Professional Documents
Culture Documents
for Business
Lecturer Testbank
Chapter 1
Answers are indicated with a *
1. Business research can be described as a systematic and organized effort to investigate a specific
problem encountered in the work setting, that needs a solution.
*a. T
b. F
2. Research done with the intention of applying the results of the findings to solve specific problems
currently being experienced in an organization is called basic research.
a. T
*b. F
3. Research done chiefly to make a contribution to existing knowledge is called basic, fundamental,
or pure research.
*a. T
b. F
a. T
*b. F
a. T
*b. F
*a. T
7. Being knowledgeable about research and research methods helps professional managers to:
*b. F
9. The manager should make sure while hiring researchers or consultants that:
a. The roles and expectations of both parties are made explicit.
b. Relevant philosophies and value systems of the organization are clearly stated, and constraints, if
any, communicated.
c. A good rapport is established with the researchers, and between the researchers and the employees
in the organization, enabling the full cooperation of the latter.
*d. All of the above.
10. An advantage of engaging in an internal team to do the research project is that the internal team
would stand a better chance of being readily accepted by the employees in the subunit of the
organization where research needs to be done.
*a. T
b. F
11. An advantage of engaging in an external team to do the research project is that the team would
require much less time to understand the structure, the philosophy and climate, and the functioning
and work systems of the organization.
a. T
*b. F
12. A disadvantage of engaging in an internal team to do the research project is that in view of their
long tenure as internal consultants, the internal team may quite possibly fall into a stereotyped way
of looking at the organization and its problems.
*a. T
b. F
13. A disadvantage of engaging in an internal team to do the research project is that certain
b. F
14. An advantage of engaging in an external team to do the research project is that the external
team can draw on a wealth of experience from having worked with different types of organizations
that have had the same or similar types of problems.
*a. T
b. F
15. Ethics in business research refers to a code of conduct or expected societal norm of behavior
while conducting research.
*a. T
b. F
16. Ethical conduct applies to the researchers who undertake the research, but not to the
respondents who provide them with the necessary data.
a. T
*b. F
17. The main distinction between applied and basic business research is that the former is
specifically aimed at solving a currently experienced problem, whereas the latter has the broader
objective of generating knowledge and understanding of phenomena and problems that occur in
various organizational settings.
*a. T
b. F
18. Both basic and applied research have to be carried out in a scientific manner.
*a. T
b. F
19. The first step in research is to know where the problem areas exist in the organization, and to
identify as clearly and specifically as possible the problems that need to be studied and resolved.
*a. T
b. F
*a. T
b. F
21. Knowledge gained by the findings of basic research cannot be applied by organizations to solve
their own problems.
a. T
*b. F
Lecturer Testbank
Chapter 2
Answers are indicated with a *
b. The idea that a simple model that explains a certain phenomenon has preference over a
complex model.
b. The idea that a simple model that explains a certain phenomenon has preference over a
complex model.
*a. T
b. F
*a. T
b. F
5. A manager observes that higher prices lead to more sales. The results of a focus group point
out that consumers use price as an indicator for quality. This is an example of deductive research.
a. T
*b. F
*a. Rigor.
c. Objectivity.
d. Parsimony.
*a. T
b. F
*a. T
b. F
*b. The idea that a simple model that explains a certain phenomenon is preferred to a complex
model.
a. T
b. F*
a. T*
b. F
*a. T
b. F
13. Deduction is the process of drawing conclusions based on (an interpretation of) the results of
data-analysis.
*a. T
b. F
14. Epistemology is concerned with the nature of knowledge or how we come to know.
*a. T
b. F
15. For a constructionist, science and scientific research is seen as the way to get at the truth
a. T
16. Positivists believe that the world (as we know it!) is mentally constructed.
a. T
*b. F
17. The research methods of constructionist researchers are often qualitative in nature.
*a. T
b. F
18. Constructionists are often more concerned with understanding a specific case than with the
generalization of their findings.
*a. T
b. F
19. The critical realist is critical of our ability to understand the world with certainty.
*a. T
b. F
20. Critical realistm does not take on a particular position on what makes good research.
a. T
*b. F
a. T
*b. F
22. Pragmatism is a combination of the belief in an external reality with the rejection of the claim
that this external reality can be objectively measured.
a. T
23. Knowledge of epistemology may help you to relate to and understand the research of others
and the choices that were made in this research.
*a. T
b. F
24. Different researchers have different ideas about the nature of knowledge or on how we come to
know.
*a. T
b. F
Lecturer Testbank
Chapter 3
Answers are indicated with a *
1. A problem is any situation where a gap exists between the actual and the desired ideal
states.
*a. T
b. F
*a. T
b. F
3. The selection of an academic perspective on the problem allows us to draw upon a rich body of
literature to help us to solve the problem.
*a. T
b. F
4. Secondary data refers to information that the researcher gathers first hand through instruments
such as surveys, interviews, focus groups, or observation.
*a. T
b. F
d. Improving the relationship between the client and the performer of the investigation.
a. T*
b. F
8. Symptoms are concrete examples of the way in which a certain business problem reveals
itself.
*a. T
b. F
a. T
*b. F
*a. T
b. F
11. There is always one best way to investigate a certain problem statement.
a. T
*b. F
12. A good problem statement includes both a statement of the research objective(s) and the
research question(s).
*a. T
b. F
13. Research questions are the translation of the problem of the organization into a specific need for
information.
*a. T
b. F
a. T
*b. F
15. A first review of the literature helps you to make an informed decision about your research
approach.
*a. T
b. F
Lecturer Testbank
Chapter 4
a. T*
b. F
a. T*
b. F
3. The functions of the critical literature review depend on the specific research approach that is
taken.
*a. T
b. F
4. In inductive research, a literature review will help the researcher to develop a theoretical
framework and hypotheses.
a. T
*b. F
5. A critical literature review ensures that the research effort is positioned relative to existing
knowledge and builds on this knowledge.
*a. T
b. F
6. A critical literature review ensures that a clearer idea emerges as to what variables will be
important to consider, why they are considered important, and how they should be investigated to
solve the problem.
*a. T
b. F
7. A critical literature review may have a negative effect on the testability and replicability of
the findings of the current research.
*a. T
8. The quality of a literature review depends on a cautious selection and reading of books, academic
and professional journals, reports, theses, conference proceedings, unpublished manuscripts, and
the like.
*a. T
b. F
9. Conference proceedings are quite valuable if you are working in a relatively new area or domain.
*a. T
b. F
10. PhD theses often contain an exhaustive review of the literature in a specific area.
*a. T
b. F
11. The quality of the journal that published an article is unrelated to the quality of a research article.
a. T
*b. F
12. Online databases display only the bibliographic citations such as the name of the author, the title
of the article (or book), source of publication, and the like.
a. T
*b. F
13. Articles and books that were written thirty or even forty years ago should never be included in
the literature review.
a. T
*b. F
14. Both purposely misrepresenting the work of others and plagiarism are considered to be fraud.
*a. T
15. Providing inaccurate information regarding the sources, making it impossible to find them is a
form of plagiarism.
*a. T
b. F
Lecturer Testbank
Chapter 5
Answers are indicated with a *
*a. T
b. F
a. T
*b. F
*a. T
b. F
*a. T
b. F
*a. T
b. F
a. T
*b. F
*a. T
b. F
*a. T
b. F
10. A moderating variable influences the original relationship between one or more independent
variables and a dependent variable.
*a. T
b. F
a. T
*b. F
*b. F
a. T
*b. F
14. The explained variance (R2) of a model can decrease if a mediating variable is included in the
model.
a. T
*b. F
15. Research from Schlundt Bodien & Nelck da Silva Rosa (2004) shows that reading to children
has a stronger effect on girls than on boys. What kind of variable is gender in this case?
b. A mediating variable.
c. An independent variable.
d. A control variable.
a. An independent variable.
b. A dependent variable.
c. A moderating variable.
17. A moderating variable influences the dependent- as well as the independent variable.
a. T
*b. F
*a. T
b. F
a. T
*b. F
20. “Job satisfaction has a positive effect on employee loyalty” is an example of a theory.
a. T
*b. F
21. A theoretical framework contains all possible variables that can influence the dependent
variable.
a. T
*b. F
*a. T
b. F
23. “Job satisfaction has a positive effect on employee loyalty” is an example of a hypothesis.
* a. T
b. F
Lecturer Testbank
Chapter 6
Answers are indicated with a *
1. Which type of study is most suitable when there is little to no insight in a certain problem or
when there is no information available on how similar problems or research issues have been solved
in the past?
b. Descriptive study.
c. Causal study.
d. Experiments.
*c. Making sure that all relevant variables are included in the study.
3. If a bank manager wants to analyze the relationship between interest rates and bank deposit
patterns of clients, a ‘field study’ is the most suitable method of investigation.
a. T*
b. F
a. T
b. F*
5. A director of Burger King wants to have an overview of the profits made in the last five years
in the Netherlands, Germany and the Czech Republic. To get this, the profits of all individual
franchise-establishments have to be aggregated. The ‘unit of analysis’ in this case is the individual
franchise-establishment.
a. T*
b. F
a. A cross-sectional study.
c. An experimental study.
d. A randomized study.
a. T*
b. F
a. T*
b. F
10. The unit of analysis refers to the aggregation level of the data collected.
*a. T
b. F
11. The central research question determines the unit of analysis of an investigation to a large
extent.
*a. T
b. F
*a. T
b. F
13. A researcher wants to determine the cause-effect relationship between price discounts and
sales. A field experiment would be an appropriate way to test this relationship.
*a. T
b. F
14. The idea behind triangulation is that one can be more confident in a result if the use of different
methods or sources leads to the same results.
*a. T
b. F
15. Action research is a systematic set of procedures to develop an inductively derived theory from
the data.
a. T
*b. F
16. Grounded theory is the planned watching, recording, analysis, and interpretation of behavior,
actions, or events.
a. T
*b. F
a. T
*b. F
18. Surveys are used in exploratory, descriptive, and in causal research to collect data about people,
events, or situations.
*a. T
b. F
19. Important tools of grounded theory are theoretical sampling, coding, and constant comparison.
*a. T
b. F
20. Case studies focus on collecting information about a specific, object event or activity, such as a
particular business unit or organization.
*a. T
b. F
Lecturer Testbank
Chapter 7
Answers are indicated with a *
a. T
*b. F
2. Primary data are data that for example is gathered from annual reports.
a. T
*b. F
3. It is preferred to first ask general questions and then more specific questions.
*a. T
b. F
4. A thematic apperception test, an inkblot test and word association techniques are all
examples of:
b. Descriptive methods.
d. Iterative methods.
*a. T
b. F
6. Which of the following points is not related to the costs for a respondent that go with the
participation in an investigation?
7. Which of the following answers cannot be seen as a good way to probe in an interview?
d. Be silent.
b. Verbal signals.
c. Corrective statements.
9. Interviews can help you to better interpret the results of a quantitative investigation.
*a. T
b. F
*a. T
b. F
11. An advantage of face-to-face interviews is that the respondents are able to end the interview
on every moment.
a. T
*b. F
12. The Delphi Technique has been widely used for short-run business forecasting.
a. T
*b. F
13. Experiments, observational methods, and questionnaires are the three main data collection
methods in survey research.
*a. T
b. F
a. T
*b. F
15. To obtain honest information from the respondents, the researcher/interviewer should be able
to establish rapport and trust with them.
*a. T
b. F
Lecturer Testbank
Chapter 8
1. Observational methods are best suited for research requiring non-self-report descriptive data;
that is when behavior is to be examined without directly asking the respondents themselves.
*a. T
b. F
2. An observational study is said to be low in control when the situation or setting is manipulated
or contrived by the researcher.
a. T
*b. F
b. F
4. Active participation occurs when the researcher does not actively participate, and only
occasionally interacts with the social group under study.
a. T
*b. F
*b. F
6. Reactivity refers to the extent to which the observer affects the situation under observation.
*a. T
b. F
7. Pure observation has been described as ‘going native’; the researcher becomes so involved with
the group under study that eventually every objectivity and research interest is lost
a. T
*a. T
b. F
9. Deviants are persons who take upon themselves to check out the new person and what it is this
person is after.
a. T
*b. F
10. Generally speaking, the most important factor in determining what to observe is the aim or
purpose of the study.
*a. T
b. F
11. The most important method of capturing data in participant observation is writing field notes.
*a. T
b. F
12. Unstructured observation can be used to generate numerical data to test hypotheses.
a. T
*b. F
13. Categories in a coding scheme should be mutually exclusive and collectively exhaustive.
*a. T
b. F
Event 1 2 3 4
a. T
*b. F
15. Observation is often used as a technique to collect data that complement data obtained by other
techniques such as interviews.
*a. T
b. F
*a. T
b. F
Lecturer Testbank
Chapter 9
Answers are indicated with a *
1. The hypotheses of a study are a good starting point when designing a questionnaire.
*a. T
b. F
2. The hypotheses need to be briefly explained to the respondent when a questionnaire is used
to collect data.
a. T
*b. F
“To what extent are you satisfied with the appearance and the service of the shop-assistants?”
a. Leading question.
b. Loaded question.
d. Ambiguous question.
*a. T
b. F
5. What is metacognition?
b. An assessment error from the researcher about the knowledge level of the respondent.
d. Ideas of the respondent about what the interviewer would like to hear.
6. Evaluate the following question on suitability for the use in a questionnaire (measured on a 5-
point Likert scale):
“Do you think that in the current economical situation it is wise to reduce salaries of top
sportsman?”
*b. F
8. ‘To what extent can you say about yourself that you are happy?’ is an example of a loaded
question.
a. T
*b. F
9. If in the introduction of the questionnaire it is made clear that the answers will be handled
anonymously, this can lead to bias of the results.
a. T
*b. F
10. The sequence of questions in a questionnaire can lead to a certain bias; this phenomenon is
also referred to as ordering effects.
*a. T
b. F
11. With respect to the sequence of questions in a questionnaire, you start with asking difficult
questions which you unravel to more specific questions later.
a. T
*b. F
12. With respect to the sequence of questions in a questionnaire, it is wise to end with questions
that respondents refuse to answer.
a. T
*b. F
Lecturer Testbank
Chapter 10
a. T
*b. F
2. The manipulation of the independent variable is also known as the treatment, and the results of the
treatment are called treatment effects.
*a. T
b. F
3. One way of controlling “nuisance” variables is to match the various groups by picking the
confounding characteristics and deliberately spreading them across groups.
*a. T
b. F
4. External validity of lab experiments refers to the confidence we place in the cause-and-effect
relationship.
a. T
*b. F
5. A field study is an experiment done in the natural environment in which work goes on as usual, but
treatments are given to one or more groups.
a. T
*b. F
6. Internal validity refers to the extent of generalizability of the results of a causal study to other
settings.
a. T
*b. F
*a. T
b. F
8. Cause-and-effect inferences can be contaminated by the effects of the passage of time. Such
contamination effects are denoted history effects.
a. T
*b. F
9. An interactive testing effect occurs when the prior observation (the pretest) affects the later
observation (the posttest).
a. T
*b. F
10. A time series design thus allows the researcher to assess the impact of a treatment over time.
*a. T
b. F
11. Quasi-Experimental Designs expose an experimental group to a treatment and measure its effects.
*a. T
b. F
a. T
*b. F
13. History effects (the dropout of individuals from groups) is a problem for all experimental designs.
a. T
*b. F
a. T
*b. F
15. A key problem of time series is history: certain events or factors that have an impact on the
independent variable–dependent variable relationship might unexpectedly occur while the
experiment is in progress.
*a. T
b. F
16. Major threats to validity in a “pretest & posttest with one experimental group only” are:
17. Biases that might affect the internal validity of experimental designs are often reduced by
enhancing the level of sophistication of the experimental design.
*a. T
b. F
Lecturer Testbank
Chapter 11 من لدكتوره٨ رقمو
Answers are indicated with a *
1. Operationalization means:
a. Designing questionnaires.
2. What is the type of scale of the variable ‘age’ if it is measured in the following way?
a. Nominal.
b. Ordinal.
c. Interval.
*d. Ratio.
< €15.000
€20.000 - €30.000
€30.000 - €45.000
> € 45.000
a. Nominal.
*b. Ordinal.
c. Interval.
d. Ratio.
In light of this remark, indicate which of the following measurement levels provides the most
valuable data for a variable.
a. Nominal.
b. Ordinal.
c. Interval.
*d. Ratio.
a. T
*b. F
a. T
*b. F
7. Army rank (such as soldier, corporal, sergeant, lieutenant etcetera) is a variable with an ordinal
scale.
*a. T
b. F
a. T
*b. F
9. With which scale can we, for describing central tendency, determine the mode and the
median, but not the mean?
a. A nominal scale.
c. An interval scale.
d. A ratio scale.
10. A sport shooter shoots from a distance of 10 meter 10 times on a cardboard. On this board
the middle circle with 12 points has the highest value, and the outer circle with 1 point the lowest.
Shooting next to the board yields 0 points. For every 10 shots the points are counted up to a total
score. What scale has this total score if the shooter hits the board every time?
a. Nominal.
b. Ordinal.
c. Interval.
a. Nominal.
*b. Ordinal.
c. Interval.
d. Ratio.
a. T
*b. F
*a. T
b. F
a. Office.
16. The operationalization of a construct means that there must be looked for as many related
correlations, dimensions and elements of the construct as possible.
a. T
*b. F
17. The construct ‘hunger’ is a typical example of a construct that must be operationalized
because it is an abstract and subjective concept.
*a. T
b. F
a. Non-metric.
b. Interval.
*c. Ratio.
Lecturer Testbank
Chapter 12
Answers are indicated with a *
1. Julia stands on a pair of scales three times in succession. The first time she weighs 69 kilo, the
second time 69 kilo, and the third time 69 kilo. Her real weight is 51 kilo. What is the matter with the
scales?
a. Paired comparison.
b. Forced choice.
c. Comparative scale.
“Ugly 1 2 3 4 5 Beautiful”
a. A likert-scale.
c. A numerical scale.
4. About a scale (set of questions) it can be said that it is if it measures what it should
be measuring.
a. Reliable.
b. Accurate.
*c. Valid.
d. Consistent.
b. Likert scale.
d. Stapel scale.
*a. T
b. F
a. T
*b. F
a. Paired comparison.
b. Forced choice.
d. Comparitive scale.
a. Nominal.
*b. Ordinal.
c. Interval.
d. Ratio.
10. About a scale (set of questions) it can be said that the indicates how well the
measure taps the concept as theorized. Which word is missing?
a. Content validity.
c. Criterion-related validity.
d. Stability.
a. T
*b. F
12. Construct validity ensures that the measure includes an adequate and representative set of
items.
a. T
*b. F
*a. T
b. F
b. Different instruments that intend to measure the same concept, are correlated with each
other.
c. Two variables that are respected not to correlate with each other, are correlated with each
other.
d. Through correlation or regression it is found out to what extent a prediction done on the basis
of the instrument really proves to be true.
The West
The North
The East
c. A multidimensional scale.
a. Concurrent validity.
b. Construct validity.
d. Convergent validity.
17. Robert stands three times on a pair of scales in a period of 5 minutes. The first time he weighs
92 kg, the second time he weighs 102 kg and the third time he weighs 95 kg. What conclusion can we
draw based on this information on the pair of scales?
18. Discriminant validity is the extent to which experts are of the opinion that an instrument measures
what it intended to measure.
a. T
*b. F
a. A likert-scale.
c. A numerical scale.
20. The assessment of the goodness of a scale relates to both the validity and reliability of this
scale.
*a. T
b. F
*a. T
b. F
22. Cronbach’s alpha can only be used when a variable is measured through several statements
or questions.
*a. T
b. F
23. Stability and consistency are both indicators of the reliability of a measure.
*a. T
b. F
a. T
*b. F
25. “Indicate the order in which you prefer the following coke-labels. Give your favorite label a 1,
the label that you prefer next a 2, and so on:
Coca Cola
Pepsi
Dr Pepper “
a. A rating scale.
1. If all elements in the population are seen as equal and every element has an equal chance of
being chosen, we speak of:
b. Systematic sampling.
d. Mmpling.
*a. T
b. F
a. T
*b. F
d. Quota sampling.
*a. T
b. F
*a. T
b. F
a. Systematic sampling.
b. Area sampling.
d. Cluster sampling.
a. T
*b. F
10. Stratified sampling and cluster sampling are examples of probability sampling.
*a. T
b. F
a. T
*b. F
13. If a sample is subdivided into subsamples, a minimal sample size of 10 is necessary for every
subsample.
a. T
*b. F
14. Snowball sampling and Quota sampling are both non-probability sampling techniques.
*a. T
b. F
15. In probability sampling all elements of a population have a known and equal change to be
included in the sample.
*a. T
b. F
16. If your objective is to compose a representative sample, what kind of sampling technique
would you choose?
b. Judgment sampling.
c. Convenience sampling.
d. Quota sampling .
17. What is the least reliable and least efficient probability sampling technique?
a. Systematic sampling.
18. When representativity is an important criterion for a study, which sampling technique would
you choose?
b. Judgment sampling.
c. Quota sampling.
d. Convenience sampling.
19. Based on the desired accuracy and reliability of the research results, we can determine a
desired sample size by a formula. The desired sample size is adjusted (and we then speak of an
adjusted n) when:
20. Snowball sampling and judgment sampling are both non-probability sampling techniques.
*a. T
b. F
21. With systematic sampling one divides the population into subgroups and chooses the test
subject randomly from a number of randomly chosen subgroups.
a. T
*b. F
22. From statistical considerations the preference is given to probability sampling over non-
probability sampling.
*a. T
b. F
23. Probability sampling is seen as less representative for the population than non-probability
sampling.
*b. F
24. If a sample is subdivided into subsamples, a minimal sample size of 30 is necessary for every
subsample.
*a. T
b. F
25. A researcher wants to investigate the relationships between the use of drugs and study results
of university students. He would like to generalize the results to the population. Which kind of sample
could the researcher best use?
a. Stratified sampling
b. Judgment sampling
d. Quota sampling
Lecturer Testbank
Chapter 14
Answers are indicated with a *
1. A researcher wants to give an overview of the characteristics of the respondents in his sample.
How could this researcher best provide insight in the gender of the respondents?
2. The mode and the median are always the same value.
a. T
*a. T
b. F
4. In which way you could better not give an overview of ordinal data?
b. By percentiles.
c. By the median.
d. By the mode.
5. After collecting and entering the data in SPSS, a researcher looks at the correlation matrix in
which all variables of his conceptual model are included. Which information can the researcher not
derive from this matrix?
A Chi-square test can be used if the independent variable is measured on a …….(1)……. scale
and the dependent variable on a ……..(2)…….. scale.
7. Which instrument would one use to assess the reliability of a scale (a set of questions)?
b. Kendall’s tau.
8. With what instrument could the validity of a scale (a set of questions) best be determined?
a. Cronbach’s alpha.
b. Kendall’s tau.
c. Levene’s test.
a. Measure is valid.
10. With what instrument could the predictive validity of a metric scale (a set of questions) best
be determined?
a. Cronbach’s alpha.
*b. A correlation-coefficient.
11. The Cronbach’s alpha of a scale indicates to what extent different items measure the same
construct.
*a. T
b. F
12. The closer the Cronbach’s alpha is to 1, the higher the reliability of a scale.
*a. T
b. F
13. Chi-square analysis is used when the independent variable is nominal or ordinal.
*a. T
b. F
14. Chi-square analysis is used when the independent variable is used when the dependent
variable is nominal or ordinal.
*a. T
b. F
15. Chi-square analysis is a suitable technique to determine if the sample is a reflection of the
population in terms of access to the internet (access/no access).
*a. T
b. F
a. T
*b. F
17. In what way do the concepts causality and correlation relate to each other?
18. Cronbach’s alpha indicates to what extent scale items are correlated to each other?
*a. T
b. F
19. Cronbach’s alpha and the split-half reliability coefficient are both instruments to determine
the reliability of a scale.
b. F
20. In what way could you best give an overview of ordinal data?
a. By the mean.
b. By cross tables.
d. By the mode.
21. Discriminant validity can be determined by means of, amongst others, correlations and factor
analyses.
*a. T
b. F
a. T
*b. F
Lecturer Testbank
Chapter 15
Answers are indicated with a *
1. Which of the following alternatives is possibly the dependent variable in a study in which
regression analysis is used to analyze the data?
a. The political party for which respondents voted at the last election.
2. To determine the F-ratio, the variance between groups (‘between-groups mean square’) is
divided by the variance within groups (‘within-groups mean square’).
*a. T
b. F
3. ANOVA is used to determine whether the variance between groups significantly differ from
each other.
a. T
*b. F
*a. T
b. F
5. Essentially, the relations that are tested through ANOVA could also be tested through
regression analysis (by using dummy variables).
*a. T
b. F
6. Which test could best be used to test the hypothesis that the average grade of students is
higher than a 7 on a 10-point scale?
d. ANOVA.
7. Which test could best be used to test the hypothesis that the average price that people are
willing to pay for a meal at the University restaurant differs between Dutch, German and Chinese
students?
a. Regression analysis.
*d. ANOVA.
8. Which test could best be used to test the hypothesis that the quality of tangible elements
(measured on ratio-level) influences satisfaction on the University restaurant (measured on ration-
level), but that the relationship between these variables differs between students and faculty?
b. ANOVA.
d. MANOVA.
9. What is the appropriate method to test if having a mobile phone is related to gender?
a. ANOVA.
b. Regression analysis.
d. T-test.
10. A researcher is interested in whether customer loyalty (measured on a 5-point Likert scale) of
people with a bonus card differs from loyalty of people without a bonus card. To test this he can make
use of:
b. ANOVA.
c. A paired-samples t-test.
d. A Chi-square test.
11. A researcher estimates his model by means of regression. He finds a significance level of .0012
and an R-square of .31 for the model. Which conclusion can the researcher draw from these data?
*a. At least one of the independent variables or the constant of the model is significantly related
to the dependent variable.
12. Multiple regression analysis measures the effect of an independent variable on the dependent
variable, while the other independent variables are held constant.
*a. T
b. F
13. Multiple regression analysis can only be used when variables are measured by more than one
item.
a. T
*b. F
14. A researcher wants to know if the distribution of income in his sample corresponds to the real
distribution in his population (60% < the standard, 40% >= above the standard). Which of the following
tests could he use for this?
b. ANOVA
c. A paired-samples t-test.
15. Which test could best be used to test the hypothesis that the performance of employees
depends on the reward they receive, because this reward increases their motivation (all variables are
measured on a 5-point Likert scale)?
d. Simple regression.
16. Which test could best be used to test the hypothesis that students that for a certain course
attended tutorials from lecturer X are happier (measured on interval-level) than students who
attended tutorials from lecturer Y and Z?
a. Regression analysis.
*d. ANOVA.
a. T
*b. F
a. T
*b. F
19. Multicollinearity implies that the independent variables are highly correlated with each other.
*a. T
b. F
20. Multicollinearity is a problem when the VIF values are higher than 10.
*a. T
b. F
* a.T
b. F
*a. T
b. F
23. When you want to test if the average score of an exam significantly differs from 7.3 (the
average score of last year), an independent samples t-test is most appropriate.
a. T
24. A researcher want to test if a cause-effect relationships exists between someone’s age and
the number of hours of sleep someone needs. She measures age as follows:
0 < 20 years.
0 20 - 50 years.
0 > 50 years.
Furthermore, participant of the research can fill in the number of hours they sleep on average
in a day on a dotted line.
Which test could best be used to test the hypothesis that age influences the number of hours
someone sleeps?
*c. ANOVA.
d. Discriminant analysis.
25. The statistical null hypothesis is rejected when the p-value is small enough.
*a. T
b. F
a. That the independent- as well as the dependent variable is measured on a nominal or ordinal
scale.
b. That the independent variable is measured on an interval- or ratio scale and the dependent
variable is measured on a nominal- or ordinal scale.
c. That the independent- as well as the dependent variable is measured on an interval- or ratio
scale.
*d. That the dependent variable is measured on an interval- or ratio scale and the independent
variable is measured on a nominal- or ordinal scale.
*a. T
28. Regression analysis is used when the independent variable is nominal or ordinal in nature.
a. T
*b. F
29. Regression analysis is used when the dependent variable is nominal or ordinal in nature.
a. T
*b. F
30. The objective of regression analysis is to explain a dependent variable based on 1 or more
independent variables.
*a. T
b. F
Lecturer Testbank
Chapter 16
Answers are indicated with a *
*a. T
b. F
2. Qualitative research may involve repeated sampling, collection of data, and analysis of data.
*a. T
b. F
3. Data reduction refers to the process of selecting, coding, and categorizing the data.
*a. T
a. T
*b. F
5. Conclusion drawing and verification is the analytic process through which the qualitative data that
you have gathered are reduced, rearranged, and integrated to form theory.
a. T
*b. F
6. The purpose of coding is to help you to draw meaningful conclusions about the data.
*a. T
b. F
7. Codes are labels given to units of text which are later grouped and turned into categories.
*a. T
b. F
*a. T
b. F
a. T
*b. F
a. T
*b. F
11. Interjudge reliability depends on the analyst's ability to formulate categories and present to
competent judges definitions of the categories so they will agree on which items of a certain
population belong in a category and which do not.
*a. T
b. F
12. Conceptual analysis is an observational research method that is used to systematically evaluate
the symbolic contents of all forms of recorded communications.
a. T
*b. F
13. Relational analysis is an approach that aims to elicit and scrutinize the stories we tell about
ourselves and their implications for our lives.
a. T
*b. F
14. Analytic induction is an approach to qualitative data analysis in which universal explanations of
phenomena are sought by the collection of (qualitative) data until no cases that are inconsistent with
a hypothetical explanation of a phenomenon are found.
*a. T
b. F
15. Conceptual analysis establishes the existence and frequency of concepts (such as words, themes,
or characters) in a text.
*a. T
b. F
Lecturer Testbank
Chapter 17
Answers are indicated with a *
a. T
*b. F
*a. T
b. F
3. In reporting the F- and t-values we round off to how many decimal places?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
*d. 3
4. When you report what is the central point of the answers to a question about education level
in a questionnaire, what do you preferably report?
a. The mode.
5. What do you introduce in your report when you perform a regression analysis?
d. Research questions.
7. The results chapter of a research report should contain sample characteristics (such as gender
and average age) of the respondents.
a. T
*b. F
8. In the results chapter of a research report it should be reported if the Cronbach’s alpha (if
determined) is high enough.
a. T
*b. F
9. You have done cross-sectional research with the objective to explain the variation in a certain
dependent variable. You are writing the results chapter and making a set-up to discuss the
(multivariate) regression analysis which you have executed. Which data you do not have to mention?
c. t-values or p-values.
10. The empirical part of the research report contains an in-depth exploration and a clear explication
of the relevant literature.
a. T
*b. F
11. The design details - such as sampling and data collection methods, as well as the nature and type
of study, the time horizon, the field setting, and the unit of analysis - and the results of the study are
described in the theoretical part of the research report.
a. T
12. The appendix, which comes last, is the appropriate place for the organization chart, newspaper
clippings or other materials that substantiate the text of the report, detailed verbatim narration of
interviews with members, and whatever else might help the reader follow the text.
*a. T
b. F
13. An authorization letter makes clear to the reader that the goals of the study have the full blessing
of the organization.
*a. T
b. F
14. The preface is used primarily to mention matters of background necessary for an understanding of
the subject that do not logically fit into the text.
*a. T
b. F
15. The executive summary is probably the first part of your research report that is read by the
sponsors of your study.
*a. T
b. F