Chapter 1: Introduction to Research – Test Bank

1. Business research can be described as a systematic and organized effort to investigate a

specific problem encountered in the work setting that needs a solution.
*a. T
b. F

2. Research done with the intention of applying the results of the findings to solve specific
problems currently being experienced in an organization is called basic research.
a. T
*b. F

3. Research done chiefly to make a contribution to existing knowledge is called basic,

fundamental, or pure research.
*a. T
b. F

4. Applied research is not scientific in nature.

a. T
*b. F

5. Fundamental research has little practical relevance.

a. T
*b. F

6. Managers with knowledge of research have an advantage over those without.

*a.T
b. F

7. Being knowledgeable about research and research methods helps professional managers to:
a. Identify and effectively solve minor problems in the work setting.
b. Know how to discriminate good from bad research.
c. Appreciate and be constantly aware of the multiple influences and multiple effects of factors
impinging on a situation.
*d. All of the above.

8. University professors do not engage in applied research.

a. T
*b. F

9. The manager should make sure while hiring researchers or consultants that:
a. The roles and expectations of both parties are made explicit.
b. Relevant philosophies and value systems of the organization are clearly stated, and
constraints, if any, communicated.
c. A good rapport is established with the researchers, and between the researchers and the
employees in the organization, enabling the full cooperation of the latter.
*d. All of the above.

10. An advantage of engaging in an internal team to do the research project is that the internal
team would stand a better chance of being readily accepted by the employees in the subunit of
the organization where research needs to be done.
*a.T
b. F

11. An advantage of engaging in an external team to do the research project is that the team
would require much less time to understand the structure, the philosophy and climate, and the
functioning and work systems of the organization.
a. T
*b. F

12. A disadvantage of engaging in an internal team to do the research project is that in view of
their long tenure as internal consultants, the internal team may quite possibly fall into a
stereotyped way of looking at the organization and its problems.
*a.T
b. F

13. A disadvantage of engaging in an internal team to do the research project is that certain
organizational biases of the internal research team might in some instances make the findings
less objective and consequently less scientific.
*a.T
b. F

14. An advantage of engaging in an external team to do the research project is that the external
team can draw on a wealth of experience from having worked with different types of
organizations that have had the same or similar types of problems.
*a.T
b. F

15. Ethics in business research refers to a code of conduct or expected societal norm of
behavior while conducting research.
*a.T
b. F

16. Ethical conduct applies to the researchers who undertake the research, but not to the
respondents who provide them with the necessary data.
a. T
*b. F

17. The main distinction between applied and basic business research is that the former is
specifically aimed at solving a currently experienced problem, whereas the latter has the
broader objective of generating knowledge and understanding of phenomena and problems that
occur in various organizational settings.
*a. T
b. F

18. Both basic and applied research can be carried out in a scientific manner.
*a.T
b. F

19. The first step in research is to know where the problem areas exist in the organization, and
to identify as clearly and specifically as possible the problems that need to be studied and
resolved.
*a.T
b. F

20. Identifying the critical issues, gathering relevant information, analyzing the data in ways that
would help decision making, and implementing the right course of action, are all facilitated by
understanding business research.
*a. T
b. F

21. Knowledge gained by the findings of basic research cannot be applied by organizations to
solve their own problems.
a. T
*b. F
 Chapter 2: Scientific Investigation – Test Bank

1. ‘Rigor’ related to scientific investigation refers amongst others to:

a. The probability that our estimations are correct.
b. The idea that a simple model that explains a certain phenomenon has preference over a
complex model.
c. The fact that findings are generalizable.
*d. The fact that an investigation has a clear theoretical foundation.

2. Confidence as a characteristic of scientific investigation refers to:

*a.The probability that our estimations are correct.
b. The idea that a simple model that explains a certain phenomenon has preference over a
complex model.
c. The fact that findings are generalizable.
d. The fact that an investigation has a clear theoretical foundation.

3. A researcher who observed separate phenomena and on this basis attempts to arrive at
general conclusions, works inductively.
*a.T
b. F

4. Logically speaking inductive research comes before deductive research.

*a.T
b. F

5. A manager observes that higher prices lead to more sales. The results of a focus group point
out that consumers use price as an indicator for quality. This is an example of deductive
research.
a. T
*b.F

6. Scientific investigation is characterized by a good theoretical base and a sound

methodological design. These characteristics are both related to the of the
investigation.
What must be filled on the line?
*a.Rigor.
b. Precision and confidence.
c. Objectivity.
d. Parsimony.

7. An inductive investigation starts with an observation of empirical data.

*a.T
b. F
8. A deductive investigation is based on theoretically logical reasoning.
*a.T
b. F

9. Parsimony related to scientific investigation refers to:

a. The probability that our estimations are correct.
*b.The idea that a simple model that explains a certain phenomenon is preferred to a
complex model.
c. The fact that findings are generalizable.
d. The fact that an investigation has a clear theoretical base.

10. It is impossible to test hypotheses via case studies.

a. T
b. F*

11. Case studies are usually qualitative in nature.

a. T*
b. F
12. In the hypothetico-deductive research method, hypotheses play an important role.
*a.T
b. F

13. Deduction is the process of drawing conclusions based on (an interpretation of) the
results of data-analysis.
*a.T
b. F

14. Epistemology is concerned with the nature of knowledge or how we come to know.
*a.T
b. F

15. For a constructionist, science and scientific research is seen as the way to get at the
truth
a. T
*b. F

16. Positivists believe that the world (as we know it!) is mentally constructed.
a. T
*b. F

17. The research methods of constructionist researchers are often qualitative in nature.
*a.T
b. F
18. Constructionists are often more concerned with understanding a specific case than with
the generalization of their findings.
*a.T
b. F

19. The critical realist is critical of our ability to understand the world with certainty.
*a.T
b. F
20.Critical realistm does not take on a particular position on what makes good research.
a. T
*b. F

21. The focus of pragmatism is on basic, fundamental research

a. T
*b. F

22. Pragmatism is a combination of the belief in an external reality with the rejection of the claim
that this external reality can be objectively measured.
a. T
*b. F

23. Knowledge of epistemology may help you to relate to and understand the research of
others and the choices that were made in this research.
*a.T
b. F

24. Different researchers have different ideas about the nature of knowledge or on how we
come to know.
*a.T
b. F
 Chapter 3: The Broad Problem Area and Defining the Problem
Statement – Test Bank

1. A problem is any situation where a gap exists between the actual and the desired ideal
states.
*a.T
b. F

2. Once we have identified the management problem, it needs to be narrowed down to a

researchable topic for study.
*a.T
b. F

3. The selection of an academic perspective on the problem allows us to draw upon a rich body
of literature to help us to solve the problem.
*a.T
b. F

4. Secondary data refers to information that the researcher gathers first hand through
instruments such as surveys, interviews, focus groups, or observation.
*a.T
b. F

5. Which of the following answers cannot be an objective of preliminary research?

a. Mapping out the research problem.
*b.Defining concepts.
c. Interpreting research outcomes.
d. Improving the relationship between the client and the performer of the investigation.

6. What is wrong with a problem definition that is ‘biased’?

a. The research problem is too broad.
b. The problem is not specific and clear.
c. The problem definition reflects the opinion of the researcher. *
d. The problem definition lacks focus.

7. The quality of a literature review depends on a careful selection of data sources

a. T*
b. F

8. Symptoms are concrete examples of the way in which a certain business problem reveals
itself.
*a.T
b. F
9. The field of interest of a research is unrelated to the problem and symptoms.
a. T
*b.F

10. Secondary research simplifies the process of problem formulation.

*a.T
b. F

11. There is always one best way to investigate a certain problem statement.
a. T
*b. F

12. A good problem statement includes both a statement of the research objective(s) and the
research question(s).
*a.T
b. F

13. Research questions are the translation of the problem of the organization into a specific
need for information.
*a.T
b. F

14. Familiarity with the literature is only beneficial in an academic context.

a. T
*b. F

15. A first review of the literature helps you to make an informed decision about your research
approach.
*a.T
b. F
 Chapter 4: The Critical Literature Review – Test Bank

1. A literature review helps the researcher to undertake research that is relevant.

a. T*
b. F

2. A literature review adds to the probability of finding significant relationships.

a. T*
b. F

3. The functions of the critical literature review depend on the specific research approach that is
taken.
*a.T
b. F

4. In inductive research, a literature review will help the researcher to develop a theoretical
framework and hypotheses.
a. T
*b.F

5. A critical literature review ensures that the research effort is positioned relative to existing
knowledge and builds on this knowledge.
*a.T
b. F
6. A critical literature review ensures that a clearer idea emerges as to what variables will be
important to consider, why they are considered important, and how they should be investigated
to solve the problem.
*a.T
b. F
7. A critical literature review may have a negative effect on the testability and replicability of
the findings of the current research.
*a.T
b. F

8. The quality of a literature review depends on a cautious selection and reading of books,
academic and professional journals, reports, theses, conference proceedings, unpublished
manuscripts, and the like.
*a.T
b. F
9. Conference proceedings are quite valuable if you are working in a relatively new area or
domain.
*a.T
b. F

10. PhD theses often contain an exhaustive review of the literature in a specific area.
*a.T
b. F

11. The quality of the journal that published an article is unrelated to the quality of a research
article.
a. T
*b.F

12. Online databases display only the bibliographic citations such as the name of the author,
the title of the article (or book), source of publication, and the like.
a. T
*b.F

13. Articles and books that were written thirty or even forty years ago should never be included
in the literature review.
a. T
*b.F

14. Both purposely misrepresenting the work of others and plagiarism are considered to be
fraud.
*a.T
b. F

15. Providing inaccurate information regarding the sources, making it impossible to find them is
a form of plagiarism.
*a.T
b. F
 Chapter 5: Theoretical Framework and Hypothesis Development –
Test Bank

1. A hypothesis can be based on inductive preliminary investigation or theory.

*a.T
b. F

2. A hypothesis is unrelated to the theoretical framework.

a. T
*b.F

3. A hypothesis is based on theory.

*a.T
b. F

4. A hypothesis is by definition testable.

*a.T
b. F

5. Which of the following parts does not belong to a theoretical framework?

a. The hypotheses corresponding to the model.
*b.The operationalization of the used constructs of the model.
c. A logical explanation of the relationships within a model.
d. A graphical representation of the model.

6. Mediation can be partial as well as full.

*a.T
b. F

7. A mediating variable influences the relationship between two variables.

a. T
*b.F

8. Good research is aimed at falsification of hypotheses.

*a.T
b. F

9. A good hypothesis is better than its rivals.

*a.T
b. F

10. A moderating variable influences the original relationship between one or more
independent variables and a dependent variable.
*a.T
b. F

11. A moderator is a special type of mediating variable.

a. T
*b.F

12. A mediating variable increases the reliability of a model.

a. T
*b.F

13. In case of a mediating variable, a dependent variable cannot be influenced directly by

an independent variable.
a. T
*b.F

14. The explained variance (R2) of a model can decrease if a mediating variable is included
in the model.
a. T
*b.F

15. Research from Schlundt Bodien & Nelck da Silva Rosa (2004) shows that reading to
children has a stronger effect on girls than on boys. What kind of variable is gender in this
case?
*a.A moderating variable.
b. A mediating variable.
c. An independent variable.
d. A control variable.

16. Job satisfaction is:

a. An independent variable.
b. A dependent variable.
c. A moderating variable.
*d.This is not clear based on the above information.

17. A moderating variable influences the dependent- as well as the independent variable.
a. T
*b.F

18. A moderating variable changes the relationship between a dependent and an

independent variable.
*a.T
b. F
19. Moderation is a special case of mediation.
a. T
*b.F

20. “Job satisfaction has a positive effect on employee loyalty” is an example of a theory.
a. T
*b.F

21. A theoretical framework contains all possible variables that can influence the dependent
variable.
a. T
*b.F

22. Hypotheses can be tested by qualitative research.

*a.T
b. F

23. “Job satisfaction has a positive effect on employee loyalty” is an example of a

hypothesis.
* a. T
b. F
 Chapter 6: The Elements of Research Design – Test Bank

1. Which type of study is most suitable when there is little to no insight in a certain problem or
when there is no information available on how similar problems or research issues have been
solved in the past?
*a.Exploratory study.
b. Descriptive study.
c. Causal study.
d. Experiments.

2. What cannot be the purpose of a causal study?

a. Understanding the dependent variable.
b. Predicting the dependent variable.
c. Making sure that all relevant variables are included in the study.*
d. Explaining the variance in the dependent variable.

3. If a bank manager wants to analyze the relationship between interest rates and bank deposit
patterns of clients, a ‘field study’ is the most suitable method of investigation.
a. T*
b. F

4. In an investigation on the relationship between customer satisfaction and loyalty among

customers of a supermarket, the ‘unit of analysis’ is the supermarket.
a. T
b. F*

5. A director of Burger King wants to have an overview of the profits made in the last five years
in the Netherlands, Germany and the Czech Republic. To get this, the profits of all individual
franchise-establishments have to be aggregated. The ‘unit of analysis’ in this case is the
individual franchise-establishment.
a. T*
b. F

6. A study in which data are gathered at more than one point in time is called …
a. A cross-sectional study.
*b.A longitudinal study.
c. An experimental study.
d. A randomized study.

7. The type of investigation is an element of research design.

a. T*
b. F
8. The study setting is an element of research design.
a. T*
b. F

9. Which of the following studies is a causal in nature?

The researcher tries to find out:
a. The effect of reward system on productivity.
b. Why unemployment in Belgium is higher than in Germany.
c. Whether smoking is causing cancer.
d. All the above answers are correct.*

10. The unit of analysis refers to the aggregation level of the data collected.
*a.T
b. F

11. The central research question determines the unit of analysis of an investigation to a large
extent.
*a.T
b. F

12. Correlational study done in organizations are called field studies.

*a.T
b. F

13. A researcher wants to determine the cause-effect relationship between price discounts
and sales. A field experiment would be an appropriate way to test this relationship.
*a.T
b. F

14. The idea behind triangulation is that one can be more confident in a result if the use of
different methods or sources leads to the same results.
*a.T
b. F

15. Action research is a systematic set of procedures to develop an inductively derived theory
from the data.
a. T
*b. F

16. Grounded theory is the planned watching, recording, analysis, and interpretation of
behavior, actions, or events.
a. T
*b. F
17. Experiments are usually associated with inductive research.
a. T
*b. F

18. Surveys are used in exploratory, descriptive, and in causal research to collect data about
people, events, or situations.
*a.T
b. F

19. Important tools of grounded theory are theoretical sampling, coding, and constant
comparison.
*a.T
b. F

20. Case studies focus on collecting information about a specific, object event or activity, such
as a particular business unit or organization.
*a.T
b. F
 Chapter 7: Data Collection Methods: Introduction and Interviews –
Test Bank

1. Primary data are more important than secondary data.

a. T
*b.F

2. Primary data are data that for example is gathered from annual reports.
a. T
*b.F

3. It is preferred to first ask general questions and then more specific questions.
*a.T
b. F

4. A thematic apperception test, an inkblot test and word association techniques are all
examples of:
*a.Projective methods.
b. Descriptive methods.
c. Prescriptive methods.
d. Iterative methods.

5. An inkblot test is an example of a projective method.

*a.T
b. F

6. Which of the following points is not related to the costs for a respondent that go with the
participation in an investigation?
a. Whether or not the respondent stays anonymous.
b. The duration of the interview.
c. The type of information that has to be given.
*d.Lack of influence on the decision making.

7. Which of the following answers cannot be seen as a good way to probe in an interview?
a. Repeat the same question.
*b.Come back to the subject later on.
c. Summarize the answer.
d. Be silent.

8. What is not a part of conversation introduction in an interview?

a. Socially emotional oriented aspects.
b. Verbal signals.
c. Corrective statements.
*d.Monitoring the answers.

9. Interviews can help you to better interpret the results of a quantitative investigation.
*a.T
b. F

10. Interviews are a useful method to collect data in case studies.

*a.T
b. F

11. An advantage of face-to-face interviews is that the respondents are able to end the
interview on every moment.
a. T
*b.F

12. The Delphi Technique has been widely used for short-run business forecasting.
a. T
*b.F

13. Experiments, observational methods, and questionnaires are the three main data collection
methods in survey research.
*a. T
b. F

14. Interview bias is typically introduced by the interviewee.

a. T
*b.F

15. To obtain honest information from the respondents, the researcher/interviewer should be
able to establish rapport and trust with them.
*a. T
b. F
 Chapter 8: Data Collection Methods: Observation

1. Observational methods are best suited for research requiring non-self-report descriptive
data; that is when behavior is to be examined without directly asking the respondents
themselves.
*a. T
b. F

2. An observational study is said to be low in control when the situation or setting is

manipulated or contrived by the researcher.
a. T
*b.F

3. A major drawback of uncontrolled observation is however that it is usually difficult to

untangle the often complex situation since we do not control any factor in this.
*a. T
b. F

4. Active participation occurs when the researcher does not actively participate, and only
occasionally interacts with the social group under study.
a. T
*b.F

5. Structured observation is generally quantitative in nature.

a. T
*b.F

6. Reactivity refers to the extent to which the observer affects the situation under observation.
*a. T
b. F

7. Pure observation has been described as ‘going native’; the researcher becomes so involved
with the group under study that eventually every objectivity and research interest is lost
a. T
*b.F

8. Typical examples of passive participation are observations conducted in service consumption

settings, such as in a lecture room, a theatre, a waiting room, or a theme park.
*a. T
b. F

9. Deviants are persons who take upon themselves to check out the new person and what it is
this person is after.
a. T
*b.F

10. Generally speaking, the most important factor in determining what to observe is the aim or
purpose of the study.
*a. T
b. F

11. The most important method of capturing data in participant observation is writing field notes.
*a. T
b. F

12. Unstructured observation can be used to generate numerical data to test hypotheses.
a. T
*b.F

13. Categories in a coding scheme should be mutually exclusive and collectively exhaustive.
*a. T
b. F

14. This is an example of a sequence record.

Event 1 2 3 4
IIII II I III

a. T
*b.F

15. Observation is often used as a technique to collect data that complement data obtained by
other techniques such as interviews.
*a. T
b. F

16. A practical problem of observation is that it is time-consuming.

*a. T
b. F
 Chapter 9: Data Collection Methods: Questionnaires – Test Bank

1. The hypotheses of a study are a good starting point when designing a questionnaire.
*a. T
b. F

2. The hypotheses need to be briefly explained to the respondent when a questionnaire is used
to collect data.
a. T
*b.F

3. A questionnaire includes the following question, measured on a 5-point Likert scale:

“To what extent are you satisfied with the appearance and the service of the shop-
assistants?”
This question is an example of a:
a. Leading question.
b. Loaded question.
*c.Double-barreled question.
d. Ambiguous question.

4. An advantage of personally administered questionnaires is that uncertainties can be

explained.
*a.T
b. F

5. What is metacognition?
a. A question that is impurely and inaccurately formulated.
b. An assessment error from the researcher about the knowledge level of the respondent.
*c.Ideas of the respondent about what he should think or feel.
d. Ideas of the respondent about what the interviewer would like to hear.

6. Evaluate the following question on suitability for the use in a questionnaire (measured on a 5-
point Likert scale):
“Do you think that in the current economical situation it is wise to reduce salaries of top
sportsman?”
*a.This question is leading.
b. This question is loaded.
c. This question is double-barreled.
d. This question in any case is not leading, loaded or double-barreled.

7. A disadvantage of electronic questionnaires is that this way of surveying is relatively

expensive.
a. T
*b.F

8. ‘To what extent can you say about yourself that you are happy?’ is an example of a loaded
question.
a. T
*b.F

9. If in the introduction of the questionnaire it is made clear that the answers will be handled
anonymously, this can lead to bias of the results.
a. T
*b.F

10. The sequence of questions in a questionnaire can lead to a certain bias; this
phenomenon is also referred to as ordering effects.
*a.T
b. F

11. With respect to the sequence of questions in a questionnaire, you start with asking
difficult questions which you unravel to more specific questions later.
a. T
*b.F

12. With respect to the sequence of questions in a questionnaire, it is wise to end with
questions that respondents refuse to answer.
a. T
*b.F
 Chapter 10: Experimental Designs – Test Bank

1. Manipulation of independent variables in order to unravel causal relationships is

unacceptable from a scientific point of view.
a. T
*b.F

2. The manipulation of the independent variable is also known as the treatment, and the results
of the treatment are called treatment effects.
*a.T
b. F

3. One way of controlling “nuisance” variables is to match the various groups by picking the
confounding characteristics and deliberately spreading them across groups.
*a.T
b. F

4. External validity of lab experiments refers to the confidence we place in the cause-and-effect
relationship.
a. T
*b.F

5. A field study is an experiment done in the natural environment in which work goes on as
usual, but treatments are given to one or more groups.
a. T
*b.F

6. Internal validity refers to the extent of generalizability of the results of a causal study to other
settings.
a. T
*b.F

7. There is a trade-off between internal validity and external validity. If we want high internal
validity, we should be willing to settle for lower external validity and vice versa.
*a.T
b. F

8. Cause-and-effect inferences can be contaminated by the effects of the passage of time. Such
contamination effects are denoted history effects.
a. T
*b.F
9. An interactive testing effect occurs when the prior observation (the pretest) affects the later
observation (the posttest).
a. T
*b.F

10. A time series design thus allows the researcher to assess the impact of a treatment over
time.
*a.T
b. F

11. Quasi-Experimental Designs expose an experimental group to a treatment and measure its
effects.
*a.T
b. F

12. A Quasi-Experimental Design measures true cause-and-effect relationships.

a. T
*b.F

13. History effects (the dropout of individuals from groups) is a problem for all experimental
designs.
a. T
*b.F

14. A Quasi-Experimental Design guarantees the maximum internal and external validity, ruling
out many other rival hypotheses.
a. T
*b.F

15. A key problem of time series is history: certain events or factors that have an impact on the
independent variable–dependent variable relationship might unexpectedly occur while the
experiment is in progress.
*a.T
b. F

16. Major threats to validity in a “pretest & posttest with one experimental group only” are:
*a. History, maturation, main testing, interactive testing, mortality.
b. Statistical regression, maturation, main testing, interactive testing, mortality.
c. Statistical regression, instrumentation, main testing, interactive testing, mortality.
d. History, instrumentation, main testing, interactive testing, mortality.

17. Biases that might affect the internal validity of experimental designs are often reduced by
enhancing the level of sophistication of the experimental design.
*a.T
b. F
 Chapter 11: Measurement of Variables: Operational Definition – Test
Bank

1. Operationalization means: 
a. Designing questionnaires.
b. Translating a problem definition into a research questions. 
c. Rendering an abstract concept measureable.* 
d. Defining difficult concepts in the research proposal. 

2. What is the type of scale of the variable ‘age’ if it is measured in the following way? 
“What is your age?   ____ years old.” 
a. Nominal.
b. Ordinal.
c. Interval.
d. Ratio.*

3. What is the measurement level of income, measured in the following way: 

“What is your annual gross income?”
< €15.000
€20.000 - €30.000
€30.000 - €45.000
> € 45.000
a. Nominal.
b. Ordinal.*
c. Interval. 
d. Ratio.

4. “The measurement level on which a variable is measured is of great influence on the

possibilities that a researcher has to further describe these variables and thereby also
determines the value of the data.”
In light of this remark, indicate which of the following measurement levels provides the most
valuable data for a variable.  
a. Nominal.
b. Ordinal.
c. Interval. 
d. Ratio.*

5. The difference between an ordinal and ratio scale is that the ordinal scale has an absolute zero
point. 
a. T
b. F*

6. A nominal scale is always dichotomous. 

a. T
b. F*

7. Army rank (such as soldier, corporal, sergeant, lieutenant etcetera) is a variable with an ordinal
scale.  
a. T*
b. F

8. Temperature is a variable with an interval scale. 

a. T
b. F* 

9. With which scale can we, for describing central tendency, determine the mode and the median,
but not the mean?  
a. A nominal scale. 
*b.An ordinal scale. 
c. An interval scale. 
d. A ratio scale. 

10. A sport shooter shoots from a distance of 10 meter 10 times on a cardboard. On this
board the middle circle with 12 points has the highest value, and the outer circle with 1 point the
lowest. Shooting next to the board yields 0 points. For every 10 shots the points are counted up
to a total score. What scale has this total score if the shooter hits the board every time?  
a. Nominal.
b. Ordinal.
c. Interval. 
*d.Ratio.

11. What is the operationalization of a variable? 

a. The definition of a variable. 
b. An overview of the subcomponents of a variable. 
c. The characteristics of a variable about which consensus exists between theoreticians. 
*d.The way in which variables are rendered measurable. 

12. What is the measurement level of the question below? 

“What is your income?
0 < 1000 gross per month 
0 1000-3000 gross per month
0 3000-5000 gross per month
0 5000-7000 gross per month
0 > 7000 gross per month”
a. Nominal. 
b. Ordinal.*
c. Interval. 
d. Ratio. 

13. Operationalizing precedes the definition of a variable. 

a. T
b. F*

14. Operationalizing is making a variable measurable. 

a. T*
b. F

15. Which of the following answers is a ‘concept’? 

a. Office. 
b. Plant. 
c. Job satisfaction.* 
d. These are all examples of ‘concepts’. 

16. The operationalization of a construct means that there must be looked for as many
related correlations, dimensions and elements of the construct as possible. 
a. T
*b.F

17. The construct ‘hunger’ is a typical example of a construct that must be operationalized
because it is an abstract and subjective concept. 
*a.T
b. F

18. What is the measurement level of the following question? 

“What is your gross income per month? € ”
a. Non-metric. 
b. Interval. 
c. Ratio.* 
d. None of the above answers is correct. 
 Chapter 12:  Measurement: Scaling, Reliability, Validity – Test Bank

1. Julia stands on a pair of scales three times in succession. The first time she weighs 69 kilo, the
second time 69 kilo, and the third time 69 kilo. Her real weight is 51 kilo. What is the matter with
the scales?
a. The pair of scales is not reliable and not valid.*
b. The pair of scales is reliable but is not valid.
c. The pair of scales is not reliable but is valid.
d. The pair of scales is reliable and valid.

2. Which of the alternatives below is not an example of a ranking scale? 

a. Paired comparison.
b. Forced choice.
c. Comparative scale.
d. Stapel scale.*

3. The fallowing scale type is called:  

“Ugly 1 2 3 4 5 Beautiful”
a. A likert-scale.
*b.A semantic differential scale.
c. A numerical scale.
d. An itemized rating scale. 

4. About a scale (set of questions) it can be said that it is                 if it measures what it should be
measuring. 
a. Reliable.
b. Accurate. 
c. Valid.*
d. Consistent.

5. Which of the following alternatives is not an example of a rating scale? 

a. Paired comparison.* 
b. Likert scale. 
c. Semantic differential scale. 
d. Stapel scale. 

6. Interval and ratio variables are also called metric variables. 

a. T*
b. F

7. A characteristic of a variable on interval level is that it has an absolute zero point. 

a. T
*b.F

8. Which of the following alternatives is not an example of a ranking scale? 

a. Paired comparison.
b. Forced choice.
c. Likert scale.*
d. Comparitive scale.
9. What formally is the scale level of a Likert scale? 
a. Nominal. 
*b.Ordinal.
c. Interval.
d. Ratio. 

10. About a scale (set of questions) it can be said that the                     indicates how well
the measure taps the concept as theorized. Which word is missing?
a. Content validity. 
b. Construct validity.* 
c. Criterion-related validity. 
d. Stability. 

11. A moderator can only be measured on a nominal level. 

a. T
b. F*

12. Construct validity ensures that the measure includes an adequate and representative set
of items. 
a. T
b. F*

13. With face validity, the validity is not tested statistically. 

a. T*
b. F

14. How can content validity of a scale be determined? 

a. A panel of experts judges the content validity of an instrument.* 
b. Different instruments that intend to measure the same concept, are correlated with each other. 
c. Two variables that are respected not to correlate with each other, are correlated with each
other. 
d. Through correlation or regression it is found out to what extent a prediction done on the basis of
the instrument really proves to be true. 

15. How do we call the following scale type? 

“Where in the Netherlands do you live?       The South 
      The West 
      The North 
            The East 

*a.A category scale. 

b. A forced choice scale. 
c. A multidimensional scale. 
d. A itemized rating scale. 

16. When a researcher is concerned about the extent to which an instrument adequately
measures a concept, he is concerned about: 
a. Concurrent validity. 
b. Construct validity. 
*c.Content validity. 
d. Convergent validity. 

17. Robert stands three times on a pair of scales in a period of 5 minutes. The first time he
weighs 92 kg, the second time he weighs 102 kg and the third time he weighs 95 kg. What
conclusion can we draw based on this information on the pair of scales?  
a. The pair of scales is reliable and valid.
b. The pair of scales is not reliable.
c. The pair of scales is not valid.
*d.The pair of scales is not reliable and not valid.

18. Discriminant validity is the extent to which experts are of the opinion that an instrument
measures what it intended to measure. 
a. T
*b.F

19. The following scale type is: 

“Cold |___|___|___|___|___|___|___|___|___|   Hot”
a. A likert-scale. 
*b.A semantic differential scale. 
c. A numerical scale. 
d. An itemized rating scale.

20. The assessment of the goodness of a scale relates to both the validity and reliability of
this scale. 
a. T*
b. F

21. Cronbach’s alpha can only be used for metric variables. 

a. T*
b. F

22. Cronbach’s alpha can only be used when a variable is measured through several
statements or questions. 
a. T*
b. F

23. Stability and consistency are both indicators of the reliability of a measure. 
*a.T
b. F

24. Concurrent validity is a form of construct validity. 

a. T
*b.F

25. “Indicate the order in which you prefer the following coke-labels. Give your favorite label
a 1, the label that you prefer next a 2, and so on: 
Coca Cola
Pepsi
Dr Pepper “
This is an example of: 
a. A rating scale. 
b. An itemized rating scale. 
c. A ranking scale.* 
d. None of the above answers is correct. 
 Chapter 13:  Sampling – Test Bank

1. If all elements in the population are seen as equal and every element has an equal chance of
being chosen, we speak of: 
a. Simple random sampling.*
b. Systematic sampling.
c. Stratified random sampling.
d. Cluster sampling.

2. The most important disadvantage of a convenience sample is that: 

a. It takes a lot of time and effort to find respondents. 
b. The research results are cannot be generalized.*  
c. It will introduce a systematic ‘bias’ in the data. 
d. This way of sampling is relatively expensive. 

3. As a rule, probability sampling leads to a representative sample. 

a. T*
b. F

4. Convenience sampling and quota sampling are examples of probability sampling. 

a. T
b. F*

5. A researcher who investigates the relationship between the bonus program of AH (a

supermarket chain) and the loyalty at AH, collects his data by approaching people passing an
AH branch store on several daily periods. 
The method used by this researcher to draw a sample is called: 
a. Convenience sampling.*
b. Simple random sampling.
c. Stratified sampling.
d. Quota sampling.

6. Simple random sampling is a method associated with a high degree of generalizability. 

a. T*
b. F

7. Cluster sampling is the least representative probability sampling design. 

a. T*
b. F

8. Which of the following sampling designs is a form of non-probability sampling? 

a. Systematic sampling.
b. Area sampling.
c. Quota sampling.*
d. Cluster sampling.

9. Non-probability sampling leads to findings that are highly generalizable. 

a. T
b. F*
10. Stratified sampling and cluster sampling are examples of probability sampling. 
a. T*
b. F

11. A disadvantage of cluster sampling is that it: 

a. Is the least efficient form of probability sampling.*
b. Requires homogeneous subgroups. 
c. Takes a lot of time to collect data. 
d. Is not easy to execute. 

12. The bigger the sample size, the better. 

a. T
b. F*

13. If a sample is subdivided into subsamples, a minimal sample size of 10 is necessary for
every subsample.  
a. T
*b.F

14. Snowball sampling and Quota sampling are both non-probability sampling techniques. 
a. T*
b. F

15. In probability sampling all elements of a population have a known and equal change to
be included in the sample. 
a. T*
b. F

16. If your objective is to compose a representative sample, what kind of sampling technique
would you choose?  
*a.Simple random sampling.
b. Judgment sampling.
c. Convenience sampling.
d. Quota sampling .

17. What is the least reliable and least efficient probability sampling technique? 
a. Systematic sampling.
b. Proportionate stratified sampling.
c. Disproportionate stratified sampling.
*d.Cluster sampling. 

18. When representativity is an important criterion for a study, which sampling technique
would you choose?  
*a.Systematic sampling.
b. Judgment sampling.
c. Quota sampling.
d. Convenience sampling.
19. Based on the desired accuracy and reliability of the research results, we can determine
a desired sample size by a formula. The desired sample size is adjusted (and we then speak of
an adjusted n) when: 
a. The sample size is greater than 1000 persons. 
*b.The sample size is greater than 50 percent of the population. 
c. The sample size is greater than 1 percent of the population. 
d. None of the above answers is correct. 

20. Snowball sampling and judgment sampling are both non-probability sampling
techniques. 
*a.T
b. F

21. With systematic sampling one divides the population into subgroups and chooses the
test subject randomly from a number of randomly chosen subgroups. 
a. T
*b.F

22. From statistical considerations the preference is given to probability sampling over non-
probability sampling. 
*a.T
b. F

23. Probability sampling is seen as less representative for the population than non-
probability sampling. 
a. T
*b.F
 
24. If a sample is subdivided into subsamples, a minimal sample size of 30 is necessary for
every subsample.  
*a.T
b. F

25. A researcher wants to investigate the relationships between the use of drugs and study
results of university students. He would like to generalize the results to the population. Which
kind of sample could the researcher best use?  
a. Stratified sampling
b. Judgment sampling
*c.Simple random sampling
d. Quota sampling
 Chapter 14:  Quantitative Data Analysis – Test Bank

1. A researcher wants to give an overview of the characteristics of the respondents in his sample.
How could this researcher best provide insight in the gender of the respondents? 
a. By a frequency table and a bar chart.* 
b. By the mode, median and the standard deviation.
c. By a frequency table and a correlation matrix. 
d. By the mean and the variance. 

2. The mode and the median are always the same value. 
a. T
b. F*

3. An overview of a variable on nominal level can be given by a pie chart. 

a. T*
b. F

4. In which way you could better not give an overview of ordinal data?  
a. By the mean.*
b. By percentiles.
c. By the median.
d. By the mode.

5. After collecting and entering the data in SPSS, a researcher looks at the correlation matrix in
which all variables of his conceptual model are included. Which information can the researcher
not derive from this matrix? 
a. An indication of the possibility of multicollinearity.  
b. The existence of cause-effect relationships between certain variables.*
c. Relationships between variables. 
d. Whether relationships between variables are positive or negative.   

6. Fill in the missing text: 

A Chi-square test can be used if the independent variable is measured on a …….(1)……. scale
and the dependent variable on a ……..(2)…….. scale. 
a. (1) nominal/ordinal – (2) nominal/ordinal.*
b. (1) nominal/ordinal – (2) interval/ratio.
c. (1) interval/ratio – (2) nominal/ordinal.
d. (1) interval/ratio – (2) interval/ratio.

7. Which instrument would one use to assess the reliability of a scale (a set of questions)? 
a. Cronbach’s alpha. *
b. Kendall’s tau. 
c. Levene’s test. 
d. Pearson’s correlation coefficient. 
8. With what instrument could the validity of a scale (a set of questions) best be determined? 
a. Cronbach’s alpha. 
b. Kendall’s tau. 
c. Levene’s test.
d. With none of the above instruments.* 
9. Computing the Cronbach’s alpha is the way to check if the: 
a. Measure is valid. 
b. Measure is reliable.* 
c. Null hypothesis is significant. 
d. Conceptual model is relevant. 

10. With what instrument could the predictive validity of a metric scale (a set of questions)
best be determined? 
a. Cronbach’s alpha. 
b. A correlation-coefficient.* 
c. Fisher’s r-to-z test. 
d. With none of the above mentioned instruments. 

11. The Cronbach’s alpha of a scale indicates to what extent different items measure the
same construct. 
a. T*
b. F

12. The closer the Cronbach’s alpha is to 1, the higher the reliability of a scale.
a. T*
b. F

13. Chi-square analysis is used when the independent variable is nominal or ordinal. 
*a.T
b. F

14. Chi-square analysis is used when the independent variable is used when the dependent
variable is nominal or ordinal. 
*a.T
b. F

15. Chi-square analysis is a suitable technique to determine if the sample is a reflection of

the population in terms of access to the internet (access/no access). 
*a.T
b. F

16. By means of chi-square analysis it is not possible to test hypotheses. 

a. T
*b.F

17. In what way do the concepts causality and correlation relate to each other? 
a. Causality is needed for correlation. 
b. Causality is one of the conditions for correlation. 
*c.Correlation is one of the conditions for causality. 
d. Correlation (alone) is enough evidence for causality. 

18. Cronbach’s alpha indicates to what extent scale items are correlated to each other? 
*a.T
b. F
19. Cronbach’s alpha and the split-half reliability coefficient are both instruments to
determine the reliability of a scale. 
*a.T
b. F

20. In what way could you best give an overview of ordinal data? 
a. By the mean. 
b. By cross tables. 
*c.By the median. 
d. By the mode. 

21. Discriminant validity can be determined by means of, amongst others, correlations and
factor analyses. 
*a.T
b. F

22. Mean and median actually are identical concepts. 

a. T
*b.F
 Chapter 15: Quantitative Data Analysis: Hypothesis Testing – Test Bank

1. Which of the following alternatives is possibly the dependent variable in a study in which regression
analysis is used to analyze the data?
a. The political party for which respondents voted at the last election.
b. The gender of the respondent.
c. Favorite color of the respondent.
d. The disposable income of the respondent.*

2. To determine the F-ratio, the variance between groups (‘between-groups mean square’) is divided by
the variance within groups (‘within-groups mean square’).
a. T*
b. F

3. ANOVA is used to determine whether the variance between groups significantly differ from each
other.
a. T
b. F*

4. ANOVA is used to determine if a non-metric variable influences a metric variable.

a. T*
b. F

5. Essentially, the relations that are tested through ANOVA could also be tested through regression
analysis (by using dummy variables).
a. T*
b. F

6. Which test could best be used to test the hypothesis that the average grade of students is higher
than a 7 on a 10-point scale?
a. Independent samples t-test.
b. One sample t-test.*
c. Paired samples t-test.
d. ANOVA.

7. Which test could best be used to test the hypothesis that the average price that people are willing to
pay for a meal at the University restaurant differs between Dutch, German and Chinese students?
a. Regression analysis.
b. Independent samples t-test.
c. Chi-square test.
d. ANOVA.*
8. Which test could best be used to test the hypothesis that the quality of tangible elements (measured
on ratio-level) influences satisfaction on the University restaurant (measured on ration-level), but
that the relationship between these variables differs between students and faculty?
a. Multiple regression analysis with an interaction-effect.*
b. ANOVA.
c. Three multiple regression models so that mediation can be tested.
d. MANOVA.

9. What is the appropriate method to test if having a mobile phone is related to gender?
a. ANOVA.
b. Regression analysis.
c. Chi-square test.*
d. T-test.

10. A researcher is interested in whether customer loyalty (measured on a 5-point Likert scale) of people
with a bonus card differs from loyalty of people without a bonus card. To test this he can make use
of:
a. An independent samples t-test.*
b. ANOVA.
c. A paired-samples t-test.
d. A Chi-square test.

11.A researcher estimates his model by means of regression. He finds a significance level of .0012 and
an R-square of .31 for the model. Which conclusion can the researcher draw from these data?
a. At least one of the independent variables or the constant of the model is significantly related to
the dependent variable.*
b. The model explains 31% of the variation in the independent variables.
c. Multicollinearity is the case.
d. All independent variables are significantly related to Y.

12.Multiple regression analysis measures the effect of an independent variable on the dependent
variable, while the other independent variables are held constant.
a. T*
b. F

13.Multiple regression analysis can only be used when variables are measured by more than one item.
a. T
b. F*
14.A researcher wants to know if the distribution of income in his sample corresponds to the real
distribution in his population (60% < the standard, 40% >= above the standard). Which of the
following tests could he use for this?
a. An independent samples t-test.
b. ANOVA
c. A paired-samples t-test.
d. A Chi-square test.*

15.Which test could best be used to test the hypothesis that the performance of employees depends on
the reward they receive, because this reward increases their motivation (all variables are measured
on a 5-point Likert scale)?
a. Multiple regression with an interaction effect.
b. Multiple regression with dummy variables.
c. Three multiple regression models so that mediation can be tested.*
d. Simple regression.

16.Which test could best be used to test the hypothesis that students that for a certain course attended
tutorials from lecturer X are happier (measured on interval-level) than students who attended
tutorials from lecturer Y and Z?
a. Regression analysis.
b. Independent samples t-test.
c. Chi-square test.
d. ANOVA.*

17. A Sobel-test is often used when moderation is tested.

a. T
b. F*

18.Multicollinearity can be verified by a correlation matrix.

a. T
b. F*

19.Multicollinearity implies that the independent variables are highly correlated with each other.
a. T*
b. F

20.Multicollinearity is a problem when the VIF values are higher than 10.
a. T*
b. F

21.VIF = 1 divided by the tolerance.

a. T*
b. F

22.An ANOVA conducted on 2 groups essentially is the same as conducting a t-test.

a. T*
b. F

23.When you want to test if the average score of an exam significantly differs from 7.3 (the average
score of last year), an independent samples t-test is most appropriate.
a. T
b. F*

24.A researcher want to test if a cause-effect relationships exists between someone’s age and the
number of hours of sleep someone needs. She measures age as follows:
0 < 20 years.
0 20 - 50 years.
0 > 50 years.
Furthermore, participant of the research can fill in the number of hours they sleep on average in a
day on a dotted line.
Which test could best be used to test the hypothesis that age influences the number of hours
someone sleeps?
a. A independent samples t-test.
b. A paired samples t-test.
*c. ANOVA.
d. Discriminant analysis.

25.The statistical null hypothesis is rejected when the p-value is small enough.
*a.T
b. F

26.To be able to conduct a t-test it is important:

a. That the independent- as well as the dependent variable is measured on a nominal or ordinal scale.
b. That the independent variable is measured on an interval- or ratio scale and the dependent variable
is measured on a nominal- or ordinal scale.
c. That the independent- as well as the dependent variable is measured on an interval- or ratio scale.
*d. That the dependent variable is measured on an interval- or ratio scale and the independent
variable is measured on a nominal- or ordinal scale.

27.A possible solution to deal with multicollinearity is to collect more data.

*a.T
b. F
28.Regression analysis is used when the independent variable is nominal or ordinal in nature.
a. T
*b. F

29.Regression analysis is used when the dependent variable is nominal or ordinal in nature.
a. T
*b. F

30.The objective of regression analysis is to explain a dependent variable based on 1 or more

independent variables.
*a.T
b. F
 Chapter 16:  Qualitative Data Analysis – Test Bank

1. Qualitative data are data in the form of words.

*a.T
b. F

2. Qualitative research may involve repeated sampling, collection of data, and analysis of data.
*a.T
b. F

3. Data reduction refers to the process of selecting, coding, and categorizing the data. 
*a.T
b. F

4. Data reduction refers to ways of presenting the data. 

a. T
*b.F

5. Conclusion drawing and verification is the analytic process through which the qualitative data
that you have gathered are reduced, rearranged, and integrated to form theory. 
a. T
*b.F

6. The purpose of coding is to help you to draw meaningful conclusions about the data. 
*a.T
b. F

7. Codes are labels given to units of text which are later grouped and turned into categories.
*a.T
b. F

8. Examples of coding units include words, sentences, paragraphs, and themes.

*a.T
b. F

9. Coding is the process of organizing, arranging, and classifying coding units. 

a. T
*b.F

10. Codes and categories can only be developed deductively.

a. T
*b.F
11. Interjudge reliability depends on the analyst's ability to formulate categories and present to
competent judges definitions of the categories so they will agree on which items of a certain
population belong in a category and which do not.
*a.T
b. F
12. Conceptual analysis is an observational research method that is used to systematically
evaluate the symbolic contents of all forms of recorded communications.
a. T
*b.F

13. Relational analysis is an approach that aims to elicit and scrutinize the stories we tell about
ourselves and their implications for our lives.
a. T
*b.F

14. Analytic induction is an approach to qualitative data analysis in which universal explanations of
phenomena are sought by the collection of (qualitative) data until no cases that are inconsistent
with a hypothetical explanation of a phenomenon are found.
*a.T
b. F

15. Conceptual analysis establishes the existence and frequency of concepts (such as words,
themes, or characters) in a text.
*a.T
b. F
 Chapter 17:  The Research Report – Test Bank
Chapter 17 – The Research Report

1. Methodological issues such as the way of sampling and the corresponding advantages and
disadvantages could often better not be mentioned in the research report because this has no
added value. 
a. T
b. F*

2. It is recommended that in a management summery of a research report the limitations of the

research are also stated. 
a. T*
b. F

3. In reporting the F- and t-values we round off to how many decimal places? 
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3*

4. When you report what is the central point of the answers to a question about education level in
a questionnaire, what do you preferably report? 
a. The mode.
b. The median.*
c. The arithmetic mean. 
d. All three of the above statistics. 

5. What do you introduce in your report when you perform a regression analysis? 
a. Levene’s test for equality of variances. 
*b.The explained variance. 
c. The correlation coefficient. 
d. All three of the above elements. 

6. Which of the following parts is not necessarily present in a research proposal? 

a. The problem statement. 
b. The purpose of the study. 
c. The theoretical background.* 
d. Research questions. 

7. The results chapter of a research report should contain sample characteristics (such as gender
and average age) of the respondents. 
a. T
*b.F

8. In the results chapter of a research report it should be reported if the Cronbach’s alpha (if
determined) is high enough. 
a. T
*b.F
9. You have done cross-sectional research with the objective to explain the variation in a certain
dependent variable. You are writing the results chapter and making a set-up to discuss the
(multivariate) regression analysis which you have executed. Which data you do not have to
mention? 
a. Tolerance and VIF-values. 
b. The R-square of the model. 
c. t-values or p-values.
*d.The Durbin-Watson test statistic. 

10. The empirical part of the research report contains an in-depth exploration and a clear
explication of the relevant literature.
a. T
*b.F

11. The design details - such as sampling and data collection methods, as well as the nature and
type of study, the time horizon, the field setting, and the unit of analysis - and the results of the
study are described in the theoretical part of the research report.
a. T
*b.F

12. The appendix, which comes last, is the appropriate place for the organization chart, newspaper
clippings or other materials that substantiate the text of the report, detailed verbatim narration of
interviews with members, and whatever else might help the reader follow the text.
*a.T
b. F

13. An authorization letter makes clear to the reader that the goals of the study have the full
blessing of the organization.
*a.T
b. F

14. The preface is used primarily to mention matters of background necessary for an
understanding of the subject that do not logically fit into the text.
*a.T
b. F

15. The executive summary is probably the first part of your research report that is read by the
sponsors of your study.
*a.T
b. F