. 118.000 MHz to 136.975 MHz (worldwide up to 151.975 MHz)
B. 108.000 MHz to 117.95 MHz
C. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz
D. 2.0000 MHz to 29.999 MHz
48. If the velocity of propagation in a certain medium is 200x10 6 m/s, what is its refractive
index?
A. 1.3
B. 1.5
C. 1.27
D. 0.67
49. What is the resultant field strength at the receiving antenna in space wave propagation under
case 2?
A. 0
B. ξd
C. 2ξd
D. 3ξd
51. What is the typical frequency used for communicating to submerged submarines?
A. 100 Hz
B. 500 Hz
C. 4 kHz
D. 200 Hz
52. Which frequency bands can be refracted during the day by the D layer?
A. VLF
B. MF
C. LF
D. Both VLF and LF
53. What height of an ionized layer is determined from the time interval between the transmitted
signal and the ionospheric echo at vertical incidence?
A. Virtual height
B. Apparent height
C. Actual height
D. Effective height
54. During the night when the F2 layer combines with F1 layer it falls to what approximate
height?
A. 250 km
B. 350 km
C. 300 km
D. 400 km
55. Which of the following is considered the most frequently used transmission line?
A. Two-wire open line
B. Twin lead
C. Rigid coaxial line
D. Flexible coaxial line
56. The antenna effective height is ____ to ____ of the actual height.
A. ½ to 2/3
B. ½ to ¾
C. ¼ to 2/3
D. ¼ to ¾
57. What is the propagation velocity of a signal in a transmission line whose inductance and
capacitance are 5μH/m and 20μF/m respectively?
A. 100x103 m/s
B. 100 m/s
C. 10x103 m/s
D. 100x106 m/s
58. What is the phase coefficient in radians per unit length of a transmission line at the frequency
of 10 MHz if the velocity of propagation is 2.5x108 m/s?
A. 0.25
B. 2.5
C. 0.35
D. 3.5
59. Determine the conductance of a two-wire open line with the following parameters: D = 4 in.,
d = 0.1 in. and ρ = 2.6x108 Ω-m.
A. 2.76x10-9 S/m
B. 2.76x10-6 S/m
C. 2.76x10-12 S/m
D. 2.76x10-3 S/m
60. What is the input impedance of a transmission line if its characteristic impedance is 300 Ω
and the load is 600 Ω? Assume a quarter wavelength section only.
A. 150 kΩ
B. 150 mΩ
C. 150 Ω
D. 2 Ω
61. Determine the standing wave ratio of a 300-Ω line whose load is 400+j150 Ω.
A. 3.55
B. 1.67
C. 5.53
D. 3.35
62. What is the optimum volume per person of rooms for speech?
A. 2.8
B. 3.1
C. 4.2
D. 5.1
64. A superhet receiver has an IF of 455 kHz and is experiencing image-channel interference on
a frequency of 1570 kHz. The receiver is tuned to
A. 1115 kHz
B. 660 kHz
C. 2025 kHz
D. 910 kHz
66. What volume of the chamber is required to measure absorption coefficient at 100 Hz?
A. 125 m3
B. 50 m3
C. 150 m3
D. 352 m3
69. A 1 Mhz carrier is amplitude modulated by a pure 200-Hz audio test tone. Which of the
following combinations of frequencies represent the total content of the AM signal?
A. 1 MHz and 200 Hz
B. 1 MHz and 1000.2 kHz
C. 999.8 kHz, 1000 kHz, and 1000.2 kHz
D. 999.8 kHz and 1000.2 kHz
71. What noise type is observable between 8 MHz to somewhat above 1.43 GHz or up to 1.5
GHz?
A. Solar noise
B. Space noise
C. Galactic noise
D. Cosmic noise
72. Flicker noise is a poorly understood form of noise which may be completely ignored about
above ____.
A.100 Hz
B. 200 Hz
C. 400 Hz
D. 500 Hz
74. What illumination factor is normally considered in computing parabolic antenna gain in
microwave communications?
A. 0.54
B. 0.65
C. 0.75
D. 0.85
75. How many voice band channels are there in a superjumbo group?
A. 600
B. 900
C. 10,800
D. 3,600
79. What organization has published safety guidelines for the maximum limits of RF energy
near the human body?
A. The American National Standards Institute (ANSI).
B. The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
C. The Federal Communications Commission (FCC).
D. The Institute Of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE).
80. When no signal is being received, the loudspeaker is not entirely silent as a result of the
presence of
A. parasitic oscillations in some of the receiver stages.
B. negative feedback in each stage.
C. spurious frequencies as a result of improper neutralization.
D. internal receiver noise.
81. When measuring a transmitter’s frequency against a suitable standard, the frequency to be
measured is taken from the
A. oscillator stage
B. intermediate amplifier
C. buffer stage
D. final RF stage
84. What device measures the angle between two radio frequencies and also the direction of
propagation of a wave?
A. Densimeter
B. Absorption wavemeter
C. Goniometer
D. Ergometer
85. An automated ship-to-shore distress alerting system using satellites and advanced terrestrial
communications systems.
A. GPS
B. Iridium system
C. INMARSAT
D. GMDSS
86. What antenna can be used to minimize the effect of Faraday rotation of polarization?
A. Dipole
B. Parabolic
C. Helical
D. Rhombic
88. What device measures rf power by measuring the heat the rf power generates?
A. Calorimeter
B. Goniometer
C. Spectrum meter
D. Oscilloscope
89. What is considered the most efficient mode in terms of energy transfer in waveguides?
A. Dominant mode
B. Normal mode
C. Conventional mode
D. Vertical mode
90. In acoustics, _____ is the apparent change in frequency or pitch when a sound source moves
either toward or away from a listener.
A. flanking
B. reverberation
C. Doppler effect
D. echo
91. Which of the following wavelengths where absorption of electromagnetic waves becomes
peak due to vibrational resonances in the water vapor molecule?
A. 1.35 cm and 1.7 mm
B. 1.5 mm and 5mm
C. 1.35 dm and 1.7cm
D. 1.5 cm and 5 mm
92. Oxygen molecule absorption peaks to electromagnetic wave are at what wavelengths?
A. 1.35 mm and 1.7 μm
B. 1.35 cm and 1.7 mm
C. 5 cm and 2.5 cm
D. 5 mm and 2.5 mm
94. What ionospheric layer has a daytime approximate critical frequency of 8 MHz?
A. F2 layer
B. F1 layer
C. E layer
D. D layer
95. In cellular system, _____ defines the geographic distance that is required between cells using
identical frequencies in order to avoid interference between the radio transmissions at these cells.
A. frequency-reuse ratio
B. distance-to-reuse ratio (D/R)
C. reuse format plan ratio
D. reuse factor
96. What do you call the ability of a mobile phone to change from one channel (frequency) to
another?
A. Frequency agility
B. Frequency handoff
C. Frequency handover
D. Frequency switch
97. What mathematical plane figure is ideal in cellular system design and engineering it
graphically and functionally depicts overlapping radio coverage between and among adjacent
cell base stations?
A. Hexagon
B. Octagon
C. Pentagon
D. Nonagon
98. In cellular system, the average lead time to install a new base station is approximately ____
months to a year.
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 10
99. What is considered the threshold of audibility at 3000 Hz?
A. 10-12 W/m2
B. 10-16 W/m2
C. 10-12 W/cm2
D. 10-15 W/cm2
100. At one atmospheric pressure, what is the approximate speed of sound in steel?
A. 5150 m/s
B. 5150 ft/s
C. 4990 m/s
D. 4990 ft/s
Test Yourself – Exam 09
6. In SPADE system, how many PCM-encoded voice band channels are there?
A. 800
B. 600
C. 300
D. 240
7. The product of the radiated RF power of a transmitter and the gain of the antenna system in a
given direction relative to an isotropic radiator is called ____.
A. Effective Radiated Power (ERP)
B. Effective Isotropic Radiated Power (EIRP)
C. Radiated Power
D. Transmit Power
8. The product of antenna input power and the antenna power gain expressed in kW is called __.
A. Effective Radiated Power (ERP)
B. Effective Isotropic Radiated Power (EIRP)
C. Radiated Power
D. Transmit Power
9. What satellite system parameter represents the quality of a satellite or an earth station
receiver?
A. Gain-to-Equivalent Noise Temperature Ratio (G/Te)
B. Energy of Bit-to-Noise Density Ratio (Eb/No)
C. Carrier-to-Noise Density Ratio (C/No)
D. Bit energy
10. What noise is observable at frequencies in the range from about 8 MHz to somewhat 1.5
GHz?
A. Industrial noise
B. Atmospheric noise
C. Space noise
D. Shot noise
11. A special horn antenna consisting of a parabolic cylinder joined to a pyramidal horn.
A. Hoghorn
B. Cass-horn
C. Pyramidal horn
D. Conical horn
12. How many telegraph channels are there in the basic voice band channels?
A. 24
B. 96
C. 48
D. 672
14. What carrier system multiplexes 96 voice band channels into a single 6.312 Mbps data
signal?
A. T1 carrier system
B. T2 carrier system
C. T1C carrier system
D. T3 carrier system
15. What is the metric subdivision of VHF band?
A. Metric
B. Millimetric
C. Decimetric
D. Centimetric
16. In satellite communications, what means of attitude control is using the angular momentum
of the spinning body to provide the roll and yaw stabilization?
A. Spin stabilization
B. Radial stabilization
C. Three-axis stabilization
D. Station keeping
18. What historical satellite broadcasted live the 1964 Olympic games from Tokyo, Japan for the
first time?
A. Syncom I
B. Syncom III
C. Syncom II
D. Syncom IV
19. In transmission line, which of the following is the first step in the procedure of using stub
matching?
A. Calculate stub susceptance.
B. Calculate load admittance
C. Connect stub to load
D. Transform conductance to resistance
24. What is the reactance property at the input of a shorted quarter wavelength line?
A. A parallel LC circuit
B. A pure inductive reactance
C. A series LC circuit
D. A pure capacitive reactance
25. An early satellite owned by US Department of Defense that lasted only for 17 days
A. Courier
B. Echo
C. Score
D. Westar 1
26. Which of the following is the consolidation of H. No. 5224 and S. No. 2683?
A. RA 9292
B. RA 5734
C. RA 7925
D. RA 6849
27. Who will appoint the chairman and 2 members of the board of Electronics Engineering?
A. The Senate President
B. The President
C. The Supreme Court
D. The Commission on Appointment
28. How many nominees per position of the Electronics Engineering Board are nominated by
IECEP to PRC?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 4
D. 6
29. According to RA 9292, how many days after the board exam the results will be released?
A. Within 5 days
B. Within 15 days
C. Within 20 days
D. Within 3 days
30. How many removal examination (s) will be given to an examinee who obtains a passing
rating in the majority of the subjects but obtains a rating in the other subject (s) below seventy
percent (70%) but not lower than sixty percent (60%)?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 2
D. Unlimited
33. For a loudness level between 110 and 120 dB, the maximum daily exposure limit is ____
minute (s).
A. 1
B. 60
C. 20
D. 45
34. A porous material is far more efficient at high than low frequency absorption. How to
improve sound absorption at lower frequencies using this absorber?
A. Increase the thickness
B. Decrease the thickness
C. Mount with and airspace behind
D. Both A and C above
38. Which frequency reuse method is less effective because of Faraday’s effect?
A. Dual polarization
B. Reducing antenna beamwidth
C. Zonal rotation
D. Spin stabilization
39. Three telephone circuits, each having an S/N ratio of 44 dB, are connected in tandem. What
is the overall S/N ratio?
A. 44 dB
B. 39.2 dB
C. 41 dB
D. 43.52 dB
42. Calculate the reverberation time of a living room 8 ft high, 13 ft wide and 20 ft long. The
total absorption of the building structure inside the room is 180.7 sabines with four persons
present in the room.
A. 0.5 ms
B. 0.05 s
C. 0.5 s
D. 5 ms
43. What is the number of levels required in a PCM system with S/N ratio of 40 dB?
A. 64
B. 128
C. 256
D. 512
44. A radio communications link is to be established via the ionosphere. The maximum virtual
height of the layer is 100 km at the midpoint of the path and the critical frequency is 2 MHz. The
distance between stations is 600 km. determine the optimum working frequency?
A. 6.32 MHz
B. 2.1 MHz
C. 5.4 MHz
D. 1.8 MHz
45. Part of a microwave link can be approximated by free space conditions. The antenna gain are
each 40 dB, the frequency is 10 GHz, and the path length is 80 km. Calculate the receive power
for a transmitted power of 10 W?
A. 0.871 μW
B. 871 μW
C. 0.871 mW
D. 871 nW
48. What ionospheric layer has a daytime approximate critical frequency of 8 MHz?
A. F2 layer
B. F1 layer
C. E layer
D. D layer
50. A frequency of 3000 Hz has how many octaves above 1000 Hz?
A. 1.6 octaves
B. 2.1 octaves
C. 1 octave
D. 3 octaves
51. The loudness level increased from 40 to 56 phons. What is the increase in loudness
sensation?
A. 3 times
B. 4.5 times
C. 2 times
D. 4 times
52. In the North American TDM system, what is the transmission rate in Mbps of T3 carrier
system?
A. 44.736
B. 6.312
C. 3.152
D. 274.176
53. What is the data rate in Mbps of a single satellite transponder considering an S/N of 30 dB?
A. 35.8
B. 3.58
C. 358
D. 3580
54. What condition occur when the refractive index of the air decreases with height much more
rapidly the normal?
A. Refraction
B. Superrefraction
C. Subrefraction
D. Diffraction
57. Which of the following wavelengths where absorption of electromagnetic waves becomes
peak due to vibrational resonances in the water vapor molecule?
A. 1.35 cm and 1.7 mm
B. 1.5 mm and 5 mm
C. 1.35 dm and 1.7 cm
D. 1.5 cm and 5mm
58. Oxygen molecule absorption peaks to electromagnetic wave are at what wavelengths?
A. 1.35 cm and 1.7 mm
B. 5 mm and 2.5 mm
C. 5 cm and 2.5 cm
D. 1.35 mm and 1.7 μm
60. The angle of elevation of the antenna beam is 20°. Calculate the transmission-path distance
for an ionospheric transmission that utilizes a layer of virtual height 200 km. Use flat-earth
approximation.
A. 966 km
B. 2100 km
C. 1100 km
D. 405 km
61. If temperature change is 19°C, what amount of change to sound velocity is possible?
A. 11.53 ft/s
B. 11.53 m/s
C. 19.304 ft/s
D. 19.304 m/s
62. In the above problem, what is the new velocity of sound assuming dry air medium?
A. 343 ft/s
B. 3430 m/s
C. 343 m/s
D. 342 m/s
63. In acoustics, if the volume of the room is 200 m3 then at what frequency the coefficient of
absorption is measured?
A. 120 kHz
B. 120 Hz
C. 100 Hz
D. 150 Hz
64. What is the approximate bandwidth of an FM system with 10 kHz of modulating frequency
and a 150 kHz of frequency deviation?
A. 300 kHz
B. 320 kHz
C. 150 kHz
D. 200 kHz
65. Which of the following layers of the ionosphere has no effect on sky wave propagation
during daytime?
A. D
B. E
C. F1
D. F2
66. What phenomenon causes the radio-path horizon distance to exceed the geometric horizon?
A. Diffraction
B. Ducting
C. Reflection
D. Refraction
68. For a space wave transmission, the radio horizon distance of a receiving antenna with a
height of 64 meters is approximately
A. 8 km
B. 32 km
C. 64 km
D. 256 km
69. What bandwidth is needed to support a capacity of 128 kbps when the signal power to noise
power ratio in decibels is 100?
A. 19224 Hz
B. 3853 Hz
C. 19244 Hz
D. 3583 Hz
70. Which of the following systems uses frequency band 870-885 MHz as a transmit band of its
base station?
A. TACS
B. NTT
C. NMT
D. AMPS
71. A transmitted signal 5 meters in wavelength is received by an antenna coil having a 50-Ω
resistance and a 0.01 H inductance. What is the capacitance of the tuner shunting the antenna coil
at this point?
A. 0.704 fF
B. 0.704 μF
C. 0.704 nF
D. 0.704 mF
72. Which of the following is the basic component of a communications satellite receiver?
A. On-board computer
B. Reflector
C. Telemetry
D. Transponder
73. The reverberation time of a 184.2 cubic meters broadcast studio is 0.84 sec. Find the
absorption effect of the materials used in metric sabines.
A. 35.3
B. 10.96
C. 379.8
D. 109.6
74. What is the highest frequency that can be sent straight upward and be returned to earth?
A. MUF
B. Gyro frequency
C. Skip frequency
D. Critical frequency
78. How does spatial isolation technique in satellite communications avoid interference?
A. Use of different polarity antennas
B. Use of different types of antennas
C. Employment of highly directional spot-beam antennas
D. Use of low gain antennas
80. The American concert pitch A is equivalent to which if the following frequencies?
A. 440 Hz
B. 435 Hz
C. 260 Hz
D. 255 Hz
82. The speed of the satellite increases as its height in orbit gets
A. lower
B. higher
C. closer to the moon
D. closer to the sun
83. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 50 watts transmitter power output \, 4
dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain?
A. 158 W
B. 39.7 W
C. 251 W
D. 69.9 W
85. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 50 watts transmitter power output, 5
dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 7 dB antenna gain?
A. 300 W
B. 315 W
C. 31.5 W
D. 69.9 W
87. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 75 watts transmitter power output, 4
dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain?
A. 600 W
B. 75 W
C. 18.75 W
D. 150 W
88. Which of the following regulates the ownership and operation of radio and television stations
in the country?
A. PD 576-A
B. PD 756
C. PD 657
D. PD 677
89. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 75 watts transmitter power output, 5
dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain?
A. 37.6 W
B. 237 W
C. 150 W
D. 23.7 W
91. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 100 watts transmitter power output, 5
dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain?
A. 800 W
B. 126 W
C. 12.5 W
D. 1260 W
92. Which NTC memorandum circular governs the rules and regulations about the manufacture,
acquisition, sale and service of radio communication equipment?
A. MC No. 2-05-88
B. MC No. 2-04-88
C. MC No. 2-07-88
D. MC No. 2-09-88
93. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 120 watts transmitter power output, 5
dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain?
A. 601 W
B. 240 W
C. 60 W
D. 379 W
94. What do you call a short bit sequence sent typically 128 bits in digital signatures?
A. Hash
B. Public key
C. Private key
D. Password
95. What medium is used by IBM token ring network that operates at either 4 Mbps or 16 Mbps?
A. Twisted pair
B. Coaxial cable
C. Fiber-optic
D. Parallel-wire line
96. What is known as the final stage in the evolution of the GSM standard?
A. WAP
B. GPRS
C. EDGE
D. Bluetooth
97. According to KBP revised radio code which airtime below is classified class D for AM
stations?
A. 6:00 AM to 12:00 NN
B. 12:00 NN to 6:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 Midnight
D. 12:00 Midnight to 5:00 AM
98. Encryption of data is important to ensure its privacy. It is most commonly achieved by using
a ____.
A. public-key encryption
B. private-key encryption
C. password-key encryption
D. character set encryption
1. ________ is a standard whereby mobile phones can gain access to specially tailored
Internet websites.
A. Bluetooth
B. GPRS
C. WAP
D. EDGE
3. What is the insertion loss of connector type splices for a single mode optical fiber?
A. 0.51 dB
B. 0.49 dB
C. 0.31 dB
D. 0.38 db
4. In the European standard, the aurial transmitter maximum radiated power is ______ of
peak visual transmitter power.
A. 10%
B. 30%
C. 20%
D. 40%
6. What is the data link protocol that is used in asynchronous transmission for transferring
files from one computer to another?
A. A modem
B. X modem
C. B modem
D. C modem
8. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 200 watts transmitter power
output, 4 dB feline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain?
A. 317 W
B. 2000 W
C. 126 W
D. 260 W
9. Which of the following is standardized as part of GSM phase 2+ that can offer theoretical
data speeds of upto 115 kbit/s?
A. EDGE
B. GPRS
C. WAP
D. Bluetooth
10. A ______ is essentially a cell site that is mounted on a flatbed tractor-trailer used for
emergency purposes.
A. COW
B. BULL
C. CALF
D. PONY
14. What is the channel number of an FM station with a carrier frequency of 99.5 MHz?
A. 256
B. 258
C. 257
D. 259
15. In a triple conversion superheterodyne receiver, diode mixer stages are operated
A. In the linear region
B. In the nonlinear region
C. As class A amplifiers
D. As class B amplifiers
18. What is the quantization signal-to-noise ratio if an 8-bit PCM code is used?
A. 40 dB
B. 50 dB
C. 60 dB
D. 65 dB
19. What is the emission designation of a single sideband reduced carrier signal?
A. H3E
B. J3E
C. R3E
D. B8E
20. What is the most commonly used intermediate frequency of radar receivers?
A. 40 MHz
B. 60 MHz
C. 70 MHz
D. 30 MHz
22. What determines the ability of radar to determine the bearing to a target?
A. Speed of light
B. Speed of target
C. Antenna directivity
D. Frequency of signal
23. What is the minimum number of bits required in a PCM code for a range of 10,000?
A. 12
B. 9
C. 14
D. 10
24. The antenna current is doubled when the modulation index is doubled in ______ AM
system.
A. A5C
B. A3J
C. A3
D. A3H
27. Comparing the capacities of a DVD and an ordinary CD, DVD is ______ time bigger
than CD.
A. 10
B. 20
C. 15
D. 25
31. What is the standard test tone used for audio measurements?
A. 100 Hz
B. 500 Hz
C. 1000 Hz
D. 2000 Hz
34. A waveguide passive component that brings a smooth change in the direction of axis
maintained perpendicular to the plane of polarization?
A. L bend
B. H bend
C. T bend
D. X bend
35. How far is the visual carrier from the lowest frequency in the spectrum of a monochrome
TV broadcast channel following the NTSC standard?
A. 1.5 MHz
B. 1.25 MHz
C. 4.5 MHz
D. 0.25 MHz
38. In the American standard, the aural transmitter maximum radiated power is _____ of
peak visual transmitter power.
A. 10 %
B. 30 %
C. 20 %
D. 40 %
39. What character signifies the start of the test for Bisync?
A. STX
B. SOH
C. BCC
D. ETX
40. A low frequency audible periodic variation in pitch of sound output in high fidelity sound
reproduction system?
A. Flutter
B. Wow
C. String vibration
D. Radio sound
41. When can a corporation or association incorporated under the Philippine laws and with
foreign investors be granted radio station license?
A. When 60% of the capital is owned by Filipino citizens
B. When 50% of the capital is owned by Filipino citizens
C. When the chairman of the board is a Filipino
D. When the president of the corporation/association is a Filipino
42. ______ is a term in the test language for noise testing in telephone circuits that means a
one-syllable word consisting of a consonant, a vowel, and another consonant.
A. Logatom
B. Nosfer
C. Ore
D. Belcore
44. A 1000W carrier is amplitude modulated to a depth of 85%. Calculate the total power of
the modulated wave?
A. 1361.25 W
B. 680.62 W
C. 1425 W
D. 712.5 W
46. What is the process of cancelling the effect on internal device capacitance in radio
transmitters?
A. Degaussing
B. Neutralization
C. Ionization
D. Stabilization
49. What is the typical separation between the two conductors in a parallel wire line?
A. 0.001 to 0.01 m
B. 200 to 500 mm
C. 0.635 to 15.24 cm
D. 2.5 to 5 in.
54. Which of the following frequencies is normally used for distress and safety
communications?
A. 4209.5 kHz
B. 490 kHz
C. 518 kHz
D. 2174.5 kHz
55. What is the difference between available power and power budget?
A. Power margin
B. Extra power
C. Fade margin
D. System gain
57. What do you call the electrical conduction in a photosensitive material which is not
exposed to radiation?
A. Dark conductance
B. Pure conductance
C. Black out
D. Super conductance
59. A component that samples the microwave signal travelling in one direction down to the
transmission line
A. Isolator
B. Combiner
C. Directional coupler
D. Attenuator
61. A test method of comparing two audio systems by switching inputs so that the same
recording is heard in rapid succession over one given system and then the other.
A. B test
B. A test
C. AB test
D. C test
62. And ITU-T specification code that deals with the telephone circuits.
A. X series
B. T series
C. V series
D. I series
68. What is the required quality factor for an SSB filter with the following data: center
frequency= 1 MHz, the desired attenuation level of the unwanted sideband= 80 dB and
the separation between sidebands= 200 Hz?
A. 1,250
B. 12,500
C. 125,000
D. 25,000
69. What do you call the reflection of a part of incident light at the interface of two media
that have different refractive indices?
A. Snell’s reflection
B. Fresnel reflection
C. Lambertian reflection
D. Huygen’s reflection
70. Which conference in the ITU-structure does the telecommunication standardization
bureau report?
A. World telecommunication standardization conference
B. ITU-development sector
C. Radio regulation board
D. The secretary general
72. What do you call the random noise seen on radar display screen?
A. Impulse noise
B. Atmospheric noise
C. Grass
D. Johnson noise
73. Which of the following antennas receives signals equally well from all directions in a
horizontal plane?
A. Hetz antenna
B. Vertical Marconi antenna
C. Yagi antenna
D. Helical antenna
75. What is the term used in telephony and telegraphy for irregular disturbing radiation due
to various causes and in a particular produced by arc transmitters causing a rushing sound
in receiving telephones?
A. Fax tone
B. Mush
C. Hiss
D. Crosstalk
76. What device in a waveguide system used for stopping or diverting electromagnetic wave
as desired?
A. Mechanical switch
B. Electric switch
C. Push-button switch
D. Waveguide switch
77. What is the maximum power that can be obtained from a microwave tube at 10 GHz?
A. 500 W
B. 10 W
C. 50 W
D. 20 W
78. What do you call a cable consisting of twisted pairs of conductors, each separately
insulated?
A. Microstrip line
B. Strip line
C. Quad
D. Coaxial cable
80. What are the electromagnetic radiations of wavelengths less than 300 angstroms?
A. X-rays
B. Ultraviolet rays
C. Infrared
D. Microwaves
81. What is known as the alignment of the three color guns to a common point?
A. Confetti
B. Divergence
C. Convergence
D. Synchronization
82. What is the department order that governs commercial radio operator?
A. Department Order No. 5
B. Department Order No. 23
C. Department Order No. 88
D. Department Order No. 44
86. What synchronization is provided so that the start and end of message is identified?
A. Carrier
B. Character
C. Bit
D. Clock
87. A form of regenerative repeater for transmitting signals over a long cable received
through a relay in a clearer form.
A. Active generator
B. Active repeater
C. Interpolator
D. Audio generator
90. A spot on the sun’s visible surface where the magnetic flux lines converge?
A. Sunspot
B. Filament
C. Solar spot
D. Prominence
91. ______ is a slow moving large mass of plasma on the sun’s surface.
A. Filament
B. Solar flare
C. Prominence
D. Proton flare
92. ______ is slow moving “cord-like” mass of plasma across the sun’s surface.
A. Filament
B. Solar flare
C. Prominence
D. Solar spot
94. What is the approximate intensity of the magnetic field at the earth’s surface?
A. 32,000 nT
B. 62,000 nT
C. 32,000 µT
D. 62,000 µT
95. What is the intensity of the magnetic field at the earth’s north pole?
A. 32,000 nT
B. 62,000 nT
C. 32,000 µT
D. 62,000 µT
97. The first creature in space was carried by which of the following spacecrafts in
November 3, 1957?
A. Sputnik 1
B. Sputnik 3
C. Sputnik 2
D. Explorer 1
98. The wireless evolution is achieved through the GSM family of wireless technology
platforms which include but except one of the following. Which one is NOT a member of
the GSM family?
A. GSM
B. EDGE
C. GPRS
D. CDMA
100. A low power, short range wireless technology designed to provide a replacement for
serial cables is called ______.
A. WAP
B. GPRS
C. Bluetooth
D. EDGE
Noise Chapter 4 (3001 Questions in Communications Engineering-EXCEL REVIEW
CENTER)
1. What is the non-continuous noise of irregular pulses or spikes of duration with high
amplitudes?
A. Wander
B. Jitter
C. Hits
D. Singing
2. What theorem sets a limit on the maximum capacity of a channel with a given noise
level?
A. Nyquist theorem
B. Hartley law
C. Shannon-Hartley theorem
D. Shannon theorem
3. Quantizing noise occurs in
A. PCM
B. PLM
C. PDM
D. PAM
4. Noise always affects the signal in a communications systems at the ________.
A. transmitter
B. channel
C. information source
D. destination
5. _________ is the random and unpredictable electric signals from natural causes, both
internal and external to the system.
A. Interference
B. Attenuation
C. Distortion
D. Noise
6. Noise from random acoustic or electric noise that has equal energy per cycle over a
specified total frequency band.
A. Gaussian noise
B. Whiter noise
C. Thermal noise
D. All of the above
7. Which causes a quantization noise in PCM system?
A. Serial transmission errors
B. The approximation of the quantized signal
C. The synchronization between encoder and decoder
D. Binary coding techniques
8. A particular circuit that rids FM of noise
A. Detector
B. Discriminator
C. Phase Shifter
D. Limiter
9. What is the reference noise temperature in degrees Celsius?
A. 17
B. 273
C. 25
D. 30
10. Unwanted radio signal on assigned frequency.
A. Splatter
B. RFI
C. Noise
D. EMI
11. What is the reliable measurement for comparing amplifier noise characteristics?
A. Thermal agitation noise
B. Noise factor
C. Noise margin
D. Signal-to-noise
12. _________ is measured on a circuit when it is correctly terminated but does not have any
traffic.
A. White noise
B. Galactic noise
C. Impulse noise
D. Atmospheric noise
13. Which standard recommends crosstalk limits?
A. CCIT G.152
B. CCIT G.150
C. CCIT G.151
D. CCIT G.161
14. Which standard is utilized in intermodulation noise rates on PCM audio channels?
A. CCIT Rec. G.151
B. CCIT Rec. G.172
C. CCIT Rec. G.190
D. CCIT Rec. G.190
15. What is the reference frequency of CCIT phosphomeric noise measurement?
A. 800 Hz
B. 1000 Hz
C. 1500 Hz
D. 3400 Hz
16. Reference temperature use in noise analysis
A. 75 K
B. 250 K
C. 290 K
D. 300 K
17. Which noise is produced by lighting discharges in thunderstorms?
A. White noise
B. Extraterrestrial noise
C. Industrial noise
D. Atmospheric noise
18. Man-made noise is usually from _______.
A. transmission over power lines and by ground wave
B. sky-wave
C. space-wave
D. troposphere
19. nif stands for
A. Non-intrinsic figure
B. Noise improvement factor
C. Narrow intermediate frequency
D. Noise interference figure
20. Industrial noise frequency is between _____.
A. 0 to 10 KHz
B. 160 MHz to 200 MHz
C. 15 to 160 MHz
D. 200 to 3000 MHz
21. External noise fields are measured in terms of _______.
A. rms values
B. dc values
C. average values
D. peak values
22. Form of interference caused by rain or dust storms.
A. Precipitation static
B. Shot-noise
C. Galactic noise
D. Impulse noise
23. At 17˚ C, the noise voltage generated by 5kΩ resistor, operating over a bandwidth of
20KHz is
A. 1.3 nV
B. 1.3 µV
C. 1.3 pV
D. 1.3 mV
24. ________ is an electric noise produced by thermal agitation of electrons in conductor and
semiconductor.
A. External noise
B. Internal noise
C. Thermal noise
D. Flicker
25. Three identical circuits having 10 dB signal noise-to-noise ratio each are connected in
tandem with each other, what is the overall S/N?
A. 5.23 dB
B. 14.77dB
C. 30 dB
D. 40 dB
26. The noise figure of the first circuit in tandem connection is 10.5 dB while its power gain
is 15, what is the over all noise figure if the second circuit has a noise figure of 11 dB?
A. 11.59 dB
B. 11.23 dB
C. 10.79 dB
D. 10.5 dB
27. Is the interference coming from other communications channels?
A. Jitter
B. Crosstalk
C. RFI
D. EMI
28. What is the reference noise level?
A. 10 pW
B. 0 dBm
C. 1mW
D. -90 dBm
29. What is the unit of noise power of psophometer?
A. pWp
B. dBa
C. dBm
D. dBrn
30. A large emission of hydrogen from the sun that affects communications.
A. Solar flare
B. Cosmic disturbance
C. Ballistic disturbance
D. Solar noise
31. Atmospheric noise is known as _______noise.
A. static
B. cosmic
C. solar
D. lunar
32. Standard design reference for environmental noise temperature.
A. 300 K
B. 290 K
C. 32 ˚F
D. 212˚F
33. Absolute temperature in Kelvin.
A. ˚C +273
B. ˚C+75
C. ˚C+19
D. ˚C +290
34. If bandwidth is doubled, the signal power is _________.
A. not changed
B. quadrupled
C. tripled
D. doubled
35. Name one or more sources of noise bearing on electronic communications.
A. Steam boiler
B. Galaxies
C. Internal combustion engine
D. Both B and C
36. The transmitter technique adopted to reduce the noise effect of the preceding question is
called
A. noise masking
B. anitnoise
C. noise killing
D. preemphasis
37. Deemphasis in the receiver in effect attenuates modulating signal components and noise
in what frequency range?
A. dc
B. low
C. intermediate
D. high
38. Atmospheric noise or static is not a great problem
A. at frequencies below 20 MHz
B. at frequencies below 5 MHz
C. at frequencies above 30 MHz
D. at frequencies above 1 MHz
39. What is the proper procedure for suppressing electrical noise in a mobile station?
A. Apply shielding and filtering where necessary
B. Insulate a all plain sheet metal surfaces from each other
C. Apply anti-static spray liberally to all nonmetallic
D. Install filter capacitors in series with all dc wiring
40. Where is the noise generated that primarily determines the signal-to-noise ratio in a VHF
(150MHz) marine-band receiver?
A. Man-made noise
B. In the atmosphere
C. In the receiver front end
D. In the ionosphere
41. The difference between signal strength at a given point and a reference level is________.
A. power
B. dBm
C. level
D. ratio
42. Interfering effect of noise, C message weighted, is _________.
A. dBa
B. dBm
C. dBmc
D. dB
43. F1A weighting refers to ___________.
A. -90 dBm
B. dBrnc0
C. dBrnc
D. F1A handset
44. Reading a 58 dBrnC on your Western Electric 3A test set at a +7 test point is equal to
______ dBrnc0.
A. 58
B. 51
C. 65
D. 27
45. Reading a 58 dBrn, at a +7 test point is equal to ________ dBa0.
A. 26
B. 65
C. 51
D. 46
46. A reading of -50 dBm on the disturbing pair, and -80 on the disturbed pair equals _____
dB of crosstalk coupling.
A. 20
B. 30
C. 60
D. 25
47. Power is __________.
A. actual amount of power reference to 1mW
B. logarithmic ratio of two powers
C. definite amount of energy per time period
D. current flow per time period
48. 15 dBa F1A weighted, equals ___________.
A. -90 dBm
B. -82 dBm
C. -85 dBm
D. -70 dBm
49. You are measuring noise in a voice channel with a Lenkurt 601A, F1A weighting
network and a flat meter. Your meter reads -47dBm. What is this reading in dBa?
A. 77 dBa
B. 35 dBa
C. 38 dBa
D. 32 dBa
50. You are measuring noise at a +3 dB level point, using the Lenkurt 601A, F1A weighting
network, and a flat meter. The meter reading is -57dBm. This is ________dBa0.
A. 20
B. 15
C. 25
D. 17
51. You are measuring noise at a -6 dB level point, using the Lenkurt 601A, F1A weighting
network, and a flat meter. The meter reading is -59 dBm. This is _________ dBa0.
A. 24
B. 12
C. 23
D. 32
52. A measurement of -75 dBm, C-message weighted, would be _________ dBrnc.
A. 8
B. 7
C. 9
D. 15
53. Your Western Electric 3A test set meter reading is -23 dBm at at test point level of -8 dB.
This is ______ dBrnc0.
A. 75
B. 29
C. 30
D. 31
54. At what power level does a 1 KHz tone cause zero interference (144 weighted)?
A. 90 dB
B. 90 dBm
C. -90 dBm
D. -90 dBm
55. Reference noise is ___________.
A. a 1000 Hz, -90 dBm tone
B. a noise that creates the same interfering effect as a 1000Hz, -90dBm tone
C. a noise that creates zero dBrn in a voice channel
D. B and C above
56. A practical dBrn measurement will almost always in a _______ number.
A. positive
B. negative
C. imaginary
D. fractional
57. What is the reference level for noise measurement, F1A weighted?
A. -90 dBm
B. -82 dBm
C. -67 dBm
D. -85 dBm
58. What is the reference tone level for dBrn?
A. -90 dBm
B. -82 dBm
C. -67 dBm
D. -85 dBm
59. What is the reference tone level for dBa?
A. -90 dBm
B. -82 dBm
C. -67 dBm
D. -85 dBm
60. Atmospheric noise becomes less severe at frequencies
A. above 30 MHz
B. below 30 MHz
C. above 3000 kHz
D. below 3000kHz
61. Indicate the noise whose sources are in category different from that of the other three?
A. Solar noise
B. Cosmic noise
C. Atmospheric noise
D. Galactic noise
62. Indicate the false statement.
A. Industrial noise is usually of the impulse type
B. Static is caused by lightning discharges in thunderstorms and other natural electric
disturbances occurring in the atmosphere
C. Distant stars are another source of man-made noise
D. Flourescent lights are another source of man-made noise
63. Which of the following is not a source of industrial noise?
A. Automobile ignition
B. Sun
C. Electric Motors
D. Leakage from high voltage line
64. Indicate the false statement
A. The noise generated in a resistance or the resistive component of any impedance is
random.
B. Random noise power is proportional to the bandwidth over which is measured
C. A random voltage across the resistor does not exist
D. All formula referring to random noise are applicable only to the value of such noise.
65. The value of the resistor creating thermal noise is doubled. The noise power generated is
therefore.
A. halved
B. quadrupled
C. doubled
D. unchanged
66. Indicate the false statement.
A. HF mixer are generally noisier than HF amplifiers.
B. Impulse noise voltage is dependent on bandwidth
C. Thermal noise is independent of the frequency at which is measured.
D. Industrial noise is usually of the impulse type.
67. An amplifier operating over the frequency range of 455 to 460 kHz has a 200 kΩ input
resistor. What is the RMS noise voltage at the input to this amplifier if the ambient
temperature is 17˚C ?
A. 40 µV
B. 4.0 µV
C. 400 µV
D. 4.0 mV
68. The first stage of a two-stage amplifier has a voltage gain of 10, a 600 Ω input resistor, a
1600Ω equivalent noise resistance and 27kΩ output resistor. For the second stage, these
values are 25, 81kΩ, 19kΩ, and 1MΩ, respectively. Calculate the equivalent input-noise
resistance of this two stage amplifier.
A. 2,518 kΩ
B. 2,518 Ω
C. 251.8 Ω
D. 12,518 Ω
69. The noise output of a resistor is amplified by a noiseless amplifier having a gain of 60
and a bandwidth of 20 kHz. A meter connected at the output of the amplifier reads 1mV
RMS. If the bandwidth of the amplifier is reduced to 5kHz, its gain remaining constant,
what does the meter read now?
A. 0.5 mV
B. 0.5 µV
C. 5.0 mV
D. 5.0 µV
70. The front-end of a television receiver, having a bandwidth of 7Mhz, and operating at a
temperature of 27˚C , consists of an amplifier having a gain of 15 followed by a mixer
whose gain is 20. The amplifier has a 300 Ω input resistor and a shot noise equivalent
resistance of 500Ω; for the mixer, these values are 2.2kΩ and 13.5kΩ respectively, and
the load resistance of the mixer is 470 kΩ. Calculate the equivalent noise resistance for
this television receiver.
A. 8760 Ω
B. 875Ω
C. 8.76Ω
D. 0.876Ω
71. One of the following is not a useful quantity for comparing the noise performance
receivers.
A. Input noise voltage
B. Equivalent noise resistance
C. Noise temperature
D. Noise figure.
72. Indicate the false statement. Noise figure is defined as
A. the ratio of the S/N power supplied at the input terminal of a receiver or amplifier to
the S/N power supplied to the output or load resistor
B. noise factor expressed in decibels
C. an unwanted form of energy tending to interfere with the proper and easy
reception and reproduction of wanted signals
D. S/N of an ideal system divided by S/N at the output of the receiver or amplifier under
test, both working at the same temperature over the same bandwidth and fed from the
same source
73. Calculated the noise figure of the amplifier whose Req equals 2518Ω (RT=600Ω) if its
driven by a generator whose output impedance is 50Ω.
A. 39.4
B. 3.94
C. 394
D. 0.394
74. Calculate the noise figure of the receiver whose RF amplifier has an input resistance of
1000Ω and an equivalent shot-noise resistance of 2000Ω, a gain of 25 and load resistance
of 125 kΩ. Given that the bandwidth is 1.0MHz and the temperature is 20˚C, and that the
receiver is connected to an antenna with an impedance of 75Ω.
A. 30.3
B. 3.03
C. 303
D. .303
75. A receiver connected to an antenna whose resistance is 50 Ω has an equivalent noise
resistance of 30Ω. Calculate its equivalent noise temperature if the noise figure is equal
to 1.6.
A. 17.4 K
B. 174K
C. 1.74K
D. 17K
76. Most internal noise comes from
A. Shot noise
B. Transit-time noise
C. Thermal agitation
D. Skin effect
77. Which of the following is not a source of external noise?
A. Thermal agitation
B. Auto ignition
C. The sun
D. Fluorescent lights
78. Noise can be reduced by
A. widening the bandwidth
B. narrowing the bandwidth
C. increasing temperature
D. increasing transistor current levels
79. Noise at the input to the receiver can be as high as several
A. microvolts
B. milivolts
C. volts
D. kilo volts
80. Which circuit contributes most of the noise in a receiver?
A. IF amplifier
B. Demodulator
C. AF amplifier
D. Mixer
81. Which noise figure represents the lowest noise in receiver?
A. 1.6 dB
B. 2.1 dB
C. 2.7 dB
D. 3.4 dB
82. The transistor with the lowest noise figure in the microwave region is a
A. MOSFET
B. Dual-gate MOSFET
C. JFET
D. MESFET
83. What is the noise voltage across a 300Ω input resistance to a TV set with a 6MHz
bandwidth and temperature of 30˚C?
A. 2.3 µV
B. 3.8µV
C. 5.5µV
D. 5.4µV
84. Which of the following types of noise becomes of great importance at frequencies?
A. Shot noise
B. Random noise
C. Impulse noise
D. Transit-time noise
85. The solar cycle repeats the period of great electrical disturbance approximately every
A. 11 years
B. 10 years
C. 9 years
D. 8 years
86. The square of the thermal noise voltage generated by a resistor is proportional to
A. its resistance
B. its temperature
C. the bandwidth over which it is measured
D. All of the above
87. Noise occurring in the presence of signal resulting from a mismatch between the exact
value of an analog signal and the closet available quantizing step in a digital coder.
A. Quantizing noise
B. Thermal noise
C. Impulse noise
D. Crosstalk
88. Noise consisting of irregular pulses of short duration and relatively high amplitude,
A. Quantizing noise
B. Tone interference
C. Impulse noise
D. Cross talk
89. Noise that occurs via capacitive or inductive coupling in a cable.
A. Crosstalk
B. Quantizing noise
C. Reference noise
D. Tone interference
90. Sources of impulse noise induced in communication channels.
A. Erroneous digital coding bit caused by an error on a transmission facility
B. Transients due to relay operation
C. Crosstalk from dc signaling systems
D. All of these
91. Crosstalk due to incomplete suppression of sidebands or to intermodulation of two or
more frequency-multiplexed channels which is unintelligible is classified as
A. Impulse noise
B. Thermal noise
C. Quantizing noise
D. Miscellaneous noise
92. ___________ is device that measures the internal open circuit voltage of an equivalent
noise generator having an impedance of 600Ω and delivering noise power to a 600 Ω
load.
A. Psophometer
B. Barometer
C. Reflectometer
D. Voltmeter
93. External noise originating outside the solar system
A. Cosmic noise
B. Solar noise
C. Thermal noise
D. Lunar noise
94. A noise whose source is within the solar system.
A. Solar noise
B. Thermal noise
C. Cosmic noise
D. Johnson Noise
95. The total noise power present in a 1-Hz bandwidth .
A. Noise density
B. Noise figure
C. Noise limit
D. Noise intensity
96. Which of the following is not a way of minimizing if not eliminating noise?
A. Use redundancy
B. Increase transmitted power
C. Reduce signaling rate
D. Increase channel bandwidth
97. What is the primary cause of atmospheric noise?
A. Thunderstorm
B. Lightning
C. Thunderstorm and lightning
D. Weather condition
98. What do you call the noise coming from the sun and stars?
A. Black-body noise
B. Space noise
C. Galactic noise
D. All of these
99. The major cause of atmospheric or static noise are
A. Thunderstorms
B. Airplanes
C. Meteor showers
D. All of these
100. Which of the following low noise transistors is commonly used at microwave
frequencies?
A. MOSFET
B. GASFET
C. MESFET
D. JFET
Satellite Communications Chapter 10(3001 Questions in Communications Engineering-
EXCEL REVIEW CENTER
2. If the antenna increases 3.3 times how much does the radiated power increase?
A. 3.3 times
B. 10.89 times
C. 9.9 times
D. 6.6 times
3. When speaking of antennas. ______ is a section which would be a complete antenna by itself.
A. image
B. top loading
C. bay
D. quarterwave
4. In what range of frequencies are most omnidirectional horizontally polarized antennas used?
A. VHF, UHF
B. VLF, LF
C. SH, EHF
D. MF, HF
5. If the current ratios of the two or more elements must be held 5% and the phase angle to 3° the
antenna is called a
A. end fire array
B. critical phased array
C. broadband array
D. wideband array
10. What is the gain of the Hertzian dipole over isotropic antenna?
A. 1.64 dB
B. 2.15 dB
C. 1.76 dB
D. 1.55 dB
12. In testing transmitter to prevent interfering with other stations, which type of antenna must be
used?
A. Void antenna
B. Dummy antenna
C. Hertzian antenna
D. Isotropic antenna
20. Lightning rods must be mounted a top structure not less than ___ above the highest point.
A. 10 cm
B. 20 cm
C. 30 cm
D. 40 cm
23. An antenna with very high gain and very narrow beamwidth.
A. Helical antenna
B. Discone antenna
C. Horn antenna
D. Parabolic dish antenna
26. A dipole antenna requires to be fed with 20 kW of power to produce a given signal strength
to a particular distant point. If the addition of a reflector makes the same field strength available
with an input power of 11kW. What is the gain in dB, obtained by the use if the reflector. (Gain
referred to this particular dipole).
A. 4.75
B. 2.6
C. 1.81
D. 4.24
27. What is the estimated medium wind loading in the Philippines for antenna tower design?
A. 300 kph
B. 100 kph
C. 200 kph
D. 250 kph
39. The antenna radiates _____ polarized waves when the transmitter antenna is horizontally
installed.
A. Vertically
B. negatively
C. horizontally
D. circularly
40. The length of a Marconi antenna to operate with 985 kHz is ______.
A. 200 ft
B. 500 ft
C. 250 ft
D. 999 ft
41. What is the front-to-back ratio of an antenna which radiates 500 watts in a northernly
direction and 50 watts in a southernly direction?
A. 25000 dB
B. 10 dB
C. 100 dB
D. 20 dB
45. Comparing the signal strength arriving at the driven element from the desired direction to the
signal strength reaching the driver from the opposite direction.
A. Directivity
B. Sensitivity
C. Beamwidth
D. Front-to-back ratio
47. _____ of an antenna is a measure of how the antenna concentrates its radiated power in a
given direction.
A. Efficiency
B. Power
C. Gain
D. Polarization
52. If an antenna is too short for the wavelength being used, the effective length can be increased
by adding:
A. capacitance in series
B. inductance in series
C. resistance in parallel
D. resistance in series
53. Which of the following antennas is used for testing and adjusting a transmitter for proper
modulation, amplifier operation and frequency accuracy?
A. Elementary
B. Real
C. Isotropic
D. Dummy
54. The power fed to a two-bay turnstile antenna is 100 watts. If the antenna has a 2 dB power
gain, what is the effective radiated power?
A. 317 watts
B. 158 watts
C. 200 watts
D. 400 watts
55. What is the gain, in dB of a helical antenna with diameter of λ/3, 10 turns at pitch of λ/4,
used at 100 MHz?
A. 16
B. 41.1
C. 31.4
D. 1.25
56. How is it possible to lower the resonant frequency of Hertz dipole antenna?
A. By reducing the frequency at the transmitter
B. By connecting a capacitor in series with the antenna
C. By the connecting a resistor in series with the antenna
D. By connecting an inductor in series with the antenna
57. Which of the following antennas receive signals in the horizontal plane equality well from
all directions?
A. Horizontal Hertz antenna
B. Vertical loop antenna
C. Vertical Yagi antenna
D. A vertical antenna which is a quarter-wavelength long
59. A final amplifier of a radio transmitter draws 250 mA of plate current when the plate supply
voltage is 1400 volts. If the plate circuit efficiency is 80% and the transmitter is connected to an
antenna having a feed impedance of 70 ohms, what is the antenna current at the feed-point?
A. 4.0 A
B. 2.2 A
C. 1.25 A
D. 2.0 A
63. If the length of an antenna is changed from 2.5 meters to 2.8 meters, its resonant frequency
will
A. increase
B. depend on the velocity factor so the resonant frequency can either be increased or
decreased
C. will be unchanged
D. decrease
64. What is the effect of adding a capacitor in series with an antenna?
A. The antenna’s resonant frequency will increase
B. The antenna’s resonant frequency will decrease
C. The antenna will be physically 5% longer than its electrical length
D. A capacitor is never added in series with an antenna
65. How does the electric field strength of a standard broadcast station vary with the distance
from the antenna?
A. The field strength of a standard broadcast station vary with the distance from the
antenna
B. The field strength is directly proportional to the distance from the antenna
C. The field strength remains constant regardless of the distance from the antenna
D. The field strength varies inversely as the distance from the antenna
68. In order to get maximum radiation to all surrounding points in the horizontal plane, the
antenna used is a
A. vertical loop
B. vertical quarter-wavelength rod
C. array which includes parasitic elements
D. a horizontal Hertz dipole
70. If the antenna current is doubled, the field strength at a particular position is
A. doubled
B. halved
C. multiplied by a factor of four
D. divided by a factor of four
71. The rhombic antenna is primarily used for
A. ground wave propagation
B. space wave propagation
C. ionosphere scatter propagation
D. sky wave propagation
75. ______ is an antenna array which is highly directional at right angles to the plane of the
array?
A. Broadside array
B. End-fire array
C. Turnstile array
D. Log-periodic array
81. A theoretical reference antenna that provides a comparison for antenna measurements.
A. Marconi antenna
B. Isotropic radiator
C. Yagi-Uda array
D. Whip antenna
82. A Hertz antenna is operating on a frequency of 2182 kHz and consists of a horizontal wire
that is hanged between two towers. What is the frequency of its third harmonic?
A. 727 kHz
B. 6546 kHz
C. 436 kHz
D. 6.546 kHz
89. What is the gain of an antenna over a half-wavelength dipole when it has 6 dB gain over an
isotropic radiator?
A. 6.0 dB
B. 8.1 dB
C. 3.9 dB
D. 10.0 dB
90. What is the usual electrical length of a driven element in an HF beam antenna?
A. ¼ wavelength
B. ¾ wavelength
C. ½ wavelength
D. 1 wavelength
91. What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading
coils?
A. It is increased
B. It is decreased
C. No change occurs
D. It becomes flat
92. To electrically decrease the length of an antenna.
A. add an inductor in series
B. add an inductor in parallel
C. add a resistor in series
D. add a capacitor in series
93. Strong interference from one particular station can be eliminated by the use of
A. noise limiters
B. squelch circuits
C. negative feedback
D. wave traps in the antenna circuitry
96. The input terminal impedance at the center of a folded dipole antenna is
A. 72 Ω
B. 300 Ω
C. 50 Ω
D. 73 Ω
102. In the case if Marconi antenna, the actual length if the radiating element is
A. one-half wavelength
B. one-quarter wavelength
C. one wavelength
D. one-eight wavelength
103. The antenna efficiency of an HF grounded vertical antenna can be made comparable to that
of a half-wave antenna
A. By installing a good ground radial system
B. By isolating the coax shield from ground
C. By shortening the vertical
D. By lengthening the vertical
105. Increasing the resonant frequency of an end-fed Marconi antenna can be done by
A. adding a capacitor in series and reducing the physical length
B. adding an inductor in series
C. adding an inductor in series
D. All of these
106. Factors that determine the radiation resistance of an antenna
A. Transmission line length and height of antenna
B. The location of the antenna with respect to nearby objects
C. It is a constant for all antennas since it is physical
D. Sunspot activity and the time of day
108. What is the ratio of the maximum radiation intensity to the average radiation intensity?
A. Aperture gain
B. Directivity gain
C. Transmission gain
D. Power gain
116. One of the following is not a reason for the use of an earth mat
A. impossibility of a good ground connection
B. provision of an earth for the antenna
C. protection of personnel working underneath
D. improvement of the radiation pattern of the antenna
117. One of the following makes an antenna physically long but electrically short
A. Adding L in series
B. Adding C in series
C. Top loading
D. Both A and C
118. When antennas are closed to the ground, _______ polarization is ideal
A. horizontally polarized
B. vertically polarized
C. circularly polarized
D. both A and B
4. The band of light wavelengths that are too long to be seen by the human eye
a. Amber
b. Visible
c. Infrared
d. Ultraviolet
5. The band of light wavelengths that are too short to be seen by the human eye
a. Amber
b. Visible
c. Infrared
d. Ultraviolet
10. Is the different angle of entry of light into an optical fiber when the diameter of the core
is many times the wavelength of the light transmitted.
a. Acceptance angle
b. Modes
c. Sensors
d. Aperture
11. The loss in signal power as light travels down a fiber is called
a. Dispersion
b. Scattering
c. Absorption
d. Attenuation
13. If a mirror is used to reflect light, the reflected light angle is ____ as the incident angle
a. Smaller
b. Larger
c. The same
d. Independent
14. What is a specific path the light takes in an optical fiber corresponding to a certain angle
and number of reflection
a. Mode
b. Grade
c. Numerical Aperture
d. Dispersion
15. Is the width of the range of wavelengths emitted by the light source
a. Bandwidth
b. Chromatic Dispersion
c. Spectral width
d. Beamwidth
16. Which theory states that the light wave behaves as if it consists of many tiny particles?
a. Huygen’s theory
b. Wave theory of light
c. Nyquist theory
d. Quantum theory
21. An object farther from a converging lens than its focal point always has a/an _____
image.
a. Inverted
b. The same in size
c. Virtual
d. Smaller size
22. An object nearer to a converging lens than its focal point always has a/an ______ image.
a. Inverted
b. The same in size
c. Virtual
d. Smaller size
23. The real image formed by a spherical mirror is ____ relative to its object
a. Erect
b. Inverted
c. Smaller
d. Larger
26. ________ dispersion is caused by the difference in the propagation times of light rays
that take different paths down a fiber.
a. Material dispersion
b. Wavelength dispersion
c. Modal dispersion
d. Delay dispersion
27. What is the average insertion loss of fusion splice in fiber optics?
a. 0.09dB
b. 0.9dB
c. 0.19dB
d. 0.009dB
28. What is the insertion loss of connector-type splices for a single mode fiber optics?
a. 0.51dB
b. 0.31dB
c. 0.49dB
d. 0.38dB
34. A dielectric waveguide for the propagation of electromagnetic energy at light frequencies
a. Stripline
b. Microstrip
c. Laser beam
d. Fiber optics
36. Which type of laser is the simplest to modulate directly by changing its excitation?
a. Semiconductor
b. Ruby
c. Helium-neon
d. Neodymium-YAG
37. Which laser emits light in the visible range 400 to 700 nm?
a. Argon-ion
b. Nitrogen
c. Carbon-dioxide
d. Neodymium-YAG
38. Which is the proper measurement of average power emitted by a pulsed laser?
a. Energy x time
b. Pulse energy x repetition rate
c. Pulse energy / repetition rate
d. Peak power x pulse length
39. What is the photon energy for an infrared wave with frequency of 10 12 Hz?
a. 10.6 x 1034 joules
b. 6.63 x 10-34 joules
c. 6.63 x 10-22 joules
d. 10.6 x 1022 joules
40. A positive lens with a focal length of 10 cm forms a real image of an object 20 am away
from the lens. How far is the real image from the lens?
a. 5 cm
b. 10 cm
c. 15 cm
d. 20 cm
41. Which of the following factor does not harm laser efficiency?
a. Atmospheric absorption
b. Excitation energy not absorbed
c. Problems in depopulating the lower laser level
d. Inefficiency in populating the upper laser level
42. Which of the following contributes to the broadening of laser emission bandwidth?
a. Doppler shift of moving atoms and molecules
b. Amplification within the laser medium
c. Coherence of the laser light
d. Optical pumping of the laser transition
45. Which of the following is used as an optical transmitter on the Fiber Optical
Communications?
a. APD
b. LSA diode
c. PIN diode
d. LED
46. Which of the following is used as an optical receiver in fiber optics communications
a. APD
b. Tunnel diode
c. Laser diode
d. LED
49. Which type of laser is the simplest to modulate directly by changing its excitation?
a. Semiconductor
b. Ruby
c. Helium-neon
d. Neodymium-YAG
50. The laser frequency when the light has the wavelength 800 nm is
a. 375 x 10^12 Hz
b. 475 x 10^15 Hz
c. 375 x 10^9 Hz
d. 375 x 10^18 Hz
52. Total internal reflection takes place if the light ray strikes the interface at an angle with
what relationship to the critical angle?
a. Less than
b. Grater than
c. Equal to
d. Zero
57. The upper pulse rate and information carrying capacity of a cable is limited by
a. Pulse shortening
b. Attenuation
c. Light leakage
d. Modal dispersion
60. The speed of light in plastic compared to the speed of light in air is
a. Slower
b. Faster
c. The same
d. Either lower or faster
62. The main benefit of light-wave communications over microwaves or any other
communications media is
a. Lower cost
b. Better security
c. Wider bandwidth
d. Freedom from interference
67. The ratio of speed of light in air to the speed of light in another substance is called the
a. Speed factor
b. Index of reflection
c. Index of refraction
d. Dielectric constant
68. A popular light wavelength in fiber-optic cable is
a. 0.7 um
b. 1.3 um
c. 1.5 um
d. 1.8 um
70. Which type of fiber-optic cable is the best for very high speed data?
a. Single-mode step-index
b. Multimode step-index
c. Single-mode graded-index
d. Multimode graded-index
71. Which type of fiber-optic cable has the least modal dispersion?
a. Single mode step-index
b. Multimode step-index
c. Single-mode graded-index
d. Multimode graded-index
74. A fiber-optic cable has a loss of 15 dB/km. The attenuation in a cable, 100 ft long is
a. 4.57 dB
b. 9.3 dB
c. 24 dB
d. 49.2 dB
75. Fiber-optic cables with attenuations of 1.8, 3.4, 5.9, and 18 dB are linked together. The
total loss is
a. 7.5 dB
b. 19.8 dB
c. 29.1 dB
d. 650 dB
76. Which light emitter is preferred for high speed data in a fiber-optic system
a. Incandescent
b. LED
c. Neon
d. Laser
84. The product of the bit rate and distance of a fiber-optic system is 2 Gbits km/s. What is
the maximum rate at 5 km?
a. 100 Mbits/s
b. 200 Mbits/s
c. 400 Mbits/s
d. 1000 Gbits/s
87. What is used to block light from a laser and let other light through
a. Neutral density
b. Color
c. Interference
d. Spatial
90. The ultrapure glass used to manufacture optical fibers is approximately ___pure
a. 99.9 %
b. 99.99 %
c. 99.999%
d. 99.9999%
92. How many longitudinal modes can fall within a laser’s gain bandwidth?
a. 2
b. 5
c. 9
d. No fixed limit, dependent on bandwidth and mode spacing
93. _________ is the result of photons of light that are absorbed by the atoms of the glass
core molecules
a. Ion resonance absorption
b. Ultraviolet absorption
c. Infrared absorption
d. Absorption loss
94. In fiber optics, SCS stands for
a. Suppressed-clad-silicon
b. Silicon base-class-silica
c. Silica-clad-silica
d. Serial-clad-silicon
96. What parameter of light detector determines the range or system length that can be
achieved for a given wavelength?
a. Transit time
b. Spectral response
c. Dark current
d. Responsitivity
100. What is the typical wavelength of light emitted from epitaxially grown LEDs?
a. 840 nm
b. 490 nm
c. 480 nm
d. 940 nm
108. A single mode optical fiber has a core diameter of _____ nm.
a. 0.1
b. 0.01
c. 0.2
d. 0.05
109. A step-index multimode optical fiber has a core diameter of _____ nm.
a. 0.02
b. 0.2
c. 2
d. 0.002
110. The graded-index multimode optical fiber has a core diameter of _____ nm.
a. 0.5
b. 0.05
c. 0.0005
d. 5
112. The ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum and the speed of light in the material
used.
a. S/N ratio
b. Refractive index
c. Intermodal dispersion
d. Monomode ratio
115. When light strikes a flat polished end of a fiber, it produces a loss of
a. 14 %
b. 4%
c. 10 %
d. 1%
116. When light strikes a flat polished end of a fiber, the fiber loss produced can be
reduced by
a. Splicing
b. Antireflection coating
c. Insulation jacket
d. All of these
118. The following are the cause of light attenuation in fiber optics except
a. Backscattering
b. Absorption
c. Refraction
d. Microbends
119. Why are visible-light LEDs not used for fiber optics?
a. It has high losses
b. It has short wave
c. It has low attenuation
d. It has weak signal
123. Light traveling in optical fiber follows which of the following principles.
a. Huygen’s principle
b. Reflection theory
c. Light theory
d. Snell;s law
124. Optical fibers for telecommunications are typically about _____ mils thick and
consists of a glass core, a glass cladding of lower index of refraction, and a protective
coating
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
130. The _____ of a detector is the fraction of incident photons that produce a
photoelectron or electron-hole pair
a. Responsitivity
b. Photon efficiency
c. Aperture
d. Quantum efficiency
131. In solid-state optical detectors, the excited charge is transported in the solid by
a. Holes and protons
b. Holes and electrons
c. Anion and cation
d. Protons and photons
133. Optical detectors are square-law devices because they respond to _____ rather
than amplitude
a. Intensity
b. Light
c. Density
d. Photon
134. The _____ is equal to the number of electrons emitted per second times the
electron charge
a. Intensity
b. Optical power
c. Photocurrent
d. Responsitivity
135. Which optical detector is used when high sensitivity and bandwidth are required?
a. PMT
b. APD
c. PIN
d. Phototransistor
137. Which of the following colors is not found in the visible light wave spectrum?
a. Red
b. White
c. Orange
d. Yellow
147. A coupler which consists of a series of lenses and a partly reflective surface
a. Beam-splitting coupler
b. Reflective star coupler
c. Fused coupler
d. None of these
150. Which modulation methods are the most widely used in optical systems?
a. Phase and frequency modulations
b. Polarization modulation and phase modulation
c. Intensity modulation and phase modulation
d. Intensity modulation and polarization modulation
BROADCASTING
1. Which of the following is the first component of any MATV system to receive
broadcast signals?
a. Filter
b. LNA
c. RF amplifier
d. Antenna
4. A mechanism or device which enables the TV camera to move in lateral and tilting
motion
a. Panning device
b. Scanner
c. Tilting
d. Pan/tilt device
10. The maximum power suggested by KBP on 919-1312 AM broadcast station in Metro
Manila is
a. 5 kW
b. 10 kW
c. 15 kW
d. 20 kW
11. KBP radio code mandates that station must provide a minimum of ___ minutes
a. 30
b. 45
c. 50
d. 60
12. What is the chroma subcarrier signal frequency for color television?
a. 3.8 MHz
b. 6.8 MHz
c. 7.8 MHz
d. 8.8 MHz
13. What is the frequency tolerance of an FM Radio Broadcast station?
a. ± 20000 Hz
b. ± 20 Hz
c. ± 200 Hz
d. ± 2000 Hz
16. A newscast is a distinct unit of a program with a minimum news content of _____
minute(s) excluding intro, extro, headline and commercial load
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
17. In accordance with existing provision of law and the KBP rules and the regulations,
all stations shall actively promote the growth ands the development of Filipino music
by playing _____ OPM every clock hour.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
18. Commercial load for radio shall not exceed ____ minutes for a one-hour program
outside Metro Manila
a. 15
b. 20
c. 25
d. 30
19. Commercial load for radio shall not exceed _____ minutes for a one-hour program
outside Metro Manila.
a. 15
b. 16
c. 17
d. 20
20. Program interruption for airing of commercial in Metro Manila shall not exceed
_____ breaks in every program hour
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
21. Program interruption for the airing of commercial outside Metro Manila shall not
exceed _____ breaks in every program hour
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
22. For Metro manila, the classification of prime time blocks for FM shall be
a. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
b. 6:00 AM to 12:00 NN
c. 6:00 AM to 6:00 PM
d. 12:00 NN to 12:00 MN
23. For provincial station, the classification of prime time blocks for FM radio shall be
a. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
b. 6:00 AM to 12:00 NN
c. 6:00 AM to 6:00 PM
d. 12:00 NN to 12:00 MN
24. All airtime classifications shall be submitted to and subject for approval by the
a. NTC
b. KBP-SA
c. DOTC
d. CCITT
25. _____ is the time circulation for one horizontal trace
a. 52 us
b. 62 us
c. 48 us
d. 50 us
26. Listing of the date and time of events, programs, equipment, tests, malfunctions and
corrections in communications system.
a. Reporting
b. Documentation
c. Log
d. File
32. One completes NTSC scanning cycle called field consists of how many lines
a. 500
b. 525
c. 625
d. 60
42. What is the maximum frequency deviation for audio modulation in TV transmission?
a. 25 kHz
b. 30 kHz
c. 50 kHz
d. 75 kHz
43. The video carrier and the audio carrier are separated by ____ MHz.
a. 4.5
b. 5.5
c. 6.5
d. 7.5
44. In a practical image scanned at the NTSC rate, the spectrum will include components
clustered at the fundamentals and harmonics of _____ kHz
a. 15.75
b. 30
c. 12.25
d. 45.5
46. The colors at the vertices of the color triangle are referred to as
a. Primary
b. White
c. Desaturated
d. All of the above
47. A color signal which originate in the camera itself with color television pickup?
a. Red
b. Green
c. Blue
d. All of these
48. What are the three separate signals derived from a matrix in a color TV transmitter?
a. Y, I and Q
b. P, D and Q
c. M, N and O
d. R, S and T
52. The colors found around the perimeter of the color triangle are said to be
a. Saturated
b. Dark
c. Light
d. Monochrome
53. At what position on the color triangle will saturated yellow be located?
a. Between red and blue
b. Between red and green
c. Between blue and green
d. At the center
54. What is the phase difference between the I and Q color signal carriers?
a. 0°
b. 45°
c. 60°
d. 90°
55. _____ is the most effective filter for separating luminance and chrominance
frequency components.
a. Low pass
b. Band pass
c. Notch
d. Comb
57. What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for blanking?
a. 25 %
b. 0%
c. 12.5 %
d. 75 %
58. What is the percent video level, in percent PEV, for black?
a. 0 %
b. 25 %
c. 12.5 %
d. 70 %
59. What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for white?
a. 0 %
b. 12.5 %
c. 25 %
d. 70 %
60. One should first perform _____ before a convergence setup is performed.
a. Gray tracking
b. Screen setting
c. Alignment
d. Degaussing
61. If there are too many harmonics, one should check the
a. Coupling
b. Tuning of circuits
c. Shielding
d. Any of these
66. The alignment of the three color guns to a common point is known as
a. Blooming
b. Confetti
c. Demodulation
d. Convergence
70. Picture frames are repeated at the rate of _____ per second
a. 25
b. 30
c. 40
d. 50
72. The sound and video signals are separated at the _____ of the TV receiver
a. IF stage
b. Video amplifier
c. Video detector
d. Burst separator
73. The presence of color bars is an indication that there is a problem in the _____ circuit
a. Horizontal
b. Reactor
c. Burst separator
d. Chroma amplifier
85. Which of the following filters block FM radio band for TV channels (2 to 13)?
a. High-pass filter
b. Low-pass filter
c. Band pass filter
d. Band-reject filter
92. A measure of how well the receiver can respond to every weak signals/
a. Selectivity
b. Sensitivity
c. Fidelity
d. Quality factor
95. Standard AM broadcasting use _____ for greater and efficient coverage
a. Circular polarized wave antenna
b. Horizontal polarized wave antenna
c. Both vertical and horizontal polarized wave antenna
d. Vertical polarized wave antenna
98. Local oscillator of a broadcast receiver always tunes to a frequency higher than the
incoming frequency in order
a. To help the image frequency rejection
b. To allow easy tracking
c. To allow adequate frequency coverage without switching
d. All of these
99. Type of filter used in TV receivers that separates the chroma signal from the
colorplexed video signal but leaves intact the Y-component
a. Comb filter
b. Bandpass filter
c. Color filter
d. Low pass filter
101. The channel for cable TV frequency range of 5.75 to 11.75 MHz
a. T-1
b. T-8
c. 2
d. 3
104. The _____ of a television system is a measure of its ability to delineate picture
detail
a. Contrast
b. Resolution
c. Hue
d. Pixels
105. CCIR standards for the internal exchange of programmes on film for television
used
a. Rec 265-6
b. Rec 407-4
c. Rec 408-5
d. Rec 450-1
111. The television frequency which are now allocated to the land mobile services
a. 806 and 192 MHz
b. 800 and 806 MHz
c. 668 and 674 MHz
d. 776 and 782 MHz
114. A term applied to third and higher order products, which can greatly degrade the
performance of a system
a. Composite triple beat
b. Single dual mode
c. Field strength
d. Noise
115. A station similar to a translator station in terms of equipment and service area but
is permitted to originate originate programming from virtually any source
a. DME
b. LPTV
c. HDTV
d. ITFS
116. Three stations are licensed to eligible educational entities for the distribution of
program material to students enrolled in instructional curricula
a. Translator
b. LPTV
c. HDTV
d. ITFS
120. What is the channel number of an FM station with 88.1 MHz carrier?
a. 201
b. 202
c. 203
d. 204
121. What is the carrier frequency of an FM station with channel number of 300?
a. 107.5 MHz
b. 101.1 MHz
c. 107.9 MHz
d. 99.5 MHz
122. If an FM station has an effective radiated power of 100 kW then it is under what
class?
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D
123. The video signal amplitude determines the quality of the picture otherwise known
as
a. Hue
b. Luminance
c. Chrominance
d. Contrast
A. Radiation
B. Attenuation
C. Modulation
D. Propagation
A. 8493 km
B. 8493 mmi
C. 6370 km
D. 6370 mi
4. the antenna separations (in meters) required for optimum operation of a space diversity
system can be calculated from:
A. S = 2λR/L
B. S = 3λR/L
C. S = λR/RL
D. S = λR/L
A. Third
B. Fourth
C. Fifth
D. Sixth
7. What do you call an attenuation that occurs over many different wavelengths of the
carrier?
A. Rayleigh fading
B. Rician fading
C. Wavelength fading
D. Slow fading
A. Delayed spreading
B. Rayleigh fading
C. Random Doppler shift
D. Slow fading
A. Small reflector
B. Nearer reflector
C. Further reflector
D. Large reflector
10. In microwave transmission using digital radio, what causes most intersymbol
interference?
A. Delayed spreading
B. Rayleigh fading
C. Random Doppler shift
D. Slow fading
11. A shipboard equipment which measures the distance between the ship’s bottom and the
ocean floor.
A. Fathometer
B. Echosounder
C. LORAN
D. SONAR
13. At what position is the input signal inserted into a traveling-wave tube?
A. Waveguide match
B. Cavity match
C. Direct coax-helix match
D. All of the above
17. What is the purpose of the electromagnetic field which surrounds a traveling-wave tube?
18. Which of the following is used as an oscillator device in the SHF band?
A. Thyratron tube
B. Tunnel diode
C. Klystron tube
D. Both B and C
A. 1 to 500 MHz
B. 1000 to 10,000 GHz
C. 1 to 100 GHz
D. 10 to 1000 GHz
20. The highest frequency which a conventional vacuum-tube oscillator can generate is not
limited by the
A. Electron transit time
B. Distributed lead inductance
C. Inter-electrode capacitance
D. Degree of emission from the cathode
21. As the electron beam moves through a klystron’s intercavity drift space
A. Frequency modulation at the input cavity creates velocity modulation at the output
cavity
B. Velocity modulation at the input cavity creates density modulation at the output
cavity
C. Density modulation at the input cavity creates velocity modulation at the output
cavity
D. Phase modulation at the input cavity creates velocity modulation at the output cavity.
23. If the instantaneous RF potentials on the two sides of a magnetron cavity are of opposite
polarity, the operation is in the
A. π mode
B. π/2 mode
C. 2π mode
D. π/4 mode
25. What ferrite device can be used instead of duplexer of isolate microwave transmitter and
receiver when both are connected to the same antenna?
A. Isolator
B. Magnetron
C. Simplex
D. Circulator
26. To achieve good bearing resolution when using a pulsed-radar set, an important
requirement is
27. When used in conjunction with a radar set, the purpose of an echo box is to provide an
artificial target.
A. And FET
B. A tunnel diode
C. A silicon crystal
D. A Rochelle salts crystal
29. Klystron oscillators are most often used in the frequency range of
A. RF emitter
B. Capacitor
C. Varactor-triac
D. Ferrite emitter
36. The maximum usable range of the usual radar set (on any particular range setting) is
determined by
37. A reflex klystron is oscillating at the frequency of its resonant cavity. If the reflector
voltage is made slightly less negative, the
A. 10,000 watts
B. 100 watts
C. 1,000 watts
D. 1,000,000 watts
43. If the duration of the radar transmitted pulse, on a particular range of operation, is
increased, the required bandwidth of the receiver’s IF amplifiers
45. A thin layer of dirt and grime coverts the reflecting surface of the parabolic dish of a
radar set. The particular effect on the performance of the radar will be
A. A decrease in range
B. A reduction in horizontal resolution
C. No noticeable effect
D. A decrease in gain
46. Which of the following permits a microwave signal to travel in one direction with
virtually no loss, but severely attenuates any signal attempting to travel in the reverse
direction?
A. Isolator
B. Wave trap
C. Tunnel diode
D. Circulator
48. When it is desired that short-range targets be clearly seen on a pulsed-radar set, it is
important that the receiver and display system have
A. Thyratron
B. Magnetron
C. Klystron
D. Reflex-klystron
50. Which of the following operating frequencies is used for the modern loran navigational
system?
51. Which ferrite device can be used instead of a duplexer to isolate a microwave transmitter
and receiver when both are connected to the same antenna?
A. Isolator
B. Magnetron
C. Simplex
D. Circulator
54. The intensity of the echoes (target definition) on a PPI display is determined by the
A. Radio frequency
B. Pulse frequency and antenna rotation rate
C. Duty cycle
D. Average power
55. A duplexer circuit allows a transmitter and a receiver to operate from the same antenna
with virtually no interaction. This circuit may be replaced by a (an)
A. loss waveguide
B. circulator
C. isolator
D. gyrator
56. Which of the following frequencies are used by a class-C Emergency Position-Indicating
Radio Beacon (E.P.I.R.B)?
A. 156.65 MHz
B. 121.5 MHz
C. 156.76 MHz and 156.8 MHz
D. All of these
59. Which of the following is the ferrite device that buffers a microwave source from the
effects of a varying load, and thereby prevents the formation of standing waves?
A. Circulator
B. Duplexer
C. Isolator
D. Diplexer
A. Duty cycle
B. Radio frequency
C. Pulse frequency
D. Pulse length
63. The input signal is introduced into the traveling-wave tube at the
A. Cathode
B. Anode
C. Cathode end of the helix
D. Collector end of the helix
64. The display on the PPI scope of a radar set will have greater intensity under the following
conditions
A. LF band
B. VLF band
C. MF band
D. HF band
66. The PPI tubes have an aquadag coating on the inside of the tube. The purpose of this
coating is
A. 30 MHz
B. 300 MHz
C. 8000 MHz
D. 100 MHz
A. Lower-cost equipment
B. Simpler equipment
C. Greater transmission distances
D. More spectrum space for signals
A. DOTC
B. KBP
C. NTC
D. Department of Defense
A. Higher-cost equipment
B. Line-of-sight transmission
C. Conventional components are not usable
D. Circuits are more difficult to analyze
A. Radar
B. Mobile radio
C. Telephone
D. Satellite communications
73. Coaxial cable is not widely used for long microwave transmission lines because of its
A. High loss
B. High cost
C. Large size
D. Excessive radiation
74. Stripline and microstrip transmission lines are usually made with
A. Coax
B. Parallel wires
C. Twisted pair
D. PCBs
A. Square
B. Circle
C. Triangle
D. Rectangle
76. A rectangular waveguide has a width of 1 inch and a height of 0.6 in. Its cutoff frequency
is
A. 2.54 GHz
B. 3.0 GHz
C. 5.9 GHz
D. 11.8 GHz
77. A waveguide has a cutoff frequency of 17 GHz. Which of the following signals will not
be passed by the waveguide?
A. 15 GHz
B. 18 GHz
C. 22 GHz
D. 255 GHz
78. Signal propagation in a waveguide is by
A. Electrons
B. Holes
C. Electric and magnetic fields
D. Air pressure
79. When the electric field in a waveguide is perpendicular to the direction of wave
propagation, the mode is said to be
A. Vertical polarization
B. Horizontal polarization
C. Transverse electric
D. Transverse magnetic
A. TE 1.0
B. TE 1.2
C. TM 0.1
D. TM 1.1
A. Probe
B. Dipole
C. Stripline
D. Capacitor
82. A half-wavelength, close section of a waveguide that acts as a parallel resonant circuit is
known as a(n)
A. Half-wave section
B. Cavity resonator
C. LCR circuit
D. Directional coupler
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain the same
D. Drop to zero
A. Gunn
B. Varactor
C. Hot carrier
D. IMPATT
85. Varactor and step-recovery diodes are widely used in what type of circuit?
A. Amplifier
B. Oscillator
C. Frequency multiplier
D. Mixer
A. IMPATT
B. Gunn
C. Varactor
D. Schottky
87. Which type of diodes does not ordinarily operate with reverse bias?
A. Varactor
B. IMPATT
C. Snap-off
D. Tunnel
A. Reflex klystrons
B. TWTs
C. Magnetrons
D. Varactor diodes
A. Traveling-wave tube
B. Cathode-ray tube
C. Klystron
D. Magnetron
90. In a klystron amplifier, velocity modulation of the electron beam is produced by the
A. Collector
B. Catcher cavity
C. Cathode
D. Buncher cavity
A. Amplifier
B. Oscillator
C. Mixer
D. Frequency multiplier
A. Cavity resonator
B. Strong electric field
C. Permanent magnet
D. High dc voltage
A. Cavity resonators
B. DC supply voltage
C. Input signal frequency
D. Number of cavities
A. Amplifier
B. Oscillator
C. Mixer
D. Frequency multiplier
A. Radar
B. Satellites
C. Two-way radio
D. TV sets
A. Permanent magnet
B. Modulation transformer
C. Helix
D. Cavity resonator
97. The main advantage of a TWT over a klystron for microwave amplification is
A. Lower cost
B. Smaller size
C. Higher power
D. Wider bandwidth
98. High-power TWTs are replacing what in microwave amplifiers?
A. MESFETs
B. Magnetrons
C. Klystrons
D. IMPATT diodes
A. Half-wave dipole
B. Parabolic
C. Hyperbolic
D. Horn
A. MTBF
B. MTTR
C. Downtime
D. Outage time
101. The free space attenuation between two microwave antennas 40 km apart
operating at 8 GHz is
A. 146.7 dB
B. 142.55 dB
C. 82.5 dB
D. 86.7 dB
102. An active microwave radio repeater that can provide drops and inserts.
A. Broadband repeater
B. Baseband repeater
C. IF repeater
D. RF repeater
103. If the correction factor k equals 4/3 of the earth’s curvature, the microwave beam
would have a curvature that is ___________ than that of the earth.
A. More
B. Less
C. Equal
D. Not related
A. 0.6
B. 0.5
C. 0.9
D. 1.5
105. The microwave beam curves the same than that of the earth when the value of the
correction factor k equals
A. 0
B. 4/3
C. 2/3
D. Infinity
106. The time from the transmission of a radar pulse to its reception is 0.12 ms. The
distance to the target is how many nautical miles?
A. 4.85 nmi
B. 9.7 nmi
C. 11.2 nmi
D. 18.4 nmi
107. The ability of a radar to determine the bearing to a target depends upon the
A. Antenna directivity
B. Speed of light
C. Speed of the target
D. Frequency of the signal
108. The pulse duration of a radar signal is 699ns. The PRF is 185 pulses per second.
The duty cycle is
A. 0.216 %
B. 0.130 %
C. 0.013 %
D. 0.407 %
A. Distance
B. Azimuth
C. Altitude
D. Speed
110. The Doppler effect is a change in what signal characteristics produced by relative
motion between the radar set and a target?
A. Amplitude
B. Phase
C. Frequency
D. Duty cycle
A. Klystron
B. Magnetron
C. TWT
D. Power transistor
A. GaAs FET
B. Magnetron
C. Gunn diode
D. Klystron
113. What component in a duplexer protects the receiver from the higher transmitter
output?
A. Waveguide
B. Bandpass filter
C. Notch filter
D. Spark gap
A. Dipole
B. Broadside array
C. Horn and parabolic reflector
D. Collinear array
A. A scan
B. Color CRT
C. LCD
D. PPI
116. A radar antenna using multiple diploes or slot antennas in a matrix with variable
phase shifters is called a/an
A. A scan
B. Phased array
C. Broadside
D. Circulator polarized array
A. 60 MHz
B. 450 MHz
C. 900 MHz
D. 10 GHz
A. C-band
B. X-band
C. Q-band
D. K-band
123. A method of diversity reception where the signal is transmitted on two difference
frequencies over the same path
A. Space diversity
B. Frequency diversity
C. Polarization diversity
D. Wavelength diversity
A. AWG # 14
B. AWG # 15
C. Copper wire
D. Litz wire
125. Space diversity transmission means transmitting and receiving on two or more.
A. Different frequencies
B. Antennas operating on two different frequencies
C. Antennas operating on the same frequencies
D. Identical frequencies
126. The best system configuration to overcome multipath fading of microwave system
over the water
A. Space diversity
B. Frequency diversity
C. Polarization diversity
D. Wavelength diversity
127. When the value of k increases, the effective result is _______ of the equivalent
curvature
A. Flattening
B. Bulging
C. Sharp curvature
D. All of these
131. When the clearance above the obstruction is equal to the radii of even fresnel
zones at the point of reflection. The RSL is
A. Increased
B. Decreased
C. Constant
D. Above threshold
133. The CCIR hypothetical reference circuit covering a distance of 25000 km consists
of a total of how many hops?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 24
D. 54
A. 20 GHz
B. 63 GHz
C. 183 GHz
D. 202 GHz
A. 60 GHz
B. 50 GHz
C. 40 GHz
D. 30 GHz
137. A microwave system operating at the 6 GHz band is carrying 600 voice channels.
What is the noise loading power in dBmO?
A. 12.78
B. 26.78
C. 27.78
D. 10.25
138. _________ is a microwave link between the down-town terminal and another out
of town terminal.
A. STL
B. Uplink
C. Downlink
D. Terrestrial
A. Prevent oscillation
B. Increase gain
C. Prevent saturation
D. All of these
A. Frequency diversity
B. Space diversity
C. Polarization diversity
D. Wavelength diversity
A. 4000 miles
B. K x 4000 miles
C. 5000 miles
D. K x 5280 miles
A. Pulse width
B. Pulse interval
C. Peak transmit power
D. All of these
A. ADF
B. DME
C. Timer
D. ATC
A. 33500 kHz
B. 43000 kHz
C. 33500 MHz
D. 43500 MHz
146. What inflight system allows passengers to make telephone calls, send faxes, and
computer data shop and play computer games, etc.?
A. 1300
B. 1400
C. 1500
D. 1600
149. Which of the following is considered as the major advantage of using a helix
traveling wave tube?
A. Cheaper
B. Less noise
C. High power
D. Wide bandwidth
1. What is the opposition to the transfer of energy which is considered the dominant
characteristic of a cable or circuit that emanates from its physical structure?
a. Conductance
b. Resistance
c. Reactance
d. Impedance
2. When load impedance equals to Zo of the line, it means that the load _____ all the power.
a. reflects
b. absorbs
c. attenuates
d. radiates
3. impedance matching ratio of a coax balun.
a. 1:4
b. 4:1
c. 2:1
d. 3:2
4. Which stands for dB relative level?
a. dBrn
b. dBa
c. dBr
d. dBx
5. Standard test tone used for audio measurement.
a. 800 Hz
b. 300 Hz
c. 100 Hz
d. 1000 Hz
6. When VSWR is equal to zero, this means
a. that no power is applied
b. that the load is purely resistive
c. that the load is a pure reactance
d. that the load is opened
7. _______ is the ratio of reflected voltage to the forward travelling voltage.
a. SWR
b. VSWR
c. Reflection coefficient
d. ISWR
8. Transmission line must be matched to the load to ______.
a. transfer maximum voltage to the load
b. transfer maximum power to the load
c. reduce the load current
d. transfer maximum current to the load
9. Which indicate the relative energy loss in a capacitor?
a. Quality factor
b. Reactive factor
c. Dissipation factor
d. Power factor
10. What is the standard test tone?
a. 0 dB
b. 0 dBW
c. 0 dBm
d. 0 dBrn
11. The energy that neither radiated into space nor completely transmitted.
a. Reflected waves
b. Captured waves
c. Incident waves
d. Standing waves
12. Micron is equal to _______ meter.
a. 10-10
b. 10-9
c. 10-6
d. 10-3
13. 1 Angstrom (A) is equal to _______.
a. 10-3 micron
b. 10-10 m
c. 10-6 micron
d. 10-6 m
14. Why is it impossible to use a waveguide at low radio frequencies?
a. Because of the size of the waveguide
b. Due to severe attenuation
c. Due to too much radiation
d. All of these
15. ________ is the transmission and reception of information.
a. Modulation
b. Communications
c. Radiation
d. Emission
16. What is the loss of the circuit in dB if the power ration of output to input is 0.01?
a. 20
b. -20
c. 40
d. -40
17. Transmission lines are either balanced or unbalanced with respect to
a. Negative terminal
b. Reference
c. Ground
d. Positive terminal
18. The standing wave ratio is equal to _______ if the load is properly matched with the
transmission line.
a. Infinity
b. 0
c. -1
d. 1
19. ________ is the advantage of the balanced transmission line compared to unbalanced
line.
a. Low attenuation
b. Easy installation
c. Low radiation loss
d. Tensile strength
20. _______ is the method of determining the bandwidth of any processing system.
a. Fourier series
b. Spectral analysis
c. Frequency analysis
d. Bandwidth analysis
21. What causes the attenuation present in a waveguide?
a. The air dielectric filling the guide
b. The coating of silver inside
c. Losses in the conducting walls of the guide
d. Radiation loss
22. A device that converts a balanced line to an unbalanced line of a transmission line.
a. Hybrid
b. Stub
c. Directional coupler
d. Balun
23. What is the approximate line impedance of a parallel-strip line spaced 1 cm apart with the
length of 50 cm?
a. 10 ohms
b. 15 ohms
c. 18 ohms
d. 23 ohms
24. What is the average power rating of RG-58 C/u?
a. 25 W
b. 50 W
c. 75 W
d. 200 W
25. A coaxial cable used for high temperatures.
a. RG-58C
b. RG-11A
c. RG-213
d. RG-211
26. If you have available number of power amplifiers with a gain of 100 each, how many
such amplifiers do you need to cascade to give an overall gain of 60dB?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
27. You are measuring noise in a voice channel at a -4 dB test point level, the meter reads -73
dBm, convert the reading into dBrnCO.
a. 12
b. 16
c. 18
d. 21
28. The velocity factor for a transmission line
a. depends on the dielectric constant of the material used
b. increases the velocity along the transmission line
c. is governed by the skin effect
d. is higher for a solid dielectric than for air
29. Impedance inversion can be obtained by
a. a short-circuited stub
b. an open-circuited stub
c. a quarter-wave line
d. a half-wave line
30. Transmission lines when connected to antennas have
a. capacitive load
b. resistive load whose resistance is greater than the characteristic impedance of the line
c. resistive load whose resistance is less than the characteristic impedance of the line
d. resistive load at the resonant frequency
31. One of the following is not a bounded media.
a. Coaxial line
b. Two-wire line
c. Waveguide
d. Ocean
32. The impedance measured at the input of the transmission line when its length is infinite.
a. Input impedance
b. Open circuit impedance
c. Characteristic impedance
d. Short circuit impedance
33. The following are considered primary line constants except
a. conductance
b. resistance
c. capacitance
d. complex propagation constant
34. The dielectric constants of materials commonly used in transmission lines range from
about
a. 1.2 to 2.8
b. 2.8 to 3.5
c. 3.5 to 5.2
d. 1.0 to 1.2
35. Typically, the velocity factor (VF) of the materials used in transmission lines range from
a. 0.6 to 0.9
b. 0.1 to 0.5
c. 1.0 to 0.9
d. 0.6 to 0.8
36. For an air dielectric two-wire line, the minimum characteristic impedance value is
a. 85 ohms
b. 85 ohms
c. 90 ohms
d. 88 ohms
37. When a quarter-wave section transmission line is terminated by a short circuit and is
connected to an RF source at the other end, its input impedance is
a. inductive
b. capacitive
c. resistive
d. equivalent to a parallel resonant LC circuit
38. A transmitter operating at 30 MHz with 4 W output is connected via 10 m of RG-8A/u
cable to an antenna that has an input resistance of 300 ohms. Find the reflection
coefficient.
a. 0.71
b. 0.77
c. 0.97
d. 0.76
39. A quarter wave transformer is connected to a parallel wire line in order to match the line
to a load of 1000 ohms. The transformer has a characteristic impedance of 316.23 ohms.
The distance between centers is 4 inches. What is the percentage reduction in the
diameter of the line?
a. 85%
b. 83%
c. 86%
d. 90%
40. The concept used to make one Smith chart universal is called
a. ionization
b. normalization
c. rationalization
d. termination
41. What are the basic elements of communications system?
a. Source, transmission channel, transmitter
b. Transmitter, receiver, transmission channel
c. Information, transmission channel, receiver
d. Sender and receiver
42. ________ is the transmission of printed material over telephone lines.
a. Internet
b. Data communication
c. Telegraphy
d. Facsimile
43. ________ is a continuous tone generated by the combination of two frequencies of 350
Hz and 440 Hz used in telephone sets.
a. DC tone
b. Ringing tone
c. Dial tone
d. Call waiting tone
44. ________ are unidirectional amplifiers having 20-25 decibel gain that are placed about
75 km apart used to compensate for losses along the telephone line.
a. VF repeaters
b. Loading coils
c. Loop extenders
d. Echo suppressors
45. ________ is a component in the telephone set that has the primary function of interfacing
the handset to the local loop.
a. Resistor
b. Capacitor
c. Varistor
d. Induction coil
46. Pulse dialing has ________ rate.
a. 20 pulses/min
b. 10 pulses/min
c. 10 pulses/sec
d. 80 pulses/sec
47. ________ is a telephone wire that connects two central offices.
a. 2-wire circuit
b. Trunk line
c. Leased line
d. Private line
48. The central switching office coordinating element for all cell sites that has cellular
processor and a cellular switch. It interfaces with telephone company zone offices,
control call processing and handle billing activities.
a. MTSO
b. Cell site
c. PTSN
d. Trunk line
49. ________ in a cellular system performs radio-related functions for cellular site.
a. Switching system
b. Base station
c. Operation and support system
d. Mobile station
50. A technology used to increase the capacity of a mobile phone system.
a. Frequency re-use
b. Cell splitting
c. TDM
d. FDM
51. If the grade of service of a telephone system indicated P = 0.05, what does it mean?
a. Completed calls of 5%
b. Lost calls of 5%
c. Lost calls of 95%
d. Lost calls of 105%
52. ________ is the Out-of-Band signaling between Toll Central Offices (Bell System
Standard).
a. 3, 825 Hz
b. 3, 700 Hz
c. 2, 600 Hz
d. 800 Hz
53. In a telephone system, the customer’s telephone directory numbering is from 000 to 999,
what is the capacity of a telephone system numbering from 000 to 999?
a. 100 lines
b. 1000 lines
c. 10, 000 lines
d. 100, 000 lines
54. If the SWR is infinite, what type of load transmission line has?
a. Purely reactive
b. Purely resistive
c. Purely capacitive
d. Purely inductive
55. Not more than _______ digits make up an international telephone number as
recommended by CCITT REC. E. 161.
a. 8
b. 10
c. 11
d. 12
56. One (1) Erlang is equal to _______.
a. 360 CCS
b. 36 CCS
c. 3.6 CCS
d. 100 CCS
57. Standard tariff for flat rate telephone service beyond the normal flat rate in that area.
a. WATS
b. OTLP
c. TIP
d. DTWX
58. The standard analog telephone channel bandwidth.
a. 300-3400 Hz
b. 1200 Hz
c. 200-3200 Hz
d. 300-3000 Hz
59. Type of switching in which a pair of wire from the telephone set terminates in a jack and
the switch is supervised by an operator.
a. Crossbar switching
b. Manual switching
c. Electronic switching
d. Step-by-step switching
60. Every time when the telephone is idle, the handset is in the _______ state.
a. On-hook
b. Off-hook
c. Busy
d. Spare
61. _______ is a component in the telephone set that has the primary function of
compensating for the local loop length.
a. Resistor
b. Varistor
c. Capacitor
d. Induction coil
62. What kind of receiver is used in conventional telephone handset?
a. Carbon
b. Electromagnetic
c. Ceramic
d. Capacitor
63. A voice-grade circuit using the PTN ha an ideal passband of
a. 0 to 4 Hz
b. 0 to 4 MHz
c. 0 to 4 kHz
d. 0 to 4 GHz
64. ________ is the minimum-quality circuit available using the PTN.
a. Basic voice grade (VG)
b. Basic voice channel (VC)
c. Basic voice band (VB)
d. Basic telephone channel
65. Direct distance dialing (DDD) network is called
a. Private-line network
b. PT network
c. Dial-up network
d. Trunk network
66. What is the advantage of sidetone?
a. Transmission efficiency is increased
b. Speaker increases his voice resulting in a strengthened signal
c. No dissipation of energy in the balancing network
d. Assure the customer that the telephone is working
67. ________ is a special service circuit connecting two private branch exchanges (PBX).
a. Phantom line
b. Tie trunk
c. Tandem trunk
d. Private line
68. The published rates, regulation, and descriptions governing the provision of
communications service for public use.
a. Toll rate
b. Tariff
c. Bulk billing
d. Detailed billing
69. What is the power loss of a telephone hybrid?
a. 1 dB
b. 2 dB
c. 3 dB
d. 6 dB
70. Telephone channel has a band-pass characteristic occupying the frequency range of
_______.
a. 300-400 Hz
b. 300-3400 Hz
c. 300-3000 Hz
d. 300-2700 Hz
71. The first Strowger step-by-step switch was used in _______.
a. 1875
b. 1890
c. 1897
d. 1913
72. What is the phase delay of an 800 Hz voice signal if the phase shift is 15 degrees?
a. 52usec
b. 1.25usec
c. 83.33usec
d. 26usec
73. What is the CCITT recommendation for a preparation of loss plan, a variable loss plans
and a fixed loss plan?
a. G. 133
b. G. 141
c. G. 132
d. G. 122
74. What is the diameter of a copper wire to be used in a 16 km loop with a dc loop
resistance of 100 ohms/km?
a. 0.838 mm
b. 0.465 mm
c. 1.626 mm
d. 2.159 mm
75. What kind of cell is appropriate for load management, fast moving mobiles and low-
usage areas?
a. Pico cells
b. Micro cells
c. Nano cells
d. Umbrella cells
76. In cellular networks, standard base station antennas are placed by _______.
a. adaptive array
b. flat plate antenna
c. dipole array
d. focused antenna
77. What is the basis of the first generation wireless local loop?
a. Digital cellular technology
b. Analogue cellular technology
c. PSTN
d. AMPS technology
78. When the calling party hears a “busy” tone on his telephone, the call is considered
a. lost
b. disconnected
c. completed
d. incomplete
79. Short-circuited stubs are preferred to open circuited stubs because the latter are
a. more difficult to make and connect
b. made of a transmission line with a different characteristic impedance
c. liable to radiate
d. incapable of giving a full range of reactances
80. What is the ratio of the reflected voltage to the incident voltage?
a. VSWR
b. ISWR
c. SWR
d. Coefficient of reflection
81. One method of determining antenna impedance.
a. Sub matching
b. Trial and error
c. Smith chart
d. Quarter-wave matching
82. ________ is a single conductor running from the transmitter to the antenna.
a. Single-wire line
b. Microstrip
c. Twin-lead
d. Coaxial line
83. Coaxial cable impedance is typically _______.
a. 150 to 300 ohms
b. 50 to 75 ohms
c. 30 to 45 ohms
d. 300 to 600 ohms
84. Waveguide becomes compulsory above what frequencies?
a. Above 3 GHz
b. Above 10 kHz
c. At 300 MHz
d. Above 10 GHz
85. Nominal voice channel bandwidth is _______.
a. 20 to 30 kHz
b. 0 to 3 kHz
c. 4 kHz
d. 55 kHz above
86. Echo suppressors are used on all communications system when the round trip
propagation time exceeds _______.
a. 50 ms
b. 30 ms
c. 100 ms
d. 1 ms
87. A radio transmission line of 300 ohms impedance is to be connected to an antenna having
an input impedance of 150 ohms. What is the impedance of a quarter-wave matching
line?
a. 212 ohms
b. 250 ohms
c. 200 ohms
d. 150 ohms
88. Quarter-wavelength line is used as _______.
a. impedance transformer
b. lecher line
c. transmission line
d. harmonic suppressor
89. The transmission lines which can convey electromagnetic waves only in higher modes is
usually called
a. coaxial cable
b. waveguide
c. power lines
d. twisted wire of telephone line
90. Why is nitrogen gas sometimes used in waveguide?
a. To increase the distributed capacitance
b. To keep the waveguide dry
c. To reduce the skin effect at the walls of the guide
d. To raise the guide’s wave impedance
91. The apparent speed of propagation along a waveguide based on the distance between
wavefronts along the walls of the guide is called
a. group velocity
b. phae velocity
c. normal velocity
d. abnormal velocity
92. How do you couple in and out of a waveguide?
a. Wrap a coil of wire around one end of the waveguide
b. Insertion of an E-probe into the waveguide
c. Insertion of an H-loop into the waveguide
d. Both B and C
93. A rectangular waveguide is operating in the dominant TE10 mode. The associated flux
lines are established
a. transversely across the narrow dimension of the waveguide
b. transversely across the wide dimension of the waveguide
c. in the metal walls parallel to the direction of propagation
d. in the metal walls perpendicular to the direction of propagation
94. For dominant mode of a rectangular waveguide, the distance between two instantaneous
consecutive positions of maximum field intensity (in a direction parallel to the walls of
the waveguide) is referred to as half of the
a. free-space wavelength
b. cutoff wavelength in the wide dimension
c. guide wavelength
d. group wavelength
95. The guide wavelength, in a rectangular waveguide is
a. equal to the free-space wavelength at the cutoff frequency
b. equal to the free-space wavelength for the same signal frequency
c. less than the free-space wavelength at the cut-off frequency
d. greater than the free-space wavelength at the same signal frequency
96. Using the TE10 mode, microwave power can only be transmitted in free rectangular guide
provided
a. the wider dimension is less than one-half of the wavelength in free space
b. the narrow dimension is less than one-quarter of the wavelength in free space
c. the wide dimension is greater than one-half of the guide wavelength
d. the wide dimension is greater than one-half of the wavelength in free space
97. If the signal frequency applied to a rectangular guide is increased and the dominant mode
is employed
a. the free space wavelength is increased
b. the phase velocity increased
c. the guide wavelength is increased
d. the group velocity, Vg, is increased
98. If a 6 GHz signal is applied to a rectangular waveguide and the reflection angle is 20 o,
what is the value of the guide wavelength?
a. 6.10 cm
b. 5.32 cm
c. 4.78 cm
d. 5.00 cm
99. The inner dimensions of a rectangular wavelength are 1.75 cm by 3.5 cm. The cutoff
wavelength for the dominant mode is
a. 1.75 cm
b. 3.5 cm
c. 7.0 cm
d. 0.4375 cm
100. A signal whose wavelength is 3.5 cm is being propagated along a guide whose
inner dimensions are 2 cm by 4 cm. What is the value of the guide wavelength?
a. 3.12 cm
b. 3.89 cm
c. 3.57 cm
d. 6.30 cm
101. The frequency range over which a rectangular waveguide is excited in the
dominant mode is limited to
a. the difference between the frequency for which the reflection angle is 90o and the
frequency for which angle is zero
b. the difference between the frequency for which the free-space wavelength is equal to
the cutoff value and the frequency for which the free-space wavelength is equal to the
guide wavelength
c. the difference between the frequency at which the cutoff wavelength is twice the
narrow dimension
d. none of these
102. If a rectangular waveguide is to be excited in the dominant mode, the E-probe
should be inserted
a. at the sealed end
b. at a distance of one quarter –wavelength from the sealed end
c. at a distance of one-half wavelength from the sealed end
d. at a distance of three-quarters of a wavelength from the sealed end
103. A quarter-wave line is connected to an RF generator and is shorted out at the far
end. What is the input impedance to the line generator?
a. A low value of resistance
b. A high value of resistance
c. A capacitive resistance which is equal in the value to the line’s surge impedance
d. An inductive resistance which is equal to the value to the line’s surge impedance
104. If the SWR on a transmission line has a high value, the reason could be
a. an impedance mismatch between the line and the load
b. that the line is non-resonant
c. a reflection coefficient of zero at the load
d. that the load is matched to the line
105. If a quarter-wave transmission line is shorted at one end
a. there is minimum current at the shorted end
b. the line behaves as a parallel-tuned circuit in relation to the generator
c. the line behaves as a series-tuned circuit in relation to the generator
d. there is a minimum voltage at the shorted end
106. A 50-ohm transmission line is feeding an antenna which represents a 50 ohm
resistive load. To shorten the line, the length must be
a. any convenient value
b. an odd multiple of three quarters of a wavelength
c. an odd multiple of half a wavelength
d. an even multiple of a quarter of a wavelength
107. The outer conductor of the coaxial cable is usually grounded
a. at the beginning and at the end of the cable
b. only at the beginning of the cable and only at the end of the cable
c. only at the end of the cable
d. at the middle of the cable
108. A feature of an infinite transmission line is that
a. its input impedance at the generator is equal to the line’s surge impedance
b. its phase velocity is greater than the velocity of light
c. no RF current will be drawn from the generator
d. the impedance varies at different positions on the line
109. When the surge impedance of a line is matched to a load, the line will
a. transfer maximum current to the load
b. transfer maximum voltage to the load
c. transfer maximum power to the load
d. have a VSWR equal to zero
110. A lossless line is terminated by a resistive load which is not equal to the surge
impedance. If the value of the reflection coefficient is 0.5, the VSWR is
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 15
111. Ratio of the mismatch between the antenna and the transmitter power.
a. Standing wave pattern
b. Reflection coefficient
c. SWR
d. Index of refraction
112. Emission designation for a facsimile.
a. H3E and A4E
b. R3E and A4E
c. F4E and J3E
d. F3C and A3E
113. Commonly used telephone wire.
a. AWG #19
b. AWG #18
c. AWG #30
d. AWG #33
114. What is the distance traveled by a wave in the time of one cycle?
a. Frequency
b. Hop
c. Wavelength
d. Crest
115. The velocity factor is inversely proportional with respect to the _______.
a. square of the dielectric constant
b. square root of the dielectric constant
c. dielectric current
d. square root of refractive index
116. ________ is a hollow structure that has no center conductor but allows waves to
propagate down its length.
a. Waveguide
b. Hybrid
c. Pipe
d. Directional coupler
117. To connect a coaxial line to a parallel wire line, _______ is used.
a. hybrid circuit
b. balun
c. directional coupler
d. quarter-wave transformer matching circuit
118. What length for which the input power has been halved for a transmission line
with an attenuation of 6 dB/km?
a. 1.5 km
b. 0.5 km
c. 63 km
d. 2 km
119. Ina waveguide, _______ is a specific configuration of electric and magnetic fields
that allows a wave to propagate.
a. set-up
b. coupler
c. channel
d. mode
120. A rectangular waveguide has dimensions of 3 cm x 5 cm. What is the dominant
mode cut-off frequency?
a. 2 GHz
b. 3 GHz
c. 2.5 GHz
d. 3.5 GHZ
121. ________ are transmission lines which can convey electromagnetic waves only in
higher order modes?
a. Coaxial cables
b. Twisted pairs of telephone wire
c. Power cables
d. Waveguides
122. The amount of uncertainty in a system of symbols is also called
a. bandwidth
b. loss
c. entropy
d. quantum
123. The twists in twisted wire pairs
a. reduced electromagnetic interference
b. occur at a 30-degree angle
c. eliminate loading
d. were removed due to cost
124. An example of a bounded medium is
a. coaxial cable
b. waveguide
c. fiber-optic cable
d. all of the above
125. Loading means the addition of
a. resistor
b. capacitor
c. bullet
d. inductance
126. What is the most commonly used transmission line for high frequency
application?
a. Two-wire balance line
b. Single wire
c. Three-wire line
d. Coaxial
127. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line does not depend upon its
a. length
b. conductor diameter
c. conductor spacing
d. dielectric material
128. One of the following is not a common transmission line impedance.
a. 50 ohms
b. 75 ohms
c. 120 ohms
d. 300 ohms
129. For maximum absorption of power at the antenna, the relationship between the
characteristic impedance of the line Zoand the load impedance ZL should be
a. Zo = ZL
b. Zo > ZL
c. Zo < ZL
d. Zo = 0
130. The mismatch between antenna and transmission line impedance cannot be
corrected for by
a. using LC matcging network
b. adjusting antenna length
c. using a balun
d. adjusting the length of transmission line
131. ________ is a pattern of voltage and current variations along a transmission line
not terminated in its characteristic impedance.
a. An electric field
b. Radio waves
c. Standing waves
d. A magnetic field
132. Which is the desirable SWR on a transmission line?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. Infinity
133. A 50ohm coax is connected to a 73-ohm antenna. What is the SWR?
a. 0.685
b. 1
c. 1.46
d. 2.92
134. What is the most desirable reflection coefficient?
a. 0
b. 0.5
c. 1
d. Infinity
135. What is the ratio expressing the percentage of incident voltage reflected on a
transmission line?
a. Velocity factor
b. Standing-wave ratio
c. Reflection coefficient
d. Line efficiency
136. The minimum voltage along a transmission line is 260 V, while the maximum is
390 V, the SWR is
a. 0.67
b. 1.0
c. 1.2
d. 1.5
137. One meter is one wavelength at a frequency of
a. 150 MHz
b. 164 MHz
c. 300 MHz
d. 328 MHz
138. At very high frequencies, transmission lines act as
a. Tuned circuits
b. Antennas
c. Insulators
d. Resistors
139. A shorted quarter-wave line at the operating frequency acts like a/an
a. Capacitor
b. Inductor
c. Series resonant circuit
d. Parallel resonant circuit
140. A shorted half-wave line at the operating frequency acts like a/an
a. Capacitor
b. Inductor
c. Series resonant circuit
d. Parallel resonant circuit
141. A medium least susceptible to noise?
a. Shielded pair
b. Twisted pair
c. Fiber-optic
d. Coaxial
142. A medium most widely used in LANs?
a. Parallel-wire line
b. Twisted pair
c. Fiber-optic cable
d. Coaxial
143. The most commonly used transmission line in television system.
a. Parallel-wire line
b. Coaxial cable
c. Waveguide
d. Open-wire ceramic supports
144. The impedance of a TV transmission line depends on several factors. Which is not
one of those factors?
a. Diameter
b. Length of the wire
c. Dielectric material
d. Separation between conductors
145. DC blocks are used in coaxial transmission line for the purpose of
a. passing DC while blocking AC
b. passing AC voltage but prevent DC
c. preventing AC voltage from reaching the pre-amplifier
d. preventing AC power supply voltage from being shorted by a balun or band
splitter
146. _______ is a type of interference caused by off-air TV channels 2 and 4, plus a
satellite dish operating on channel 3.
a. Adjacent channel interference
b. Ghost
c. Co-channel interference
d. Crosstalk
147. Dithering (in TVRO communication) is a process of
a. Reducing the effect of noise on the TVRO video signal
b. Centering the video fine tuning on TVRO channels
c. Moving the feedhorn rotor to the precise angle
d. Moving the actuator exactly onto the desired satellite beam
148. A network that has an input of 75dB and an output of 35dB. The loss of the network
is
a. -40db
b. 40db
c. 40dBm
d. -4dBm
149. Important useful quantities describing waveforms.
a. Time and frequency
b. Voltage and current
c. Frequency and voltage
d. Power and frequency
150. Halving the power means
a. 6-dB gain
b. 3-dB loss
c. 3-dB gain
d. 6-dB loss
151. One Neper (Np) is how many decibels?
a. 8.866
b. 8.686
c. 8.688
d. 8.868
152. A signal is amplified 100 times in power. The dB gain is
a. 20dB
b. 119dB
c. 15dB
d. 25dB
153. Which of the following is used to measure SWR?
a. Spectrum analyzer
b. Reflectometer
c. Oscilloscope
d. Multimeter
154. 214-056 twin lead which is commonly used for TV lead-in has a characteristic
impedance of
a. 52 ohms
b. 75 ohms
c. 600 ohms
d. 300 ohms
155. What is the characteristic impedance of a transmission line which is to act a s a
quarterwave matching transformer between a 175 ohms transmission line and 600
ohms load?
a. 300.04 ohms
b. 324.04 ohms
c. 310.04 ohms
d. 320.04 ohms
156. What is the EIRP in dBW of a 50dB antenna connected to a transmitter with an
output of 10kW through a transmission line with loss of 5dB?
a. 85dBW
b. 955 dBW
c. 90 dBW
d. 80 dBW
157. A coaxial cable is a good example of a/an
a. Unbounded medium
b. Transmission channel
c. Non-metallic medium
d. Bounded medium
158. If a quarterwave transformer is required to match a 180 ohm load to a transmission
line with and impedance of 300 ohms, what should be the characteristic impedance of
the matching ransformer? Assume that the matching transformer is to be connected
directly to the load.
a. 180 ohms
b. 232 ohms
c. 300 ohms
d. 480 ohms
159. A transmitter of 100W RF power output, 100% modulated is operating on a
frequency of 169MHz. The antenna transmission line consists of a 50 ohms coaxial
cable 150ft long. The coaxial inner conductor outer diameter is 0.162in. determine
the outside diameter of the outer conductor if the outer conductor has a thickness of
0.05 in(assume K=1).
a. 1.0 in
b. 0.9in
c. 0.7in
d. 0.5in
160. In the preceding problem , calculate the line current.
a. 1.7A
b. 1.3A
c. 1.5A
d. 1.0A
161. Determine also the total attenuation of the line in the preceding problem.
a. 2.0dB
b. 1.5 dB
c. 2.5 dB
d. 1.0 dB
162. What is the maximum subscriber loop length, in ft, of a telephone system if the
signalling resistance is 1800ohms using a telephone cable pair of gauge #26 with
loop resistance of 83.5 ohms per 100ft. Assume the telephone set resistance is equal
to 200 ohms.
a. 15,161.7 feet
b. 19,161 feet
c. 15,300 feet
d. 20,000 feet
163. If the same subscriber loop above limits the voice attenuation to a maximum of 6dB,
what is the maximum allowable subscriber loop length, in feet, using the same gauge
#26 telephone wire? Assume a 2.7dB loss per mile.
a. 20,000 ft
b. 13,900 ft
c. 15,280ft
d. 11,733ft
164. The input is 0.1W and the network gain is 13dB, the output is
a. 2.0W
b. 2.5W
c. 1.5W
d. 1.8W
165. Known as one-tenth of a neper.
a. dB
b. dBm
c. dBp
d. dNp
166. the input impedance of a quarterwave short-circuited transmission line at its resinant
frequency is
a. 0 ohms
b. Infinite or an open circuit
c. Ohm
d. 70 ohms
167. The ratio of the largest rms value to the smallest rms value of the voltage in the line
is called
a. SWR
b. ISWR
c. VSWR
d. Coefficient of reflection
168. An open-wire, two-wire transmission line is to be connected to a dipole antenna
through a quarter-wave matching stub. At a frequency of 10 MHz, compute the
length of the dipole
a. 20 meters
b. 7.5 meters
c. 15 meters
d. 25 meters
169. From the preceding problem, compute also the length of the quarterwave stub.
a. 15 meters
b. 7.5 meters
c. 20 meters
d. 25 meters
170. To find the characteristic impedance of a coaxial cable, measurements are made with
(a) the far end open circuited and (b) far end short circuited, the corresponding
readings being a) Ro=3ohms and Xc=55 ohms, capacitive b) RS = 10 ohms and XL =
90 ohms, inductive. What is the characteristic impedance Zo of the line?
a. 75.7-j2.0 ohms
b. 70.7+j1.19 ohms
c. 87.5 – j5 ohms
d. 70.7 – j1.97 ohms
171. A TV antenna receives a signal measured at 200mV and is immediately amplified by
a preamplifier with a 15dB gain. This amplified signal then passes through a coaxial
cable with 3dB loss, what is the resulting input to the TV set, in dBmV?
a. 1.98
b. 13.98
c. -1.98
d. -13.98
172. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line does not depend upon
its___________.
a. Conductor spacing
b. Conductor diameter
c. Length
d. Conductor radius
173. What does a power difference of -3dB mean?
a. A loss of one third of the power
b. A loss of one half of the power
c. A loss of three watts of power
d. No significant change
174. Which of the following is an advantage of the balance transmission line?
a. Easy installation
b. Outer shield eliminates radiation losses
c. Low attenuation
d. None of these
175. Waveguides are used mainly for microwave transmission because
a. They are bulky at lower frequencies
b. Losses are heavy at lower frequencies
c. They depend on straight line propagation
d. No generators are powerful enough to excite them
176. The input is 1W and the network loss is 27dB, the output is
a. 1mW
b. 3mW
c. 2mW
d. 4mW
177. A combiner has two inputs +30dBm and +30dBm, what is the resultant output?
a. +36 dBm
b. +30 dBm
c. +60 dBm
d. +33 dBm
178. The ratio of the smallest to the largest rms current value is called
a. SWR
b. VSWR
c. ISWR
d. Coefficient of reflection
179. If the ratio of the maximum current to minimum current in a transmission line is 2:1
then the ratio of the maximum voltage to minimum voltage is
a. 4:1
b. 1:2
c. 1:4
d. 2:1
180. Two wires of 600 ohms characteristic impedance is to be constructed out of a number
12 wire (81 mils). Find the attenuation of the line at 0.6GHz per 100feet length
a. 0.05 dB
b. 0.55 dB
c. 0.44 dB
d. 0.35 dB
181. In the preceding problem, determine the spacing between wires from center to center.
a. 6 in
b. 4 in
c. 5 in
d. 3 in
182. A lossless transmission line has a shunt capacitance of 100nF/m and a series
inductance of 4mH/m. What is the characteristic impedance?
a. 500 ohms
b. 400ohms
c. 300ohms
d. 200hms
183. A ten times power change in transmission system is equivalent to
a. 10dBm
b. 1dB
c. 20dB
d. 100dB
184. A type of transmission line employed where balanced properties are required.
a. Balun
b. Parallel-wire line
c. Coaxial line
d. Quarterwave line
185. What is the characteristic impedance of a transmission line which has a capacitance
of 40nF/ft and an inductance of 0.5mH/ft
a. 111.8 ohms
b. 110.8 ohms
c. 112.8 ohms
d. 109.8 ohms
186. The input power to a loss-free cable is 5W. If the reflected power is 7dB down on the
incident power, the output power to the load is
a. 4W
b. 5W
c. 6W
d. 7W
187. To be properly matched the ratio of a maximum voltage along a transmission line
should be equal to
a. 1
b. 10
c. 50
d. 2
188. A coaxial line with an outer diameter of 6mm has a 50 ohms characteristic
impedance. If the dielectric constant of the insulation is 1.60., calculate the inner
diameter.
a. 2.09cm
b. 2.09in
c. 2.09mm
d. 2.09mm
189. If an amplifier has equal input and out impedance, what voltage ratio does the gain of
50dB represent?
a. 316.2
b. 325.2
c. 320.1
d. 315.0
190. What is the inductance per foot of a cable that has a capacitance of 50 pF/ft and a
characteristic impedance of 60 ohms?
a. 0.167uH/ft
b. 0.178 uH/ft
c. 0.19 uH/ft
d. 0.18 uH/ft
191. The ratio between the energy absorbed by a surface to the total energy received by
the surface.
a. Reflection coefficient
b. Absorption coefficient
c. Linear coefficient
d. Thermal coefficient
192. When the diameter of the conductors of a wire transmission line is held constant, the
effect of decreasing the distance between the conductors is
a. Increase the surge impedance
b. Increase the radiation resistance
c. Decrease the SWR
d. Decrease the impedance
193. The higher the gauge number if a conductor
a. The bigger the diameter
b. The higher the resistance or the smaller the diameter
c. The higher the resistance
d. None of the above
194. A short length transmission line used to reduce/eliminate standing waves in the main
transmission line.
a. Stub
b. Balun
c. λ/4 transformer
d. slot
195. ratio of reflected power to incident power?
a. Incidence
b. Reflectance
c. Reflection index
d. None of these
196. A quarter wave transformer is used to match a 600 ohms lad antenna to a ling of 52
ohms impedance, the characteristic impedance of the matching transformer is
a. 200 ohms
b. 150 ohms
c. 176 ohms
d. 300 ohms
197. What is the capacitance of 55 miles #44 copper wire spaced 18 inches? From wire
tables, #44 wire has a radius to 0.10215 in.
a. 0.476uF
b. 0.476nF
c. 0.476pF
d. 0.476fF
198. A two-transmission line consists of No. 12 wire AWG (81mils). The distance
between wire centers is 10 inches. What is the characteristic impedance of the line?
a. 650 ohms
b. 300 ohms
c. 600 ohms
d. 660 ohms
199. In the preceding problem, what is the attenuation in dB per 100ft of the line for a
frequency of 4 MHz?
a. 0.05
b. 0.03
c. 0.04
d. 0.06
200. What is the SWR when a transmission line is terminated in a short circuit?
a. Zero
b. One
c. Infinite
d. indeterminate
1. Typical speech power
A. 10 to 1000 µW
B. 100 to 1000 mW
C. 10 to 1000 nW
D. 100 to 1000 pW
2. The maximum intelligibility for voice frequency is located between
A. 250 and 500 Hz
B. 1000 and 3000 Hz
C. 500 and 1000 Hz
D. 3000 and 5000 Hz
3. The maximum voice energy is located between
A. 250 and 500 Hz
B. 1000 and 3000 Hz
C. 500 and 1000 Hz
D. 3000 and 5000 Hz
4. A device used to measure speech volume.
A. speech meter
B. volume meter
C. volume unit meter
D. speedometer
5. By definition, for a sine wave
A. 0 dBm = 0 V.U.
B. 0 dBW = 0 V.U.
C. 0 dBa = 0 V.U.
D. 0 dBf = 0 V.U.
6. Presently, this is the “standard” frequency bandwidth for voice transmission.
A. 0 to 4000 Hz
B. 100 to 3400 Hz
C. 300 to 3400 Hz
D. 300 to 3000 Hz
7. Which of the following is commonly used wire for subscriber loop design?
A. AWG # 19
B. AWG # 18
C. AWG # 30
D. AWG # 33
8. The resistance limit for No. 2 Crossbar Exchange (US) is
A. 1300 Ω
B. 2000 Ω
C. 1250 Ω
D. 1200 Ω
9. AWG # 26 has a typical loss of
A. 0.21 dB/1000 ft.
B. 0.32 dB/1000 ft.
C. 0.41 dB/1000 ft.
D. 0.51 dB/1000 ft.
10. What is the standard voice channel spacing?
A. 44 MHz
B. 40 kHz
C. 4 kHz
D. 40 MHz
11. Which tester is used to measure SWR?
A. Multimeter
B. Oscilloscope
C. Spectrum analyzer
D. Reflectometer
12. What is singing?
A. The result of intermodulating two or more signals of different frequencies to produce
a tone having a frequency equal to the sum of the frequencies of the signals
intermodulated.
B. The result of intermodulating two or more signals of different frequencies to produce
a tone having a frequency higher than that of the signal having the highest frequency.
C. An undesired self-sustained oscillation in a system, generally caused by excessive
positive feedback.
D. An art or form of entertainment that can make one rich.
13. Which stage increases the selectivity of the circuit in an AM receiver?
A. Detector
B. IF stage
C. Modulator
D. Mixer
14. The ________ of radio receiver amplify weak signal and produce a desirable
intelligence at the output speaker.
A. sensitivity
B. selectivity
C. reliability
D. fidelity
15. Full-duplex transmission means
A. One-way transmission
B. 24-hour transmission
C. Broadcast transmission
D. Two-way simultaneous transmission
16. What is a multidrop line?
A. A piece of wire with a thick insulating material that serves to protect the conductive
materials from damage in the event the wire is dropped.
B. A line designed to withstand high pressure.
C. A line or circuit interconnecting several situations.
D. A bus line
17. A passive _________ is an electronic device which reduces signal strength by a
specified amount in dB.
A. Splitter
B. Filter
C. Trimmer
D. Attenuator
18. The signal quality of the calls is constantly monitored by the base station, when the
quality of the calls drops below a certain specified level. The base request the MTSO to
try and find a better cell site.
A. Hand-off
B. Cell splitting
C. Roaming
D. Frequency reuse
19. A digital identification associated with a cellular system.
A. SAT
B. SID
C. ESN
D. MIN
20. How many seconds does facsimile transmit a stranded page?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 25
21. A kind of recording used in facsimile.
A. Electrolytic recording
B. Electrothermal recording
C. Electropercussive recording
D. Electrostatic recording
22. A type of distortion a facsimile produce when it becomes out of synchronization?
A. Pincushion
B. Barrel
C. Skewing
D. Fattening
23. What is an acoustic coupler?
A. A device that radiates audible signals via a transmitting antenna
B. A device that converts electric signals into audio signals, enabling data to be
transmitted over the public telephone network via a conventional telephone
handset
C. A device that receives audible signals and retransmits them at VHF frequencies
D. A transducer
24. Cause a herringbone pattern in facsimile
A. Single-frequency interference
B. Crosstalk
C. Phase jitter
D. Noise
25. The _______ in an FM receiver causes a stronger signal to dominate over a weaker
signal on the same frequency.
A. Capture effect
B. Flywheel effect
C. Hall effect
D. Skin effect
26. A device that converts a 2-wire circuit to a 4-wire circuit.
A. RS-232 interface
B. Hybrid circuit
C. Balun
D. Stub
27. ______ theory is deciding between a set of hypothesis when given a collection of
imperfect measurements.
A. Estimation
B. Traffic
C. Decision
D. Nyquist
28. ______ of a data reduction says that when reducing a set of data into the form of an
underlying mode, one should be maximally non-committal with respect to missing data.
A. Jaynes maximum entropy principle
B. Kullback principle of minimum discrimination
C. Minimum discrimination\
D. Maximum entropy
29. _______ is selecting the best value of a parameter from a continuum of possible values
when gives a collection if imperfect measurements
A. Estimation
B. Traffic
C. Decision
D. Nyquist
30. Combination of madulator, channel, and detector.
A. Transceiver
B. Transponder
C. T/R channel
D. Discrete channel
31. What is the frequency band of DECT?
A. 1.88 – 1.90 GHz
B. 1.68 – 1.70 GHz
C. 1.48 – 1.50 GHz
D. 1.28 – 1.30 GHz
32. How many simultaneous calls does each DECT system can support?
A. 96
B. 12
C. 24
D. 49
33. How many simultaneous calls does a DECT radio transceiver can assess at any given
time?
A. 120
B. 240
C. 480
D. 960
34. The AGC voltage of a radio receiver is always _______.
A. Present before adjustments can be made
B. DC, but may have either polarity positive DC
C. Positive DC
D. Negative
35. What is a concentrator?
A. A system that improves the signal-to-noise ratio by compressing the volume range of
a signal.
B. A device that varies the characteristics of a carrier signal in accordance with the
waveform of a modulating signal which contains useful information
C. A switching system that lets a large number of telephone or data processing
subscribers use a lesser number of transmission lines or a narrow bandwidth
D. Equipment in the central office.
36. If you find that an SAW filter output is 6 dB down from the input of a receiver during
test, ______
A. This is normal.
B. The device if faulty
C. The receiver is improperly terminated
D. The filter is not resonating
37. A triple conversion superheterodyne receiver, diode mixer stages are
A. Operated in the linear region
B. Operated in the nonlinear region
C. Operated as Class-A amplifiers
D. Operated as Class-B amplifiers
38. What is a leased line?
A. A piece of wire used in a local area network in one building
B. A piece of wire connecting a telephone set to a PABX
C. A temporary connection of one computer to a mainframe via a modern and a
telephone line
D. A permanent circuit for a private use within a communication network
39. If two FM signals of different strengths are received on the same frequency
A. One steady heterodyne will appear in the AM output
B. Both will appear in the AF output
C. Only the stronger will appear in the AF output
D. Neither signal will be intelligence unless the weaker signal is at least 10 times
40. Cellular mobile system was first operated in
A. 1979
B. 1981
C. 1983
D. 1985
41. TACS is a cellular system with ______ channels.
A. 666
B. 1000
C. 832
D. 200
42. Supervisory Audio Tone (SAT) has _______ frequency.
A. 5960 Hz
B. 6000 Hz
C. 6040 Hz
D. 1004 z
43. What is the number of channels of a cellular system with an allocated spectrum of 25
MHz and with a channel of 30 kHz bandwidth?
A. 833
B. 240
C. 1000
D. 666
44. GSSM uses what digital modulation technique?
A. QAM
B. GFSK
C. BPSK
D. GMSK
45. What is the power output of Personal Communication System (PCS)?
A. 10 mW
B. 75 mW
C. 150 mW
D. 10 W
46. RG-B8 cable has a loss of about ______ dB at cellular frequencies up to 15 ft. length.
A. 2
B. 1
C. 4
D. 3
47. The signals designed to keep the receivers and transmitters aligned.
A. Carrier frequencies
B. Pilot carrier signals
C. Synchronizing signals
D. Reference signals
48. If the spacing of a two-wire open air transmission line is 12 inches and the conductor
diameter is 0.25 inch, the characteristic impedance is
A. 547 Ω
B. 357 Ω
C. 273 Ω
D. 300 Ω
49. The impedance of the quarterwave transformer used to match a 600 Ω line to a 300 Ω
load is
A. 382 Ω
B. 424 Ω
C. 565 Ω
D. 712 Ω
50. When a line and a load are match the reflection coefficient is
A. Unity
B. Zero
C. Positive infinity
D. Negative infinity
51. When line is terminated in an open circuit load, the reflection coefficient is
A. Unity
B. Zero
C. Positive infinity
D. Negative infinity
52. A 300 ohms line is terminated in a resistance load of 200 ohms, the VSWR is
A. 0.65
B. 1.5
C. Unity
D. Zero
53. If the reflection coefficient is 0.5, the standing wave ratio is
A. 0.33
B. Unity
C. 3
D. Zero
54. To least the fault of the given line, a signal is fed to the line, 30 µs later the signal
returned. What is the distance of the fault?
A. 9000 m
B. 300 m
C. 100 m
D. 4500 m
55. The telephone set is powered by the central office on the ring side at
A. 42 to 52 Vdc
B. – 42 to -52 Vdc
C. 24 to 64 Vdc
D. – 24 to – 64 Vdc
56. The telephone voice band frequency is from
A. 300 to 4 kHz
B. 400 to 3400 Hz
C. 300 to 3400 Hz
D. 400 to 4 kHz
57. Which of the following wire is used to transmit the signal?
A. Black
B. Yellow
C. Red
D. Green
58. The corresponding frequency for digit 7 in the touch tone telephone is
A. 770 & 1477 Hz
B. 852 & 1209 Hz
C. 852 & 1336 Hz
D. 770 & 1336 Hz
59. The physical connection between the telephone set and the switching equipment is
called the
A. Trunk line
B. Link
C. Subscriber loop
D. Leased line
60. What is the local loop of a telephone system?
A. It is a two-wire or four-wire communication circuit between the customer’s
premise and the central office
B. It is a group of wires connecting a telephone set to a modern
C. It is a four-wire circuit connecting a facsimile machine to a computer
D. It is a single piece of wire connecting the subscriber’s telephone set to another set in
an adjacent room.
61. Which of the ff. equipment is used in long loop design?
A. Dial long lines
B. Voice repeater
C. Loop range extender
D. All of the above
62. What is a two-wire circuit?
A. A circuit usually in the subscriber loop, between the telephone set and the local
central office.
B. A circuit having only two terminals, both terminals having the same instantaneous
voltage.
C. A circuit with one input terminal, one output terminal, and a common ground.
D. A circuit consisting of two transmission lines.
63. 1 mW is equal to
A. 90 dBm
B. 0 dBm
C. -30 dBm
D. 120 dBm
64. Which of the following responds to the request of a subscriber by sending a dial tone?
A. Line finder
B. First selector
C. Connector
D. Line equipment
65. The other name of Class 2 office in the North American Switching Plan.
A. Primary center
B. Section
C. Regional center
D. Toll points
66. A cell in the cellular telephone system means
A. A power source
B. Small area
C. Large area
D. Service area
67. What is the linking point between cell phone and regular telephone?
A. Base station
B. Control office
C. C.O.
D. MTSO
68. What is the typical power output of a cellular phone?
A. 5 W
B. 10 W
C. 1 W
D. 3 W
69. When a single cell is divided into smaller cells that process is called
A. Cell splitting
B. Cell division
C. Reuse
D. Cell sharing
70. The first cell shape is a square
A. Square
B. Circle
C. Rectangle
D. Triangle
71. In order to provide 100% coverage without overlap, cellular telephone system can use
A. Hexagon cell shape
B. Triangle
C. Rectangular
D. All of the above
72. What is the beamwidth of the reflector of the receiving antenna in the base station
A. 20 degrees
B. 30 degrees
C. 50 degrees
D. 60 degrees
73. A cellular phone operates on
A. Half duplex
B. Full duplex
C. Echoplex
D. Lincomplex
74. Cellular phones transmit in the band from
A. 825 to 845 MHz
B. 835 to 855 MHz
C. 825 to 855 MHz
D. 825 to 865 MHz
75. Cell phone receives in the band from
A. 860 to 880 MHz
B. 870 to 890 MHz
C. 870 to 880 MHz
D. 860 to 890 MHz
76. What is the frequency separation between the transmit and the receive channels?
A. 30 MHz
B. 45 MHz
C. 55 MHz
D. 40 MHz
77. For channel 1, transmit/receive frequency is
A. 825.030/870.030 MHz
B. 835.03/880.03 MHz
C. 825.015/870.015 MHz
D. 825.15/870.15 MHz
78. The number of transmit/receive channels in the cellular system is
A. 625
B. 645
C. 655
D. 666
79. The transmission range of cellular telephony is generally about
A. 80 km
B. 65 km
C. 160 km
D. 16 km
80. One of the following is not an advantage of a cellular telephone system
A. Privacy
B. Large service area
C. No interference
D. Mobility
81. When the message is transferred from one cell site transmitter to another cell site
transmitter as the caller crosses a boundary __________ process takes place.
A. Shifting
B. Hand off
C. Give off
D. Turn over
82. What is the sensitivity of a cellular receiver?
A. 20 dB
B. 40 dB
C. 50 dB
D. 60 dB
83. What is the frequency deviation of the cellular telephone system?
A. ±15 kHz
B. ±30 kHz
C. ±12 kHz
D. ±75 kHz
84. Hailing channel is otherwise known as
A. Conversation channel
B. Calling channel
C. Signaling channel
D. Remote channel
85. What is an Erlang?
A. It is a unit of magnetic field intensity measured around a conductor
B. It is the number of erroneous bits received per unit of time
C. It a unit of electrical energy radiated in space.
D. It is equal to the number of simultaneous calls originated during a specific
hourly period.
86. All of the cell base stations are linked together by _______ which serves as the central
office and management node for the group.
A. MTS
B. IMTS
C. MSTO
D. MTSO
87. Provides interface between the mobile telephone switching office and the mobile units.
A. Database
B. Cell site
C. Terrestrial link
D. Radio transmitter
88. A phone call over the cellular network actually requires
A. Simplex channels
B. Half duplex channels
C. Full duplex channels
D. Full/full duplex
89. A method of expressing the amplitudes of complex non-periodic signals such as speech.
A. Volume
B. Pitch
C. Frequency
D. Wavelength
90. _______ is signal returned to the talker after one or more round trips between the talker
and the listener.
A. Singing
B. Echo
C. Jitter
D. Crosstalk
91. ______ is a voice operated device that inserts a high loss in the opposite direction of
transmission of the talking party.
A. Hybrid
B. 2-wire circuit
C. Echo suppressor
D. VNL
92. _____ is picking up of the same station at two nearby points on the receiver dial.
A. Double spotting
B. Hot shot
C. Image frequency
D. Bail shot
93. When one channel picks up the signal carried by another channel.
A. Echo
B. Crosstalk
C. Party line
D. Crosslink
94. What type of connector arrangement wherein a customer may move to another location
and still retain the same telephone number.
A. TPL
B. Bridge
C. TPS
D. Party line
95. It is an advantage of sidetone.
A. Transmission efficiency is increased
B. Speaker increase his voice resulting in a strengthened signal
C. No dissipation of energy in the balancing network
D. Assures the customer that the telephone is working
96. Radio communications between points using a single share frequency.
A. Simplex
B. Full duplex
C. Half-duplex
D. Full/full duplex
97. The transmission of information from multiple sources occurring on the same facility
but not as the same time.
A. FDM
B. TDM
C. WDM
D. CDM
98. When human voice and music are transmitted, the type of communication employed is
known as
A. Raditechnology
B. Audio frequency
C. Wired audio
D. Radiotelephony
99. Printed documents to be transmitted by fax are converted into baseband electric signal
by the process of
A. Copying
B. Scanning
C. Modulation
D. Light variation
100. What is the most commonly used light sensor in a modern fax machine?
A. Phototube
B. Phototransistor
C. Liquid-crystal display
D. Charge couple device
101. In FM fax, the frequencies for black and white are ______ repectively.
A. 1500 and 2300 Hz
B. 2300 and 1500 Hz
C. 1300 and 2400 Hz
D. 1070 and 1270 Hz
102. Which resolution produces the best quality fax?
A. 96 lines per inch
B. 150 lines per inch
C. 200 lines per inch
D. 400 lines per inch
103. Group 2 fax uses which modulation?
A. SSB
B. FSK
C. Vestigial sideband AM
D. PSK
104. The most widely used fax standard is
A. Group 1
B. Group 2
C. Group 3
D. Group 4
105. Group 3 fax uses which modulation?
A. QAM
B. ASK
C. PSK
D. GFSK
130. Block calls held condition specified the held probability at a time period equal to
an average holding time.
A. Erlang B
B. Erlang C
C. Erlang D
D. Poisson
131. What is an Echo?
A. A signal of the same amplitude but 180 degrees out of phase from the original signal
and mixed with the original signal at the transmitter to produce a more intelligible
output signal
B. A wave which has been reflected or otherwise returned with the sufficient
magnitude and delay for it to be perceptible in some manner as a wave distinct
from that directly transmitted.
C. The signal having a higher frequency than the original and transmitted back to earth
by a passive satellite.
D. A reflected signal.
132. What is the system used by Personal Communication Network (PCN)?
A. TACS
B. Modified GSM
C. AMPS
D. CDMA
133. Termination refers to
A. Cutting both ends of a conductor
B. Disconnecting a line from a transmitter
C. Looking back impedance of a line with no load
D. Load connected to the output end of a transmission line
134. The multiple access used by Digital European Cordless Telephone (DECT)
A. CDMA
B. FDMA
C. TDMA
D. CDMA/FDMA
135. Blocked calls delay condition specified delay probability
A. Erlang B
B. Erlang C
C. Erlang D
D. Poisson
136. Status information provided by telephone signaling.
A. Busy tone, dial tone and ringing
B. Congestion and call charge data
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
137. The modulation technique used by DECT.
A. GFSK
B. ASK
C. QAM
D. PSK
138. What is a four-wire circuit?
A. Is used between serving central offices for long-distance connections, with one
pair being used for each direction of transmission.
B. Is a circuit with three output terminals and one input terminal
C. Is an oscillator that produces four different frequencies simultaneously
D. A circuit consisting of four transmission lines.
139. Cellular CDMA system uses what modulation method?
A. GFSK
B. ASK
C. QAM
D. BPSK
140. PABX means
A. Private All-purpose Broadcasting Exchange
B. Private Automatic Branch Exchange
C. Public Access Bi-directional Exchange
D. Public Automatic Branch Exchange
141. What is the voted cellular digital standard at TIA?
A. Digital AMPS
B. GSM
C. CDMA
D. TACS
142. What is the number of channels for Band A and for Band B in Digital AMPS
A. 832
B. 416
C. 666
D. 888
143. The mobile-to-base frequency assignment for GSM system is
A. 890-915 MHz
B. 935-960 MHz
C. 870-890 MHz
D. 825-845 MHz
144. The range (in miles) of a cellular CDMA system.
A. 13
B. 30
C. 45
D. 20
145. In a cellular system, ________ is used to measure the spectrum efficiency.
A. Radio efficiency
B. Diversity
C. Frequency reuse
D. Radio capacity
146. Which of the following echo is completely out of control?
A. Worst echo
B. Reverberation
C. Singing
D. Feedback
147. Which of the following devices increase the battery voltage on a loop and extends
its signaling range?
A. Loop extender
B. VF repeater
C. VF amplifier
D. All of these
148. Under ordinary circumstances, the CCITT recommends that the number of
circuits in tandem must not exceed
A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12
149. What is the system capacity of AMPS?
A. 30,000
B. 60,000
C. 100,000
D. 120,000
150. NAM means
A. Non Alternable Memory
B. Numeric Allocation Module
C. Numeric Assignment Module
D. Numeric Access Module
Modulation – Chapter 3