Pilot Briefings
SECTION C
FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR
PILOT BRIEFINGS
In this section, answers are presented in italics as an aid to the instructor.
FUNDAMENTALS
OF
INSTRUCTION
ORAL
QUESTIONS
PILOT BRIEFING
THE LEARNING
PROCESS
1. Can a “beginning” student profit most from an
evaluation of performance according to a stan-
dard or from an individual critique? Why?
A beginning student will profit most from an
individual critique in which an instructor
watches performance, offers constructive criti-
cism, helps eliminate errors, and explains cor-
rect performance. During a critique, the
instructor should not assign a grade or evalu-
ate specific performance.
2. Briefly describe the law of readiness as it per-
tains to a training situation.
The law stipulates that people learn best when
they are ready to learn; if they see no reason
for learning, their progress is impeded.
3. List some of the circumstances which may
undermine the instructor’s ability to stimulate
the student’s readiness to learn.
If outside responsibilities, interests, or worries
weigh too heavily on a student’s mind, if the
schedule is overcrowded, or if personal prob-
lems seem insurmountable, a student may
have little interest in learning. Health,
finances, or family affairs can easily over-
shadow a student’s desire to learn.
4. Briefly explain the law of exercise as a part of
the general laws of learning.
This law states that those things most often
repeated are best remembered. It is the basis of
practice and drill.
5. What teaching method is based on the law of
exercise?
The law of exercise is used when the previous
lesson is reviewed prior to the introduction of
new material. After each new item is intro-
duced, students are directed to practice it
until it is firmly established in their minds.
6. The law of effect is based on the emotional
reaction of the learner. Briefly describe the
principles of this law.
It states that learning is strengthened when
accompanied by a pleasant or satisfying feel-
ing, and that learning is weakened when asso-
ciated with an unpleasant feeling.
7. What experiences tend to impede further
learning in a specific area?
Students will unconsciously try to avoid fur-
ther exposure to a learning situation which
subjects them to feelings of defeat, frustration,
anger, confusion, futility, or dissatisfaction.
8. What does the law of primacy mean to an
instructor?
What an instructor teaches must be correct the
first time, because that which is taught first
often creates a strong, almost unshakable
impression on the student.
9. Generally, how can an instructor ensure that
flight and ground presentations give students
the advantages of the law of intensity?
The instructor accomplishes this by making
presentations come alive with realism, excite-
ment, color, and enthusiasm. This can be
enhanced with the assistance of audiovisual
aids.
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 Flight Instructor Courses Instructor’s Guide
10. What theories of forgetting are most applicable
to flight training? Briefly explain each.
1. Disuse — A person tends to forget those
things which are not used.
2. Interference — One forgets a thing because
a certain experience has overshadowed it
or the learning of similar things has inter-
vened.
3. Repression — Material or experiences
which are unpleasant or produce anxiety
may be submerged into the unconscious
mind.
11. Most theories of forgetting imply that forgot-
ten information is not totally lost, but simply
is not immediately available for total recall
because of disuse, interference, or repression.
List several teaching methods the instructor
can use to enhance learning and minimize for-
getting.
1. By teaching thoroughly with meaning and
by avoiding rote learning as much as pos-
sible
2. By helping the student find good reasons
for remembering
3. By openly encouraging study for meaning,
instead of for rote memorization
4. By helping students develop an organized
program of review and giving them frequent
opportunities for practice
12. Is a serious problem indicated if continued
practice does not produce further obvious
improvement for the beginning student?
No, but additional fruitless drill could serious-
ly affect motivation. The student’s training
periods should be shortened until the
endurance has been developed.
13. Why does the student’s capacity for under-
standing increase as skill is acquired through
practice in a given area?
A discussion which may have confused stu-
dents previously takes on new meaning when
enlightened by the new perspectives and asso-
ciations created in their minds by familiarity
with the subject. Students can relate the expe-
riences with the previous perceptions.
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14. Does the occurrence of a learning plateau
mean that learning has ceased?
No; a leveling off process is normal and
should be expected after an initial period of
rapid improvement.
15. Occasionally, a learning plateau is reached
and further student improvement seems
unlikely. What may this signify?
The student’s interest may have waned or
there may be a need for a more efficient teach-
ing method.
16. What can be done to ward off discouragement
in a student before a leveling off of progress
occurs.
The instructor should prepare the student by
explaining that the plateau is a normal part of
learning.
17. What term best describes the phenomenon
that causes the learning of one procedure to
hinder the learning of another?
Negative transfer of learning
18. How can instructors use a knowledge of posi-
tive and negative transfer to train students
more efficiently?
By ensuring course materials and individual
lesson materials are arranged in a standard,
meaningful sequence that will not jeopardize
subsequent and more complex learning.
19. What is the key to teaching students to trans-
fer what they already know to new situations?
By teaching students the relationship between
the previously learned concepts and new
material, transfer of learning will be
improved.
20. List several obstacles to student learning
which are common in flight instruction.
1. A feeling of unfair treatment
2. An impatience to proceed to more interest-
ing operations
3. Worry or lack of interest
4. Physical discomfort, illness, or fatigue
5. Apathy, fostered by poor instruction
6. Fear, anxiety, or timidity

21. What is the basic reason for the building-block
technique of instruction?
Students must grasp certain perceptions
before they can gain related insights. In this
manner, they learn the material necessary to
understand a more complicated task or theory.
22. List, in sequence, the four basic levels of learn-
ing.
1. Ability to repeat back what one has been
taught without understanding or being able
to apply what has been learned
2. Understanding what has been taught
3. Achieving the skill to apply what has been
learned and to perform correctly
4. Associating and correlating what has been
learned with other things learned previ-
ously or encountered at a later time
23. What two conditions must be present before a
student can be expected to use a skill that has
been learned?
1. The student must have learned the skill so
well that it is easy to perform it.
2. The student must recognize the situations
where it is appropriate to use the skill.
24. Briefly state three characteristics of instruc-
tional objectives.
1. A description of the changes in behavior
intended for students.
2. A list of the conditions associated with the
behavioral changes.
3. An explanation of the methods for measur-
ing the intended behavioral changes.
25. List six factors that may modify or alter the
perceptions that form the basis of all learning.
1. Physical organism
2. Basic needs
3. Goals and values
4. Self concept
5. Time and opportunity
6. Element of threat
Pilot Briefings
26. What is the relationship between student goals
and instructional objectives?
Instructional objectives relevant to a student’s
goals enhance the motivation to learn.
27. What guidance does the typical motor skills
learning curve provide for the flight instruc-
tor?
After rapid improvement in the early stages of
learning a skill, students reach a stage where
no improvement is made. The flight instructor
must anticipate this leveling off, or plateau, in
learning and prepare students for it so dis-
couragement does not set in.
28. What are the consequences of allowing a stu-
dent to continue practicing a bad habit?
According to the law of primacy, correcting a
bad habit and relearning a good one is both
difficult and time consuming. Mistakes and
improper techniques should, therefore, be cor-
rected before bad habits are formed.
29. List four human relations concepts that can
help to improve the skill of a flight instructor.
1. The best way to promote learning is to keep
a student motivated.
2. Keeping a student informed reduces anxi-
ety and fosters learning.
3. Students must be recognized as individuals
and taught according to individual needs.
4. Criticism should always be constructive.
30. Lack of common experience is a barrier to
communications. What can the flight instruc-
tor do to overcome this barrier?
Instructors must ensure they are “speaking the
same language” as the students. The words
used must have a common meaning for
instructors and students.
31. Does the idea that people can be motivated to
learn by making it easy for them have any
basis in fact?
A good instructor sets goals that are attain-
able with effort. Setting goals too easily
reached provides no challenge or satisfaction
for the student, and motivation to learn
diminishes.
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 Flight Instructor Courses Instructor’s Guide
32. Failure to perform may be justified by
rationalization. How can rationalization be
recognized?
Rationalization is a method for justifying
something that is otherwise unacceptable.
These excuses usually are apparent to every-
one but the person who is rationalizing.
THE TEACHING
PROCESS
1. Why is it important for an instructor to con-
duct a private interview with a student prior
to beginning flight instruction?
The instructor must have insight into each stu-
dent’s real motivations for learning to fly.
Once these motivations are known, an indi-
vidualized training program can be devised.
The session should be conducted privately
because the student may be reluctant to reveal
goals during casual conversation or in the
presence of others.
2. What value is there in letting students discov-
er a certain percentage of flying skills on their
own during directed practice?
Discovery and the acquisition of new insights
are major motivating factors in a training situ-
ation and they offer powerful reinforcement
which aids in retention of the skills or facts
involved.
3. What general category of student is least like-
ly to benefit from the “discovery” technique of
instruction?
A student whose motivation stems largely
from the prestige or benefits due the holder of
a pilot certificate usually lacks the desire to
improve. Such a student is not likely to exper-
iment.
4. What are the two primary guides which pro-
vide the instructor with a clear, step-by-step
plan of instruction?
A well thought-out training syllabus and
detailed lesson plans
5. Why must an instructor keep students contin-
uously informed of their progress?
As soon as possible after performance, stu-
dents should be critiqued, both on the items
correctly achieved and on those in which
improvement is expected. The purpose of the
critique should be two-fold — to correct any
errors or misconceptions before they become
firmly established in the students’ minds, and
to relieve any anxieties they may have relative
to their progress.
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6. Why should the instructor demonstrate a
maneuver in which the student has experi-
enced some difficulty?
To reinforce the procedural technique used
and to provide the student with a performance
standard for measuring progress
7. Why is it essential that a student’s mistakes be
corrected immediately?
It is much more difficult to correct a mistake,
and relearn correctly than it is to learn cor-
rectly in the first place.
8. How should a flight instructor deal with incip-
ient airsickness?
A resistance to airsickness can be built up in a
relatively short period of time if the instructor
terminates training flights as soon as the first
signs are detected. For most students, such
flights can be increased in length rapidly until
normal flight periods are practical.
Additionally, students are much less likely to
become sick when they are busy flying the air-
plane.
9. What are the cues an instructor should watch
for to determine the onset of student fatigue?
A decrease in alertness, inattentiveness, and
reduced performance level
10. How might an instructor best handle the impa-
tient student who fails to understand the need
for preliminary training and seeks only the
ultimate objective?
Impatience to learn generally can be dealt
with by outlining the need for progressive
learning, then presenting the necessary pre-
liminary training one step at a time with clear-
ly stated goals for each step. However, it is just
as important that a student be advanced to the
subsequent step as soon as one goal has been
attained as it is for the student to complete
each step before the next one is undertaken.
11. Generally, how can an instructor deal with
personal student interests, fears, enthusiasms,
and problems over which the student has no
control?
Instruction must be keyed to the utilization of
the student’s interests and enthusiasms and to
diversion of the student’s attention from wor-
ries and troubles to the learning tasks at hand.

12. Why are speeches to inform, persuade, or
entertain of little value to a flight instructor?
They are not designed to further the education
of those who hear them.
13. What is the preferred delivery method for a
teaching lecture?
Extemporaneous
14. What two benefits are derived by a student in
the process of explaining a maneuver as the
instructor performs it?
1. The student is free to organize thoughts
regarding the steps involved and the tech-
niques to be used.
2. The instructor can better evaluate the stu-
dent’s understanding of the factors involved
in performance of the maneuver.
15. What important student learning concept is
being taught by the “student tells-student
does” step of instruction?
Students are not only learning to do some-
thing, they are learning how to teach them-
selves. This is a skill which will prove
invaluable during solo practice.
16. What important limitation is imposed on the
use of visual materials for teaching purposes?
Their content must support the lesson.
17. What are some of the advantages of computer-
based training?
Students become more involved in their own
learning. In addition, the student usually can
control the pace of instruction, review previ-
ous material, jump forward, and receive
instant feedback.
18. What factors should be considered when set-
ting lesson performance goals for the individ-
ual student?
Performance goals should be set at a level
which will provide a challenge for the student,
but which are still attainable. Goals that meet
this criteria will serve to motivate the student.
19. What is the best way to continually motivate
students?
By keeping them informed of their progress
and the goals of the training course.
Pilot Briefings
20. What can be done by the instructor to foster
the proper instructor/student relationship?
The instructor’s best teaching tool is example.
If the instructor consistently exemplifies high
standards of teaching methods, safety, flying
technique, and human relations, the relation-
ship with students will be natural and satis-
factory.
21. Arranging subject matter chronologically is
one way to develop a lesson plan. Name three
other ways to organize material suitable for
flight training.
Lesson plans can be developed in various
ways — chronologically, simple to complex,
known to unknown, and most frequently used
to least frequently used.
22. Under what circumstances is the lecture
method a suitable instructional approach to
flight training?
The lecture method is suitable for introducing
new material, summarizing results, showing
relationships between theory and practice,
and reemphasizing main points.
23. Describe the difference between an overhead
and a relay question.
The overhead question is directed to the group
to stimulate thought and elicit response from
each member. A relay question is similar to a
reverse question except the instructor redirects
the question to the group rather than to an
individual.
24. What types of instructional aids are compati-
ble with the learning objectives of a pilot train-
ing course?
1. Chalk or white boards
2. Film/video/CBT
3. Computer-based simulation devices
4. Slides
5. Transparencies
6. Models
7. Mockups
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 Flight Instructor Courses Instructor’s Guide
25. Is a critique a part of the grading process or a
part of the learning process? Explain.
A critique is not a step in the grading process.
It is a step in the learning process which pre-
cedes any form of measurement.
26. What characteristics do effective critiques
possess?
1. Objectivity
2. Flexibility
3. Acceptability
4. Comprehensiveness
27. What are the ground rules which must be
observed for a critique to accomplish its
intended purpose?
1. Follow a time schedule
2. Limit critique to key points
3. Summarize for emphasis
4. Avoid being dogmatic
5. Avoid controversy
6. Keep criticism honest, objective, construc-
tive, and comprehensive
7. Avoid a defensive position
8. Keep oral and written critiques consistent
28. Through trial and practice a student is guided
into development of insights and formation of
habits. Which one of the four basic steps in the
teaching process does this activity represent?
This activity is the heart of the “application
step” in the teaching process.
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PLANNING AND
ORGANIZING
1. Rearrange the following training procedures
and maneuvers in the logical building-block
order of presentation that would be used for a
student pilot.
Tracking a straight line between two points
Turns, climbs, and descents
Straight-and-level flight
Normal and crosswind takeoffs and landings
Maneuvering at critically slow airspeed
Straight-and-level flight
Turns, climbs, and descents
Maneuvering at critically slow airspeed
Tracking a straight line between two points
Normal and crosswind takeoffs and landings
2. What purposes should a lesson introduction
accomplish?
1. Establish a common ground between
instructor and student
2. Capture and hold attention
3. Indicate what is to be covered and relate it
to the entire course
4. Point out specific benefits students can
expect from this lesson
5. Establish a receptive student attitude
toward the subject
3. A flight syllabus which uses previously
learned maneuvers as a basis for subsequent
maneuvers takes maximum advantage of what
kind of transfer?
Positive
4. How are the relationships between main
points usually shown when developing a
lesson?
By developing the main points from the past
to the present, from the simple to the complex,
from the known to the unknown, and from the
most frequently used to the least frequently
used
5. What three steps should be included in the
introduction to a guided discussion?
1. Attention
2. Motivation
3. Overview of key points

6. Why must objectives be stated in terms of
observable, definable, and measurable
behavior?
This simplifies evaluation. If an objective is
defined in terms which cannot be observed
and measured, no two instructors can evalu-
ate a given performance in the same way.
7. Why is it impossible to completely standard-
ize instruction?
No two people think, react, and progress in an
identical manner. Attempts to make a student
conform to an arbitrary standard may actually
retard overall progress.
8. In what two areas does a critique significantly
differ from an evaluation?
1. A critique is not a step in the grading
process, and should be considered apart
from it.
2. A critique is not necessarily negative in
content. It considers the good along with
the bad and can be as many sided and var-
ied in content as the performance.
9. What are some of the overall objectives an
instructor should strive to attain while
instructing student pilots?
Overall objectives should include teaching the
student to service an airplane properly, to
maneuver and operate it accurately within its
limitations, and to properly analyze and make
prompt decisions with respect to its safe oper-
ation.
10. Briefly explain the reasoning behind teaching
in graduated blocks of learning.
Training for any complex and involved skill,
such as piloting an aircraft, requires the devel-
opment and assembly, in the proper relation-
ship, of many segments, or blocks of learning.
In this form, a student can master the seg-
ments of the overall pilot performance require-
ments individually, and can progressively
combine these with other related segments
until their sum meets the final objective.
Effective training is much like a pyramid.
Each block of learning is an identity in itself,
but the pyramid is incomplete if any one block
is missing.
11. Describe how learning blocks of instruction
should be divided to produce lesson plans.
The blocks of learning should be divided into
the appropriate pilot operations. For private
Pilot Briefings
pilots, some blocks should include preflight
operations, airport and traffic pattern opera-
tions, and maneuvering by reference to ground
objects. Each of these blocks should be divid-
ed into the individual maneuvers and learning
experiences necessary for completion during a
training session.
12. What are the criteria for determining the use-
ful size of a block of learning?
A minimum block of learning should contain
sufficient material to provide a challenge to
the student; provide a reasonable return in
accomplishment for the training effort neces-
sary; and provide measurable objectives.
13. Explain the format and importance of a syl-
labus to a flight student. Should it ever be
altered?
The appearance of the course syllabus may
vary, but it is always in the form of a digest or
abstract of the course of training. It consists of
the blocks of learning and the most efficient
order for their completion. Since the syllabus
is a guide, it must be flexible to accommodate
variable student learning rates and any spe-
cial circumstances.
14. What extra responsibilities are placed on an
instructor when a syllabus is altered?
When departing from the order prescribed by
the syllabus, it is the responsibility of the
instructor to consider the relationships of the
blocks of learning affected. It often is prefer-
able to skip to a completely different part of
the syllabus when the conduct of a scheduled
lesson is impossible, rather than to proceed to
the next block which may be predicated com-
pletely on skills to be developed during the
lesson which is being postponed.
15. Providing ground instruction to one individ-
ual at a time has several advantages. Explain
why scheduling is an advantage of such
instruction.
In this method, a ground training lesson can
be scheduled just prior to a related training
flight.
16. Why does individual ground instruction
enhance student progress?
The instructor can concentrate on areas in
which the individual is having difficulty, thus
making more efficient use of training time.
This enables the students to progress at their
own rate and provides a more meaningful
instructor/student relationship.
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 Flight Instructor Courses Instructor’s Guide
17. What is probably the greatest benefit of the
formal classroom environment for ground
training?
Perhaps the greatest advantage of the class-
room environment is the opportunity for the
students to learn from each other.
18. One disadvantage of classroom instruction is
the requirement for enough students enrolled
to warrant starting the course. What effect
does this have on students already enrolled in
the training program?
The student already enrolled in a training pro-
gram may be held up while waiting for suffi-
cient enrollment to begin the ground training.
19. In which instructional situation is oral
quizzing most effective?
In an individual training situation the oral
quiz is especially effective because all ques-
tions are directed to one person.
20. What action should be taken by the instructor
if a student is having a problem with a certain
phase of training?
The instructor should modify the sequence of
training and develop supplemental lesson
plans, as necessary, to meet the individual
needs of each student.
21. Describe Maslow’s hierarchy of human needs.
These human needs are usually depicted in a
pyramid with increasing complexity toward
the pinnacle. They include physical, safety,
social, ego, and self-fulfillment needs.
22. How do students use defense mechanisms?
Typically, students use defense mechanisms to
alleviate feelings of failure and guilt, as well as to
protect their sense of personal worth or adequacy.
23. What are some of the typical indications of
abnormal stress?
Inappropriate laughter or singing, or extreme
overcooperation.
Teaching Effective
Decision-Making
24. Define aeronautical decision making.
Aeronautical decision making is a systematic
approach to the mental process used by air-
craft pilots to consistently determine the best
course of action in response to a given set of
circumstances.
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25. What is single-pilot resource management
(SRM) and what are its five skills?
Single-pilot resource management (SRM) is
the art and science of a pilot managing all
available resources to ensure that the success-
ful outcome of a flight is never in doubt. The
five SRM skills are pilot-in-command respon-
sibility (decision-making), communication,
workload management, resource manage-
ment, and situational awareness.
26. What percentage of all aircraft accidents are
human factors related?
75 percent.
27. Describe the main elements of effective work-
load management.
Planning, prioritizing, and sequencing tasks.
28. What is situational awareness?
Situational awareness is the accurate percep-
tion of the operational and environmental fac-
tors which affect the aircraft, pilot, and pas-
sengers during a specific period of time.
29. What are some of the characteristics that sce-
nario-based training should include in order
to effectively evaluate your students’ decision-
making abilities?
A scenario should exercise as many of the five
SRM skills as possible, and be a realistic situ-
ation that a student might actually encounter,
rather than presenting multiple operational
problems that would be unlikely to occur
together. Instead of having an easy, clear-cut
answer, an effective scenario presents a situa-
tion where various decisions are possible and
defendable. A student should be allowed to
make his or her own decisions and then imple-
ment and see the results of those decisions.
30. How can you ensure that your students con-
sider aeronautical decision making (ADM)
concepts during their training?
You should include ADM elements in your les-
son objectives and critique your students on
their application of these principles. You can
also create lessons which are specifically
designed to test whether students are applying
ADM skills.

31. What is the difference between a hazard and a
risk?
A hazard is something that might lead to an
undesired event, such as reported icing condi-
tions along your route at your flight-planned
altitude. The risk associated with a hazard
exists in the future and requires a triggering
event before it poses any danger. In this case,
the triggering event is departing on this flight
in an aircraft not certified for flight into
known icing conditions. The resulting risk is
that the aircraft could accumulate a danger-
ous level of ice, leading to a loss of control.
32. What is the PAVE checklist and how is it used?
The PAVE checklist is a method ensuring that
essential risk elements are analyzed by group-
ing them into specific classifications. The let-
ters PAVE stand for Pilot, Aircraft,
enVironment, and External pressures. A PAVE
checklist is an integral part of the risk man-
agement process. Following such a checklist
can help provide a more objective assessment
of risk.
33. What are the three steps of the risk manage-
ment process?
The risk management process has three steps:
perceive, process, and perform. You can guide
your students through the steps of the risk
management process using a PAVE checklist.
• During the Perceive stage, students should
identify the hazards associated with the
flight.
• For the Process stage, provide guidance to
help your students eliminate or mitigate the
risks associated with the hazards they have
identified.
• For the Perform stage, help your students
make decisions regarding their modified
situation.
34. Name 5 of the top 10 recommendations you
can give to your students to avoid controlled
flight into terrain (CFIT).
1. Non-instrument-rated VFR pilots don’t
attempt to fly in IMC.
2. Know and fly above minimum published
safe altitudes.
3. Always fly published IFR procedures when
radar vectors are unavailable, at night dur-
ing minimum weather conditions, or when
operating at an unfamiliar airport.
Pilot Briefings
4. Know and understand your aircraft instru-
ments.
5. Verify proper altitude, especially at night or
over water through use of a correctly set
altimeter.
6. Maintain situational awareness, both verti-
cally and horizontally, and verify all ATC
clearances. Question any clearance that
places you at risk for a CFIT accident.
7. When operating outside the United States,
be aware of language difficulties that can
result in confusing clearances.
8. When flying outside of the United States, be
aware that ATC may not use the same phrase-
ology that you might be accustomed to.
9. Use current charts and all available infor-
mation, and always have the appropriate
chart available, ready, and illuminated
(when flying at night).
10. Use appropriate checklists.
FLIGHT
INSTRUCTOR
ORAL
QUESTIONS
BRIEFING
AERODYNAMICS OF
FLIGHT
1. What are the four equal and opposing forces
that act upon an airplane in unaccelerated,
straight-and-level flight?
Lift, weight, thrust, and drag
2. What aerodynamic factor must be changed to
compensate for weight or G-loading?
Lift
3. Name four factors which influence total lift.
1. Speed
2. Angle of attack
3. Shape and area of wing surfaces
4. Air density
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 Flight Instructor Courses Instructor’s Guide
4. What power relationship determines the max-
imum rate-of-climb speed?
The airspeed at which there is the greatest dif-
ference between power required to maintain
level flight and total power available deter-
mines maximum rate-of-climb speed.
5. Generally, how are the three aircraft axes iden-
tified and what are they named?
They are identified either by their alignment
with the airplane or by the motion which
results from the airplane’s movement about
the axes.
1. The axis from wingtip to wingtip is the
lateral axis.
2. The vertical axis is a vertical line through
the intersection of the longitudinal and
lateral axes.
3. The axis which runs from the nose to the
tail of the airplane is called the longitudi-
nal axis.
6. Which aircraft movement is associated with
each of the axes?
1. Lateral axis — pitch
2. Vertical axis — yaw
3. Longitudinal axis — roll
7. Briefly explain the production of lift by an air-
foil.
Lift is generated by the interaction of an airfoil
with a moving stream of air. Circulatory flow
causes pressure differentials around the air-
foil. With a typical airfoil, such as a wing, rel-
atively low pressure is created above the
upper, cambered surface and relatively high
pressure is created below the wing (Bernoulli’s
principle). In addition to the pressure differ-
entials, a downward-backward flow, or down-
wash, is generated which results in an upward
force (Newton’s third law of motion —
action/reaction). Another factor contributing
to lift is the additional downward deflection of
air striking the lower surface of a wing. This
also creates an equal and opposite reaction.
8. Why are most wings designed so the root will
stall before the wingtip?
So the ailerons, which are located outboard on
the wing, will still maintain roll control and
stability throughout the stall.
10
9. Name two methods used by manufacturers to
cause the wing root to stall first.
1. The outer portion of the wing is given less
angle of incidence than the wing root.
2. The outer portion of the wing is given a
higher lift airfoil shape.
10. Briefly define dynamic stability.
The time required for an airplane to return to
a state of equilibrium following a displace-
ment.
11. What causes adverse yaw?
In a turn, the wing with the lowered aileron
has a greater angle of attack and, therefore,
more induced drag.
12. What have manufacturers done to minimize
adverse yaw?
Ailerons are designed to have more upward
than downward movement. This causes less
drag on the downward deflected aileron and
does not appreciably increase drag on the
upward deflected aileron.
13. How does a level turn affect the load factor of
an aircraft?
The horizontal component of lift necessary for
a turn increases as the bank angle increases.
This causes an increase in the total lift and,
therefore, the load factor.
14. What is the significance of maneuvering
speed?
Maneuvering speed is the maximum speed at
which abrupt control movement can be applied
or at which the airplane should be flown in tur-
bulence. FAR Part 23 implies that at less than
maneuvering speed, the aircraft will stall before
exceeding the design load factor limits.
15. Describe the maximum angle-of-climb air-
speed.
This speed yields the highest altitude gain for
the ground distance covered.
16. Describe the direction of movement of relative
wind.
Exactly opposite the flight path of the aircraft

17. Why does the stall speed often differ from the
airspeed indicated at the low speed end of the
white arc on the airspeed indicator?
The speed indicated by the arc is the power-off
stalling speed with landing gear and flaps
extended on a standard day with specific load-
ing. Actual stall speed varies significantly with
airplane loading, density altitude, tempera-
ture, and load factors imposed by abrupt
maneuvers. Errors are also present in the pitot-
static system when the aircraft is in a near
stalling angle of attack.
18. How does moving the CG forward or aft affect
stability?
Airplanes tend to be more stable with forward
loading and less stable as the CG moves aft.
19. What is one of the most serious effects of
ground effect on takeoff?
It is possible to lift off with insufficient power
or too great a load to permit the aircraft to
climb out of ground effect and over obstruc-
tions at the end of a field.
20. What is the advantage of a controllable pitch
propeller?
The pilot may change the pitch of the pro-
peller for more efficient use of the power avail-
able. High RPM settings may be selected for
takeoff and climb, and low RPM cruise settings
may be made as needed.
21. Why does induced drag decrease as angle of
attack decreases?
Induced drag is a by-product of lift and there-
fore increases or decreases with lift. Since a
low angle of attack produces less lift, drag also
is reduced.
22. What causes total drag to be at a minimum at
one specific airspeed?
Since induced drag decreases and parasite
drag increases with airspeed, there is a speed
at which their combined effect is at a mini-
mum.
23. Why is parasite drag greatest at high air-
speeds?
Air flow over the aircraft structure is greatest
at high speeds, and parasite drag increases as
the square of the airspeed increases. For
example, if the speed is increased to twice the
original value, parasite drag is increased to
four times the original value.
Pilot Briefings
BASIC MANEUVERS
1. What precautions should be taken when taxi-
ing a tricycle-gear airplane in strong winds?
The controls should be positioned to minimize
the possibility of an accidental upset. For
headwind components, the ailerons are posi-
tioned as for a turn into the wind and the ele-
vators remain neutral. For tailwind compo-
nents, the ailerons are positioned as for a turn
away from the wind and the elevators are posi-
tioned downward.
2. How does this taxi technique change if the air-
craft is tailwheel equipped?
The elevators must be held in the full-up posi-
tion when taxiing into the wind and in the full-
down position when taxiing downwind. All
other control displacements are identical to
those used in a tricycle-gear airplane.
3. What precautions are necessary when landing
or taxiing a light airplane behind a large air-
plane that is being run up on the ground?
If landing, the light airplane should be maneu-
vered above the area of propeller or jet blast
until well past the large airplane. If taxiing,
the pilot of the light airplane should stop and
request that the runup be discontinued until
well clear. Adequate separation from all large
aircraft should be maintained while taxiing.
4. What common student error causes the nose of
the airplane to inscribe an arc above or below
the horizon during a turn entry or recovery?
How can this error be corrected?
The most probable cause is lack of proper
coordination between the ailerons and rudder
during turn entry and recovery. Additional
practice of coordination exercises may be
required to overcome this problem.
5. What corrective action is needed if a steep
turn develops into a power-on spiral?
Power must be reduced, the wings rolled level,
and back pressure applied.
6. When the control forces are released during a
shallow bank, why does the airplane tend to
return to level flight?
The inherent static and dynamic stability
designed into the airplane tend to return the
airplane to straight-and-level flight.
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 Flight Instructor Courses Instructor’s Guide
7. Why does bank increase if aileron control
pressure is relaxed during a steep bank turn?
The inherent stability of the airplane has been
overcome by the unequal amounts of lift being
produced as a result of the turn. This over-
banking tendency is apparent in most light
airplanes at higher bank angles. At bank
angles of about 50°, a slight amount of oppo-
site aileron may be required to control the
overbanking tendency.
8. Can a steep bank, power-on spiral be corrected
by use of back pressure alone? Why?
No; the elevator pressures merely increase the
angle of attack to produce a tighter turn
radius. Little of this force can be used to raise
the nose toward the horizon until the angle of
bank is reduced.
9. Besides engine and carburetor heating, what
factors might require the use of power during
a prolonged descent?
In pressurized aircraft, additional power must
be maintained to provide air for pressuriza-
tion. In some aircraft, engine heat also is
required for windshield defrosting.
10. What variable flight conditions can affect the
stalling speed of an airplane?
Any condition which tends to interrupt or
change the airflow over the wings can change
the stalling speed. These conditions most fre-
quently include aircraft power changes, bank
angles, wing flaps, landing gear, abrupt
changes in pitch attitude, and wake turbu-
lence or wind shear.
11. What factors determine the bank angles
needed during turns around a point?
The most prominent factors are groundspeed
and the distance to be maintained from the
point.
12. Describe the proper recovery from a nose-low
turning unusual flight attitude.
The proper recovery from this unusual flight
attitude requires the following steps to be per-
formed simultaneously.
1. Reduce power
2. Level the wings
3. Increase pitch attitude to stop acceleration
and gradually return to a level flight atti-
tude
12
13. What vital responsibility frequently lapses
while the pilot is concentrating on ground ref-
erence maneuvers?
The pilot’s scan pattern for other traffic fre-
quently lapses, unless the instructor reinforces
the need for continued collision avoidance
procedures.
14. How is the scanning technique that is used
during the day modified for effective scanning
at night?
With adequate light, the pilot can see best by
looking directly at an object. At night, when
the light sensitive cones in the center of the
eye do not have adequate light, the pilot must
look slightly to one side of an object for best
vision.
15. Why might full engine power during flight at
critically slow airspeed be insufficient to pro-
duce a climb when the airplane can climb
readily at a higher airspeed? What term fre-
quently is used to describe this condition?
This phenomenon most frequently occurs at
airspeeds below the best angle-of-climb speed.
In this area of the flight envelope, sometimes
called the “backside of the power curve,” the
thrust required to overcome the drag induced
by high angles of attack may equal or exceed
the thrust available.
16. How can a pilot operating on the backside of
the power curve establish a climb?
Increase airspeed by reducing angle of attack
to decrease induced drag
17. Why is the ability to recognize an approach to
a stall important for safety of flight?
To prevent a stall from developing in a situa-
tion where the altitude available may be insuf-
ficient to execute a safe recovery.
18. Why are ground reference maneuvers prac-
ticed and what is their chief use during nor-
mal flight?
They enable the pilot to maneuver along des-
ignated ground paths while compensating for
wind drift. The procedures learned aid the
pilot in flying precise traffic patterns and con-
trolling the aircraft while attention is diverted
outside the aircraft.

19. What visual references are commonly used to
maintain proper pitch and bank attitude in
straight-and-level flight?
Normally, the position of readily identifiable
structures on the aircraft are compared to the
actual horizon. The structures used frequently
include the wingtips, windshield posts, nose
cowling, instrument panel glareshield, and
wing struts.
20. What common faults cause the student to
maintain straight flight with one wing low?
The two most frequent causes of this problem
are use of improper rudder coordination and
attempts to maintain straight flight by refer-
ence to the curved nose cowl.
21. Explain why rudder forces must be used when
entering and recovering from maneuvers
which require aileron displacement.
Whenever the wings are producing unequal
amounts of lift, as during roll maneuvers or
turn entry and recovery, the wing producing
the greater lift is also creating more induced
drag. This drag causes the nose of the airplane
to yaw away from the direction of roll. The
adverse yaw must be corrected through the
coordinated use of the rudder.
22. When practicing S-turns that are perpendicu-
lar to the wind, at what point should the bank
angle be greatest?
The steepest bank will be required just after
crossing the road, when turning from directly
downwind to upwind.
23. What technique is used to correct for wind
during turns around a point?
A constant radius is maintained around the
point by varying the bank angle to compensate
for wind drift.
SHORT-FIELD AND
SOFT-FIELD
TAKEOFFS AND
LANDINGS
1. What general procedures are used to make a
takeoff from a hard-surfaced short field with-
out obstacles?
The flaps are set to the short-field takeoff posi-
tion and all available runway is used. When
aligned with the runway, maximum power is
applied prior to brake release and the aircraft
Pilot Briefings
is accelerated with its full weight remaining on
the landing gear until liftoff speed is attained.
After liftoff, the landing gear and takeoff flaps
are retracted as the aircraft accelerates to the
best rate-of-climb speed.
2. How are these procedures modified if obsta-
cles are present in the departure path?
The takeoff flap setting should be set accord-
ing to the manufacturer’s recommendation
when obstacles are present. In addition, the
aircraft is accelerated to the best angle-of-
climb speed, which is maintained to the obsta-
cle clearance altitude. Flap retraction is nor-
mally delayed until the obstacles are cleared.
3. Describe the technique normally used to begin
the takeoff roll from a rough or soft field.
In the soft-field procedure, the aircraft weight
is transferred from the wheels to the wings as
rapidly as possible during the takeoff roll.
Liftoff is achieved at or below the normal take-
off speed of the airplane. Additional accelera-
tion to best rate-of-climb or angle-of-climb
speed, as appropriate, is accomplished while
flying just above the takeoff surface in ground
effect.
4. Why is it inadvisable to maintain the pitch
attitude used for a soft-field takeoff during the
initial climb?
The high induced drag caused by slow air-
speed and high angle of attack may be great
enough to prevent the aircraft from accelerat-
ing and climbing out of ground effect.
5. Besides runway surface conditions, what fac-
tors can greatly affect runway length require-
ments?
Weight, density, altitude, runway gradient,
and surface winds.
6. What significant advantage is achieved by
using best angle-of-climb airspeed instead of
best rate-of-climb airspeed during a takeoff
over an obstacle?
The climb angle is greater when using the
best angle-of-climb speed. In addition,
because of the lower airspeed, a headwind
will be more effective in reducing the ground
distance.
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 Flight Instructor Courses Instructor’s Guide
7. What allowances should be made for gusty
wind conditions during a short-field
approach?
The use of additional power provides more
airflow over the tail surfaces and aids in com-
pensating for the effect of gusty conditions. In
addition, a slightly higher final approach
speed can be used.
8. What techniques are used for a short-field
landing over an obstacle?
The stabilized approach may be slightly steep-
er than normal. In addition, power should be
reduced slowly to idle so the obstacle is
crossed with power off and the aircraft flying
at the recommended approach speed.
9. What effect does the use of power have on the
stabilized short-field approach?
The use of power permits more precise con-
trol of the approach path. However, care
must be exercised in the reduction of power
at slower-than-normal approach speeds,
since the stalling speed is higher with the
power off.
10. When landing at a small airport without a con-
trol tower, FSS, or UNICOM, what indicators
can be used to determine the wind direction?
Usually, a wind sock is provided. The tetra-
hedron or wind tee may indicate actual wind
direction or may be tied down to show the
preferred landing runway. In the absence of
these items, natural indicators such as
smoke, waves, or blowing dust may be used.
11. Describe a normal landing.
A normal landing is one where the airplane
touches down smoothly at approximate
stalling speed at or within 400 feet (200 feet for
commercial students) beyond a specified
point, with no appreciable drift, and with the
airplane’s longitudinal axis aligned with and
over the runway centerline.
12. How will a moderate slip affect the indicated
airspeed?
This depends on the location of the static
source. Normally, a slip toward the static
source causes a decrease in the airspeed indi-
cation, while a slip away from the static source
produces an indication of higher airspeed.
14
13. What are the basic objectives in practicing
simulated emergency landings?
They teach students the techniques for land-
ing an airplane when, where, and how they
want to land it without power. They can be
very beneficial if an emergency dictates a
landing on an unprepared surface. They also
improve accuracy, judgment, planning, tech-
nique, and confidence.
14. What improper control usage is most likely
to upset the stabilized approach over an
obstacle?
Overcontrolling in an attempt to maintain a
glide path
15. How does the soft-field landing technique
vary from the short-field procedure?
Touchdown is made in a full stall attitude with
a small amount of engine power retained. The
nosewheel is held off the surface as long as
practical and the flaps remain extended to
minimize the weight on the main landing gear.
16. What control technique should be used to
attain the fastest acceleration on a short, hard-
surfaced runway?
The aircraft attitude for minimum aerodynam-
ic drag should be used during acceleration.
Flaps should be set to manufacturer’s recom-
mendation.
17. How do the takeoff procedures for soft or
rough fields differ from those used on short,
hard-surfaced runways?
They vary mainly in the liftoff speed and the
pitch attitude used during the takeoff roll.
Some airplanes may use different flap settings
for each type of takeoff.
18. Will the procedures for a takeoff from a soft
field without obstacles vary from those used
for a soft-field takeoff with obstacles?
Yes; the initial climb is made at best angle-of-
climb speed (VX) if obstacles are present and
at best rate-of-climb speed (VY) if the depar-
ture path is clear.
19. After touchdown, what technique can be used
to shorten the landing roll?
The power should be reduced to idle, the ele-
vators held full up, and, depending on manu-
facturer’s recommendations, the wing flaps
retracted to put maximum weight on the main
landing gear while maximum braking action is
employed.

20. Is the short-field landing distance specified in
performance chart figures based on maximum
braking?
Yes, most performance chart computations are
based on maximum braking technique.
ADVANCED
MANEUVERS
1. In addition to helping your students
improve their airspeed control, wind drift
control, planning, orientation, and division
of attention, what is a practical application
of steep spirals?
In addition to being a valuable flight-training
maneuver, the steep spiral is also a practical
maneuver for dissipating altitude over a
selected spot in preparation for an emergency
landing.
2. Describe the entry procedure for a steep spiral.
The entry is made downwind. When direct-
ly opposite the ground reference point,
power is reduced to idle and the steep spiral
is initiated.
3. In general terms, describe the steep power
turn.
For the practical test, the steep power turn is a
360° turn at constant altitude, requiring a con-
stant bank angle of 45° (50° for commercial
students). Turns in either direction are includ-
ed in the PTS criteria.
4. What are the common causes of altitude varia-
tion during a steep turn?
The most common causes are failure to per-
ceive variations in pitch attitude immediately
and inability to maintain precise elevator or
stabilator control pressure.
5. What rudder control forces are required dur-
ing a steep turn to the left? How do they differ
during a steep turn to the right?
Steep turns to the left require left rudder to
enter the turn, followed by a relaxing of left
rudder or application of right rudder to com-
pensate for left-turning tendencies. In a turn
to the right, additional right rudder may be
necessary to compensate for the left-turning
tendencies.
6. What instruments are used to monitor altitude
during a steep turn?
Altimeter, vertical speed indicator, and atti-
tude indicator
Pilot Briefings
7. What benefits are derived from practice of
chandelles?
Improved planning, coordination, and aircraft
control
8. Describe the aircraft attitude changes which
occur during execution of a chandelle.
Entry is made from straight-and-level flight or
from a slight descent at the recommended
speed. The maximum bank angle is estab-
lished at the start of the maneuver and held
constant throughout the first 90° of turn, while
the pitch is increased smoothly. During the
remaining 90° of turn, the pitch attitude is
held constant, while the bank slowly decreas-
es to wings-level flight at the completion of the
maneuver.
9. What elevator pressure changes occur during
the chandelle?
Gradually increasing back pressure is required
throughout the first 90°. During the remaining
90° of turn, the pressure increases slightly as
the speed decreases.
10. What common error causes the bank angle to
decrease as the pitch attitude increases during
a chandelle?
As the nose rises, it creates an illusion of
increasing bank angle so the student has a ten-
dency to reduce the bank.
11. What results can be expected if the angle of
bank is too steep during a chandelle entry?
The maneuver will be completed with excess
airspeed and little altitude gain.
12. What affect will a strong crosswind have on
the lazy eight pattern?
None, as long as the reference point is located
upwind of the aircraft
13. At what point is the pitch attitude highest dur-
ing performance of a lazy eight?
The pitch attitude should be highest at
approximately the 45° point in each 180° turn.
14. How will the lazy eight pattern change if the
selected reference point is too close to the air-
craft?
The loops probably will be asymmetrical,
since more than 90° of turn will be completed
during the climbing portion of the maneuver.
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 Flight Instructor Courses Instructor’s Guide
15. What benefits are derived from performance of
a lazy eight?
Improved control feel because of changing
combinations of climbing or descending turns
at varying airspeeds.
16. How does aft CG loading affect airplane spin
characteristics?
An aircraft with an aft CG enters a spin more
readily than a normally loaded aircraft. An
extremely aft CG may prevent a spin recovery.
17. What procedure may be appropriate to ensure
adequate engine heating during an intentional
spin?
The carburetor heat may be applied prior to
power reduction to preheat the carburetor.
18. What reaction can be expected if full rudder is
applied before the airplane enters a full stall
during spin entry?
As the aircraft stalls, it will roll into the spin
very rapidly. Full rudder deflection prior to the
stall may cause the aircraft to roll inverted as
the spin is entered.
19. Are the characteristics of spins to the left iden-
tical to those of spins to the right? Why?
No; the effect of control rigging, rudder offset,
and torque all tend to cause variations
between spins in opposite directions.
20. Describe the general spin recovery technique.
Move the throttle to idle, make sure the flaps
are up, and neutralize the ailerons. Then
apply full opposite rudder and, after the rud-
der reaches the stop, briskly position the con-
trol wheel forward of neutral to break the
stall. As the rotation stops, neutralize the rud-
der and recover to level flight. However, this
general procedure should not be arbitrarily
applied without regard to the POH recommen-
dations.
21. Should power be used during the time the air-
plane is spinning?
No; it may tend to aggravate the spin.
22. What reaction can be expected if the rudder
and elevator control forces are relaxed during
a spin?
The maneuver may deteriorate into a diving
spiral.
16
23. Why is it important to monitor the airspeed
closely during spin recovery?
If recovery is not promptly executed, the air-
speed may build rapidly exceeding VNE.
24. What is the purpose of your students practic-
ing power-off 180° Accuracy Approaches and
Landings?
The objective is to refine judgment in estimat-
ing distances and glide ratios in order to fly
the airplane without power from an initial alti-
tude through two 90° turns to a precision land-
ing.
25. What is the hazard of accelerated maneuver
stalls and why should you teach them to your
students.
Accelerated stalls are typically more severe
than unaccelerated stalls. Because they occur
at higher-than-normal airspeeds, and lower-
than-anticipated pitch attitudes, they can sur-
prise an inexperienced pilot. Teach your stu-
dents the critical importance of acting imme-
diately to recover from an accelerated stall. If
they fail to do so, they might completely lose
control, and possibly end up in a power-on
spin.
EMERGENCY
OPERATIONS
1. What corrective action is required if the
ammeter shows a continuous discharge in
flight?
The alternator circuit breaker should be
checked and reset, if necessary. If the electri-
cal output cannot be restored, the alternator
should be turned off because the field circuit
may put an unnecessary load on the battery.
In addition, all electrical equipment which is
not essential for flight should be turned off
and the flight should be terminated as soon as
possible.
2. What common in-flight problem is indicated
by a gradual loss of r.p.m. and eventual engine
roughness? What corrective action is required
for this condition?
This phenomenon is usually the result of car-
buretor ice accumulation. When indications of
carburetor ice are present, full power should
be applied and carburetor heat pulled to the
full on position. After the ice has been elimi-
nated, carburetor heat may be turned off. If
conditions conducive to carburetor icing exist,
the minimum amount of heat necessary to pre-

vent ice from forming should be used and the
mixture should be leaned for smooth opera-
tion. The POH recommendations should be
followed.
3. What procedure should be followed to allevi-
ate fouled spark plugs?
The mixture should be leaned out to the nor-
mal cruise setting. If the engine roughness is
not corrected within a few minutes, the mix-
ture should be enriched to determine if that
will eliminate the fouling. If neither action cor-
rects the problem, a landing should be made
at the nearest suitable airport.
4. What usually is signified by a low oil pressure
indication with no significant rise in oil tem-
perature?
Either the oil pressure relief valve or the oil
pressure gauge is not operating properly.
5. What does a total loss of oil pressure and ris-
ing oil temperature indicate?
It indicates that the oil needed for lubrication
and cooling is no longer available. When these
conditions exist, engine failure is imminent.
Power should be reduced to minimum and a
suitable landing spot selected. Only minimum
power should be used to reach the landing
spot.
6. If detonation or preignition is detected, what
corrective procedures should be followed?
1. Set the mixture to full rich.
2. Reduce power.
3. When climbing, lower the nose, if possi-
ble, for higher airspeed and better engine
cooling.
4. If at altitude, lower the nose and establish a
glide for better cooling.
7. If a pilot who is not instrument rated inad-
vertently enters IFR weather, what general
technique will enhance a safe return to VFR
conditions?
The pilot should immediately note the time
and heading when entering IFR conditions.
Then, initiate a level 180° turn at the standard
rate of three degrees per second for about one
minute or until reaching the reciprocal head-
ing. From this point on, maintain straight-and-
level flight until the aircraft returns to VFR
conditions.
Pilot Briefings
8. Outline some general guidelines for using the
ELT during an emergency.
1. If communications have not been estab-
lished with a ground agency, activate the
ELT while still airborne, if possible. This
improves reception range.
2. After landing, ensure that the ELT has been
activated.
3. If feasible, remove the ELT and its antenna
to higher ground to increase its transmis-
sion range.
4. Use the sun or body heat to warm the bat-
teries and prolong their useful life.
5. If the ELT has voice capability, do not use
this feature until search-and-rescue person-
nel are in view and need directions to locate
you.
9. What steps should be taken to prevent fuel
contamination?
The pilot should assure that the fuel source is
not contaminated, the aircraft is serviced
properly with the correct type and grade of
fuel, and the sumps are drained periodically
to eliminate any contaminants, such as dirt or
water, which promote rust, scale, and micro-
organic growth.
10. Why does an encounter with wake turbulence
usually create an emergency situation for
small aircraft?
Wake turbulence presents the maximum dan-
ger in airport areas where heavily loaded air-
craft are flying slowly. Aircraft encountering
wake turbulence usually are flying slowly and
close to the ground, making recovery difficult.
In addition, the stress imposed may exceed
structural limits of the light aircraft.
11. What can be done to avoid the hazard of jet
blast?
When taxiing, stay well behind aircraft with
their jet engines under power and avoid cross-
ing behind jets unless there is sufficient dis-
tance to avoid the jet blast.
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 Flight Instructor Courses Instructor’s Guide
12. What procedure should be used for making a
precautionary landing with engine power?
1. Fly over the selected field, noting the pre-
ferred area of touchdown for the next land-
ing approach.
2. On the downwind leg, turn off all switches,
except the ignition and master switches.
3. Approach with full flaps and at the proper
approach airspeed.
4. Unlatch the cabin doors prior to the final
approach.
5. Before touchdown, turn the ignition and
master switches off.
6. Land in a slightly nose-high attitude.
13. What general procedure should be used for
making an emergency landing without engine
power?
1. Pull the mixture control to idle cutoff.
2. Turn the fuel selector valve to off.
3. Turn all switches off except the master
switch.
4. Approach at the best glide speed.
5. Extend wing flaps, as necessary, for a prop-
er approach path and airspeed.
6. Turn master switch off.
7. Unlatch the cabin doors prior to the final
approach.
8. Land in a slightly nose-high attitude.
9. Apply heavy braking.
10. Follow the checklist in the POH.
14. What are the recommended procedures for
obtaining emergency assistance?
The following are AIM recommendations:
1. Climb, if possible, for improved communi-
cations and better radar and direction find-
ing detection.
2. If transponder equipped and unable to
establish communications with ATC,
squawk code 7700 and Mode C.
3. Transmit a distress or urgency message, as
appropriate.
18
4. If ditching becomes necessary, ditch near a
surface vessel.
5. After a crash landing, remain with the air-
craft unless there is a good reason to believe
SAR will not locate the aircraft.
15. What general procedure should be used for
conducting an emergency descent?
1. Reduce the throttle to idle.
2. Roll into a bank of 30-45 degrees.
3. Set propeller to low-pitch (high r.p.m.) to
increase drag.
4. As recommended by the manufacturer,
extend the landing gear and flaps as quick-
ly as practical.
16. What procedure should be followed if the
landing gear will not retract after takeoff?
Exact procedures vary for different airplanes,
but no attempt should normally be made to
retract the gear manually and the airplane
should be landed as soon as practical.
17. Describe the landing gear emergency exten-
sion procedure.
Follow the instructions for the emergency gear
extension procedure in the pilot’s operating
handbook for the airplane being flown.
18. What is the proper procedure for landing with
a flat main landing gear tire?
Proceed to destination using fuel from the
wing over the flat tire to reduce the load. On
the landing roll, use full opposite aileron to
reduce the load on the flat tire. Follow other
procedures listed in the pilot’s operating
handbook for the airplane being flown.
19. What is the proper procedure for landing with
a flat nose gear tire?
Move passengers and cargo as far aft as the
center of gravity limitations allow. After touch-
down, hold the nosewheel off the ground as
long as possible. Lower the nosewheel gently
to the ground when speed dissipates.

GENERAL
SUBJECTS
1. During oral quizzing, what types of questions
should be avoided?
1. The puzzle — “What action do you take if a
tricycle gear airplane is turning to the right
in a crosswind?”
2. The oversize — “What do you do before you
land?”
3. The tossup — “Should the temperature be
82° or 83° at the completion of your climb?”
4. The self-test — “Do you understand that
principle?”
2. What action should be taken by an instructor if
there is a suspicion that a student does not
understand a maneuver, even though perform-
ance of the maneuver is correct?
The student should be required to vary the
performance of the maneuver slightly, com-
bine it with other operations, or apply the
same elements to the performance of other
maneuvers. A student who does not under-
stand the principles involved will probably not
be able to make these changes successfully.
3. Explain the difference between a lesson in a
training syllabus and a lesson plan prepared
by a flight instructor.
A training syllabus is in the form of an abstract
or digest for the course of training. A lesson
plan is the instructor’s plan for teaching a unit
of learning. It is the basic method for an order-
ly flow of information to a student based on
the student’s way of learning. A lesson plan
prepared by the instructor for a specific lesson
often is individualized in order to treat a spe-
cific problem of a given student.
4. When are slumps or plateaus in the rate of
learning most likely to occur?
After the student gains basic understanding
and proficiency in a given task or advances to
more complicated maneuvers
5. Why should the student practice maneuvering
at critically slow airspeed?
1. To recognize the physical cues that indicate
when the angle of attack/airspeed is
approaching the stall point
2. To teach the correct use of the flight con-
trols in critically slow flight conditions
Pilot Briefings
6. How is a forward slip normally used?
To increase descent rate without increasing
airspeed
7. Explain P-factor.
P-factor is the most pronounced of the left-
turning tendencies. When the aircraft has a
high angle of attack and high power setting,
the descending blade on the right side of the
propeller has a greater angle of attack than
the ascending blade on the left. This causes
the right blade to develop more thrust than
the left. In this situation, the thrust line is
located to the right of the longitudinal axis
and causes a left turn.
8. How does the instructor know when a student
is prepared to solo?
When the student has repeatedly demonstrat-
ed good flying technique and judgment in all
operations necessary for local area solo flight.
9. What causes ground effect?
At altitude, downwash of air on top of the
wing results from the air escaping around the
unobstructed wingtip. This reaction normally
detracts from the lift produced by a wing at
altitude. Near the ground, however, this
spillover is inhibited and allows the wing to be
more efficient and produce more lift. Ground
effect also is caused by the compression of air
between the wing and the ground to a lesser
extent.
10. What are some of the most common items
which produce student fatigue?
Tension, long flight periods, prolonged drilling
on one maneuver, uncomfortable seat and
control adjustments, rough air, excessive heat
or cold, and engine noise and vibration
11. What are the four fundamentals of flight,
and why must the student understand them
thoroughly?
The four fundamentals of flight are straight-
and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents.
A thorough knowledge is required because
all flight maneuvers are based on these fun-
damentals.
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 Flight Instructor Courses Instructor’s Guide
12. Are control pressures or control movements
more desirable?
Pressures on the controls should be empha-
sized, rather than movement or predetermined
settings. This practice provides more precise
aircraft control.
13. Why are medium turns taught prior to steep or
shallow turns?
Because medium turns are easier to perform
and are used in most flight operations.
14. What determines the radius of turn?
The angle of bank and speed of the aircraft
determine the radius of turn. Normally, as the
bank angle increases or airspeed decreases,
the turn radius decreases.
15. What are the most common errors when taxi-
ing an airplane?
Using the throttle and brakes improperly,
using excessive taxi speeds, attempting to turn
too short, and failing to use the flight controls
16. Define best rate-of-climb speed.
At maximum climb power, this speed provides
the greatest gain in altitude per unit of time.
17. Define best angle-of-climb speed.
At maximum climb power, this speed provides
the greatest altitude gain for a given distance
traveled.
18. Why should the lesson plan be discussed with
the student prior to takeoff?
This practice reduces the discussions required
during the flight and promotes relaxation
because the student knows in advance what
will be expected.
20
INSTRUMENT
FLIGHT
INSTRUCTOR
ORAL
QUESTIONS
BRIEFING
ATTITUDE
INSTRUMENT
FLYING
1. A consistent loss of altitude during steep turn
entries indicates a lack of understanding of
what basic requirement?
The necessity for changing the pitch attitude
as the vertical lift component changes in the
turn.
2. What are the three conditions that must be met
before a pilot may descend below the MDA or
DH during an instrument approach?
1. The aircraft is continuously in a position
from which a descent to a landing on the
intended runway can be made at a normal
rate of descent using normal maneuvers.
2. The flight visibility is not less than the visi-
bility prescribed in the standard instrument
approach procedure being used.
3. At least one of the visual references
required by Part 91.175 for the intended
runway is distinctly visible and identifiable
to the pilot.
3. Assume a flight at 3,500 feet will cross an
intersection in six minutes. If the pilot is
issued an IFR clearance to cross the intersec-
tion at 8,000 feet, what average rate of climb
must be used to comply with the clearance?
The pilot must climb 4,500 feet (8,000-3,500)
in 6 minutes so the required rate is 750 f.p.m.
4. When navigating to an intersection identified
by an airway and a VOR radial, why should
the OBS be set to the published VOR radial,
rather than to its inbound bearing?
If the recommended procedure is used, the
CDI will be deflected to the same side of
course as the VOR when approaching the
intersection.

5. During a constant descent maneuver, such as
an ILS approach, what control is used to cor-
rect glide path deviations?
The control wheel normally should be used to
maintain the desired rate and the throttle to
control the airspeed.
6. What is indicated if the attitude indicator
shows that the aircraft is sharply nose up, but
the airspeed is not decreasing and the altitude
is not increasing?
The attitude indicator is unreliable and other
sources must be used to obtain aircraft atti-
tude information.
7. What is the initial objective during recovery
from a nose-high unusual flight attitude?
To prevent a stall
8. Describe the proper recovery from a nose-high
turning, unusual flight attitude.
The correct recovery procedure is to simulta-
neously:
1. Apply full power to increase the airspeed.
2. Lower the aircraft’s nose to the horizon bar
on the attitude indicator to reduce the angle
of attack.
3. Level the wings.
9. If the attitude indicator is inoperative, what
instruments are used for pitch information?
The airspeed indicator, altimeter, and vertical
speed indicator are used in combination for
pitch information under emergency panel con-
ditions.
10. What is the procedure for determining the
approximate angle of bank required for a stan-
dard-rate turn?
In light, training airplanes, drop the last
numeral from the true airspeed in knots and
add five. The resulting number represents the
approximate angle of bank.
11. Outline the proper procedure for leveling off
from a climb made by instrument references.
1. Lead the desired altitude by approximately
10 percent of the vertical speed.
2. Lower the nose to the horizon bar on the
attitude indicator.
Pilot Briefings
3. Maintain climb power until the desired
cruise airspeed is obtained.
4. Reduce power to cruise, and retrim after
cruise airspeed is obtained.
12. What is the significance of the term cruise pre-
ceding an altitude assignment from ATC?
It is used in an ATC clearance to authorize a
pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from the
minimum IFR altitude up to and including the
altitude specified in the clearance. The pilot
may level off at any intermediate altitude
within this block of airspace. Climb/descent
within the block is to be made at the discretion
of the pilot. However, once the pilot starts
descent and verbally reports leaving an alti-
tude in the block, he may not return to that
altitude without additional ATC clearance.
Further, it is approval for the pilot to proceed
to and make an approach at destination air-
port and can be used in conjunction with:
1. An airport clearance limit at locations with
a standard/special instrument approach
procedure. The FAR’s require that if an
instrument letdown to an airport is neces-
sary, the pilot shall make the letdown in
accordance with a standard/special instru-
ment approach procedure for that airport,
or
2. An airport clearance limit at locations that
are within/below/outside controlled air-
space and without a standard/special
instrument approach procedure. Such a
clearance is NOT AUTHORIZATION for the
pilot to descent under IFR conditions below
the applicable minimum IFR altitude nor
does it imply that ATC is exercising control
over aircraft in uncontrolled airspace; how-
ever, it provides a means for the aircraft to
proceed to destination airport, descend,
and land in accordance with applicable
FAR’s governing VFR flight operations.
Also, this provides search and rescue pro-
tection until such time as the IFR flight plan
is closed.
13. During a timed turn to the right, the turn nee-
dle indicates the correct rate of turn, but the
ball is to the left of center. What is the appro-
priate correction procedure?
A pilot encountering these conditions should
relax the right rudder pressure and steepen
the bank to keep the rate of turn constant, but
eliminate the skid.
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 Flight Instructor Courses Instructor’s Guide
14. If a flight is cleared to a fix short of the desti-
nation airport and is not given an expect fur-
ther clearance time, when may further clear-
ance normally be expected? What action is
required if further clearance is not received?
A further clearance should be issued before
the flight reaches the fix. When such a clear-
ance is not received by the time the flight is
three minutes from the clearance limit fix, the
pilot is expected to reduce speed in order to
cross the fix at or below maximum holding
speed and enter a holding pattern.
15. Compare the sensitivity of the CDI when used
for localizer functions and for VOR navigation.
The CDI is four times as sensitive when used
in the ILS localizer function and the needle
moves four times as fast. During localizer
functions, a one-half scale deflection of the
CDI represents approximately 11/4° from the
localizer centerline. The CDI normally is cal-
ibrated to indicate a one-half scale deflec-
tion when the aircraft is five degrees from a
selected VOR radial.
16. Under what circumstances is reverse sensing
of the CDI unavoidable?
When using ILS facilities, the CDI automati-
cally senses to the inbound front course.
Therefore, if an aircraft is on a back course
approach, or is tracking outbound on a front
course, the pilot must make course correc-
tions by turning away from the CDI needle. In
some aircraft, a reverse sensing function can
be selected by the pilot to reverse the needle
indications and permit corrections toward the
needle under these conditions.
17. When operating at the MOCA, navigational
signal coverage is ensured for what distance
from a VOR?
22 n.m.
18. List the recommended techniques for trim-
ming the aircraft during instrument flight.
During the transition into a stabilized flight
condition, the aircraft should be rough
trimmed, as necessary, to relieve heavy control
pressures. After the stabilized condition is
achieved, any remaining pressures are fine
trimmed for hands-off flight. In all conditions,
the aircraft is stabilized in the desired attitude
using control pressures, then the trim is
adjusted to relieve these pressures.
22
19. How does proper trim technique result in
more precise, smoother airplane control dur-
ing attitude instrument flying?
Relieving all control pressures makes it easier
to hold a constant altitude. In addition, it
gives pilots a chance to attend to radios, navi-
gation, and other duties.
20. Explain how changes in altitude, power, or
configuration may require a trim adjustment.
Changes in altitude, power, or configuration
usually require changes in control pressures
which should be neutralized by adjustment in
trim.
21. What is the most likely cause if a student
“chases” the instrument indications and lacks
precise airplane control?
Usually the pilot does not have a definite atti-
tude and power setting in mind for the maneu-
ver being performed. Useless chasing of instru-
ment indications results.
22. How are pitch, bank, and power used to main-
tain straight-and-level unaccelerated flight?
Pitch control is used to maintain or adjust the
altitude. Bank control is used to maintain or
adjust the heading. Power control is used to
maintain or adjust the airspeed.
23. During an ILS final approach, what controls
are used to maintain the glide slope and air-
speed?
Power is normally adjusted to control airspeed
and the elevator or stabilator is used to main-
tain the glide slope by adjusting the pitch atti-
tude of the airplane. However, if the glide
slope indicator approaches full scale deflec-
tion, the pilot should respond immediately
with coordinated pitch and power adjust-
ments to reintercept the glide slope.
INSTRUMENT
CHARTS
1. What does the abbreviation MAA represent?
Why is it used on some airways?
MAA signifies maximum authorized altitude.
Above this altitude, the VOR being used may
have interference and poor reliability or a
block of special use airspace may be present.

2. How is an airport with a published instrument
approach procedure depicted on a low alti-
tude chart?
The name of the airport is printed in capital
letters on Jeppesen charts and in blue on
NACO charts.
3. Why are preferred routes used?
Preferred routes provide one-way airways
which allow an easier flow of traffic with more
positive control.
4. Discuss the parameters of Class A airspace and
the distinctive equipment requirements for
flight in this airspace.
Class A airspace begins at 18,000 feet MSL. A
standard altimeter setting of 29.92 is used and
all flights must have an IFR clearance and
maintain an assigned flight level. In addition,
aircraft operating above FL 240 must have
DME capability.
5. What are SIDs and STARs?
SIDs and STARs are standardized instrument
departure and arrival procedures. They expe-
dite the handling of instrument clearances by
providing the pilot and controller with com-
mon clearance information. Instead of issuing
an entire clearance, the controller can give the
name of the appropriate SID or STAR. In order
to accept a SID or STAR, the pilot must pos-
sess at least a textual copy of the SID or STAR.
6. Compare DH and MDA.
Decision height is used only on a precision
approach, while minimum descent altitude is
used with nonprecision approaches. The deci-
sion height is the altitude at which the pilot
must execute a missed approach if the
required visual reference is not in sight. The
MDA is the lowest altitude to which a pilot can
descend unless the required visual reference is
in sight. See FAR Part 91.175 for requirements
to descend below DH or MDA.
7. What is the meaning of the notation NoPT on
approach charts?
NoPT means no procedure turn is authorized.
Courses which are designated NoPT should be
flown directly to the approach fix, without
making a procedure turn. This expedites traf-
fic on the approach. If the pilot wishes to exe-
cute a procedure turn, a clearance must be
obtained.
Pilot Briefings
8. Discuss the initial approach fix (IAF) and final
approach fix (FAF).
The IAF is the beginning of the initial
approach segment. At this point, the aircraft
has left the enroute portion of the flight and is
maneuvering to enter an intermediate seg-
ment. The FAF marks the beginning of the
final approach segment. The nonprecision
FAF is indicated with a cross symbol. The pre-
cision FAF is located at the intersection of the
published intercept altitude with the glides-
lope/path. When ATC directs a lower altitude,
the resultant lower intercept position is then
the FAF.
9. Why should a procedure turn be executed on
the maneuvering side of the approach course,
as depicted on the approach chart?
The maneuvering side provides the obstacle
clearance necessary for a safe operation.
10. What is an area navigation (RNAV) waypoint?
A predetermined geographical position used
for route/instrument approach definition, or
progress reporting purposes, that is defined
relative to a VORTAC station or in terms of lat-
itude/longitude coordinates.
11. Why are holding patterns depicted at some
fixes on instrument charts?
Holding patterns are often designated on
charts. They are generally based on conven-
ient fixes and are designed to help control the
flow of traffic. Unless a holding clearance
specifies otherwise, the holding pattern
should be flown as depicted on the chart.
12. Discuss the use of runway visual range (RVR)
and prevailing visibility for landing mini-
mums.
RVR is an instrumentally derived value,
based on standard calibrations, that repre-
sents the horizontal distance a pilot will see
down the runway from the approach end. It
is based on the sighting of either high inten-
sity runway lights or on the visual contract
of other targets whichever yields the greater
visual range. RVR, in contrast to prevailing
or runway visibility, is based on what a pilot
in a moving aircraft should see looking
down the runway. RVR is horizontal visual
range, not slant visual range. It is based on
the measurement of a transmissometer
made near the touchdown point of the
instrument runway and is reported in hun-
23
 Flight Instructor Courses Instructor’s Guide
dreds of feet. RVR is used in lieu of RVV
and/or prevailing visibility in determining
minimums for a particular runway.
Prevailing visibility is the greatest horizon-
tal visibility equaled or exceeded through-
out at least half the horizon circle which
need not necessarily be continuous. It is
reported by a weather observer in statute
miles, hundreds of feet, or meters.
13. Why are geographical coordinates given below
the VOR facility boxes on Jeppesen high alti-
tude enroute charts?
The geographical coordinates for the VOR sta-
tions are for use with some area navigation
systems.
14. How are remote communication outlets desig-
nated on IFR enroute charts?
The name of the controlling FSS is given in
parentheses under the navaid facility box.
15. Explain the significance of minimum enroute
altitude (MEA) and minimum obstruction
clearance altitude (MOCA).
MEA gives obstruction clearance and ensures
radio reception. MOCA provides obstruction
clearance, but, at this altitude, navaids are
reliable only for 22 n.m. from the station.
16. Assume a pilot is cruising at an MEA of 7,000
and is required to report an arrival at a spe-
cific intersection. What action is indicated
by a small MRA symbol and the designation
“8,500” near that intersection?
In order to identify the intersection, the pilot
must climb to the minimum reception altitude
of 8,500 feet. A clearance must be obtained
prior to the climb.
17. Discuss the significance of a minimum cross-
ing altitude (MCA) on an enroute chart.
An MCA designates the minimum altitude for
crossing a radio fix on the way to a higher
minimum enroute altitude beyond the fix.
18. What is the standard width of an airway? Are
there any exceptions to this general rule?
An airway normally extends four n.m. on
either side of the centerline. There is an excep-
tion to this rule, however, when an airway
extends beyond 51 n.m. from an establishing
navaid. Beyond this distance, the airway’s
width is projected at angles of 4 1/2° from the
center of the VOR until the lines intersect the
diverging lines from another navaid.
24
19. Are NDB magnetic bearings and VOR radials
determined as courses to or from the station?
Magnetic bearings indicate the magnetic
courses to or from an NDB; radials refer only
to the magnetic courses from a VOR.
20. Discuss special use airspace as shown on
charts.
Special use airspace is outlined on the charts
by a particular style of border, as shown in the
chart legend. Each area is numbered and
information is given pertaining to the altitudes
affected, time of operations, and the control-
ling agency.
21. If Special VFR is not authorized at an airport,
how is this indicated on NACO and Jeppesen
charts?
Special VFR not authorized is indicated by the
notation NO SVFR.
22. Describe the three types of VOR navaid facili-
ties.
Terminal VOR (TVOR) facilities normally are
used for approaches and for navigation within
the terminal area. They should not be used
beyond 25 n.m. from the station or above
12,000 feet. Low altitude VOR (LVOR) stations
are usable 40 n.m. out and up to 18,000 feet.
High altitude VORs (HVORs) have a maxi-
mum reception distance of 100 n.m. below
18,000 feet. Above 18,000 feet the maximum
reception distance is 130 n.m. LVORs and
HVORs are part of the enroute structure.
23. How are MEAs and MOCAs determined for
uncontrolled airspace?
They must be determined by the pilot in accor-
dance with Part 91.177.
24. What symbol is used to designate a change in
the MEA or MOCA along a route?
The chart shows a , or T-bar symbol on
both sides of the intersection or fix where the
MEA or MOCA changes.

INSTRUMENT
APPROACH
PROCEDURES
1. Under what circumstances must an alternate
airport be listed on an IFR flight plan?
When the airport of intended landing has a
published approach and, for at least one hour
before and one hour after the estimated time
of arrival, the weather reports or forecasts
indicate the ceiling will be less than 2,000 feet
above the airport elevation or the visibility will
be less than three miles. When there is no pub-
lished approach, and ceiling and visibility do
not permit descent from the MEA, approach,
and landing under basic VFR.
2. What weather minimums must be present at
an airport before it can qualify as an alternate
in a flight plan?
If the airport has a nonprecision approach, the
forecast ceiling must be at least 800 feet and
the visibility at least two statute miles at the
estimated time of arrival. For airports with a
precision approach, the forecast ceiling mini-
mum is 600 feet and the visibility minimum is
two statute miles at the estimated time of
arrival. However, some airports have nonstan-
dard minimums which must be used. These
nonstandard minimums are shown on the
Jeppesen airport chart and in a separate sec-
tion of the NACO approach chart books.
3. Under what circumstances may an airport
without a published instrument approach pro-
cedure be used as an alternate?
When descent from the minimum enroute alti-
tude (MEA) to landing can be made under
basic VFR conditions.
4. How can pilots signify that they do not wish to
be issued a STAR?
They should write “NO STAR” in the remarks
section of the flight plan.
5. In terms of a DME arc transition, what is the
purpose of a lead-in radial?
Since the DME arc transition usually inter-
sects the approach course at a 90° angle, the
pilot must begin a turn to the final approach
course prior to interception. The lead-in
radial alerts the pilot to begin the turn.
Pilot Briefings
6. How does the pilot determine the missed
approach point (MAP) during a nonprecision
approach? How is it determined during a pre-
cision approach?
During a nonprecision approach, the MAP
usually is determined by measuring the
elapsed time from the final approach fix.
Other published methods, such as navigation
aids, course intersections, or DME fixes, also
may be used. For a precision approach, the
missed approach point is the DH and is locat-
ed at the MSL altitude where the glide slope
intersects the decision height.
7. What significant advantages do ASR and PAR
approaches have over other types of instru-
ment approaches?
Radar approaches can be flown effectively
after the loss of all navigation equipment.
No-gyro radar approaches also are possible
following the loss of some of the gyro instru-
ments.
8. What are feeder routes? Why are they used?
Feeder routes are designated methods of get-
ting from the enroute fix to the fix from which
the approach begins (IAF).
9. Why are the weather minimums required for
nonprecision approaches higher than those for
precision approaches?
Since nonprecision approaches do not pro-
vide glide slope information, greater separa-
tion must be provided between the aircraft
and obstructions in the approach path. In
addition, these approaches usually provide
less precise course guidance. Therefore, more
time is needed to align the aircraft with the
runway after visual contact is established.
This additional time is provided by requiring
higher weather minimums for nonprecision
approaches.
10. List the appropriate length for the inbound leg
of a holding pattern according to altitude.
At and below 14,000 feet MSL, the inbound leg
is one minute in length, unless otherwise spec-
ified. Above 14,000 feet MSL, the leg is 1 1/2
minutes long, unless otherwise specified.
11. What requirements must be met before a con-
tact approach clearance can be issued?
The contact approach must be requested by
the pilot and the visibility must be at least one
mile. The pilot assumes responsibility for
obstruction clearance during a contact
approach.
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 Flight Instructor Courses Instructor’s Guide

12. What are the requirements for flying a visual
approach?
ATC may authorize an aircraft to conduct a
“visual approach” to an airport or to follow
another aircraft when flight to and landing at
the airport can be accomplished in VFR condi-
tions. The pilot must have the airport or the
identified preceding aircraft in sight before the
clearance is issued. If the pilot has the airport
in sight but cannot see the aircraft, ATC may
still clear the aircraft for a visual approach;
however, ATC retains both separation and
wake vortex separation responsibility. When
visually following a preceding aircraft, accept-
ance of a visual approach clearance constitutes
acceptance of pilot responsibility for maintain-
ing a safe approach interval and adequate
wake turbulence separation. When approach-
ing an airport with an operating control tower,
aircraft may be authorized to conduct a “visu-
al approach” to one runway while other air-
craft are conducting IFR or VFR approaches to
another runway.
13. Under what conditions is a circling approach
used?
17. What is the relative CDI sensitivity when fly-
ing an ILS approach as opposed to a VOR
approach?
When using the localizer, full scale deflection
of the CDI occurs at approximately 2 1/2° on
each side of the centerline. When using the
VOR system, the full scale deflection is
approximately 10° on either side of the
selected course. Therefore, the ILS localizer
is four times as sensitive as the VOR.
18. Is the decision height always reached at the
middle marker on an ILS approach?
The middle marker normally is positioned at
or near the point where a pilot reaches DH
while maintaining the glide slope. However,
there are no criteria for having decision height
at the middle marker. In addition, an inopera-
tive middle marker does not increase the land-
ing minimums.
19. During an ILS approach, what aircraft control
is used to maintain airspeed? What is used to
hold the aircraft on glide slope?

When the final approach course is not
aligned within ±30° of the runway heading or
when the pilot desires to land on a runway
other than the one served by the approach
procedure.
20.
14. What are the three recommended holding pat-
tern entry procedures? What determines
which one is used for a specific entry?
The three entries are teardrop, parallel, and
direct. The procedure used is determined by
the angular difference between the enroute
heading and the inbound holding course.
In a stabilized approach, power adjustments
are normally used to control the airspeed and
pitch adjustments are used to hold the glide
slope.
When a DME arc is used to transition for an
instrument approach, is a procedure turn
authorized?
The DME arc transition permits a straight-in
instrument approach and eliminates the need
for a procedure turn. Therefore, the procedure
turn is not authorized without specific
approval from the controlling agency.

21. Describe briefly the difference between the

15. Why must the holding clearance include an
EFC time?
If two-way radio communications are lost dur-
ing holding, the pilot must be provided with a
time to leave the holding fix.
16. What are the basic ground components of a
Category I ILS installation?
According to Part 91.175, the basic ground
components include the localizer, glide slope,
outer marker, middle marker, and, when
installed for use with a Category II or III pro-
cedure, an inner marker.
26
runway alignment indicator light system
(RAIL) and the runway end identifier light sys-
tem (REIL).
RAIL consists of flashing lights on the extend-
ed runway centerline spaced 200 feet apart
outward into the approach zone. REIL consists
of two flashing lights on each side of the run-
way threshold.
22. Where is the visual descent point (VDP) locat-
ed on the final approach course of a straight-in
nonprecision approach procedure?
The VDP is a defined point on the final
approach course of a straight-in nonprecision
approach procedure from which normal
descent from the MDA to the runway touch-
down point may be commenced, provided the

approach threshold of that runway, or
approach lights, or other markings are identi-
fiable and clearly visible to the pilot. VDPs are
identified by a DME fix or a 75 MHz marker.
23. What is the difference between an LOC and an
LDA approach?
Localizers which are aligned within three
degrees of the runway centerline are identified
as an LOC. If the alignment exceeds three
degrees, they are identified as localizer-type
directional aids (LDAs).
24. What substitutions can be made for the outer
marker (OM) of an ILS?
A compass locator or precision radar may be
substituted for the outer marker. DME, VOR, or
nondirectional beacon fixes authorized in the
standard instrument approach procedure or
surveillance radar may be substituted for the
outer marker.
25. What is the meaning of the term “runway
environment”?
Runway environment is an outdated term
which refers to the required visual references
which are listed in FAR Part 91.175.
IFR EMERGENCY
PROCEDURES
1. What facilities can be used by ATC to give
instructions when communications radios are
inoperative?
ATC has the ability to transmit over most
navaids, such as VORs, localizers, and NDBs.
Therefore, if communications are lost, the pilot
should increase the volume on the navigation
receivers so these instructions can be heard.
2. When communications are lost in IFR condi-
tions and VFR conditions are encountered at a
later time, what procedure should be fol-
lowed?
The pilot must continue the flight in VFR con-
ditions and land as soon as practical.
3. If radio contact with the controlling agency is
lost while flying IFR, how should contact be
attempted?
Pilots should first attempt to use the previ-
ously assigned frequency; next, call a flight
service station; and, finally, call a control
tower.
Pilot Briefings
4. What are the three main items to check while
troubleshooting a radio failure in flight?
1. Master switch
2. Alternator output
3. Circuit breaker
5. Which instruments may be used to replace the
functions of an inoperative heading indicator?
Compass, turn coordinator, and clock
6. What instruments will provide pitch informa-
tion in the event of attitude indicator failure?
Vertical speed indicator, altimeter, and air-
speed indicator
7. When is the correct time to begin the approach
if radio communications fail while holding at
a final approach fix?
Depart the fix for an approach at the expect
further clearance (EFC) time. If an EFC was
not issued, depart the fix at the ETA.
8. Assume the student is using both navigation
radios to hold at an intersection and DME is
not available. How can the failure of one nav-
igation radio be simulated and what procedure
should be followed by the student?
Recognition of the emergency by the student
should be a part of the training. Therefore,
failure of the navigation radio should be sim-
ulated in such a way that the student must
use indications on the VOR to recognize the
failure. Upon recognition of the failure, the
student should continue holding using one
nav radio, notify ATC of the failure, and trou-
bleshoot the faulty radio.
9. Can a pilot execute a precision ILS approach
with inoperative runway centerline lights?
Yes, but the minimums will probably be
higher than they would be with operating
runway centerline lights. Check the mini-
mums data for inoperative components.
10. Assume the student is making a simulated ILS
approach in a radar environment. How can the
instructor simulate a navigation radio failure
and teach the student to transition to a radar
approach?
The instructor can simply turn off the naviga-
tion radio, tell the student it has failed, and
direct the student to request a radar approach.
27
 Flight Instructor Courses Instructor’s Guide
11. If an enroute radio communications failure
occurs, which route should be flown?
The pilot is expected to comply with the last
route assigned, or the route ATC has advised
may be expected in a further clearance. If
the pilot has been “cleared as filed” and has
not received another route clearance, the
route specified in the flight plan should be
selected.
12. The alternator circuit breaker has “tripped”
and, after waiting for it to cool, the pilot resets
it. If the circuit breaker immediately trips
again, what action should be taken?
The pilot should turn off the alternator switch
and limit the electrical load to essential items
in an effort to conserve battery energy.
13. When making an ILS approach, the runway
lights are in view at the DH. However, as the
pilot continues to descend, the lights are
obscured partially and then disappear. What is
the correct procedure?
When the runway lights are lost from view, a
missed approach must be executed.
14. What is the significance of the minimum safe
altitude (MSA) designations on approach
charts?
These are altitudes that may be used during
emergencies and will provide 1,000-foot ter-
rain clearance within a specified distance
from the navaid upon which the approach is
based.
15. What types of weather encountered while on
an IFR clearance must be reported to ATC?
Any type of weather which was not forecast or
which may affect the safety of flight.
16. What comprises total electrical failure? When
can it be simulated?
Total electrical failure means the loss of the
alternator and a dead battery. It should only
be simulated in flight.
17. What instruments become unusable if ice is
present in the pitot tube? Can this be simu-
lated in flight?
Only the airspeed indicator is affected by ice
in the pitot tube. This can be simulated by cov-
ering the face of the airspeed indicator.
18. What is the lost communications procedure
for transponder use?
Select code 7600.
28
19. What is the purpose of the two-way radio com-
munications failure procedures in FAR Part
91.185?
To preclude extended operations under lost
communications conditions since many other
aircraft may be adversely affected.
20. If a pilot holding over an LOM experiences an
ADF failure, how can the holding pattern be
continued?
The pattern can be continued by using the
localizer and outer marker.
GENERAL
SUBJECTS
1. Why should an instructor have a lesson plan
for all phases of instrument flight instruction?
A proper lesson plan provides an organized,
systematic approach to the teaching process
and material to be taught. In addition, it
assures that important procedures or concepts
are not overlooked.
2. Why is the time allocation within the lesson
plan important?
The time allocation provides a guideline for
use in presenting the material within the les-
son period. However, it is only a guideline. If
the student needs special help or practice on
some phase of the lesson, the times should be
reapportioned.
3. How can a lesson plan be revised to meet the
needs of a student who is having difficulty
with a certain phase of the lesson being
taught?
If the performance of a student indicates that
additional instruction is necessary, the
instructor should make changes in the lesson
to assure that the student receives the addi-
tional help needed.
4. How could a lesson plan be revised for a stu-
dent who shows an exceptionally rapid grasp
of the material presented?
The lesson plan should be developed so the
student will continue to be motivated and not
become either bored or overconfident.
Methods of providing this motivation in lesson
planning include covering additional material
in each lesson and requiring a higher level of
proficiency for operations and maneuvers that
are taught.

5. How can student performance be evaluated on
each lesson?
By formulating completion standards which
are based on the objectives of the lesson
6. What method of evaluation should the instruc-
tor use following the completion of a flight les-
son?
The instructor should use constructive com-
ments which will motivate the student to suc-
cessfully complete the course and to excel as
an instrument pilot.
7. What techniques of evaluation would be most
helpful to a student who is having difficulty
with the course?
This type of student must be motivated to
counteract a “can’t learn” attitude. During the
lesson evaluation, the student should be
encouraged by emphasis on successful per-
formance and areas of progress.
8. What techniques of evaluation can be used to
maintain motivation in an exceptionally good
student?
Usually, the most effective method is to use a
greater amount of grading material and higher
proficiency standards in the evaluation.
9. What standards should be used when evaluat-
ing student competency for an instrument rat-
ing practical test recommendation?
The Instrument Rating Practical Test
Standards should be used for each flight oper-
ation and maneuver.
10. Outline the material to be covered during the
preflight briefing for a flight lesson introduc-
ing ILS and localizer approaches.
A typical preflight briefing should include a
review of the academic material previously
studied. The ILS and localizer approaches
portion of the lesson might be broken down
into the general areas of ILS components, ILS
minimums, and equipment usage. In addition,
the student should be advised of the necessity
for flying a stabilized approach using power to
control airspeed and pitch attitude to control
descent rate.
Pilot Briefings
11. Prepare a proper logbook entry for a private
pilot test recommendation.
I certify that (First name, MI, last name) has
received the required training of 61.107 and
61.109. I have determined that he/she is pre-
pared for (name the practical test).
S/S [date] J.J. Jones 987654321CFI Exp. 12-31-
12. What should be contained in a logbook entry
for a completed instrument proficiency check?
I certify that (First name, MI, last name), pilot
certificate # (certification number), has satis-
factorily completed an instrument proficiency
check of 61.57d in a (list make and model of
aircraft) on (date).
S/S [date] J.J. Jones 987654321CFI Exp. 12-31-
NOTE: A logbook entry for unsatisfactory per-
formance is not required.
13. Outline basic responsibilities of instrument
flight instructors regarding their students.
The instrument flight instructor is responsible
for providing correct instruction, setting a
good example, and using the instrument
instructor privileges properly.
14. What level of performance must be demon-
strated before a recommendation for an instru-
ment rating is issued?
The standards of performance, as described in
the Instrument Rating Practical Test
Standards.
15. Explain the functions of the basic components
for the ILS.
The localizer provides precise course guid-
ance when within approximately 2.5° on
either side of the runway centerline. The glide
slope provides precise elevation guidance
when within approximately .7° above or below
a preset glide angle to the touchdown point.
Glide slope approach angles normally are
inclined between 2.5° and 3° above the hori-
zontal. The marker beacons normally provide
distance information.
29
 Flight Instructor Courses Instructor’s Guide
16. Discuss the elements of a postflight discussion
and evaluation of student performance.
The postflight discussion should cover all
phases of the flight lesson, and the evaluation
should include a critique of the student’s per-
formance in each area.
17. How does the use of the preflight briefing and
postflight critique enhance the learning
process?
The instruction periods before and after the
flight enable the instructor and student to dis-
cuss the events to take place during the flight,
then to recap the progress and performance of
the student after the flight is completed. In this
manner, the student is exposed to the lesson
material, is given the opportunity to practice
the procedures, and, finally, learning is rein-
forced by the postflight critique.
18. What can be done in preflight and postflight
instruction periods to stimulate and motivate
better student performance?
These periods can be used by the instructor to
pinpoint any problems and to compliment
and praise good student performance.
19. What prebriefing preparation by the instructor
can make the preflight and postflight instruc-
tion periods most effective?
The instructor should make the periods
meaningful to the student by being well pre-
pared, holding the instruction period in the
proper place, and using the proper tools,
such as visual aids, to support the material
covered.
20. What facilities should be readily available
during the preflight and postflight instruction
sessions?
Preflight and postflight instruction should be
accomplished in a classroom environment.
Appropriate charts, FARs, blackboards, and
visual aids should be available.
30
MULTI-ENGINE
FLIGHT
INSTRUCTOR
ORAL
QUESTIONS
BRIEFING
ANALYSIS OF
MANEUVERS
1. What airspeed should be used for liftoff and
climb when performing a short-field takeoff?
Why?
The liftoff should be initiated at an airspeed
no less than VMC + 5 knots, VSSE, or the rec-
ommended speed, whichever is greater. This
procedure is used because an engine failure
below VMC at a high power setting and angle
of attack will result in an immediate loss of
control.
2. What power setting is recommended during
the execution of steep turns?
Usually between 55 and 65 percent
3. Explain the procedure for setting up and exe-
cuting stalls in the gear down and full flaps, as
well as gear up and flaps up, configurations.
These stalls should simulate the actual condi-
tions during which these stalls might occur.
Specifically, the stall is entered by establishing
normal approach airspeed with the landing
gear and flaps extended. Once the speed and
configuration are established, the pitch atti-
tude is increased in straight or turning flight,
until the first physical indication of a stall is
encountered. To perform a stall in the gear up
and flaps up configuration (clean configura-
tion), the airplane is slowed to takeoff speed
while in level flight. When the speed is estab-
lished, the power is increased and the pitch
attitude is increased until stall indications are
encountered. This maneuver also may be per-
formed in straight or turning flight.
4. Explain the procedure for maneuvering during
slow flight.
Slow flight is established by reducing the power
to a setting which will not sustain level flight in
the clean configuration As the airplane begins
to decelerate, the pitch attitude is increased
slowly to maintain altitude. Stabilize the air-
speed at VS1 ± 5 knots by increasing the power
to stop the deceleration. Once slow flight air-

speed is established, the landing gear and/or
flaps may be extended to practice flight in var-
ious configurations.
5. In addition to a propeller synchronizer, what
is another effective method of synchronizing
the propeller r.p.m.?
Since the tachometers are not accurate
enough to allow complete synchronization,
pilots must train their ears to detect unsyn-
chronized conditions and correct them. The
easiest method is to adjust the r.p.m. as
closely as possible using the tachometers,
then select one propeller control to make the
final adjustment. The control lever is moved
slowly toward the decreased r.p.m. position;
if the pulsation becomes faster, the control
lever should be moved in the opposite direc-
tion until the pulsating sound stops.
6. After takeoff, what is the minimum altitude
that must be attained before the power is
reduced to climb thrust? Why?
The height selected should provide sufficient
altitude to return for a landing in the event of
an engine failure after the power reduction.
7. List the following airspeeds and the corre-
sponding airspeed indicator color codes,
where applicable.
1. Stalling speed with gear down, flaps down
2. Stalling speed with gear down, flaps up
3. Best angle-of-climb airspeed
4. Best rate-of-climb airspeed
5. Enroute climb airspeed
6. Normal approach speed
7. Maximum flap extension speed
8. Maximum landing gear operating speed
9. Maximum landing gear extended speed
10. Design maneuvering speed
11. Maximum structural cruising speed
12. Never-exceed speed
Pilot Briefings
13. Minimum safe single-engine speed
14. Best single-engine rate-of-climb airspeed
15. Minimum single-engine control speed
16. Maximum full flap extended speed
8. How does weight affect the stalling speed of
the aircraft?
As the weight increases, the stalling speed
increases because a greater amount of weight
must be supported by the airfoil. The
increased lift required causes the stalling
angle of attack to occur at a higher airspeed.
9. What gear/flap configurations and conditions
are used to determine a published single-
engine minimum control speed?
VMC is determined with the landing gear
retracted and the flaps at the normal takeoff
setting. Additionally, the operative engine is
producing maximum takeoff power and the
propeller of the inoperative engine is either
windmilling or feathered if the engine is
equipped with an automatic feathering device.
VMC must be determined with the most unfa-
vorable weight and center of gravity position.
A bank of up to 5° into the good engine also is
permitted.
10. What is the proper recovery method if the
pilot inadvertently allows the aircraft to decel-
erate below the minimum control speed dur-
ing single-engine operations?
The power on the operative engine must be
reduced immediately and the pitch attitude
decreased until the airplane accelerates to a
safe single-engine airspeed.
11. Explain the correct procedure for performing a
short-field landing over an obstacle.
The short-field landing is performed from a
normal traffic pattern using a stabilized
approach. If wind conditions permit, full flaps
should be used for the last segment of the
approach. The landing is planned so the air-
plane maintains a uniform descent through-
out the approach, crossing the obstacle at a
minimum altitude.
31
 Flight Instructor Courses Instructor’s Guide
12. Assume the left engine is shut down, the pro-
peller feathered, and the airplane trimmed for
hands-off flight. What control problems may
occur during landing if the trim setting is not
changed?
In this situation, a large amount of right rud-
der trim is used to counteract asymmetric
thrust. Therefore, if a trim change is not made
prior to landing, the loss of asymmetric thrust
just before touchdown will result in excessive
right rudder trim and the airplane will yaw to
the right. For this reason, it is advisable to
return the rudder trim to neutral during the
approach and correct for yaw using the rudder
pedal.
13. Explain the correct procedure for drag cleanup
during the recovery from a gear down and
flaps down imminent stall.
Full flaps usually produce more drag than the
landing gear. Therefore, the flaps normally
should be reduced to the maximum lift setting,
followed by an immediate retraction of the
landing gear. However, this may vary between
models so consult the POH.
14. If a student experiences difficulty in establish-
ing and maintaining a stabilized landing
approach, what technique can be used to cor-
rect the problem?
This error is effectively corrected by having the
student practice the transition to stabilized
approaches at altitude in the practice area.
During practice, the student should learn the
power settings and pitch attitudes which pro-
vide the desired airspeed and rate of descent.
Once the student is thoroughly familiar with
the approach technique, practice of actual
landing approaches can resume.
15. What student problem is indicated by the con-
sistent use of a climb speed in excess of the
best rate of climb immediately after takeoff?
How can this error be corrected?
This error probably is caused because the stu-
dent is not aware of the correct pitch attitude
for the initial climb. The pitch attitude estab-
lished is too shallow, allowing the airplane to
accelerate above the best rate-of-climb air-
speed. One method of correcting this error is
for the instructor to demonstrate a climb at the
best rate while the student notes the correct
pitch attitude. Following the demonstration,
the student should practice the transition to
climbs at the best rate of climb until familiar
with the correct attitude.
32
MULTI-ENGINE
PERFORMANCE
AND
AERODYNAMICS
Performance and weight and balance questions in
this Pilot Briefing are to be answered using the per-
formance charts and graphs for the training aircraft.
1. Determine the total takeoff distance required
to clear a 50-foot obstacle under the listed con-
ditions.
Temperature . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .24°C
Airport elevation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .2,700 ft.
Altimeter setting . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .29.78
Weight . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .Maximum takeoff
Surface wind . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .Calm
2. What is the accelerate-stop distance if an
engine failure occurs at the takeoff decision
speed under the listed conditions?
Temperature . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .18°C
Pressure altitude . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .5,000 ft.
Weight . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .Maximum takeoff
Headwind . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .5 kts.
3. Determine the total weight and center of grav-
ity location using the following data.
Pilot and front passenger . . . . . . . . . .365 lbs.
Third and fourth seat passengers . . .220 lbs.
Fuel—main tanks . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .Full
Oil . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .Full
Baggage* . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .165 lbs.
*Assume that the forward baggage compart-
ment is loaded to its capacity first, followed by
loadings in the next forward compartments,
etc.
4. Which engine on a conventional twin-engine
airplane has the greatest effect on left-turning
tendencies during a two-engine climb?
Explain why this occurs.
The right engine has the greatest effect on left-
turning tendencies. This occurs because the
descending blades of the right engine’s pro-
peller are farther from the fuselage than those
of the left engine, causing the right engine to
produce a greater turning moment to the left.

5. When planning a takeoff in a twin-engine air-
plane, what performance factors will aid the
pilot in determining the correct action to take
if an engine fails?
The pilot should always determine the normal
takeoff distance and the two-engine rate of
climb. To aid in decision making in the event
of an engine failure, the pilot also should cal-
culate the accelerate-stop distance, single-
engine rate of climb, and the single-engine
service ceiling. If this information is known,
the pilot can quickly decide whether to reject
or continue a takeoff and climb after an engine
failure.
6. Explain why the use of differential power on a
conventional twin causes the airplane to turn
toward the engine producing the least power.
Since the wing-mounted engines on a conven-
tional twin are located at some distance from
the airplane’s vertical axis, the application of
power provides a turning moment around this
point. If both engines are producing equal
thrust, the forces cancel each other. However,
when one engine is producing more thrust
than the other, the airplane will turn toward
the engine producing the lesser amount. The
magnitude of the turning moment is depend-
ent on the thrust differential between the two
engines.
7. Assume that a 500 f.p.m. descent rate is
desired from cruise altitude to the traffic pat-
tern altitude. How many miles are required for
the descent, using the listed conditions?
Cruise altitude . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .13,500 ft.
Traffic pattern altitude . . . . . . . . . . .1,250 ft.
Descent groundspeed . . . . . . . . . . . . .195 kts.
The airplane must descend 12,250 feet (13,500
– 1,250 = 12,250), which, at a descent rate of
500 f.p.m. requires 24.5 minutes (12,250 ÷
500). By using a flight computer, it is deter-
mined that approximately 80 nautical miles
are covered in 24.5 minutes at a groundspeed
of 195 knots.
8. Why should a pilot add an extra margin of
safety to the performance values determined
from charts or graphs?
The performance values determined by actual
flight testing usually are acquired using a new
airplane in good operating condition and
average pilot technique. Therefore, the loss of
performance due to age, improper power set-
tings, or less than average piloting techniques
can result in performance less than that pre-
dicted by the graphs or charts.
Pilot Briefings
9. Why does lower-than-standard atmospheric
pressure result in a loss of performance for
nonturbocharged engines?
Lower-than-standard atmospheric pressure
decreases nonturbocharged engine perform-
ance because the air is less dense, decreasing
the weight of the fuel-air mixture. This
decrease in weight of the charge entering the
cylinders results in less energy being released
by combustion.
10. What is the most likely cause of a manifold
pressure overboost when operating tur-
bocharged engines with automatic wastegates?
How can an overboost be prevented?
Excessive manifold pressures are most fre-
quently encountered if the throttles are
advanced rapidly when the engine oil temper-
atures are low. When the oil is cold, the waste-
gate operation is “sluggish,” which prevents it
from opening rapidly enough to maintain
manifold pressures within the normal limits.
This condition can be prevented by allowing
adequate engine warm-up time prior to takeoff
and by advancing the power smoothly, allow-
ing the wastegate to operate normally.
11. In a turbocharged engine with the wastegate
fully closed, what effect does an engine r.p.m.
change have on the manifold pressure?
When the wastegate is closed, any operating
condition which changes the turbocharger
speed also changes the manifold pressure in
the same direction. An increase in engine
r.p.m. results in an increase in manifold pres-
sure and an r.p.m. decrease results in a mani-
fold pressure decrease. These reactions are
reversed in a normally aspirated engine.
12. Define induced and parasite drag. In what gen-
eral airplane ranges does each type of drag
predominate?
Induced drag is that portion of the total drag
which is created by the production of lift. This
type of drag is most significant in the low
speed ranges of flight. Parasite drag is any
drag not associated with the production of lift.
It is created by the airplane surfaces as they
retard the airflow passing over them. This type
of drag is greatest in the high speed range of
flight.
33
 Flight Instructor Courses Instructor’s Guide
13. Explain why the use of the alternate induction
air system on a fuel injected engine results in
a small loss of engine power.
The use of alternate air results in higher
induction air temperatures. These higher tem-
peratures decrease the air density which, in
turn, causes the fuel-air mixture to become too
rich. Most of the engine efficiency can be
regained by readjusting the mixture to obtain
the correct fuel-air ratio.
14. Generally, what airplane component or com-
ponents limit the landing gear extension
speed?
The landing gear extension speed usually is
limited by the structural strength of the land-
ing gear doors. Additionally, if the gear
extends against the slipstream, the landing
gear motor, hydraulic pump, or extension
mechanism can also limit the extension speed.
15. Define multi-engine service ceiling and
explain how this differs from the single-engine
service ceiling.
The multi-engine service ceiling is the density
altitude at which the two-engine best rate-of-
climb airspeed produces a 100 f.p.m. rate of
climb when the airplane is at maximum take-
off weight in the clean configuration. The sin-
gle-engine service ceiling is the density alti-
tude at which the engine-out best rate-of-climb
airspeed will produce a 50 f.p.m. rate of climb
at maximum takeoff weight in the clean con-
figuration.
ENGINE-OUT
PERFORMANCE
AND
AERODYNAMICS
1. Assume an engine has been shut down and its
propeller feathered. If the cylinder head tem-
perature on the operating engine is approach-
ing the red line, what procedures can the pilot
use to alleviate this condition?
Cowl flaps should be opened, the mixture
enriched, and, if possible, the power reduced.
If altitude is not a critical factor, a shallow
descent may be used to increase the airspeed,
which allows greater airflow through the
engine cowling.
2. If all oil pressure is lost on one engine, what
probable events are likely to follow?
If the pilot takes no action, an engine failure
will result from the lack of oil pressure.
34
Additionally, when the oil stops flowing to the
propeller governor, the propeller will move
toward the feather position.
3. If the left engine fails on a conventional twin,
which rudder must be applied to counteract yaw?
The airplane always yaws toward the in-oper-
ative engine. Therefore, right rudder must be
used to correct the yaw toward the left engine.
The memory aid of “idle foot, idle engine”
describes the rudder use.
4. In a conventional twin, why does a five-degree
bank toward the operative engine decrease the
amount of rudder deflection required to coun-
teract yaw?
Less rudder deflection is needed when banked
five degrees toward the operative engine
because the relative wind due to the resulting
slip applies added pressure to aid the rudder
and vertical stabilizer.
5. Explain why the actual VMC speed of a non-
turbocharged conventional twin-engine air-
plane decreases as altitude increases.
The actual VMC at any given time is depend-
ent upon the amount of asymmetric thrust
that must be counteracted by the flight con-
trols. As altitude increases, the amount of
power available from a nonturbocharged
engine decreases, resulting in less asymmetric
thrust after an engine failure.
6. Which engine on a conventional twin-engine
airplane is considered to be the critical
engine? Why?
The loss of the left engine is most critical to
airplane control and performance, because
the effective thrust line of the right engine is
much farther from the fuselage centerline than
that of the left engine. Therefore, with the left
engine inoperative, greater asymmetric thrust
is encountered requiring greater aileron and
rudder deflection to counteract yaw.
7. Define accelerate-stop distance and explain
why it is an important performance considera-
tion.
The accelerate-stop distance is the distance
required to accelerate an airplane to the take-
off decision speed and, assuming an engine
failure at that speed, bring the airplane to a
full stop. This performance consideration
assumes full power is applied prior to brake
release and maximum braking is applied at
the time of engine failure. The calculation of
this distance is important during preflight

planning, because it aids the pilot in deter-
mining the options if an engine failure occurs
during takeoff.
8. How would a CG location which is aft of lim-
its affect single-engine operation of a conven-
tional twin?
A center of gravity location aft of the rear limit
would increase the actual VMC. This occurs
because the aerodynamic forces from the rud-
der act around the airplane’s vertical axis,
which extends through the actual CG location.
As the CG moves aft, the rudder moment arm
is shortened, causing a reduction in rudder
effectiveness. Since published VMC is deter-
mined by the available rudder force when the
CG is at its aft limit, any additional rearward
movement would further reduce available rud-
der force and increase the actual VMC.
9. Is it a good operating practice to conduct
engine-out operations below the published
VMC if the pilot knows the aircraft is signifi-
cantly below maximum weight while operat-
ing at high density altitudes?
Although the actual VMC is probably less than
the published VMC, the pilot has no way of
knowing how much less it is. Therefore, it is an
unsafe operating practice to conduct routine
twin-engine flight or any engine-out opera-
tions below published VMC.
10. What multi-engine airplanes are required to
have a positive single-engine climb rate at
5,000 feet?
FAR Part 23 requires a positive engine-out
climb rate at 5,000 feet only for those multi-
engine airplanes having a maximum weight
greater than 6,000 pounds and/or a stalling
speed (VSO) greater than 61 knots.
11. What is the significance of a blue line on the
airspeed indicator of some multi-engine air-
planes?
The blue line on the airspeed indicator repre-
sents the airspeed for the engine-out best rate
of climb.
Pilot Briefings
12. Explain the meaning of single-engine service
ceiling and single-engine absolute ceiling.
The single-engine service ceiling is the maxi-
mum density altitude at which the single-
engine best rate-of-climb airspeed produces a
50 f.p.m. rate of climb. This ceiling is deter-
mined with the airplane at maximum takeoff
weight in the clean configuration, the critical
engine inoperative, and the propeller feathered.
The single-engine absolute ceiling is the max-
imum density altitude the airplane is capable
of attaining or maintaining. This ceiling is
determined with the airplane at maximum
takeoff weight in the clean configuration, the
critical engine inoperative, and the propeller
feathered.
13. Explain how the best single-engine rate-of-
climb and best single-engine angle-of-climb
airspeeds change with an increase in altitude.
The best rate-of-climb airspeed decreases as
altitude increases, while the best angle-of-
climb airspeed increases with altitude.
These two airspeeds converge and become
identical at the airplane’s single-engine
absolute ceiling.
14. If an engine failure occurs immediately after
takeoff, which is more valuable—airspeed in
excess of the single-engine best rate-of-climb
speed or additional altitude? Why?
Altitude is more valuable than excess air-
speed. The high drag encountered with an
engine failure prevents the efficient conver-
sion of excess airspeed to altitude. A climb at
the best rate-of-climb airspeed results in the
greatest altitude gain in the least amount of
time, placing the airplane at a safe engine-out
maneuvering altitude as quickly as possible.
15. Explain why the climb performance of a twin-
engine airplane is decreased more than 50 per-
cent with one engine inoperative.
The total loss of performance when one engine
fails is approximately 70 to 80 percent for
most twin-engine airplanes. The greatest
amount of performance loss results from a 50
percent reduction in available horsepower.
The additional 20 to 30 percent results from
asymmetrical thrust and drag and the control
deflections necessary to maintain control of
the airplane.
35
 Flight Instructor Courses Instructor’s Guide
MULTI-ENGINE
EMERGENCY
PROCEDURES
1. Explain the techniques used to induce simu-
lated engine failure during the takeoff roll. At
what airspeed should this emergency be simu-
lated?
Simulated engine failure during the takeoff
roll can be initiated by retarding the throttle.
The instructor should be ready to retard the
throttle of the operating engine in the event
the student does not respond to the emer-
gency. This emergency should be simulated
below VMC and at an airspeed which allows
the airplane to be stopped safely on the
remaining runway.
2. What is the safest method of simulating an
engine failure during the initial climb, when
the landing gear is up or in transit?
The safest method for simulating an engine
failure during this phase is to retard the
throttle. This technique leaves the throttled
engine available for immediate use if an actu-
al emergency occurs.
3. What methods can be used to simulate engine
failure during cruise?
Engine failure during cruise can be simulated
by retarding the throttle or mixture control, or
by turning off the fuel. At safe altitudes, the
use of the fuel selector is effective because the
mixture and throttle settings remain
unchanged, providing no clue concerning
which engine has failed.
4. Assume a conventional twin-engine airplane
is trimmed for flight with the right engine
inoperative. What control problems may be
encountered if power is applied rapidly on the
right engine, and how can this reaction be pre-
vented?
The airplane will immediately yaw to the left.
This occurs because left rudder trim is no
longer needed to counteract the unequal
thrust and is actually inducing a turning
force in the opposite direction. To preclude
this problem, power should be applied more
slowly and the rudder should be retrimmed
either before or during the power application.
36
5. Although engine fires cannot be authentically
simulated in flight, the student must learn the
techniques used to meet this emergency. What
are the items requiring immediate attention if
an engine fire occurs?
The first step is to shut off the fire’s source of
fuel, if possible. Therefore, the boost pump
and fuel selector should be turned off and the
mixture control placed in idle cutoff. Then,
the propeller should be feathered and the
engine secured. The next step is to land as
rapidly as practical, and evacuate the air-
plane, even if the fire has been extinguished.
6. How should an instructor introduce emer-
gency situations such as electrical fires, flap
malfunctions, and landing gear malfunctions?
For emergency situations which cannot be
simulated without damaging the airplane, the
instructor should describe the symptoms and
have the student respond by following the
appropriate emergency procedure.
7. What types of emergency situations require an
emergency descent?
An emergency descent may be required in the
following situations.
1. Uncontrollable engine, cabin, or electrical
fires
2. Loss of pressurization in a pressurized air-
plane
3. Imminent failure of windows or doors on
pressurized airplanes
8. Explain why an applicant for a multi-engine
rating should be discouraged from attempting
single-engine go-arounds.
Single-engine go-arounds should be discour-
aged because a considerable altitude loss
occurs from the time the go-around is initiated
until the flaps and landing gear are retracted
and a positive rate of climb is established.
Additionally, if the airplane is loaded heavily or
the density altitude is high, sufficient power
may not be available to stop the descent rate.
For this reason, the applicant must learn to exe-
cute well-planned single-engine approaches to
prevent the need for a go-around.
9. What methods should be used to identify the
inoperative engine on a conventional twin-
engine airplane?
The inoperative engine should be identified by
airplane yaw toward the inoperative engine

and from the r.p.m., fuel flow, and EGT
gauges. On turbocharged airplanes, low mani-
fold pressure may be indicative of a failed
engine. As a final verification, the throttle of
the suspected inoperative engine should be
retarded to note any performance and sound
level changes.
10. Explain the procedure for isolating the source
of an electrical fire.
Electrical power is isolated from all compo-
nents by turning off the alternator and battery
switches. Next, all electrical switches are
turned off and all circuit breakers checked, in
an attempt to identify the faulty circuit. If the
circuit cannot be identified, the alternator and
battery switches are turned on, followed by
each electrical component until the faulty cir-
cuit can be identified and isolated.
11. Under what flight conditions should engine-
out airwork be practiced with the inoperative
engine shut down and the propeller feathered?
Practice with the inoperative engine shut
down and the propeller feathered should take
place at an altitude and location that facili-
tates a normal engine-out approach and land-
ing at an established airport in the event diffi-
culty is encountered with the engine restart.
12. If smoke enters the cabin due to fire, what pre-
cautions should the pilot be aware of concern-
ing opening the door or window to expel the
smoke? What is the preferred method of smoke
evacuation?
When either the window or door is opened, a
draft is created through the cabin area which
may intensify the fire. It is preferable to open
the fresh air vents and cabin air controls.
GENERAL
SUBJECTS
1. List the factors which cause the greatest per-
formance loss after an engine failure.
Power loss, windmilling propeller, and
induced drag increase from control surface
deflection.
2. What should a student learn from an engine
inoperative a VMC demonstration in a conven-
tional twin?
The student should learn the importance of
maintaining an airspeed well above VMC. The
student also should learn the flight character-
istics of the airplane when VMC is approached
with one engine inoperative.
Pilot Briefings
3. Why should an engine failure during takeoff
be simulated at an airspeed less than VMC?
An engine failure 20 knots below VMC is as
instructionally effective as an engine failure at
VMC. For reasons related to the safety of flight,
this is the recommended procedure.
4. Why are single-engine rejected landings prac-
ticed only at a safe altitude?
Most light twin-engine airplanes have marginal
single-engine climb performance. A single-
engine rejected landing may not be possible.
5. What criteria should be used to evaluate an
applicant’s preparedness for a multi-engine
practical test?
Applicants must be able to perform all nor-
mal, emergency, and engine-out procedures
accurately. They must have a thorough, work-
ing knowledge of the airplane and its systems
and the successful outcome of each maneuver
or procedure must never be in question. In all
respects, they must be the pilot in command of
the airplane and meet the performance stan-
dards outline in the PTS.
6. Explain the objective of demonstrating the
effects of various airplane configurations on
engine-out performance.
Through this demonstration, the student
learns what airplane configurations have the
greatest effect on single-engine performance.
Additionally, it demonstrates that maximum
performance is available only in the clean
configuration and that the extension of the
landing gear or flaps, or a wind-milling pro-
peller may result in a loss of altitude.
7. Explain why the engine starter must be used
during an in-flight engine restart, if the pro-
peller has been feathered.
It is necessary to create oil pressure from the
propeller governor to move the propeller
blades out of the feathered position into low
pitch. The starter should be disengaged as the
propeller begins to windmill.
8. What liftoff airspeed is recommended by the
FAA for a maximum performance takeoff?
The FAA recommends the use of VMC +5
knots, VX, VSSE, or the recommended airspeed,
whichever is greater.
37
 Flight Instructor Courses Instructor’s Guide
9. If an engine failure occurs above the airplane’s
single-engine absolute ceiling, what airspeed
provides the slowest rate of descent?
If the airplane cannot maintain altitude with
an inoperative engine, the engine-out best
rate-of-climb airspeed provides the slowest
rate of descent.
10. Explain why takeoff and initial climb are the
two most critical phases of flight in regard to
an engine failure.
During takeoff and initial climb, the airplane is
at its maximum weight for the flight. Its single-
engine service ceiling and rate of climb are the
lowest at that time. Its altitude is low at the
same time the performance is at its minimum.
11. Why is the throttle of the suspected inopera-
tive engine reduced to idle as the first step in
the feathering sequence?
This procedure provides a confirmation of the
inoperative engine. If no change in sound
level, performance, or asymmetric thrust
occurs when the throttle is retarded, the
malfunctioning engine has been identified
correctly. If an improper selection was
made, the pilot can advance the throttle to
restore all available power.
12. Explain why the left engine is considered to be
the critical engine in terms of engine failure.
More effective thrust is produced by the
descending propeller blades on the right side
of each engine (P-factor). This causes the right
engine to produce a greater turning moment
about the vertical axis than the left engine.
38
13. What atmospheric conditions might prevent
performance of an engine inoperative a VMC
demonstration?
During high density altitude conditions,
actual VMC may be below the stalling speed
of a nonturbocharged airplane. Under these
conditions, a stall will occur before the air-
plane reaches VMC. Additionally, a stall
could occur simultaneously with VMC, result-
ing in a sudden loss of control.
14. Describe the correct method for performing
stalls in the gear down and full flaps configu-
ration.
As with all stalls, the stall should simulate the
conditions during which this stall might occur.
Prior to entry, the airplane should be placed in
the normal approach configuration and air-
speed. After the configuration and airspeed
are established, the pitch attitude is increased
in straight or turning flight at a uniform rate
until the first indication of the stall is received.
15. Why is it important to teach a student to cal-
culate such single-engine performance data as
accelerate-stop distance, single-engine takeoff
distance, single-engine rate of climb, and sin-
gle-engine service ceiling during preparations
for a flight in a multi-engine airplane?
It is important for pilots to know these per-
formance values so they may make the correct
decision if an engine fails during or immedi-
ately after takeoff.