DEPARTMENT OF HUMAN STRUCTURAL BIOLOGY 16.

Destruction of these cells will lead to low glucose level;

GROSS & MICROSCOPIC HUMAN STRUCTURAL BIOLOGY A. Beta cells C. Delta cell
B. Alpha cell D. G cell
MULTIPLE CHOICE: CHOOSE THE LETTER OF THE BEST (Wheater’s Functional Histology, 4th Ed., page 325)
ANSWER.
17. Histologic features of appendix include:
1.Immunocyte of lymphocytes found in the germinal center of the A. Presence of taenia coli
lymphoid follicles is: B. Presence of intestinal villi
A. T cell C. NK cell C. Few and short crypts of Lieberkuhn
B. Null cell D. B cell D. Absence of submucosa
(Wheater’s Functional histology, 4th Ed., page 210) (Wheater’s Functional Histology, 4th Ed., page 271)

2. What phase of the cell cycle does the cell replicates DNA? 18. Adenohypophysis produced the following hormones, EXCEPT:
A.GI Phase C. Interphase A. ACTH C. Prolactine
B. S phase D. M phase B. FSH D. Oxytocin
(Wheater’s Functional Histology,4th Ed., page 33) (Wheater’s Functional Histology, 4th Ed., page 311, 313)

3. Bone resorption by osteoclastic activity is: 19. Mucus secreting columnar cells is characteristic of:
A. TSH C. Calcitonin A. Cervix C. Vagina
B. PTH D. ACTH B. Uterus D. Oviduct
(Wheater’s Functional Histology, 4th Ed., page 181) (Wheater’s Functional Histology, 4th Ed., page 357

4. Respiratory epithelium is seen in the following structures, 20. The cells that participate in the tubuloglomerular feedback
EXCEPT: mechanism:
A. Trachea C. Terminal bronchiole A. Podocytes C. Lacis cells
B. Secondary bronchus D. Larynx B. Endothelial cells D. Macula densa
(Wheater’s Functional Histology, 4th Ed., page 230) (Wheater’s Functional Histology, 4th Ed., page 303)

5. Endometrium of uterus is lined by: 21. This condition results to reduction of the total surface area
A. Simple squamous C. Simple cuboidal available for gas exchange in which many of the alveoli beyond the
B. Simple ciliated columnar D. Stratified columnar terminal bronchioles coalesce:
(Bloom and Fawcett’s Concise Histology, 2nd Ed., page 289) A. Bronchitis C. Emphysema
B. Tuberculosis D. Pneumonia
6. Which of the following organs contain reticular fibers? (Bloom and Fawcett’s Concise Histology, 2nd Ed., page 234)
A. Stomach C. Pancreas
B. Appendix D. Lymph node 22. Benign prostatic hypertrophy will show an increase in the number
(Bloom and Fawcett’s Concise Histology, 2nd Ed., page 72) of:
A. Glandular acini and fibromuscular stroma
7. Elastic connective tissue is seen in: C. Prostatic vasculature
A. Walls of blood vessels B. Corpora arenacea
B. Lamina propria of intestines D. Fibrous capsule
C. Wharton’s jelly of umbilical cord (Wheater’s Functional Histology, 4th Ed., page 280)
D. Subcutaneous tissue of skin
(Wheater’s Functional Histology, 4th Ed., page 72) 23. Hirshsprung’s disease is characterized by complete absence of:
A. Parasympathetic Auerbach’s plexus
8. Destruction of these cells will lead to loss of intrinsic factor in the B. Sympathetic Auerbach’s plexus
gastric mucosa. C. Muscularis externa
A. Oxyntic cells C. G cells D. Muscularis interna
B. Mucus cells D. Zymogenic cells (Langman’s Medical Embryology, 9th Ed., page 316)
(Wheater’s Functional Histology, 4th Ed., page 255)
24. A 50 year old female develops post surgical tetany after
9. Apocrine sweat glands are distributed at: thyroidectomy. This is directly caused by:
A. Face C. Palm A. Transection of recurrent laryngeal nerve
B. Trunk D. Axilla B. Complete removal of thyroid & parathyroid glands
(Wheater’s Functional Histology, 4th Ed., page 164) C. Hyperthyroid state prior to surgery
D. Hypothyroid state prior to surgery
10. Lymphoid organ important for removal of particulate matters in (Wheater’s Functional Histology, 4th Ed., page 261)
circulation:
A. Spleen C. Lymph nodes 25. Marked leukocytosis with regenerative shifts to the left means:
B. Palatine tonsils D. Thymus A. Absolute lymphocytosis
(Wheater’s Functional Histology, 4th Ed., page 216) B. Increase leukocytosis with neutropenia
C. Absolute neutrophilic with stabosis
11. Which of the following conducting airways of the lungs is D. Neutrophilia with predominantly hypersegmented forms
characterized by a predominantly thick muscularis layer? (Bloom and Fawcett’s Concise Histology, 2nd Ed., page 46)
A. Primary bronchus C. Lobar bronchus
B. Bronchiole D. Segmental bronchus 26. In acute inflammation of the appendix which WBC is expected to
(Wheater’s Functional Histology, 4th Ed., page 229) rise significantly in the peripheral blood:
A. Eosinophil C. Lymphocyte
12. Foreign bodies in the CNS are engulfed by: B. Neutrophil D. Basophil
A. Microglia C. Astrocytes (Bloom and Fawcett’s Concise Histology, 2nd Ed., page 48)
B. Ependymal cells D. Granule cells
(Bloom and Fawcett’s Concise Histology, 2nd Ed., page 130) 27. A diabetic insipidus patient manifests excessive thirst and polyuria
because of deficiency of:
13. Protective barrier of the skin against UV radiation is: A. Renin C. Aldosterone
A. Langerhans cell C. Melanocyte B. Oxytocin D. Vasopressin
B. Merkel cell D. Keratinocyte (Wheater’s Functional Histology, 4th Ed., page 257)
(Bloom and Fawcett’s Concise Histology, 2nd Ed., page 166)
28. Which of the following is associated with cryptorchidism?
14. Part of the uterus that relaxes during time of parturition: A. Direct inguinal hernia C. Varicocoele
A. Fundus C. Body B. Hydrocoele D. Precocious puberty
B. Cervix D. Isthmus (Langman’s Medical Embryology, 9th Ed., 359)
(Bloom and Fawcett’s Concise Histology, 2nd Ed., page 289)
29. Vasectomy will prevent the passage of sperm from this site:
15. Which of the following statements regarding stomach is correct? A. Ejaculatory duct C. Epididymis
A. Mucosa is thrown into valve of Kerkring B. Duct of seminal Vesicle D. Prostatic urethra
B. Anatomic sphincter is found at the pyloric portion (Wheater’s Functional Histology, 4th Ed., page 336)
C. Cells produce urogastrone
D. Mucosa is disrupted by submucosa 30. Overproduction of this hormone results in cushing syndrome:
(Bloom and Fawcett’s Concise Histology, 2nd Ed., page 190) A. Cortisol C. Androgen
B. Aldosterone D. Epinephrine
 (Bloom and Fawcett’s Concise Histology, 2nd Ed., page 264) B. Inferior colliculus D. Cochlear nerve
(Basic Clinical Neuroanatomy by Paul Young, 1st Ed., p170)
31. Which of the following controls visceral activity and the chief
effector of the limbic system? 47. Left homonymous hemianopsia results from injury to:
A. Fornix C. Hypothalamus A. Optic nerve C. Optic tract
B. Thalamus D. Hippocampal formation B. Optic chiasM D. Photoreceptors
(Basic Clinical Neuroanatomy by Paul Young, 1st Ed., (Basic Clinical Neuroanatomy by Paul Young, 1st Ed., p160)
page 209)
48. Brown-Sequard syndrome at T10 segment results to:
32. The only cranial nerve that is crossed dorsally from the A. Weakness of the contralateral leg
brainstem: B. Impaired pain on ipsilateral leg
A. Optic C. Trochlear C. Impaired position sense on contralateral leg
B. Oculomotor D. Facial D. Impaired vibration sense on ipsilateral leg
(Basic Clinical Neuroanatomy by Paul Young, 1st Ed., page 49) (Basic Clinical Neuroanatomy by Paul Young, 1st Ed., p141, 273)

33. Rhomboid fossa is formed by the floor of: 49. Lesion of the decending brainstem pathway characterized by
A. Lateral ventricles C. 3rd ventricle flexed arms and hyperextended legs:
B. 4th ventricle D. Cerebral aqueduct A. Flaccidity C. Decerebrate rigidity
(Duane Haines Neuroanatomy, 6th Ed., page 34) B. Decorticate rigidity D. Spasticity
(Basic Clinical Neuroanatomy by Paul Young, 1st Ed., page 77)
34. The denticulate ligaments are toothlike processes arising from:
A. Pia C. Arachnoid 50. A focal lesion that affects the posterior limb of internal capsule can
B. Dura D. Ependyma result from cerebrovascular accident of:
(Basic Clinical Neuroanatomy by Paul Young, 1st Ed., page 17) A. Anterior cerebral artery
B. Anteior communicating artery
35. The corticospinal tract crosses the midline at the level of: C. Middle cerebral artery
A. Pons C. Midbrain D. Posterior cerebral artery
B. Spinal cord D. Medulla (Basic Clinical Neuroanatomy by Paul Young, 1st Ed., p247)
Basic Clinical Neuroanatomy by Paul Young, 1st Ed., page 61, 65)
51. The obturator internus passes through the:
36. The frontal lobe performs the following function: A. greater sciatic foramen C. obturator foramen
A. Coordinate motor activity C. Control of motor speech B. lesser sciatic foramen D. obturator canal
B. Control reflex activity D. Understanding speech ( Clinical Anatomy for Medical Students by Richard Snell, 6th ed., p 90)
(Basic Clinical Neuroanatomy by Paul Young, 1st Ed., page 193)
52. In the female, which of the following is found in the deep perineal
37. Blockage of CSF drainage in the ventricles leads to: pouch?
A. Stroke C. Myelocoele A. greater vestibular gland C. crus of clitoris
B. Hydrocephalus D. Encephalocoele B. vestibular bulb D. sphincter urethrae
(Basic Clinical Neuroanatomy by Paul Young, 1st Ed., page 257) (Clinical Anatomy for Medical Students by Richard Snell, 6th ed., 371)

38. The dorsal column of the spinal cord carries the pathway of the 53. The lateral wall of the pelvis is covered by:
following sensibilities, EXCEPT: A. Pubococcygeus C. Obturator internus
A. Vibration C. Stereognosis B. Puborectalis D. Piriformis
B. Position sense D. Crude touch (Clinically Oriented Anatomy by keith Moore & Arthur Dalley, 4th ed.,
(Basic Clinical Neuroanatomy by Paul Young, 1st Ed., page 132) page 343)

39. A CSF pressure of 300mm H2O is significant of: 54. One of the complications of hysterectomy is accidental transection
A. Normal pressure C. Increased ICP of the ureter. This may occur because the ureter:
B. Low pressure D. Hydrocephalus A. forms the posterior boundary of the ovarian fossa
(Basic Clinical Neuroanatomy by Paul Young, 1st Ed., page 257) B. crosses the bifurcation of the common iliac artery
C. is crosses by the uterine artery
40. The spinal meninges is differentiated from cerebral meninges by D. enters the bladder wall obliquely
absence of: ( Clinically Oriented Anatomy by Keith Moore & Arthur Dalley, 4th ed.,
A. Arachnoid villi C. Epidural space page 351)
B. Pial specializations D. Subarachnoid cisterns
(Duane Haines Neuroanatomy by Paul young, 1st Ed., p 46) 55. A 14 y.o. boy was riding his bicycle when he stood up on the
pedals and then his left foot accidentally slipped from the pedal. His
41. Lesion of the facial nerve results to: perineum hit the bar of the bicycle. A few hours later he had a perineal
A. Inability to open the eye swelling and was unable to micturate. Diagnosis: ruptured urethra.
B. Impaired tearing Which of the following is correct?
C. impaired parotid gland secretion A. part of urethra commonly involved is the prostatic urethra
D. Weakness of lower facial muscles B. extravasated urine is the cause of swelling in the
(Basic Clinical Neuroanatomy by Paul Young, 1st Ed., page 52) superficial perineal pouch
C. urine cannot possibly enter the anterior abdominal wall
42. A sudden onset of right sided weakness associated with D. urine can extend posteriorly to the ischiorectal fossa
headache and vomiting in a 40 year old hypertensive suggests: (Clinically Oriented Anatomy by Keith Moore & Arthur Dalley, 4th ed.,
A. Intracranial hemorrhage C. Bacterial meningitis page 396)
B. Meningioma D. Hydrocephalus
(Basic Clinical Neuroanatomy by Paul Young, 1st Ed., p241) 56. A 30 y.o. woman was found to have unstable right knee joint
following a car accident. On examination it was possible to pull the
43. Patient manifests past pointing intention tremor and he lists to tibia excessively forward on the femur. Diagnosis: ruptured anterior
the right on standing. The probable location of the lesion involved is: cruciate ligament (ACL). Which of the following statements about ACL
A. Cerebral cortex C. Cerebellum is not correct?
B.Brainstem D. Spinal cord A. more commonly torn than posterior cruciate ligament
(Basic Clinical Neuroanatomy by Paul Young, 1st Ed., p107-108) B. passes upward, backward and laterally from the tibia
C. attached to the lateral surface of the medial femoral
44. Ptosis and mydriasis are manifestations of injury to: condyle
A. Sympathetic nerve C. Abducens nerve D. attached to the tibia in the anterior part of the
B. Oculomotor nerve D. Facial nerve intercondylar area
(Basic Clinical Neuroanatomy by Paul Young, 1st Ed., p49) (Clinically Oriented Anatomy by Keith Moore & Arthur Dalley, 4th ed.,
page 620)
45. In performing a light reflex on a patient, only the left eye
constricts (both direct and consensual reflexes are positive on the 57. During a fight a man was stabbed in the thigh which transected the
Left eye). What nerve is injured in this case? femoral nerve just below the inguinal ligament. Which of the following
A. Right optic C. Left optic signs and symptoms will the patient have?
B. Right oculomotor D. Left oculomotor A. intact knee-jerk reflex
(Basic Clinical Neuroanatomy by Paul Young, 1st Ed., p161) B. skin sensation is lost over the anterior and medial thigh
C. skin sensation is lost along the medial border of the big
46. Impaired hearing sense on the right may be due to a lesion in: toe
A. Trapezoid body C. Medial geniculate body D. patient cannot flex the knee joint
(Clinically Oriented Anatomy by Keith Moore & Arthur Dalley, 4th ed., D. inferior boundary is clavicle
page 529 & 563) (Clinical Anatomy for Medical Students by Richard Snell, 6th ed., page
645)
58. A 47 y.o. man was riding his motorcycle when a jaywalker
suddenly crossed his path. His sudden brake and turn caused him 69. The part of the larynx located between the vestibular and vocal
to lose control and he subsequently fell hitting the pavement with folds is the:
his head and shoulder. On examination his upper limb hung limply A. rima glottidis C. laryngeal vestibule
on the side, medially rotated and forearm pronated. Diagnosis: Erb- B. laryngeal ventricle D. infraglottis
Duchenne (Clinically Oriented Anatomy by Keith Moore & Arthur Dalley,
Palsy. Which statement is true regarding Erb-Duchenne Palsy? 4th ed., page1043)
A. involves upper brachial plexus
B. caused by excessive abduction of the arm 70. Damage to the facial nerve at the stylomastoid foramen would
C. there is no paralysis of the arm muscles affect:
D. skin sensation of the whole arm is intact A. facial expression C. salivation
(Clinically Oriented Anatomy by Keith Moore & Arthur Dalley, 4th ed., B. taste on anterior 2/3 of tongue D. lacrimation
page 716) (Clinically Oriented Anatomy by Keith Moore & Arthur Dalley, 4th ed., p
1098)
59. A data encoder complained of “pins and needles” sensation over
the right palm. She also complained that she has difficulty buttoning 71. After a car accident the driver was noted to have fluid (apparently
up her clothes. On examination, she pointed to her right thumb, CSF) escape from the nose. The most likely cause is fracture of the
index, middle and ring fingers as the areas where she felt ______ bone.
discomfort. Diagnosis: Carpal Tunnel Syndrome. The following are A. frontal C. nasal
true about the median nerve , except: B. ethmoid D. lacrimal
A. thenar muscles are supplied by the median nerve (Clinical Anatomy for Medical Students by Richard Snell 6th ed., p 745)
B. enters the palm through the carpal tunnel
C. occupies a large space between the tendons behind 72. The superior orbital fissure transmits all of the following, EXCEPT:
the flexor retinaculum A. superior ophthalmic vein C. optic nerve
D. roots derived only from the lateral cord of the brachial B. oculomotor nerve D. abducens nerve
plexus (Clinical Anatomy for Medical Students by Richard Snell 6th ed., p 713)
(Clinically Oriented Anatomy by Keith Moore & Arthur Dalley, 4th ed.,
page 774) 73. The lacrimal gland:
A. receives sensory fibers from the optic nerve:
60. The dorsal scapular nerve innervates: B. secretes directly to the lacrimal sac
A. rhomboid major C. splenius capitis C. located deep to the lateral portion of the upper eyelid
B. trapezius D. supraspinatus D. receives postganglionic parasympathetic fibers from the
(Clinically Oriented Anatomy by Keith Moore & Arthur Dalley, 4th ed., ciliary ganglion
page 708) (Clinical Anatomy for Medical Students by Richard Snell 6th ed., p 711)

61. Which muscle inserts to the lesser tubercle of the humerus? 74. If both lingual nerves are severed at the foramen ovale, there will
A. pectoralis major C. subscapularis be:
B. supraspinatus D. teres minor A. loss of taste from anterior 2/3 of tongue
(Clinically Oriented Anatomy by Keith Moore & Arthur Dalley, 4th ed., B. loss of control of tongue muscles
page 691) C. loss of general sensation from anterior 2/3 of tongue
D. loss of speech
62. In movement of the arm, the coracobrachialis assists in: (Clinical Anatomy for Medical Students by Richard Snell 6th ed., p684)
A. lateral rotation C. extension
B. adduction D. supination 75. A patient with a lesion of the optic chiasm will most likely
(Clinically Oriented Anatomy by Keith Moore & Arthur Dalley, 4th ed., experience:
page 722) A. homonymous hemianopsia C. bilateral anopsia
B. unilateral anopsia D. bitemporal hemianopsia
63. Inability to extend the forearm would indicate a lesion of: (Clinically Oriented Anatomy by Keith Moore & Arthur Dalley,
A. ulnar nerve C. median nerve 4th ed., page 1092)
B. musculocutaneous nerve D. radial nerve
(Clinically Oriented Anatomy by Keith Moore & Arthur Dalley, 4th ed., 76. The costodiaphragmatic recess extends inferiorly to the level of rib
page 731) ____ at the midclavicular line, and rib ____ at the midaxillary line
A. 6, 8 C. 10, 12
64. Lesions of the median nerve in the hand is indicated by: B. 8, 10 D. 6, 10
A. loss of ability to abduct the digits (Clinically Oriented Anatomy by Keith Moore & Arthur Dalley, 4th ed., p
B. clawhand 98)
C. loss of opposability of the thumb
D. Dupytren’s contracture 77. In the heart the papillary muscles are attached to the
(Clinically Oriented Anatomy by Keith Moore & Arthur Dalley, 4th ed., Atrioventricular cusps via the:
page 776) A. dentate ligaments C. moderator band
B. chordae tendinae D. trabeculae carnae
65. The lateral boundary of the cubital fossa: (Clinically Oriented Anatomy by Keith Moore & Arthur Dalley, 4th ed.,
A. brachiordialis C. palmaris longus page 127)
B. pronator teres D. interepicondylar line
(Clinically Oriented Anatomy by Keith Moore & Arthur Dalley, 4th ed., 78. The small intestine derives its blood supply from the:
page 731) A. splenic artery C. inferior mesenteric artery
B. left gastric artery D. superior mesenteric artery
66. The glossopharyngeal nerve exits the skull through the: (Clinically Oriented Anatomy by Keith Moore & Arthur Dalley,
A. foramen ovale C. foramen rotundum 4th ed., page 241 & 244)
B. jugular foramen D. internal acoustic meatus
(Clinically Oriented Anatomy by Keith Moore & Arthur Dalley, 79. The posterior boundary of the epiploic foramen of Winslow is
4th ed., page1104) formed by:
A. portal vein C. caudate lobe of the liver
67. In a tracheostomy performed inferior to the thyroid isthmus, B. duodenum D. inferior vena cava
which vessel or nerve could not be injured: (Clinically Oriented Anatomy by Keith Moore & Arthur Dalley, 4th ed.,
A. external branch of superior laryngeal nerve page 217)
B. thyroidea ima artery
C. inferior thyroid vein 80. The cystic artery usually originates from the _____ artery.
D. jugular arch A. right hepatic C. common hepatic
(Clinically Oriented Anatomy by Keith Moore & Arthur Dalley, B. left hepatic D. proper hepatic
4th ed., page 1049) (Clinical Anatomy for Medical Students by Richard Snell, 6th ed., p229)

68. The muscular triangle of the neck: 81. If the portal vein is obstructed, blood from the jejunum could return
A. is bounded superolaterally by the anterior belly of to the heart through the:
digastric A. hepatic vein C. splenic vein
B. contains the thyroid gland B. esophageal vein C. inferior mesenteric vein
C. contains the carotid triangle (Clinically Oriented Anatomy by Keith Moore & Arthur Dalley,
 4th ed., page 277 & 278) D. the left renal vein crosses in front of the aorta and
receives the left testicular vein
82. The gall bladder: (Clinically Oriented Anatomy by Keith Moore & Arthur Dalley, 4th ed.,
A. is located on the visceral surface of the liver between page 285)
the
caudate and quadrate lobes. 92. Anatomic narrowing of the ureter where renal calculi may be
B. fundus lies against the anterior abdominal wall at the arrested:
level A. before the ureter enters the bladder
of the 9th costal cartilage B. at the renal pelvis
C. always receives blood supply from the superior C. at the level of the pelvic brim
mesenteric artery D. at the level of the iliac crest
D. lies in the lesser sac (Clinically Oriented Anatomy by Keith Moore & Arthur Dalley, 4th ed.,
(Clinically Oriented Anatomy by Keith Moore & Arthur Dalley, 4th ed., page 280)
page 274)
93. Most common type of intussuception:
83. A 60 y.o. man complains of recurring epigastric pain. A gastric A. ileocolic C. ileoileal
consult revealed gastric ulcer. This type of ulcer is frequently B. colocolic D. jejunoileal
located in the pyloric part of the stomach, and consequently: (Clinical Anatomy for Medical Students by Richard Snell, 6th ed., page
A. pain impulses from the stomach are carried by 267)
visceral afferent fibers that accompany
parasympathetic nerves. 94. Volvulus may be seen in which segment of the GIT?
B. vagotomy is not used in the treatment of gastric ulcers. A. ileum C. descending colon
C. posterior gastric ulcer may erode through the stomach B. ascending colon D. jejunum
wall into the pancreas. (Clinically Oriented Anatomy by Keith Moore & Arthur Dalley, 4th ed.,
D. it is easy to differentiate between gastric and page 255)
duodenal ulcers by location of the pain.
(Clinically Oriented Anatomy by Keith Moore & Arthur Dalley, 4th ed., 95. The anterior rectus sheath:
page 234) A. is formed by the aponeurosis of internal oblique and
transverses abdominis.
84. If the gastroduodenal artery were occluded, the duodenum and B. is formed by the aponeurosis of external and internal
pancreas would be provided with blood by the ______ artery. oblique abdominis.
A. superior mesenteric C. common hepatic C. includes scarpa’s fascia.
B. inferior mesenteric D. proper hepatic D. Ends at the semilunar fold of Douglas.
(Clinically Oriented Anatomy by Keith Moore & Arthur Dalley, 4th ed., (Clinically Oriented Anatomy by Keith Moore & Arthur Dalley, 4th ed.,
page 241) page 184)

85. Placing your finger in the epiploic foramen of Winslow, the
Central and dorsal structures immediately palpated are:
A. duodenum and quadrate lobe of the liver
B. portal vein and inferior vena cava
C. hepatoduodenal ligament and caudate lobe of the
liver
D. gastroduodenal artery and common bile duct
(Clinically Oriented Anatomy by Keith Moore & Arthur Dalley, 4th ed.,
page 217)
86. The second part of the duodenum:
A. is located anterior to the superior mesenteric artery
B. lies within the peritoneal cavity
C. is the transverse segment
D. contains the greater duodenal papilla
(Clinically Oriented Anatomy by Keith Moore & Arthur Dalley, 4th ed.,
page 237)
87. The cardiac vein which does not drain into the coronary sinus:
A. great cardiac vein C. posterior cardiac vein
B. oblique vein D. anterior cardiac vein
(Clinically Oriented Anatomy by Keith Moore & Arthur Dalley,
4th ed., page 136 & 137)
88. The septomarginal trabecula is seen in which chamber of the
heart?
A. Left atrium C. Left ventricle
B. Right atrium D. Right ventricle
(Clinical Oriented Anatomy by Keith Moore & Arthur Dalley, 4th ed.,
page 127)
89. The azygos vein ultimately collects posterior intercostals venous
drainage:
A. from the right side of the thorax only
B. before it empties into the inferior vena cava
C. from nearly the entire thorax
D. before it empties into the brachiocephalic vein
(Clinically Oriented Anatomy by Keith Moore & Arthur Dalley, 4th ed.,
page 155)
96. Hesselbach’s triangle is a potential weak area of the abdomen
where direct inguinal hernia may occur. Which of the following is not a
boundary of Hesselbach’s triangle?
A. semilunar fold of Douglas C. inguinal ligament
B. rectus abdominis D. inferior epigastric vessels
(Clinically Oriented Anatomy by Keith Moore & Arthur Dalley, 4th ed.,
page 206)
97. Liver biopsy is a common diagnostic procedure. To avoid hitting
the lungs, the needle is inserted into the:
A. 9th intercostals space, right midaxillary line
B. 9th intercostals space, right scapular line
C. 6th intercoastal space, right midclavicular line
D. 5th intercostals space, left midclavicular line
(Clinically Oriented Anatomy by Keith Moore & Arthur Dalley, 4th ed.,
page 98)
98. Which of the following is a site of esophageal narrowing which may
possibly offer resistance to insertion of a nasogastric tube?
A. level of the thyroid gland
B. when the arch of the aorta crosses in front of the
esophagus
C. just before entering the esophageal opening of the
diaphragm
D. level of C7
(Clinically Oriented Anatomy by Keith Moore & Arthur Dalley, 4th ed.,
page 152)
99. Meckel’s diverticulum is a congenital anomaly of the:
A. stomach C. jejunum
B. duodenum D. ileum
(Clinically Oriented Anatomy by Keith Moore & Arthur Dalley, 4th ed.,
page 248)
100. Cancer of the head of the pancreas often causes:
A. physiologic jaundice C. hemorrhagic jaundice
B. obstructive jaundice D. pathologic jaundice
(Clinically Oriented Anatomy by Keith Moore & Arthur Dalley, 4th ed.,
page 262)

90. Regarding the bifurcation of the trachea:

A. it is usually at about the level of T6
B. its position is affected by respiratory movements
C. the left bronchus is larger than the right
D. foreign bodies usually find their way into the left
bronchus
(Clinical Anatomy for Medical Students by Richard Snell, 6th ed.,
page 82-83)

91. Which of the following is not true?

A. the left suprarenal gland is triangular in shape
B. the inferior mesenteric vein ascends behind the
duodenal flexure
C. the tail of the pancreas crosses the left kidney