1.

The four major concepts in nursing theory are the

A. Person, Environment, Nurse, Health
 
B. Nurse, Person, Environment, Cure
 
C. Promotive, Preventive, Curative, Rehabilitative
 
D. Person, Environment, Nursing, Health
Ans-D
 
 2. The act of utilizing the environment of the patient to assist him in his recovery is theorized by
A. Nightingale
 
B. Benner
 
C. Swanson
 
D. King
Ans-A
 
 3. For her, Nursing is a theoretical system of knowledge that prescribes a process of analysis and
action related to care of the ill person
A.  King
 
B.  Henderson
 
C. Roy
 
D.  Leininger
 
 4. According to her, Nursing is a helping or assistive profession to persons who are wholly or
partly dependent or when those who are supposedly caring for them are no longer able to give
care.
A. Henderson
 
B. Orem
 
C. Swanson
 
D. Neuman
 
 5. Nursing is a unique profession, Concerned with all the variables affecting an individual’s
response to stressors, which are intra, inter and extra personal in nature.
A. Neuman
 
B. Johnson
 
C. Watson
 
D. Parse
 
 6. The unique function of the nurse is to assist the individual, sick or well, in the performance of
those activities contributing to health that he would perform unaided if he has the necessary
strength, will and knowledge, and do this in such a way as to help him gain independence as
rapidly as possible.
A. Henderson
 
B. Abdellah
 
C. Levin
 
D. Peplau
 
 7. Caring is the essence and central unifying, a dominant domain that distinguishes nursing from
other health disciplines. Care is an essential human need.
A. Benner
 
B. Watson
 
C. Leininger
 
D. Swanson
 
 8. Caring involves 5 processes, KNOWING, BEING WITH, DOING FOR, ENABLING and
MAINTAINING BELIEF.
A. Benner
 
B. Watson
 
C. Leininger
 
D. Swanson
 
 9. Caring is healing, it is communicated through the consciousness of the nurse to the individual
being cared for. It allows access to higher human spirit.
A. Benner
 
B. Watson
 
C. Leininger
 
D. Swanson
 
 10. Caring means that person, events, projects and things matter to people. It reveals stress and
coping options. Caring creates responsibility. It is an inherent feature of nursing practice. It helps
the nurse assist clients to recover in the face of the illness.
A. Benner
 
B. Watson
 
C. Leininger
 
D. Swanson
 
 11. Which of the following is NOT an attribute of a professional?
 
A. Concerned with quantity
 
B. Self directed
 
C. Committed to spirit of inquiry
 
D. Independent
 
 12. The most unique characteristic of nursing as a profession is .
A. Education
 
B. Theory
 
C. Caring
 
D. Autonomy
C
 
 13. This is the distinctive individual qualities that differentiate a person to another
A. Philosophy
 
B. Personality
 
C. Charm
 
D. Character
 
 14. Refers to the moral values and beliefs that are used as guides to personal behavior and
actions
A. Philosophy
 
B. Personality
 
C. Charm
 
D. Character
 
 15. As a nurse manager, which of the following best describes this function?
A. Initiate modification on client’s lifestyle
B. Protect client’s right
C. Coordinates the activities of other members of the health team in managing patient care
D. Provide in service education programs, Use accurate nursing audit, formulate philosophy and
vision of the institution
 
 16. What best describes nurses as a care provider?
A. Determine client’s need
 
B. Provide direct nursing care
 
C. Help client recognize and cope with stressful psychological situation
 
D. Works in combined effort with all those involved in patient’s care
 
 17. The nurse questions a doctors order of Morphine sulfate 50 mg, IM for a client with
pancreatitis. Which role best fit that statement?
A. Change agent
B. Client advocate
C. Case manager
D. Collaborator
 
 18. What type of patient care model is the most common for student nurses and private duty
nurses?
A. Total patient care
 
B. Team nursing
 
C. Primary Nursing
 
D. Case management
 
 19. This is the best patient care model when there are many nurses but few patients.
A. Functional nursing
B. Team nursing
C. Primary nursing
D. Total patient care
 
 20. This patient care model works best when there are plenty of patient but few nurses
A. Functional nursing
B. Team nursing
C. Primary nursing
D. Total patient care
 
 21.Which of the following is NOT TRUE about profession according to Marie Jahoda? 

A. A profession is an organization of an occupational group based on the application of special

knowledge
 
B. It serves specific interest of a group
 
C. It is altruistic
 
D. Quality of work is of greater importance than the rewards
 
 22. These are nursing intervention that requires knowledge, skills and expertise of multiple
health professionals. 
A. Dependent
 
B. Independent
 
C. Interdependent
 
D. Intradependent
 
 23. RN assumes 24 hour responsibility for the client to maintain continuity of care across shifts,
days or visits. 
A. Functional nursing
 
B. Team nursing
 
C. Primary nursing
 
D. Total patient care
 
 24.  Who developed the first theory of nursing? 
 
A. Hammurabi
 
B. Alexander
 
C. Fabiola
 
D. Nightingale
 
 25. She introduces the NATURE OF NURSING MODEL. 
A. Henderson
 
B. Nightingale
 
C. Parse
 
D. Orlando
 
 
 
 
 
26. Accreditation refers to one of the following:
A. Making assessment
B. Meeting predetermined standards 
C.Making care cost effective    
d. Ensuring Quality                   
 
 
ans-4
 
27. Quality Council of India sponsored accreditation system for hospitals and health care
providers: 
A.NABH  
B. Joint Commission International    
C. BIS   
D.NABET
 
                          1 
28. Which definition of quality of care represents the entire continuum from structure to process
and to outcome?
A. Deming's   
B. WHO, 1988  
C. Donabedian  
D. Kurt Lewin                   
3
29. Which of the following aspects of nursing is essential to defining it as both a profession and a
discipline?
A. Established standards of care
B. Professional organizations   
C. Practice supported by scientific research
D. Activities determined by a scope of practice                      
 
3
 
      
30. Purposeful, self-regulatory judgment that uses cognitive tools such as interpretation, analysis,
evaluation, inference, and explanation of the evidential, conceptual, methodological,
criteriological, or contextual considerations on which judgment is based." This Definition Refers
to:    
A. System Thinking
B. Critical Thinking
C. Clinical reasoning  
D. Intuitive recognition                      
2
      
31. Plan-Do-Check -Act cycle is related to:
A. Donabedian  
B. Deming
C. Henry Gantt  
D. B.F. Skinner                
 
2 
32. Which statement would best explain the role of the nurse when planning care for a culturally
diverse population? The nurse will plan care to:     
A.  Include care that is culturally congruent with the staff from predetermined criteria    
B.  Focus only on the needs of the client, ignoring the nurse’s beliefs and practices       
C. Blend the values of the nurse that are for the good of the client and minimize the client’s
individual values and beliefs during care
D. Provide care while aware of one’s own bias, focusing on the client’s individual needs rather
than the staff’s practices                   
 
1
 
 
      
33. To be effective in meeting various ethnic needs, the nurse should:  
A. Treat all clients alike   
B. be aware of clients’ cultural differences 
C. Act as if he or she is comfortable with the client’s behavior
D. Avoid asking questions about the client’s cultural background                   
 
2 
 
34. A client is hospitalized in the end stage of terminal cancer. His family members are sitting at
his bedside. What can the nurse do to best aid the family at this time?     
A. Limit the time visitors may stay so they do not become overwhelmed by the situation.  
B. Avoid telling family members about the client’s actual condition so they will not lose hope. 
C. Discourage spiritual practices because this will have little connection to the client at this time. 

D. Find simple and appropriate care activities for the family to perform.            
 
4 
 
35. The following is the most important purpose of documentation? except  
 
A.  To Reimbursement 
B.   To Quality assurance  
C.   To provide comfort
D.  To Communicate                       
 
 
 
3
 
 
 
      
36. When signing a form as a witness, your signature shows that the client:
A. Is fully informed and is aware of all consequences.
B. Was awake and fully alert and not medicated with narcotics.    
C. Was free to sign without pressure.
D. Understands the language of the form.            
 
 
 
       1
      
37. The ----------- is the first contact with individuals in any health care system.
 
A.   Secondary level of care   
B. primary level of care  
C. Tertiary level of care. 
D.   Specialized care institute                    
 
2
38. Are collective agreements legally enforceable? 
A. Yes, otherwise they would be worthless.
B. No, they are never legally enforceable.  
C. They are presumed not to be legally enforceable unless the parties agree otherwise. 
D. Only those made with trade unions.                
 
3
 
39. Are employers obliged to provide information to trade union representatives for collective
bargaining purposes?     
A. No, because it would be unfair on the employer in the negotiations.
B. No, because there might be a lot of sensitive information included which the employer might
not wish to be known.   
C. Yes, if it is information that the employee representatives need to carry on collective
bargaining.   
D. Yes, but only if the union representatives agree to keep it secret.                
 
3
 
40. The kind of bargaining issues that are related to certain jobs and are not mandatory are
classified as  
A. Illegal issues 
B. Permissive Issues
C. Non permissive issues 
D. Provisional issues                 
 
2
 
41. The criteria of nursing profession according to William shepherd, exclude. 
A. Based on scientific principles. 
B. Demands: adequate pre-professional and cultural training.  
C. Demand: specialized and systematized knowledge. 
D. No evidenced based practice needed               
 
4
 
42. Which statement describe ethical dilemma.   
A. Occurs when there is conflict between two or more ethical principles.  
B. No correct decision exists.   
C. Autonomy 
D. option 1 & 2       
      
 
4
 
 
43. ICN Code of Ethics include   
Nurses and People  
Nurses and Ethics   
Option 1&2   
The nurse respects the uniqueness of individual in provision of care     
      
 
1
44. INC code of Ethics for nurses in India include:
A. The nurse respects the rights of individuals as partner in care and helps in making informed 
choices
B. The nurse respects individual’s right to privacy, maintains, confidentiality, and shares
information judiciously.
C. Nurse is not obliged to work harmoniously with the members of the health team     
D. Option 1 &2                
 
 
4
 
 
45. INC CODE OF PROFESSIONAL CONDUCT FOR  NURSES IN INDIA Include 
A. Professional Responsibility and accountability is unconsiderate  
B. Establishes and maintains effective interpersonal relationship with individuals, families and
communities
C. Don't Participate in performance appraisal
D. Focus at  advanced skills only and don't Contribute to the core of professional
knowledge.                         
2
46. The process that mandates that individuals are answerable  for their actions and have an
obligation to  act ,is refered as-
 
A. Autonomy
B. Accountability   
C. Attribute    
D. Assertiveness               
 
2
 
 
47. Which statement justifies assertiveness-  
A. Tool for expressing ourselves confidently
B. Way of saying yes or no in an appropriate way  
C. Option 1 & 2
D. Lowering Self Esteem                    
3
 
 
48. Techniques for being assertive    
a. Identify your personal rights, wants and needs.  
b. Don’t Identify how you feel about a particular Situation 
c. Don't be direct     
d. Made assumptions about others thinking                  
 
1
49. The organization of health services at the national level consist of -
A. Union Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Central Council of health and Directorate
general of health services.
B. Union Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Central Council of health, Directorate general of
health services and Health secretary.
C. Union Ministry of  Health & Family Welfare, Central Council of  health, Directorate general
of health  services and Deputy secretary.
D. Union Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Central Council of health, Directorate general of
health services and administrative staff.                
  
1
 
50. In health care delivery, Union list consist of-
A. Censuses and collection and publication of other statistical data. 
B. Prevention of extension of communicable disease from one unit to another. 
C. Prevention of adulteration of foods stuffs 
D. Population control and family welfare.                    
1
 

51. Concurrent list in health care delivery system include-    

A. Prevention of extension of communicable disease from one unit to another

B. International health relations and administration of part quarantine.

C. Administration of central institutes such as  the All India Institute of Hygiene and Public 
Health Kolkata, National Institute for the  control of Communicable Disease, Delhi etc.   

D. Promotion of research through research centers and other bodies.                                 

52. When signing a form as a witness, your signature shows that the client:      

A. Is fully informed and is aware of all consequences.           

B. Was awake and fully alert and not medicated with narcotics.         

C. Was free to sign without pressure           

D. Has signed that form and the witness saw it being done                  

53. An extensive program has been undertaken, under the rural health scheme, to train all 
categories of local dais (TBA) in the country to  improve their knowledge in the elementary 
concepts of maternal and child health and  sterilization, besides, obstetric skills  

A. The training is for 30 working days        

B. The training is for 90 working days        

C. The training is for 120 working days     

D. The training is for 60 working days                                        

1
54. Nurses agree to be advocates for their patients. Practice of advocacy calls for the nurse to:  

A. Seek out the nursing supervisor in conflicting situations    

B. Work to understand the law as it applies to the client’s clinical condition     

C. Assess the client’s point of view and prepare to articulate this point of view

D. Document all clinical changes in the medical record in a timely manner                       

             3

55. In most ethical dilemmas, the solution to the dilemma requires negotiation among members
of the health care team. The nurse’s point of view is valuable because:

A. Nurses have a legal license that encourages their presence during ethical discussions.

B. The principle of autonomy guides all participants to respect their own self-worth       

c. Nurses develop a relationship to the client that is unique among all professional health care
providers. 

d. The nurse’s code of ethics recommends that a nurse be present at any ethical discussion about
client care                           3

56. The code of ethics for nurses is composed and published by:        

A. The national league for Nursing 

B. The American Nurses Association         

C. The Medical American Association       

D. The National Institutes of Health, Nursing division                            

57. The nurse puts a restraint jacket on a client without the client’s permission and without the
physicians order. The nurse may be guilty of:           

A. Assault         

B. Battery        

C. Invasion of privacy  

D. Neglect                                         

2
58. External stake holders include  

A. Suppliers, patients, and financial community     

B. The competitor.         

C. only 2 option  

D. both 1 & 2                                   

59. Objectives of Central Health Education Bureau exclude-  

A. To make available facilities of communication for health education.           

B. To carry out training and research in health education.    

C. To exchange latest information about the development and programmes.  

D. Not to publish and distribute various health bulletins, magazines and  information.  

60. In nursing care delivery at district level, who is at the top most level in hierarchy      

A. Director Nursing Services         

B. Deputy Director Nursing Services           

C. Assistant Deputy Director Nursing Services          

D. Deputy Assistant Director Nursing Services                                          

61.      Father of genetics is:    

A.      Mendel    

B.      Darwin     

C.      Muller      

D.      Bateson                                   

1
 

62. Phenotypic monohybrid ratio is:          

A. 9 : 3 : 3 : 1   

B. 1 : 2 : 1        

C. 3 : 1  

D. 2 : 1                              

63.      A single recessive allele will produce its phenotypic effect when it occures on:      

A.      Any chromosome         

B.      An autosome 

C.      X-chromosome of female          

D.      X-chromosome of male                              

64.      Sickle cell anaemia is:        

A.      Autosomal heriditary disease     

B.      Allosomic heriditary disease       

C.      Epistatic effect  

D.      Nutritional disorder                      

          

65.     Mendel's first law is law of:

A.      Paired factors

 B.      Dominance    

C.      Segregation    

D.      Independent assortment                             

66.      A genetic disorder in Africans which reduces oxygen uptake is:

A.      Phenylketonuria

B.      Haemophilia 

C.      Colour blindness           

D.      Sickle cell anaemia                                      

67.     Trisomy 21 is otherwise called:          

A.      Klinfelter's syndrome   

B.      Turner's syndrome        

C.      Sickle cell anaemia      

D.      Down's syndrome                                         

68.     Variations occur during meosis due to:

A.      Crossing over          

B.      Independent assortment      

C.      Linkage   

D.      Disjunction                             

1
 69.     Gene for right handedness is dominant over the gene for left handedness. Most
probable genotypes of two right handed parents with left handed child is;        

A.       RR x rr

B.       rr x Rr 

C.       RR x Rr          

D.       Rr x Rr           

          4

70.     An O-group child cannot have parents of blood groups:  

A.       B and B         (BO BO)

B.       A and B         (AO BO)

C.       O and O         (OO OO)

D.       AB and O (AB   OO)

                                        

71. Genes expressed only in homozygous state are:

A. dominant    

B. recessive      

C. codominant

D. mutated                                       

71.     Christmas disease is another name of  

A.      Sleeping sickness          

B.      Down's syndrome         

C.      Hepatitis         

D.      Haemophilia B                             
 4

72.      The 'Christmas disease' patients lack antihaemophilic factor     A.

Homogentisic acid   

B.      Factor VIII    

C.      Factor XI        

D.      Factor IX                                        

73.      Colour blindeness is disease in which the factor is usually transmitted to children
by women. It is because the factor is located on          

A.      An autosome 

B.      X-chromosome 

C.      Y-chromosome 

D.      Cytoplasm                                     

74.     Down's syndrome is due to 

A.      A missing chromosome

B.      An extra chromosome 

C.      A dominant gene          

D.      A recessive gene            

          2

75.      The beneficiaries for genetic testing are -        

A.      People who have a birth defect or genetic condition.

B.      Parents who have had a child with birth defect / genetic condition.
 C.      option 1 & 2 BOTH     

D.      During pregnancy normal mother and fetus                                           

76. Nurses role in genetics 

A. Providing genetic information and counselling    

B. Performing genetic testing        

C. Formulate Clinical diagnosis   

D. option 1 & 2                               

77.     In the definition of epidemiology, “distribution” refers to: ( Select Multiple Answers)  

A.Who 

B. When          

C.  Where        

D.Why                             

1,2,3

78.     In the definition of epidemiology, “determinants” generally includes:

A.       Agents     

B.       Causes and risk factors       

C.       Control measures  

D.       option 1 & 2                                           

4
  

79.     Epidemiology, as defined, would include which of the following activities?

1. Describing the demographic characteristics of persons with acute aflatoxin poisoning in

District A

2. Prescribing an antibiotic to treat a patient with community-acquired methicillin-resistant

Staphylococcus aureus infection.

3. Comparing the family history, amount of exercise, and eating habits of those with and without
newly diagnosed diabetes.

4. Recommending that a restaurant be closed after implicating it as the source of a hepatitis A

outbreak 

A.1,2,3  

B. 1,2,3 & 4     

C. 1,3,4 

D. 1 & 3                            

80. The key features of a cross-sectional study include:

1.  It usually provides information on prevalence rather than incidence.

2. It is limited to health exposures and behaviors rather than health outcomes.

3. It is more useful for descriptive epidemiology than it is for analytic epidemiology.

4. It is synonymous with survey  

A. 1,3,4 

B. 1 ,2,3,4         

C. 1 &4 

D. 3 & 4                            

 
81. The epidemiologic triad of disease causation refers to:   

A. Agent, host, environment         

B. Time, place, person   

C. Source, mode of transmission, susceptible host  

D. John Snow, Robert Koch, Kenneth Rothman                       1

82. When analyzing surveillance data by age, which of the following age groups is preferred?
(Choose one best answer)      

A. 1-year age groups      

B. 5-year age groups      

C. 10-year age groups    

D. Depends on the disease                             4

83. A cohort study differs from a case-control study in that:

A. Subjects are enrolled or categorized on the basis of their exposure status in a cohort study but
not in a case-control study  

B. Subjects are asked about their exposure status in a cohort study but not in a case-control study

C.Cohort studies require many years to conduct, but case-control studies do not

D. Cohort studies are conducted to investigate chronic diseases, case-control studies are used for
infectious diseases 1

84. Comparing numbers and rates of illness in a community, rates are preferred for:     

A. Conducting surveillance for communicable diseases         

B. Deciding how many doses of immune globulin are needed  

C. Estimating subgroups at highest risk      

D. Telling physicians which strain of influenza is most prevalent         

3

85. All of the following are crucial needs of the dying client except:   

A. Control of pain          

B. Preservation of dignity and self-worth  

C. Love and belonging  

D. Freedom from decision making                              

86. Development of an infection occurs in a cycle that depends on the presence of all the
following elements except:

A. Causative agent, a portal of entry         

B. Source for pathogen growth    

C. Health care worker    

D. A portal of exit, a mode of transmission, a susceptible host               

 3

87. All the flowing are essential standard precautions used in the care of all patients irrespective
of whether they are diagnosed infectious or not ,except one        

A. Hand hygiene 

B. Improper sharps and waste disposal     

C. Personal protective equipment

D. Aseptic techniques                                    

88. A patient diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is on oxygen
therapy at 3 L per nasal cannula. Which assessment finding should alert the nurse to a potential
problem with this patient?         
A. Respiratory rate of 26  

B. Low carbon dioxide levels       

C. Arterial oxygen saturation level of 99%

D. Lower oxygen saturation levels at night than during the day                       

 89. Which is the most COMMON and non-invasive way to measure a patient's oxygenation?    

A. pulse oximeter

B. CPAP

C. ventilator     

D. arterial blood gas (or ABG)                                      

90. What is the most important nursing order in a client with major head trauma who is about to
receive bolus enteral feeding?           

A. measure intake and output.    

B. check albumin level.

C. monitor glucose levels. 

D. increase enteral feeding                            

 91. Which of the following should be included in a plan of care for a client receiving total
parenteral nutrition (TPN)?          

A.      Withhold medications while the TPN is infusing. 

B.      Change TPN solution every 24 hours.

C.      Flush the TPN line with water prior to initiating nutritional support. 

D.      Keep client on complete bed rest during TPN therapy    

2
92. The nurse is instructing a 65-year-old female client diagnosed with osteoporosis. The most
important instruction regarding exercise would be to       

A. exercise doing weight bearing activities 

B. exercise to reduce weight         

C. avoid exercise activities that increase the risk of fracture 

D. exercise to strengthen muscles and thereby protect bones

93. A patient receiving parenteral nutrition is administered via the following routes except:          

A. Subclavian line.         

B. Central Venous Catheter.        

C.PICC (Peripherally inserted central catheter) line.

D. PEG tube                                     

94. A nurse is preparing to hang the initial bag of the parenteral nutrition (PN) solution via the
central line of a malnourished client. The nurse ensure the availability of which medical
equipment before hanging the solution?

A. Glucometer.

B. Dressing tray

C. Nebulizer.    

D. Infusion pump                           

95. A nurse is conducting a follow-up home visit to a client who has been discharged with a
parenteral nutrition(PN). Which of the following should the nurse most closely monitor in this
kind of therapy?           

A. Blood pressure and temperature.

B. Blood pressure and pulse rate.

C. Height and weight.    

D. Temperature and weight                                          

96. A client is receiving nutrition via parenteral nutrition (PN). A nurse assess the client for
complications of the therapy and assesses the client for which of the following signs of
hyperglycemia?

A. High-grade fever, chills, and decreased urination.  

B. Fatigue, increased sweating, and heat intolerance. 

C. Coarse dry hair, weakness, and fatigue.

D. Thirst, blurred vision, and diuresis.                                         

97. A client receiving parenteral nutrition (PN) complains of a headache. A nurse notes that the
client has an increased blood pressure, bounding pulse, jugular distension, and crackles
bilaterally. The nurse determines that the client is experiencing which complication of PN
therapy?       

A. Air embolism. 

B. Hypervolemia.           

C. Hyperglycemia.         

D. Sepsis                                           

98. A client with Congestive heart failure is about to take a dose of furosemide (Lasix). Which of
the following potassium level, if noted in the client's record, should be reported before giving the
due medication?           

A. 5.1 mEq/L.  

B. 4.9 mEq/L.  
C. 3.9 mEq/L.  

D. 3.3 mEq/L                                   

99. The nurse is assessing a client with an endotracheal tube and observes that the client can
make verbal sounds. What is the most likely cause of this?        

A. This is a normal finding.           

B. There is a leak.           

C. There is an occlusion.

D. The endotracheal tube is displaced                                        

100. The nurse caring for a client with a pneumothorax and who has had a chest tube inserted
notes continuous gentle bubbling in the suction control chamber. What action is most appropriate
of the nurse?    

A. Increase the suction pressure so that the bubbling becomes vigorous.

B. Do nothing since this is an expected finding.       

C. Immediately clamp the chest tube and notify the physician.          

D. Check for an air leak because the bubbling should be intermittent.