MOCK BOARD EXAMINATION

LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION SET “A”

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INSTRUCTIONS: Select the correct answer in each of the following
questions. Mark only one answer on each item by putting a circle
corresponding to the letter of your choice.

1. This term are now used primarily to denote a body of people

organized to maintain civil order and public safety, to enforce
the law, and to investigate breaches of the law.
A. agent in authority B. police
C. agent of peace D. law enforcers

2. In England, it can give instructions to a chief constable

where it relate to purely administrative matters and cannot
interfere in police operations and policy, nor can it give
directions concerning particular enforcement measures or
incidents.
A. enforcer’s authority B. government authority
C. police authority D. state authority

3. Scholars have identified three primary police agency

functions in the US, and the police are usually called-on to
"handle" these situations with discretion, as follows, EXCEPT:
A. order maintenance
B. law enforcement
C. calls for service
D. miscellaneous activity

4. The dual system of municipal police and rural police in

Japan was abolished and the two forces were integrated into a
central police force under the name of __________, which
literally means Prefectural Police.
A. Keiheryo B. Todo Fukeu Keisatru
C. Naimushu D. Gonin Gumi

5. With regard police ranks in Thailand, it is the equivalent

rank of Policeman or Constables of other Western police, and the
local police systems.
A. Phon Tamruat B. Junsa
C. Rakan Cop D. Police Officer I

6. The Royal Hong Kong Police Force (RHKPF) is the

largest disciplined service under the __________ of Hong Kong.
A. Public Defense Bureau B. Public Safety Bureau
C. Safety Bureau D. Security Bureau
7. In Singapore, the basic training for all officers was
conducted at the __________, under the purview of the Police
Training Command. It takes about six months and nine months to
train a new police officer and senior police officer
respectively.
A. Police Team Academy B. National Academy
C. Home Team Academy D. Team Academy

8. The Indonesian Republic National Police or __________, is

the official police force for Indonesia, and it had formerly been
a part of the Tentara Nasional Indonesia.
A. Kepolisan Negara Indonesia
B. Indonesia Kepolisan Negara
C. Republik Negara Indonesia
D. Negara Kepolisan Indonesia

9. In Malaysia, it is a community outreach program launched in

August 9, 2005, and it is apart from the two (2) departments
involved in the administration, vis-a-vis Management Department
and Logistics Department.
A. Rakan Cop B. Koan Linkai
C. Koban Police D. Neighborhood Watch

10. Because citizens have such a great influence on the goals of

policing activities within the community, the goals of different
police agencies vary. Traditionally, there are five basic goals,
as follows: enforcing laws, preserving the peace, preventing
crimes, protecting rights and liberties, and __________.
A. providing other services
B. providing miscellaneous service
C. providing social services
D. providing community-oriented policing

11. It may be defined as the function of management concerned

with promoting and enhancing the development of work
effectiveness and advancement of the rank and file of the police
organization.
A. management B. personnel management
C. leadership D. police administration

12. This principle requires that every employee should be under

the direct supervision of but one manager. Thus, each employee
should be accountable directly to only one manager in normal
operations.
A. unity of command B. scalar chain
C. chain of command D. esprit de corps
13. It is a part of the management process, and this refers to
the act of overseeing people or in police organization it is the
process of overseeing subordinates and line officers.
A. leadership B. all of these
C. management D. supervision

10. This principle was initially adopted from psychologists

refers to the number of person one individual can supervise
effectively.
A. unity of command B. span of control
C. division of work D. span of attention

15. It is the ability of an individual to influence, motivate,

and enable others to contribute toward the effectiveness and
success of the organizations of which they are members.
A. supervision B. leadership
C. management D. administration

16. This type of leader is highly authoritative; makes decisions

without allowing subordinates to participate; and they are often
made to feel that they are not part of the team because they are
not allowed a voice in the decision-making process.
A. autocratic leader B. democratic leader
C. free-rain leader D. none of these

17. To some it denotes a military bearing; to others, it means a

distinctive type of appearance and conduct; while others feel it
as comprised of the same ingredients as leadership.
A. leadership ability B. unity of command
C. chain of command D. command presence

18. This method of giving orders may be indicated in dealing

with the lazy, careless, indifferent, or irresponsible employees
or the one who refuses or neglects to obey standard operating
rules or fails to respond to suggestions or implied orders.
A. direct command B. implied
C. request D. suggestive

19. This denotes any training intended to produce a specific

character or pattern of behavior, especially training that
produces moral, physical, or mental development in a particular
direction.
A. esprit de corps B. morale
C. all of these D. discipline

20. It shall be administered based on rules and regulations

approved by the National Police Commission (NAPOLCOM) for the
members of the police organization in order to assess and measure
individual efficiency, competence and effectiveness.
A. performance evaluation system
B. performance evaluation rating
C. all of these
D. none of these

21. It is information produced or received in the initiation,

conduct or completion of an institutional or individual activity
and that comprises content, context and structure sufficient to
provide evidence of the activity.
A. records B. data
C. information D. documents

22. It is the practice of identifying, classifying, archiving,

preserving, and destroying records, and it is also defines as the
field of management responsible for the efficient and systematic
control and maintenance of records
A. records control B. records management
C. records keeping D. records administration

23. It is the most popular method for destruction of records, and

it can even destroy paper clips, staples, and fasteners along
with the records fed into the machine.
A. incinerating B. shredding
C. recycling D. disintegrating

24. In the record cycle, this refers to the physical movement of

active records from the office to semi-active storage areas.
A. changes of custody B. records transfer
C. chain of custody D. records delegation

25. It is a tool upon which the police managers rely in deciding

questions of policy in the employment and deployment of
personnel, and in eliminating wasteful administration and
operations of the police organization.
A. civilian records B. police records
C. enforcement records D. criminal records

26. To the laymen, it suggest little more than inspectional

activity, whether carried out on foot, mobile or some other way.
A. police operation B. police communication
C. police intelligence D. police patrol

27. An alternative patrol system which means the fielding of the

field units in their respective area of responsibility with
prescribed objectives and verifiable tasks schedule of the day.
 A. proactive patrol B. walking beat patrol
C. undercover patrol D. air patrol

28. Crime results from the existence of the elements of crime,

EXCEPT:
A. desire B. capability
C. intent D. opportunity

29. This is the primary purpose of police patrol.

A. detect the desire B. check the capability
C. eliminate opportunity D. maintain peace & order

30. This repressive police activity is accomplished by making

their presence known in such a way that even when they are not in
a specific location, a felon will refrain from misbehavior, and
this is actually refers to this phenomenon as:
A. police omnipresence B. elimination of desire
C. lessening capability D. control of opportunity

31. Its method is consisting of the fixed post, line beat, and
random patrol, and it is restricted to small areas and is used to
deal with special problems of prevention and repression.
A. fixed surveillance B. beat patrol
C. bicycle patrol D. foot patrol

32. It is useful for relief and rescue operation, medical

evacuation, general patrol, criminal apprehension, crime
prevention and repression, emergency transportation, surveillance
and other activities.
A. helicopter B. air patrol
C. airplane D. eye in the sky

33. This is done by patrolling the streets within the perimeter

of the beats, not at random, but with a definite target location
where he knows his presence is necessary.
A. zigzagging B. freewheeling
C. all of the above D. none of the above

34. The observation of the patrol officer in patrolling their

respective beats must keenly be aimed at this, and it is the
sources of hazards.
A. material things B. dangerous persons
C. persons & things D. other police officers

35. It is locally referred to as Community Oriented Policing

System (COPS), it is now being widely applied by the law
enforcement agency particularly in highly urbanized places in the
country.
A. participative law enforcement
B. community-Police Assistance Center
C. maintenance of Police-Community Precinct
D. community-mobilization in crime prevention

36. It includes the objectives of protecting lives and

properties and providing all the other services which are
required or expected from police officers.
A. maintain peace/order B. enforce the law
C. ensure public safety D. to serve & protect

37. This type of assignment is particularly effective for

“saturation coverage” of high crime area.
A. low visibility patrol
B. specific patrol
C. high visibility patrol
D. undercover patrol

38. The bicycle patrol has the combined advantage of __________

because the bicycle can be operated very quietly and without
attracting attention.
A. speed & mobility B. mobility & stealth
C. speed/maneuverability D. speed & flexibility

39. This is the art of using and solving codes and ciphers, and
it came from the Greek word kryptos, meaning hidden, and graphia,
meaning writing.
A. cryptography B. cryptanalysis
C. encoding D. deciphering

40. This means emergency, and is to be answered immediately by

driving to the scene as quickly and safely as possible, the red
lights and the siren are to be used to obtain the right of way.
A. Code-4 B. Code-5
C. Code-3 D. Code-6

41. This is the particular provision of the New Philippine

Constitution of 1987 that mandated the creation of a police force
which is national in scope and civilian in character, and to be
administered by a National Police Commission.
A. Sec. 16, Art. 6, NC B. Sec. 12, Art. II, NPC
C. Sec 2, Art. 12, NPC D. Sec. 6, Art. XVI, NPC

42. It shall function as a mobile strike force or reaction unit

for civil disturbance control, counter-insurgency, hostage-taking
rescue operations, and other special operations.
A. Special Action Force
B. Traffic Management Group
C. none of these
D. Police Intelligence Group

43. In case of emergency, the police shall support the Armed

Forces of the Philippines (AFP) through __________ and
performance of its ordinary police functions except when the
President shall call on the PNP to support the AFP in combat
operations.
A. collecting information
B. information gathering
C. colleting intelligence
D. intelligence gathering

44. On the average nationwide, the manning levels of the PNP

shall be approximately in accordance with what police-to-
population ratio.
A. 1:500 B. 1:1,000
C. 1:1,500 D. 1:750

45. At present, how many is the actual number of star rank

officers in the Philippine National Police (PNP), and that is
from Police Chief Superintendent to Director General.
A. sixty-three B. one hundred twenty-five
C. none of these D. sixty

46. The application of a member of __________ for height waiver

shall be processed regardless of whether or not the number of
applicants falls below the annual quota.
A. cultural community B. indigenous people
C. minority groups D. special people

47. The following requirements for initial appointment in the

PNP may be waived only when the number of qualified applicants
falls below the approved quota after the final interview of the
recruiting unit, EXCEPT:
A. age B. height
C. weight D. education

48. This is the age requirement in the recruitment and selection

of police personnel.
A. none of these B. 35 years
C. 21 to 30 years D. 20 years
49. The appointment of the officers and members of the Philippine
National Police (PNP) with the ranks of Police Officer I to
Police Superintendent shall be attested by what agency of the
government.
A. Commission on Appointments
B. Civil Service Commission
C. Department of Interior and Local Government
D. National Police Commission

50. Recruitment of the Philippine National Police (PNP) uniformed

personnel shall be based on this principle, and shall be open to
all qualified men and women.
A. vacancy in position B. merit and fitness
C. standards D. qualifications

51. It refers to the utilization of units or elements of the PNP

for purposes of protection of lives and properties, prevention
and control of crimes, etc.
A. operational control
B. use of services
C. employment
D. operational supervision

52. It is filled-up and submitted by the police, and other law

enforcement agencies at the NAPOLCOM, and it is being used a as a
device in the compilation of accurate data on the occurrence of
crimes in the country.
A. Crime Population and Density (CPD)
B. National Crime Reporting System (NCRS)
C. Crime Mapping and Crime Statistics (CMCS)
D. Comparative Crime Statistics (CCS)

53. Current processes are reviewed and recommendations for

improvement are made, although the police planning really should
be conducted to be use wisely as condition change.
A. tactical plan B. operational planning
C. auxiliary plan D. procedural plan

54. Normally, it is the first step in the sequence of planning

process.
A. to recognize the need to plan
B. analyzing alternatives solutions
C. setting of goals and objectives
D. identifying the problems

55. This is a type of police plan according to range with a life

span of three (3) years or more, and a typical example of this
plan is the strategic plan.
A. mid-term plan B. sort term plan
 C. all of these D. long range plan

56. It is the science, which deals with the collection,

interpretation, analysis and presentation of quantitative crime
data useful in police operational activities.
A. comparative crime statistics

B. crime mapping
C. statistical data
D. crime statistics

57. Are those serious crimes that are readily reported, and that
occur with sufficient regularity and frequency so as to be used
as an actual level of criminality.
A. indictable crimes B. non-index crimes
C. index-crimes D. crime volume

58. It refers to the training required to make the temporary

appointment of a new PNP member permanent.
A. career management program
B. mandated career course
C. basic recruit course
D. field training program

59. It pertains to the authority of the local chief executive to

direct, superintend, and overseeing the daily performance of
police functions at the local level to ensure the effective
conduct of crime investigation, traffic control and crime
prevention activities.
A. employment and deployment
B. physical and organized movement
C. operational control and supervision
D. program coordination

60. An officer or non-officer who is permanently and totally

disabled as a result of injuries or sickness shall be entitled to
one year's salary and to pension equivalent to _________ of his
last salary.
A. 80% B. 50%
C. 90% D. all of these

61. It is valid for five years unless sooner revoked by the

issuing authority.
A. interim clearance B. final clearance
C. security clearance D. none of the above
62. This consists of initial briefing on security, its various
aspects and its importance, and it is made to the new personnel
and employees.
A. security education
B. security orientation
C. security indoctrination
D. security reminders

63. The process of making conclusions from integrated

intelligence and/or information.
A. integration B. assessment
C. evaluation D. deduction

64. It is the graphic representation of the current enemy

situation.
A. intelligence journal
B. intelligence files
C. situation map
D. intelligence workbook

65. Individuals who are simultaneously employed by two or more

friendly intelligence collection agencies and usually motivated
by economic gains.
A. dual agents B. double agents
C. informers D. informants

66. A form of open surveillance in which the subject’s vehicle

is closely followed.
A. technical surveillance
B. tailgaiting
C. directional finder
D. protective custody

67. It is the visual inspection of an area, installation or

building to determine its suitability for operational activities.
A. surveillance B. casing
C. stake out D. mustard plaster

68. It is one of the principal activities of police intelligence

operations, and limited activities on this will usually produce a
limited intelligence product.
A. news clipping B. liaison activities
D. de-briefing C. counter-intelligence
69. The intelligence operatives are being asked about his
personal experiences and observations while conducting
intelligence operations.
A. news clipping B. liaison activities
C. de-briefing D. counter-intelligence

70. It is an important method of gathering intelligence data,

and this is an excellent source of highly valuable material.
A. news clipping B. liaison activities
C. de-briefing D. counter-intelligence

71. It is the product resulting from the collection, evaluation,

analysis, integration, and interpretation of all available
information which is significant to planning.
A. intelligence B. police intelligence
C. information D. military intelligence

72. It is an evaluated material of every description including

those derived from observation, reports, rumors, imagery, and
other sources from which intelligence are derived.
A. classified matters B. classified documents
C. information D. reports and records

73. The reliability of the source is “highly reliable” and the

accuracy of information is “confirmed information,” what is the
evaluation rating of the information.
A. A-1 B. B-2
C. C-3 D. D-4

74. He is the father of organized military espionage.

A. Akbar B. Frederick the Great
C. Genghis Khan D. Alexander the Great

75. It is the observation of a person, place or thing, generally—

but not necessarily—in unobtrusive manner.
A. informant operation B. undercover operation
C. surveillance D. intelligence activities

76. It is an individual who openly or secretly obtained or who

assist in obtaining information for intelligence and counter-
intelligence purposes.
A. informants B. source
C. eye witness D. intelligence asset
77. It is an inquiry into the loyalty, integrity, character,
morale, and discretion of an individual because of the sensitive
position he holds, or is about to assume.
A. personnel security investigation
B. complete background investigation
C. partial background investigation
D. national and local agency checks

78. When a surveillant’s behavior causes the subject to surmise

or know that he or she is under surveillance.
A. be made
B. burn the surveillance
C. burn out
D. all of the above

79. A properly trained and cleared individual who assist the

head of the department in discharging the responsibilities of
safeguarding classified documents and materials.
A. operatives B. undercover agent
C. security officer C. confidential agents

80. It is the term given to the requirement to those persons

whose official duty requires knowledge or possession of
intelligence or information.
A. compartmentation B. need-to-know
C. cleared individuals D. security officer

81. It is a physical security applied to business groups engaged

in industries, like manufacturing, assembling, research and
development, processing, warehousing and even agriculture.
A. operational security B. industrial security
C. physical security D. special types

82. It is the broadest branch of security which is concerned

with the physical measures adopted to prevent unauthorized
access.
A. operational security B. industrial security
C. physical security D. special types

83. Are the acts or conditions affecting the safe operation of

the facility caused by human action, accidental or intentional.
A. security hazards B. man-made hazard
C. natural hazard D. all of the above

84. It is the importance of the firm with reference to the

national economy and security.
A. relative criticality B. relative vulnerability
C. all of the above D. none of the above

85. One who steals with pre-conceived plans and takes away any
of all types of items or supplies for economic gain.
A. pilferer B. casual pilferer
C. systematic pilferer D. intruder

86. A medium or structure which defines the physical limits of

an installation to restrict or impede access thereto.
A. natural barrier B. man-made barrier
C. perimeter barrier D. physical security

87. It is an additional overhang barbed wire placed on vertical

perimeter fences facing upward and outward with a 45 degree angle
with three to four strands of barbed wire.
A. topping B. top guard
C. all of the above D. none of the above

88. It is a fact finding probe to determine a plant’s adequacy

and deficiency in all aspects of security, with corresponding
recommendations.
A. security inspections B. security survey
C. special survey D. supplemental survey

89. It is an authenticated list of personnel given to security

allowing entry to a compound or installation thereof.
A. controlling B. access list
C. exclusion area D. controlled area

90. A term applied to a device or system that in the event of

failure of a component, the incapacity will be signaled.
A. doppler effect B. duress code
C. Peterman D. fail safe

91. It is a practical test of a plan or any activity to test its

validity, and it is also an operational readiness exercise.
A. dry run B. run through
C. controlling D. fire drill

92. Private Security Agencies must be registered at what

government agency.
A. DTI B. PNP
C. SEC D. LGU
93. The City or Municipal Mayors has the power to muster or
_________ the members of the agency in case of emergency or in
times of disasters or calamity.
A. organize B. incorporate
C. utilize D. deputize

94. A conference or dialogue between the survey team and

management officials of plant before security survey is
conducted.
A. security survey B. special survey
C. entrance conference D. exit conference

95. A type of code system so that security personnel when force

by armed men to enter an installation can give alarm by the use
of certain words in casual conversation.
A. doppler effect B. duress code
C. Peterman D. fail safe

96. A heavily constructed fire and burglar resistant container

usually a part of the building structure used to keep and protect
cash.
A. file room B. vault
C. safe D. filing cabinets

97. It is one of the most important interrelated functions in a

plant security system, and it is as important as in a business
organizations as physical security.
A. emergency planning
B. run through
C. disaster preparation
D. fire drill

98. He is in charge with the effective implementation of RA

5487, and has the power to issue or revoke license issued to PSA,
PDA, PSG, and PD.
A. Chief, PNP B. SAGSD
C. PADPAO, Inc. D. Security Managers

99. This is an Act to Regulate the Organization and Operation of

Private Detective, Watchman or Security Guards Agencies.
A. PD 1919 B. EO 393
C. RA 5487 D. PD 100
100. It is the age requirement for the operator or manager of
PSA, PDA, CSF, and GSU.
A. 25 years B. 30 years
C. 35 years D. 20 years
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