Vision IAS CSP20 Test 34 Q PDF

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ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS
GENERAL STUDIES (P) TEST – 2996 (2020)
Q 1.D
• Vote on Account is a special provision by which the government obtains Parliament’s approval for funds
sufficient to incur expenditure for a part of the year (till the formation of a new government) enabling it to
incur expenses till a full budget is prepared. A vote-on-account only deals with the expenditure side of
the government's budget.
• One of the essential features of a Vote-on-Account is that it cannot alter the Direct Taxes since they
need to be passed by the Financial Bill.
• Article 116 of the Indian Constitution deals with Vote on Account, Vote of Credit & Exceptional
Grants (Hence statement 2 is not correct). According to Article 116, the House of the People (Lok
Sabha) shall have power:
o to make any grant in advance in respect of the estimated expenditure for a part of any financial year
pending the completion of the procedure prescribed in article 113 for the voting of such grant and the
passing of the law in accordance with the provisions of article 114 in relation to that expenditure;
o to make a grant for meeting an unexpected demand upon there sources of India when on account of
the magnitude or the indefinite character of the service the demand cannot be stand with the details
ordinarily given in an annual financial statement;
o to make an exceptional grant which forms no part of the current service of any financial year; and
Parliament shall have power to authorise by law the withdrawal of moneys from the Consolidated
Fund of India for the purposes for which the said grants are made.
• Along with this, provisions of Article 114, also apply to the Vote of Grant. Therefore, any
Appropriation Bill which allows the funds to be released from the Consolidated Fund of India shall
be appropriated after an Appropriation Bill is passed by the Parliament. Therefore, the
Appropriation of Vote of Accounts is done through the Appropriation Bill, where the Bill is
presented to Both Houses of Parliament.
• No amendment shall be proposed to any such Bill in either House of Parliament which will have the effect
of varying the amount or altering the destination of any grant so made or of varying the amount of any
expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India (that is passed by the House of People), and the
decision of the person presiding as to whether an amendment is inadmissible under this clause shall be
final.
• In all, the power to make grants lies with the Lok Sabha, and to appropriate that amount without
amendment lies with the Parliament (i.e. Both Houses). These are categorized as Money Bills also.
• Vote on Account is made on Consolidated Fund of India and not on Contingency Fund of India. Hence
statement 1 is not correct.
Q 2.B
• The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) has released the National Policy on
Electronics 2019 (NPE 2019) that replaces the National Policy of Electronics 2012 (NPE 2012).
• Objectives of National Policy on Electronics 2019:
o To promote domestic manufacturing and export in the entire value-chain of Electronics System
Development and Maintenance (ESDM) for economic development to achieve a turnover of
USD 400 billion (approximately INR 26,00,000 crore) by 2025. This will include targeted
production of 1.0 billion (100 crore) mobile handsets by 2025, valued at USD 190 billion
(approximately INR 13,00,000 crore), including 600 million (60 crore) mobile handsets valued at
USD 110 billion (approximately INR 7,00,000 crore) for export. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
o Improve ease-of-doing Business for the ESDM industry.
o Encourage industry-led R&D and innovation in all sub-sectors of electronics.
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o Promote and create a framework for comprehensive Start-up eco-system in emerging
technology areas such as 5G, IoT, Artificial Intelligence, Machine Learning, Drones, Robotics,
Additive Manufacturing, Photonics, Nano-based devices etc., and their applications in areas
such as defence, agriculture, health, cyber security, smart cities and automation, with special
focus on solving real-life problems. Hence statement 2 is correct.
o Provide incentives and support for significantly enhancing availability of skilled manpower, including
re-skilling, in the ESDM sector.
o Provide fiscal incentives and support for export-led growth, including significantly enhancing
economies of scale in electronics manufacturing.
o Develop core competencies in all the sub-sectors of electronics, including inter-alia electronic
components, sub-assemblies and semiconductors, telecommunication and broadcasting equipment, IT
hardware, medical electronics, defence and strategic electronics, automotive electronics, industrial
electronics, consumer electronics, etc., and fabless chip design.
o Provide policy support and special package of incentives for highly capital intensive projects.
o Drive indigenization in the microchips used by strategic and critical infrastructure sectors viz.,
defence, space, atomic Energy, telecommunications, broadcasting, aviation, power, etc., through
design and production of such microchips.
o Create specialized governance structures within the Government to cater to specific needs of the
ESDM sector, in view of fast changes in technology and business models.
o Facilitate loans to the industry at competitive rates for setting up or expansion of electronics
manufacturing units. Hence statement 4 is correct.
o Promote research, innovation and support to the industry in the areas of packaging, interconnects and
micro photonics, as a long term measure to counter the problems posed by the continued use of
Silicon, like the limit of scaling and dark Silicon.
o Encourage and incentivize Transfer of Technology (ToT)for core technologies.
o Promote research, innovation and support to industry for green processes and sustainable e-
Waste management, including inter-alia facilitation of citizen engagement programs for safe
disposal of e-Waste in an environment-friendly manner, development of e-Waste recycling industry
and adoption of best practices in e-Waste management. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Q 3.B
• A black swan is an unpredictable event that is beyond what is normally expected of a situation and
has potentially severe consequences. Black swan events are characterized by their extreme rarity
and their severe impact.
• The term was popularized by Nassim Nicholas Taleb, a finance professor, writer, and former Wall Street
trader. It is argued that because black swan events are impossible to predict due to their extreme rarity yet
have catastrophic consequences, it is important for people to always assume a black swan event is a
possibility, whatever it may be, and to plan accordingly.
• It is said that if a broken system is allowed to fail, it actually strengthens it against the catastrophe of
future black swan events. Conversely, a system that is propped up and insulated from risk ultimately
becomes more vulnerable to catastrophic loss in the face of rare, unpredictable events.
• Notable examples of Black Swan Events
o The 2008 financial crisis following the U.S. housing market crash.
o The dot-com bubble of 2001
o Hyperinflation to the tune of 79.6 billion percent in Zimbabwe in 2008.
o Recent Coronavirus outbreak and the impending effects on the global economy.
Q 4.D
• Extremism or militant nationalism became a predominant philosophy of Indian nationalism or
Indian national movement from 1905 to 1917.
Many factors contributed to the rise of extremism or militant nationalism. One such factor was the
opposition of certain early nationalists in the strategy and technique adopted by the moderates’ expression
of faith in the fairness of the British, mendicancy and appealing to the British government.
• Important factors for the emergence of extremism:
o The failure of the Indian Council Act of 1892 in satisfying the aspirations of the Indians is another
important cause.
o The callous attitude exhibited by the British towards the sufferings of the people due to the
famine of 1897 was also one of the causes.

o The outbreak of the Bubonic plague in Bombay presidency and the means followed by the
government created strong resentment in the minds of the people which led to the murder of Rand,
the Plague Commissioner of Poona by the Chapekar brothers.
o Exclusion of educated Indians from the public services also which led to the dissatisfaction for the
moderate methods.
o Lord Curzon’s high-handed mission, commission and omissions – the Calcutta Corporation Act of
1899, and Calcutta University Act of 1904, along with the partition of Bengal in 1905 accelerated the
extremist movement.
• Social and Religious Awakening also played an important role in the emergence of extremist
nationalism in India- The nineteenth-century movement of renaissance and reformation helped in
reviving the faith of Indians in their culture. Raja Ram Mohan Roy and his Brahmo Samaj, Swami
Dayananda and his Arya Samaj, Swami Vivekananda and his Ramakrishna Mission had played an
important role in this regard. These organizations revived the glory of Indian Culture and generated a
sense of self-confidence in the mind of Indians. The extremist leaders like Bipin Chandra Pal, Aurobindo
Ghosh, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Lala Lajpat Rai, etc. were influenced by the ideas of these reformers who
had generated the spirit of patriotism along with the revival of Indian Culture. Hence all statements are
correct.
Q 5.A
• In order to control all spheres of life, the Mauryan state had to maintain a vast bureaucracy. In no other
period of ancient history we hear of so many officers as in Maurya times. The administrative mechanism
was backed by an elaborate system of espionage. Various types of spies collected intelligence about
foreign enemies and kept an eye on numerous officers. They also helped the collection of money from
credulous people through deliberate resort to superstitious practices.
• Important functionaries were called tirthas. It seems that most functionaries were paid in cash. The
highest functionaries were minister (mantrin), the high priest (purohita), commander-in-chief (Senapati)
and crown-prince (yuvaraja).
• Important offices of Mauryan administration include:
o Ashoka appointed rajukas for the administration of justice in his empire. They were vested with the
authority of not only rewarding people but also punishing them, wherever necessary. Hence, pair 1 is
correctly matched.
o The Maurya period constitutes a landmark in the system of taxation in ancient India. Kautilya names
many taxes to be collected from peasants, artisans and traders. This required strong and efficient
machinery for assessment, collection and storage. The samaharta was the highest officer in charge of
the assessment of taxes. He was also the chief of the Revenue Department, was in charge of the
collection of all revenues of the empire. Hence, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
o The sannidhata was the chief custodian of the state treasury and store-house. Hence, pair 2 is not
correctly matched.
o There were civil servants called Amatyas to look after the day-to-day administration. These officers
were similar to the IAS officers of independent India. The method of selection of Amatyas was
elaborately given by Kautilya. Hence, pair 4 is correctly matched.
o The Mauryan army was well organized and it was under the control of Senapati. According to Greek
author Pliny, the Mauryan army consisted of infantry, cavalry, elephants and chariots. In addition to
these four wings, there were the Navy and Transport and Supply wings. Each wing was under the
control of Adyakshas or Superintendents.
Q 6.C
• Preference Shares are a type of share that pays a dividend at a fixed rate regardless of earnings of the
company and has a priority over ordinary equity share. No voting rights are offered for preference
shareholders.
• Unlike ordinary shares, preference shares pay a pre-defined rate of dividend. The dividend is
payable after all other payments are made, but before a dividend is declared to equity shareholders.
• Preference shares combine features of equity and debt, they carry equity risk as the principal is not
secured and they give out dividend similar to an interest.
• Preference shares can be convertible into ordinary shares as well as non-convertible.
Q 7.D
• 3D printing or additive manufacturing is a process of making three dimensional solid objects from a
digital file. The creation of a 3D printed object is achieved by laying down successive layers of material

until the object is created. Each of these layers can be seen as a thinly sliced horizontal cross-section of
the eventual object.
• 3D printing has applications in a wide array of sectors. Some of its applications include:
o 3D printing can help designers in film and TV production to quickly manifest their wildest
imaginations into physical reality. Fantasy and sci-fi props are among the most printed objects. Large
scale 3D printing can be utilized in set design. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o From prosthetics to anatomical models, 3D printing has helped copy the human body in many ways.
One such case is a life-size 3D printed human body derived from full-body scans of five different
women. This could immensely aid in various cancer treatment projects. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
o Recently 3-D printed food restaurant has come up in the Netherlands. Researchers in South Korea are
looking to take food printing to the next level by introducing a nutritional focus to their designs. The
food printer the researchers have developed arranges food in such a way that it becomes easier for the
body to absorb. The research is a massive step forward for 3D printing of consumable
products. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
o Dubai has just unveiled a major milestone in construction printing technologies. The region’s new
building now holds the Guinness record for largest on-site 3D printed construction. The two-storey
building also meets all the stringent building standards and has undergone a year of testing. Hence,
statement 4 is correct.
o In America, 3D printed bionic ear was generated via 3D printing of a cell-seeded hydrogel matrix in
the anatomic geometry of a human ear.
o Industrial 3D printers have opened new paths at each stage of production of motor vehicles; from the
functional prototyping phases, design, and tooling production to parts manufacturing, the automotive
industry is one of the pioneers in the use and integration of 3D printing in its processes.
o 3 D printing has been used in reconstructive surgery to help repair damaged tissue for example in
cases of birth defects or traumatic injuries to severe burns or disease.
o 3 D printing is used to produce computer parts (such as circuit boards) which are used in the data
processing.
Q 8.B
• With the progress of the Bhakti Movement from 13th century to 17th century, the pride of Marathis also
began to blend with the pride of being Hindu. This ultimately culminated into the ideology of
‘Maharashtra Dharma’ of Ramadasa, who is considered as the guru of Shivaji.
• The Bhakti movement continued apace during the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries. During this period
a new Bhakti movement called Maharashtra Dharma was developed in Maharashtra. Pandharpur
became the center of the Maharashtra Dharma, where worship of Vithoba (a form of Vishnu) had
become popular. Tukaram was associated with this movement.
Q 9.D
• A catchment is an area in which water falling on or flowing across the land surface drains into a particular
stream or river and flows ultimately through a single point or outlet. It is a well-established fact that
reservoirs formed by dams and barrages on rivers are subjected to sedimentation. The Catchment Area
Treatment (CAT) plan highlights the management techniques to control erosion in the catchment
area. Life span of a reservoir in case of a seasonal storage dams and barrages is greatly reduced due to
erosion in the catchment area. The eroded sediment from catchment when deposited on streambeds and
banks causes braiding of river reach. The removal of top fertile soil from catchment adversely affects
the agricultural production and silt-laden water affect the turbine blades thereby affect the
hydropower production. Another important factor that adds to the sediment load is due to grazing of
animals. A large number of cattle, sheep, and goats graze the pastures continuously for about six months
in a mountainous region.
• The lack of proper vegetal cover is a factor, which causes degradation and thereby results in severe
runoff/soil erosion, resulting in premature siltation of the reservoir. Under biological measures for
catchment area treatment, afforestation and social forestry are taken up. India's commitment to
increase additional 2.5-3 billion tonnes carbon sink was made in the Paris Agreement in 2015 to fight
climate change. The strategy to meet this goal necessitates landscape-based catchment treatment of
major river systems and extending tree cover outside forests. Thus, a well-designed Catchment Area
Treatment (CAT) Plan is essential to ameliorate the problems of soil erosion, braiding of rivers including
the process of soil erosion.

• The first such catchment treatment plan has been developed for the Ganges by the Forest Research
Institute (FRI), and similar plans are being developed for nine major river systems by Indian Council for
Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE). The project prepared by the FRI for Catchment area Treatment
of Ganga river covers five states -– Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal — and
has an estimated cost of Rs 2,500 crore.
Q 10.D
• World Trade Organization has emerged as the governing body for international trade since its inception in
1995. One of the important agreement of the WTO is the Trade Related Intellectual Property Rights
(TRIPs), which deals about the protection of Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs) across countries.
• TRIPs Agreement stipulates minimum standards in the international rules governing patents, including
that on pharmaceuticals or medicines. Member countries have to enact the necessary legal framework by
including these minimum regulations.
• The developed countries are not happy about the TRIPs provisions. They demand higher protection to
intellectual property rights including inventions, internationally.
• TRIPs Plus are a higher level of protection norms demanded by the developed countries that are
not prescribed by the WTO’s TRIPs regime. Hence statement 1 is not correct. Although they are
named as ‘TRIPS-Plus,’ they are not formally related to TRIPs. Rather, the term is used to indicate that
these requirements go beyond the minimum standards imposed by TRIPs. Many developing countries
who are members of FTAs are under pressure to enact these tougher conditions in their patent laws.
• The developing countries have concerns over the higher level of protection demanded by the developed
world. They fear that once such levels of protection are given multilaterally, it will reduce competition
and may led to price rise of medicines, affecting health security in poor countries.
• Since, TRIPS Plus negotiations are outside WTO, they have not been a part of any WTO round,
including Doha round. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Q 11.D
• Phytoremediation is a bioremediation process that uses various types of plants to remove, transfer,
stabilize, and/or destroy contaminants in the soil and groundwater. There are five basic types of
phytoremediation techniques:
o Rhizofiltration, a water remediation technique involving the uptake of contaminants by plant roots
o Phytoextraction, a soil technique involving uptake from the soil
o Phytotransformation, applicable to both soil and water, involving the degradation of contaminants
through plant metabolism
o Phytostabilization, using plants to reduce the mobility and migration potential of contaminants in
soil.
o Phyto-stimulation or plant-assisted bioremediation, also used for both soil and water, which involves
the stimulation of microbial biodegradation through the activities of plants in the root zone
Q 12.D
• Hezbollah is a Shia Islamist political, military and social organisation that wields considerable power
in Lebanon. It emerged with the help of Iran during the Israeli occupation of Lebanon in the early 1980s,
though its ideological roots stretch back to the Shia Islamic revival in Lebanon in the 1960s and
'70s. Hezbollah has been accused of carrying out a string of bombings and plots against Jewish and Israeli
targets and is designated a terrorist organisation by Western states, Israel, Gulf Arab countries and the
Arab League. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Al Shabaab, meaning “The Youth” in Arabic, is the largest militant organization fighting to oust
the Somali government and the foreign military presence supporting it. The group seeks to control
territory within Somalia in order to establish a society based on its rigid interpretation of Shariah law.
Although based in Somalia, Al Shabaab also conducts attacks in neighboring countries, notably
Kenya. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• In 2002, Boko Haram was formed as a Sunni Islamist sect to oppose Western education and establish
an Islamic state in Nigeria. Its primary base of operation is northeastern Nigeria, but it has conducted
limited operations in Cameroon and Niger. In March 2015, Boko Haram became an affiliate of the Islamic
State (IS). Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
• Hamas is a Palestinian Islamist political organization and militant group that has waged war on Israel
since the group’s 1987 founding, most notably through suicide bombings and rocket attacks. It seeks to
replace Israel with a Palestinian state. It also governs Gaza independently of the Palestinian
Authority. Hence pair 4 is correctly matched.
Q 13.B
• The third neighbor policy is a facet of foreign relations of Mongolia referring to its building
relationships with countries other than Russia and China, the two superpowers that historically had a
sphere of influence extending to the country.
• Land-locked between two politically, economically, and militarily powerful nations — Russia and China
— Mongolia’s third neighbor policy allow Ulaanbaatar to boost bilateral and multilateral diplomatic
relations with countries around the world.
Q 14.B
• Skandagupta was a son of the Gupta emperor Kumaragupta I. Skandagupta ascended the throne in year
136 of the Gupta era (c. 455-456 CE).
• The Junagarh inscription gives the information about the Sudharshan lake that the lake was an artificial
reservoir, was built by the Mauryan emperors for checking floods. Around 150 AD, the lake was repaired
by the Shaka ruler Rudradaman I. And, it was again repaired under the Skandgupta’s reign (415 AD-
455AD) by his governor Parnadatta.
• His Bhitari pillar inscription suggests that he restored the Gupta power by defeating his enemies, who
may have been rebels or foreign invaders. He repulsed an invasion by the Indo-Hephthalites (known as
Hunas in India). He seems to have maintained control of his inherited territory and is generally considered
the last of the great Gupta Emperors.
• Samudragupta was a ruler of the Gupta Empire of Ancient India. As a son of the Gupta
emperor Chandragupta I and the Licchavi princess Kumaradevi, he greatly expanded his dynasty's
political power.
• Chandragupta II, also called Vikramaditya, powerful emperor (reigned c. 380–c. 415 ce) of northern
India. He was the son of Samudra Gupta and grandson of Chandragupta I. During his reign, art,
architecture, and sculpture flourished, and the cultural development of ancient India reached its climax.
Q 15.B
• In the cave paintings of Bhimbetka, animals are represented on their own or as part of hunting
scenes. Hunters hunt singly or in groups, sometimes wearing masks and headdresses crowned antlers and
horns. They are adorned with ornaments such as necklaces, bangles, wrist bands, elbow bands, knee bands
with tassles. Some are unarmed, others carry sticks, spears, bows and arrows and slings. The hunters are
sometimes accompanied by dogs. There are scenes showing traps and snares, others of animals running
after hunters. There is a painting of a hunter with basket or net filled with animals. Hence option 1 is
correct.
• Some of the Bhimbetka paintings show people dancing. The dancers convey a sense of rhythmic
movement; occasionally they lose their balance and fall. Hence option 2 is correct.
• Bhimbetka cave paintings mostly belong to the Mesolithic period. The Mesolithic economy, like the
paleolithic, was still essentially based on hunting and gathering. Cultivation of crops started only in
the Neolithic age. Bhimbetka paintings reflect a division of labour. They show men hunting and women
are shown gathering and preparing foods. Hence option 3 is not correct.
Q 16.D
• In terms of the Repurchase Transactions (Repo) (Reserve Bank) Directions, 2018 dated 24th July,
2018 "Tri-party repo" means a repo contract where a third entity (apart from the borrower and
lender), called a Tri-Party Agent, acts as an intermediary between the two parties to the repo to
facilitate services like collateral selection, payment and settlement, custody and management during the
life of the transaction.
• All the repo eligible entities are entitled to participate in Triparty Repo. The entity type admitted
include, Public Sector Banks, Private Banks, Foreign Banks, Co-operative Banks, Financial
Institutions, Insurance Companies, Mutual Funds, Primary Dealers, Bank cum Primary Dealers,
NBFCs, Corporates, Provident/ Pension Funds, Payment Banks, Small Finance Banks, etc. Triparty
Repo i.e. TREPS facilitates, borrowing and lending of funds, in Triparty Repo arrangement. The
Clearing Corporation of India Limited (CCIL) would be the Central Counterparty to all trades
from Tri-Party Repo Dealing System (TREPS) and would also perform the role and responsibilities of
Triparty Repo Agent, in terms of Repurchase Transactions (Repo) (Reserve Bank) Directions, 2018 as
amended from time to time.
• CCIL was authorized by RBI, to act as a Triparty Repo Agent undertaking CCP clearing of Triparty Repo
transactions under its securities segment with effect from November 5, 2018. CBLO was converted into

Triparty Repo on November 5, 2018. Triparty Repo enables the lender to get visibility of the security it
has lent money against which was not available under the structure of CBLO.
Q 17.B
• Delhi Proposals - In December 1927, a large number of Muslim leaders had met at Delhi at the Muslim
League session and evolved four proposals for Muslim demands to be incorporated in the draft
constitution. These proposals, which were accepted by the Madras session of the Congress (December
1927), came to be known as the ‘Delhi Proposals’.
• Delhi Manifesto - On November 2, 1929, a conference of prominent national leaders issued a “Delhi
Manifesto” which demanded that the purpose of the Round Table Conference (RTC) should be to -
formulate a scheme for implementation of the dominion status (thus acting as a constituent assembly) and
the basic principle of dominion status should be immediately accepted; - that the Congress should have
majority representation at the conference; - amnesty and a general policy of conciliation.
• Delhi Pact - The First Round Table Conference could not get any fruitful results. Main reason was the
absence of Congress. The Government now started to convince Congress to participate in the Second
Round Table Conference in 1931. Therefore, the Government released all Congress leaders from prison
on 25th January 1931. Finally, Gandhiji was convinced to negotiate with the Viceroy Lord Irwin. So
Gandhiji and Lord Irwin met on 19th February 1931 and after discussion for fifteen days, they signed an
agreement on 5th March 1931 known as “Gandhi-Irwin Pact” also known as 'Delhi Pact'. Hence the
answer is 3-2-1.
Q 18.A
• Pancheshwar project is located at Narayan Ghat of Dharchula on Mahakali River (also known as
Kali Ganga in Uttarakhand ) in Nepal. India and Nepal had signed a Treaty known as Mahakali Treaty
in February 1996. Implementation of the Pancheshwar Multipurpose Project is the centerpiece of the
Mahakali Treaty. In 2014, Pancheshwar Development Authority was constituted to resolve any impending
contentious issues. India will provide a fund of Rs 1500 crore to Nepal's Pancheshwar multi-purpose
project on Mahakali river for countering the Kheri floods in Uttar Pradesh. Pancheshwar project is located
at Narayan Ghat of Dharchula on Mahakali River (also known as Kali Ganga in Uttarakhand) in
Nepal. After completion dam will be the second largest dam in the world with a capacity of 6720 Mega
Watt (MW) power production. This project will regulate and control the free flow of Karnali and Mohana
rivers which cause floods in Kheri, Pilibhit of Uttar Pradesh and other Terai districts. Hence pair 1 is
correctly matched.
• The Government of India and The Royal Government of Bhutan, have jointly implemented
the Chukha Hydro-Electric Project in Bhutan. The project is owned solely by the Royal Government
of Bhutan but Government of India agreed to provide funds for the financing of the project. A 220 KV
transmission system from Chukha to Phuntsholing (Bhutan-India border) for bulk supply of power to
India has been envisaged. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
• Mangdechhu hydroelectric power plant in Bhutan was recently inaugurated by the Prime Minister of
India. It is one of the major projects under Bhutan's initiative to generate 10,000 MW hydropower by
2020 with the support of the Government of India (GOI). Cost of this project is around Rs 4,500-crore
and this 720MW run-of-river power plant built on the Mangdechhu River in Trongsa Dzongkhag district
of central Bhutan. The project is funded by India through a 70 percent loan and a 30 percent grant. It is
estimated to generate 2,923 GWh of electricity. Hydropower project’s construction was started in June
2012 and the first of the four units of the power plant was commissioned in June 2019. Bhutan’s newly
launched Mangdechhu hydropower project will fulfill the energy requirements of Bhutan and the surplus
electricity will be exported to India. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.
Q 19.B
• The India - US 2+2 Ministerial dialogue is a meeting between the India Ministers for External Affairs
and Defence, and the US Secretaries of State and Defense. It is the highest-level institutional
mechanism between the two countries. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
• This “2+2” dialogue was meant to replace the Strategic and Commercial Dialogue between the
foreign and commerce ministers of the two countries that were held during the previous Obama
administration. It is to focus on “strengthening strategic, security and defense cooperation” between the
two countries.
• The second annual 2+2 meeting was recently conducted in December 2019. The two sides concluded
the Industrial Security Annex during the meeting. Priority initiatives have been identified for execution
under the Defence Technology and Trade Initiative (DTTI) programme. The two sides also concluded
a standard operating procedure for this process. These measures are expected to provide momentum to
collaboration between the private defense industries of both India and the US.
Q 20.A
• Statements 1 is correct: Gandhi's Harijan Campaign was determined to undo the divisive intentions
of the Government's divide and rule policy, Gandhi launched a campaign against untouchability — first
from jail and after his release in August 1933 from the outside. While in jail, he had set up the All India
Anti Untouchability League in September 1932 and had started the weekly Harijan in January 1933.
• Starting from Wardha, he conducted a Harijan tour of the country in the period from November 1933 to
July 1934, collecting money for his newly set up Harijan Sevak Sangh. Gandhiji was attacked by
orthodox and reactionary elements. These elements disrupted his meetings, held black flag
demonstrations against him and accused him of attacking Hinduism. They also offered support to the
Government against the Congress and the Civil Disobedience Movement. The Government obliged them
by defeating the Temple Entry Bill in August 1934. Orthodox Hindu opinion in Bengal was against the
acceptance of permanent caste Hindu minority status by the Poona Pact. Hence statement 2 is not
correct.
Q 21.C
• To resolve question of conflict between two lists i.e. where the question arises of determining whether a
particular law relates to a particular subject mentioned in one list or another, Supreme Court has laid down
certain principles through various judgments.
• Doctrine of Pith and Substance: Pith means "true nature" or "essence" and substance means the essential
nature underlying a phenomenon. Thus, the doctrine of pith and substance relates to finding out the true
nature of a statute. This doctrine is widely used when deciding whether a state is within its rights to create
a statute that involves a subject mentioned in Union List of the Constitution. The basic idea behind this
principle is that an act or a provision created by the State is valid if the true nature of the act or the
provision is about a subject that falls in the State list. The case of State of Bombay vs F N Balsara AIR
1951 illustrates this principle very nicely.
• Doctrine of Colourable Legislation This doctrine is based on the principle that what cannot be done
directly cannot be done indirectly. In other words, if the constitution does not permit certain provision of
legislation, any provision that has the same effect but in a roundabout manner is also unconstitutional.
K.C. G. Narayana Deo v. The State Of Orissa: "… transgression may be patent, manifest or direct, but it
may also be disguised, covert and indirect and it is to this latter class of cases that the expression
'Colorable Legislation' has been applied in certain judicial pronouncements. The idea conveyed by the
expression is that although apparently a legislature in passing a statute purported to act within the limits of
its powers, yet in substance and in reality it transgressed these powers, the transgression being veiled by
what appears, on proper examination, to be a mere presence or disguise." This Doctrine is also called as
"Fraud on the Constitution".
Q 22.A
• The state of Madhya Pradesh is host to a number of plateaus such as:
o The Plateau of Malwa: Covering almost the entire western region of Madhya Pradesh, the plateau,
formed by the Deccan trap-rocks, starts north of the Narmada and Betwa rivers and found in Guna,
Rajgarh, Mandsaur, Jhabua, Dhar, Ratlam, Dewas, Ujjain, Sehore, Vidisha, Shajapur, Raisen and
Sagar districts. Its average height is normally 350 to 450 m but some peaks have attained a height
of even more than 800 m. Chambal, Mahi, Kshipra, Betwa and Parvati are the main rivers of this
region.
o The Plateau of Central India: This region covers the northern part of the lower basin of the Chambal
river. It is formed by the Vindhyan rock groups with the Deccan trap in the south and the
Bundelkhand gneiss rocks in the east. The Bundi and Karauli hills form its western boundary. The
region presents an amalgam of low land and upland topography. The area is marked by deep ravines
of the Chambal, Kalisindh and Parvati rivers.
o The Plateau of Bundelkhand: It lies to the east of the Central India Plateau and is bound on the
northeast by the Rewa – Panna plateau. The area consists of granite rocks of the Arabian era.
Generally, the plateau is flat with marginal slopes and the topography is smooth and undulating. This
region in Madhya Pradesh is spread over in Tikamgarh, Chhatarpur, Datia, Gwalior and Shivpuri
districts.
o The Plateau of Rewa and Panna: This is also known as Vindhyan plateau and lies to the northeast of
the Bundelkhand plateau. The Bhander hills of the Vindhya State group and the Kymore ranges have
a number of waterfalls. The area is drained by the Ken, Sonar, Berma and Tons rivers. The covered
area has most of its spread in Damoh, Panna, Satna and Rewa districts.
o The Eastern Plateau: This region has a spread in the eastern districts of Madhya Pradesh, which is
called Baghelkhand Plateau in Sidhi district. In this region, the height of the plateau varies from 400
to 1000m.
Q 23.C
• Bioluminescence is the production and emission of light by a living organism.
• Bioluminescence occurs through a chemical reaction that produces light energy within an organism's
body. For a reaction to occur, a species must contain luciferin, a molecule that, when it reacts with
oxygen, produces light.
• Bioluminescence occurs widely in marine organisms such as anglerfish and copepods as well as in
microorganisms including fungi. bacteria, algae and terrestrial arthropod such as fireflies.
• marine creatures Organisms exhibit this feature mainly for the purpose of feeding, attracting mates and
protection from predators.
• There are no known flowering plants, birds, reptiles, amphibians, or mammals that emit light. So forest
owlet does not exhibit this phenomenon.
• Injambakkam beach in Chennai recently witnessed this phenomenon caused by Noctiluca algae also
called sea tinkle.
Q 24.A
• The Derozians attacked old and decadent customs, rites, and traditions. They were passionate advocates of
women’s rights and demanded education for them. They did not, however, succeed in creating a
movement because social conditions were not yet ripe for their ideas to flourish.
• Moreover, they forgot to maintain their links with the people. In fact, their radicalism was bookish; they
failed to come to grips with the Indian reality.
• Derozio’s idea was more modern than even Rammohun Roy’s. He was a brilliant teacher who, in spite of
his youth, attached to himself a host of bright and adoring students. He inspired these students to think
rationally and freely, to question all authority, to love liberty, equality and freedom, and to worship
truth. However, there was no other class or group in Indian society at the time which could support
their advanced ideas.
Q 25.B
• All-natural fats and oils are a combination of monounsaturated, polyunsaturated and saturated fatty acids.
Trans fatty acids (TFAs) are unsaturated fatty acids that contain at least one double bond in the trans
configuration. Trans fatty acids are formed during industrial partial hydrogenation of vegetable oil, a
process widely commercialized to produce solid fats. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Trans fats create inflammation, which is linked to heart disease, stroke, diabetes, and other chronic
conditions. They contribute to insulin resistance, which increases the risk of developing type 2 diabetes.

Common sources of saturated fat include red meat, whole milk and other whole-milk dairy foods,
cheese, coconut oil, and many commercially prepared baked goods and other foods.
• The word saturated in saturated fats refers to the number of hydrogen atoms surrounding each carbon
atom. The chain of carbon atoms holds as many hydrogen atoms as possible — it's saturated with
hydrogens. A diet rich in saturated fats can drive up total cholesterol, and tip the balance toward more
harmful LDL cholesterol, which prompts blockages to form in arteries in the heart and elsewhere in the
body. For that reason, most nutrition experts recommend limiting saturated fat to under 10% of calories a
day.
• Monounsaturated fats have a single carbon-to-carbon double bond. The result is that it has two fewer
hydrogen atoms than saturated fat and a bend at the double bond. This structure keeps monounsaturated
fats liquid at room temperature. Good sources of monounsaturated fats are olive oil, peanut oil, canola oil,
avocados, and most nuts, as well as high-oleic safflower and sunflower oils.
• Polyunsaturated fats are essential fats. That means they're required for normal body functions but your
body can't make them. Polyunsaturated fats are used to build cell membranes and the covering of nerves.
They are needed for blood clotting, muscle movement, and inflammation. Corn oil, sunflower oil, and
safflower oil are common sources of Polyunsaturated fats. A polyunsaturated fat has two or more double
bonds in its carbon chain. There are two main types of polyunsaturated fats: omega-3 fatty
acids and omega-6 fatty acids. The numbers refer to the distance between the beginning of the carbon
chain and the first double bond. Both types offer health benefits. They help protect the heart from
lapsing into potentially deadly erratic rhythms. They ease inflammation. They inhibit the formation of
dangerous clots in the bloodstream. They also lower levels of triglycerides, the most common type of fat-
carrying particle in the blood. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• In May 2018, the World Health Organisation (WHO) launched a comprehensive plan to eliminate
industrially-produced trans-fat from the global food supply by 2023. REPLACE action package consisting
of six strategic actions provides a roadmap about how countries can remove and replace all trans-fat from
their food supplies with the intention to eradicate it from the globe. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Q 26.C
• Lying very close to the Tropics, North-East India displays, to a large extent, the character of the tropical
climate, especially in the valleys. The region has a monsoon climate with heavy to very heavy
rains, confined within four summer months from June to September. The southwest monsoon is the
main source of rain, and June is the rainiest month. About 90 % of the rain is received during the
southwest summer monsoon, and June is by far the rainiest month. The hilly areas of the region receive
2,000–3,000 mm of rain, though places like Kohima in Nagaland and Imphal in Manipur, because of their
being in the shadow of the mountains, receive less than 2,000 mm of rains. Hence option (d) is not
correct.
• The Arabian Sea branch is stronger than the Bay of Bengal branch. 65% of the humidity brought by the
monsoon comes from the Arabian Sea whereas the monsoon coming from the Bay of Bengal contributes
only 35% to the humidity. In the Gangetic Plains, the two branches merge into one. Hence option (a) is
not correct. This region receives the majority of rainfall during the Indian Summer Monsoon with normal
onset date between 1–10 June every year which is not significantly sooner than the rest of the
country. Hence option (b) is not correct.
• Distribution of pre-monsoon (PMR) rainfall is peculiar for the NER and is markedly skewed over the hills
and plains topography Northeast India is one of those areas that receive significant rainfall in the pre-
monsoon season (March, April, May), chiefly from frequent thunderstorms with the seasonal
precipitation normally exceeding 400 mm.
• One possible reason of this higher PMR is the latitudinal colinearity of this zone with the head of
the Bay of Bengal where most of the atmospheric disturbances are generated in this season which
flow past the southern M Meghalaya plateau and the Bangladesh plains towards the Barak valley
and adjoining hills in the North Cachar Hills, Tripura, Mizoram and Manipur. It appears that the
bulk of the rainfall that occurs in these regions in the pre-monsoon season is generated by these Bay
disturbances that propagate mostly in the form of depressions systems. The impact of the Bay
disturbances over the Assam plains is probably relatively low and here pre-monsoon rainfall is more due
to the northwesterly disturbances (Nor’westers) originating in the Chotanagpur-Bihar plateau region as
well as local convective activity. The middle and foothills of Arunachal Pradesh in the north and eastern
flanks are also prone to intense thunderstorms during the March-April-May months causing a
good amount of rainfall in these zones. It is probable that the thawing of snow-ice masses, that starts in
the summer in the High Himalayas with a gradual rise in temperatures, supply enough moisture and

potential energy favouring thermodynamic formation of thunder clouds that release considerable
precipitation in the Arunachal hills particularly in the middle ranges and the first ridges.
Q 27.C
• Recently, the Supreme Court pronounced a landmark judgment under service tax laws in the
Calcutta Club case. The decision was that clubs are not entitled to charge, collect and pay service
tax on any services made to members. The rationale for the decision was that if there are no members,
there is no club and vice-versa. The Supreme Court has said that service tax need not be charged by clubs
for services to its members. The same should hold true for the GST, which replaced service tax.
• The Supreme Court followed its earlier decision on the same topic in the case of CTO versus Young
Men’s Indian Association, (1970) 1 SCC 462. The necessity for the Supreme Court to rule on this matter
arose because of the insertion of Clause (e) in Article 366 (29-A) in the Constitution of India through the
46th Amendment. This clause stated that tax on purchase or sale of goods includes a tax on the supply of
goods by any unincorporated association or body of persons to a member for cash, deferred payment or
another valuable consideration. The Supreme Court needed to decide whether the doctrine of mutuality
has been done away with by Article 366 (29-A) (e).
• The Hon’ble Supreme Court has explained the doctrine of mutuality as under: The doctrine of mutuality,
based on common law principles, is premised on the theory that a person cannot make a profit from
himself. An amount received from oneself, therefore, cannot be regarded as income and
taxable. The essence of the principle of mutuality lies in the commonality of the contributors and the
participants who are also the beneficiaries. The contributors to the common fund must be entitled to
participate in the surplus and the participators in the surplus are contributors to the common fund. Section
2(24) of the Income Tax Act defines taxable income. The income of a cooperative society from business
is taxable under Section 2(24)(vii) and will stand excluded from the principle of mutuality.
Q 28.C
• Quorum is the minimum number of members required to be present in the House before it can transact
any business.
• Article 100 of the Constitution provide as follows:
o Until Parliament by law otherwise provides, the quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of
Parliament shall be one-tenth of the total number of members of the House.
o If at any time during a meeting of a House there is no quorum, it shall be the duty of the Chairman or
Speaker or person acting as such, either to adjourn the House or to suspend the meeting until there is a
quorum.
• The quorum to constitute a joint sitting is one-tenth of the total number of members of the two Houses.
• Following provisions in the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of
Parliament.
o Admission or establishment of new states.
o Formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states.
o Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.
o Second Schedule–emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of the president, the governors, the
Speakers, judges, etc.
o Quorum in Parliament. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
o Number of puisne judges in the Supreme Court.
• The total membership of the Rajya Sabha is 245, so the presence of 25 members is the quorum sufficient
to constitute its meeting. Since the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is not a member of the House, he is
not counted for the purposes of quorum. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The Legislative Assembly of each State consists of members not more than 500 and not less than 60
according to its population. The quorum of the meetings of a State Assembly is 1/10 of its membership or
ten whichever is greater. This is so until the State Legislative assembly fixes the quorum otherwise, by
law. For example Legislative assembly of Goa enacted a law which provides that quorum to constitute a
meeting of the Legislative Assembly of the State of Goa shall be one-fifth of the total number of members
of the Legislative Assembly. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Q 29.D
• Solar power in India is one of the most and fast developing industry along with wind energy, expanded its
solar-generation capacity 8 times in last five years.
• Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, Rajasthan, Telangana, Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh are the top states of India
with largest solar power generation facilities and solar parks.
Pavagada Solar Park (Shakti Sthala), Karnataka:
• Shakti Sthala Pavagada Solar Park in Karnataka is one of the world’s biggest solar farms over 13,000
acres with 2,000 MW of capacity power generation.
Kurnool Ultra Mega Solar Park, Andhra Pradesh
• Kurnool Ultra Mega Solar Park spread over 5,932.32 acres of area in Kurnool district of Andhra Pradesh
and is one of the world’s largest solar park at the time.
Kamuthi Solar Power Project, Tamil Nadu:
• Kamuthi Solar Power Project in Kamuthi of Tamil Nadu is the third largest solar park in India and also
the world’s sixth largest solar park with five sub-stations.
Bhadla Solar Park, Rajasthan
• Bhadla Solar Park in Jodhpur district of Rajasthan is spread over a total area of 10,000 acres and one of
the largest solar parks in India with total commissioned capacity of the park to 2055 MW.
Q 30.B
• Quilon or Kollam is situated in modern-day Kerela. It was attacked and destroyed by Chola king
Rajaraja.
• Vishakhapatnam’s (Vizag) history can be traced back to the 6th century BC. It was historically a part of
the Kalinga region and then eventually ruled by the Vengi kingdom, Pallava and Ganga dynasty. It is the
largest city of Andhra Pradesh both in terms of area and population. It went from being called Waltair
during British rule to Vizagpatnam after independence and later became Vishakhapatnam in 1987.
• Pragjyotishpur is the name for modern-day Assam. It was ruled by Pala king in medieval times.
Q 31.A
• Dhok Tree or Button Tree is scientifically called as Anogeissus Pendula
• It is a small tree that is found in abundance only on the low hills of the Aravallis and in a few spots
along the Vindhyas
• It is a hardy tree that can survive even in extreme conditions especially due to the unique ability to grow
on the rocky surface with ease.
• It is also known as wood with a purple-heart and holds together a fragile ecosystem of mangar
bani forest of Aravaliis while sustaining livestock and producing one of the toughest timbers known.
• It creates clonal colonies, every tree a replica of its neighbor. It does so by sending out a horizontal
stem under the soil surface, called a stolon, and from the end, a sapling roots. Such stems extend in every
direction, spawning a colony of genetically identical trees
• It finds application in traditional medicine like Ayurveda for its anti-oxidant properties.
Q 32.D
• The International Indian Ocean Expedition (IIOE) was a large-scale multinational hydrographic survey of
the Indian Ocean.
• It was initiated in 1959 and continued upto 1965.
• It involved over 45 research vessels from 14 countries. It was sponsored by the Scientific Committee on
Oceanographic Research, and later by the Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission. Hence,
• Three major issues were identified and studied for:
o Potential for fishery resources in the Indian Ocean.
o Role of the northern Indian Ocean in effecting the monsoonal changes. It was pressed to understand
the current patterns, upwelling systems, productivity and the carbon-dioxide cycle in the northern
Indian Ocean.
o Limits to the use of the oceans for dumping human wastes, including spent nuclear fuels etc.
• Second phase (IIOE-2) was formally launched from 2015 to 2020.
o The overarching goal of IIOE-2 is ‘to advance the understanding of the interactions between geologic,
oceanic, and atmospheric processes that give rise to the complex physical dynamics of the Indian
Ocean region and determine how those dynamics affect climate, extreme events, marine
biogeochemical cycles, ecosystems and human populations.
o Other goals of IIOE-2 include helping to build research capacity and improving availability and
accessibility of oceanographic data from the region’

• Increasing maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region is not the
designated objective of IIOE. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Q 33.A
• The Returning Officer for the elections of the President and Vice President is Secretary-General of
Lok Sabha or the Secretary-General of Rajya sabha on a rotational basis, in accordance with the
provisions of the Constitution and the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952. The said
Act is supplemented by the provisions of the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Rules, 1974, and
the said Act under Rules form a complete Code regulating all aspects of the conduct of elections to the
Office of the President.
• By convention, the Secretary-General, Lok Sabha or the Secretary-General, Rajya Sabha is
appointed as the Returning Officer, by rotation. Two other senior officers of the Lok Sabha/ Rajya
Sabha Secretariat and the Secretaries and one more senior officer of Legislative Assemblies of all States
including NCT of Delhi and Union Territory of Puducherry are also appointed as Assistant Returning
Officers. The Election Commission of India makes such appointments.
Q 34.A
• Traditional Knowledge Digital Library (TKDL) is an Indian digital knowledge repository of traditional
knowledge, especially about medicinal plants and formulations used in Indian systems of medicine.
• Set up in 2001, as a collaboration between the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR),
Ministry of Science and Technology, and the Department of Ayurveda, Yoga and Naturopathy,
Unani, Siddha and Homeopathy (AYUSH), Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, the objective of
the library is to protect the ancient and traditional knowledge of the country from exploitation
through biopiracy and unethical patents, by documenting it electronically and classifying it as per
international patent classification systems. Hence statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.
• The TKDL contains documentation of publicly available traditional knowledge (TK) that:
o relates to Ayurveda, Unani, Siddha and Yoga
o is in digitized format
o is available in five languages: English, German, French, Japanese and Spanish.
• The TKDL, which contains over 34 million pages:
o provides information on TK existing in India, in languages and a format understandable by patent
examiners at international patent offices
o contains information for patent examiners on prior art that would otherwise be available only in
Sanskrit and other local languages in Indian libraries
o lists the precise time, place and medium of publication for prior art searches by patent examiners aim
to prevent the granting of erroneous patents.
• Government of India, in June 2006, has approved to provide the access of TKDL database to
International Patent Offices, under Non-disclosure Agreement, between CSIR and respective
International Patent Office, according to which
o Access to TKDL by the examiners of an international patent office would only be utilized for patent
search and examination, and
o International Patent Offices and their examiners would not make any third party disclosure other than
what is necessary and essential for the purpose of patent search and examination.
• Access to TKDL has been given to the European Patent Office (having 35 member states), German
Patent Office, Indian Patent Office and the United States Patent and Trademark Office, etc. Hence
Q 35.B
• The Cool Temperate Eastern Margin (Laurentian) Climate is an intermediate type of climate between the
British and the Siberian type of climate. It has features of both the maritime and continental
climates. Laurentian type of climate is found only in two regions. One is north-eastern North America,
including eastern Canada, north-east U.S.A., (i.e. Maritime Provinces and the New England states), and
Newfoundland.
• The other region is the eastern coastlands of Asia, including eastern Siberia, North China, Manchuria,
Korea and northern Japan. It may be referred to as the Asiatic region. In the southern hemisphere, this
climatic type is absent because only a small section of the southern continents extends south of the
latitude of 40°S.
• The Laurentian type of climate has cold, dry winters and warm, wet, summers. Winter
temperatures may be well below freezing-point and snowfalls to quite a depth. Summers are as
warm as the tropics and if it were not for the cooling effects of the off-shore cold currents from the
Arctic the summer might be even hotter. Though rain falls throughout the year, there is a distinct
summer maximum from the easterly winds. Winter is dry and cold because of the dry Westerlies
that blow out from the continental interiors.
• The predominant vegetation of the Laurentian type of climate is cool temperate forest. The heavy rainfall,
the warm summers and the damp air from fogs, all favour the growth of trees. Generally speaking, the
forest-tend to be coniferous north the 50°N. the parallel of latitude.
• The increase in the length and severity of the winter excludes fore that are not adaptable to cold
conditions. In the Asiatic region (eastern Siberia and Korea), the coniferous forests are, in fact, a
continuation of the great coniferous belt of the taiga. Lumbering has always been a major occupation of
this sparsely populated part of eastern Asia and timber is a leading export item.
Q 36.B
• A Giffen good is a low income, non-luxury product that defies standard economic and consumer
demand theory. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The concept of Giffen goods focuses on a low income, non-luxury products that have very few close
substitutes.
• Demand for Giffen goods rises when the price rises and falls when the price falls.
• Examples of Giffen goods can include bread, rice, and wheat. These goods are commonly essentials
with few near-dimensional substitutes at the same price levels.
• A Veblen good is a good for which demand increases as the price increases, because of its exclusive
nature and appeal as a status symbol. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• However, a Veblen good is generally a high-quality, coveted product, in contrast to a Giffen good, which
is an inferior product that does not have easily available substitutes.
• Very expensive products – such as designer jewellery, pricey watches, and luxury cars are all examples
of Veblen goods.
• A Veblen good & Giffen goods have an upward-sloping demand curve, which runs counter to the
typical downward-sloping curve. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Q 37.C
• Altimeter, an instrument that measures the altitude of the land surface or any object such as an aeroplane.
The two main types are the pressure altimeter, or aneroid barometer, which approximates altitude above
sea level by measuring atmospheric pressure, and the radio altimeter, which measures absolute altitude
(distance above land or water) based on the time required for a radio wave signal to travel from an
aeroplane, a weather balloon, or a spacecraft to the ground and back. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Magnetometer, an instrument for measuring the strength and sometimes the direction of magnetic fields,
including those on or near the Earth and in space. Magnetometers are also used to calibrate
electromagnets and permanent magnets and to determine the magnetization of materials. Magnetometers
specifically used to measure the Earth’s field are of two types: absolute and relative (classed by their
methods of calibration). Absolute magnetometers are calibrated with reference to their own known
internal constants. Relative magnetometers must be calibrated by reference to a known, accurately
measured magnetic field. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
• Accelerometer, an instrument that measures the rate at which the velocity of an object is changing (i.e., its
acceleration). Acceleration cannot be measured directly. An accelerometer, therefore, measures the force
exerted by restraints that are placed on a reference mass to hold its position fixed in an accelerating body.
Acceleration is computed using the relationship between restraint force and acceleration given by
Newton’s second law: force = mass × acceleration. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.
• A gyroscope is a device used for measuring or maintaining orientation and angular velocity. It is a
spinning wheel or disc in which the axis of rotation (spin axis) is free to assume any orientation by
itself. Gyroscope is a device containing a rapidly spinning wheel or circulating beam of light that is used
to detect the deviation of an object from its desired orientation. Gyroscopes are used in compasses and
automatic pilots on ships and aircraft, in the steering mechanisms of torpedoes, and in the inertial
guidance systems installed in space launch vehicles, ballistic missiles, and orbiting satellites. Hence, pair
4 is not correctly matched.
• Ultrasonic sensors can precisely measure the distance to a target object. Among the advantages of
ultrasonic sensors over traditional sensors is the ability to detect and measure moving objects. Ultrasonic
sensors are not affected by the color of the object and they can detect small objects over long distances.

Q 38.A
• Muslim Mass Contact Programme was conceived after the 1936 elections in which the Congress fared
poorly in Muslim constituencies, constituted the last serious attempt of the Congress to mobilise the
Muslims in a joint struggle against colonial rule.
• In 1937, the Congress decided to initiate, under Jawaharlal Nehru’s guidance, a massive campaign
to work among the Muslim masses, known as the Muslim Mass Contact Programme. This, however,
united Muslim leaders and resulted in a shift to extreme Muslim Communalism.
Q 39.B
• The Economic and Technology Cooperation Agreement (ETCA) is a proposed diplomatic arrangement
that seeks to add to the existing free trade agreement between the Republic of India and the Republic of
Sri Lanka, primarily in relation to trade-in services and the service sector. Eleven rounds of negotiations
have been held so far.
Q 40.C
• The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is the central recruiting agency in India. Articles 315 to
323 in Part XIV of the Constitution contain elaborate provisions regarding the composition, appointment,
and removal of members along with the independence, powers, and functions of the UPSC.
• The UPSC consists of a chairman and other members appointed by the president of India. The
Constitution, without specifying the strength of the Commission has left the matter to the discretion of
the president, who determines its composition.
• The President can remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC from the office under the
following circumstances:
o If he is adjudged an insolvent (that is, has gone bankrupt);
o If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or
o If he is, in the opinion of the president, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or
body.
• In addition to these, the President can also remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC
for misbehaviour. However, in this case, the president has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court
for an inquiry. If the Supreme Court, after the enquiry, upholds the cause of removal and advises so, the
president can remove the chairman or a member. Under the provisions of the Constitution, the advice
tendered by the Supreme Court in this regard is binding on the president. During the course of an
enquiry by the Supreme Court, the president can suspend the chairman or the member of UPSC.
Q 41.A
• Indus Valley Civilisation produced a lot of artifacts and art forms. Indus Valley art form emerged during
the second half of the third millennium BCE (i.e. from 2500 BC onwards). Thousands of seals have been
discovered by archaeologists from the Harappan sites. Most of the seals were made of steatite, which is a
kind of soft stone. A few of them were also made of terracotta, gold, agate, chert, ivory and faience. The
standard Harappan seal was square in shape with a 2X2 dimension. It is believed that the seals were used
for commercial purposes. A few seals were also carried as amulets, perhaps as a kind of identity card. All
the seals have pictures of animals with something written in a pictographic script which is yet to be
deciphered.
• Motifs on Harappan seals include the elephant, tiger, antelope, crocodile, hare, humped bull, buffalo,
rhinoceros, and the one-horned mythical animal referred to as Unicorn. No seal with Cow or Horse or
Lion motif has been discovered. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
Q 42.C
• If all the people of economy increase the proportion of their income they save, the total value of savings in
the economy will not rise-it will either decrease or remain unchanged. This result is known as Paradox of
thrift . Hence, option(c) is the correct answer.
• This states that as people become more thrifty, they end up saving less or same as before.
• This was popularized by British economist John Maynard Keynes.
• This is because, during recession people tend to save more and more and that imposes a net drag on the
economy which is already under recession. According to Keynesian theory, the proper response to an
economic recession is more spending, more risk-taking, and fewer savings.

Q 43.D
• Xicc++ is a baryon, part of a family of “doubly charmed” baryons. This family of particles comprises
most ordinary matter and includes neutrons and protons. All baryons are made up of three quarks, a
kind of basic particle. There are six types of quarks: two are light (up and down quarks), and four are
heavy (bottom or beauty, top or truth, strange, and charm). The Xicc++ is also special because it is the
first baryon actually observed that has more than one heavy quark.
• Researchers at CERN’s Large Hadron Collider (LHC) have discovered a new particle in their work on the
LHC beauty (LHCb) experiment. The Standard Model of particle physics predicts that particles like the
XICC++ particle also called doubly charged, doubly charmed xi particle — exist, but this discovery is the
first time researchers have confirmed that they are actually there.
Q 44.B
• Free, Prior and Informed Consent (FPIC) is a specific right that pertains to indigenous peoples and is
recognised in the United Nations Declaration on the Rights of Indigenous Peoples (UNDRIP). It allows
them to give or withhold consent to a project that may affect them or their territories. Hence option (b) is
the correct answer.
• For example, in a decade-old case, Supreme Court (SC) ruled that Vedanta Resources can mine bauxite
from Orissa’s Niyamgiri hills provided it has the consent of the gram sabhas (or palli sabhas) of the
project-affected villages comprising largely of Dongria Kondh tribe. Later on, the project was shelved
because of the denial by gram Sabha.
• Informed consent is a process for getting permission before conducting a healthcare intervention on a
person, or for disclosing personal information. A health care provider may ask a patient to consent to
receive therapy before providing it, or a clinical researcher may ask a research participant before enrolling
that person into a clinical trial. Informed consent is collected according to guidelines from the fields of
medical ethics and research ethics.
• The rights of an arrested person regarding the ground of arrest and to consult a legal practitioner of his
choice are provided under Article 22 in the Constitution Of India.
• The rights of citizens regarding the political question which has been referred to them for a direct decision
are defined under the referendum.
Q 45.B
• The Hubbert curve is a method for predicting the likely production rate of any finite resource over
time.
• When plotted on a chart, the result resembles a symmetrical bell-shaped curve.
• The theory was developed in the 1950s to describe the production cycle of fossil fuels.
• However, it is now considered to be an accurate model for the production cycle of any finite resource.
• The Laffer curve shows how tax revenues change when the tax rate is either increased or decreased.
Typically, it has an inverted-U shape.
• The distribution of Income in an economy is represented by the Lorenz Curve.
• A Beveridge curve, or UV curve, is a graphical representation of the relationship between
unemployment and the job vacancy rate.
• Hence, option(b) is the correct answer.
Q 46.D
• Sand mining is a practice that is used to extract sand, from various environments, such as beaches, inland
dunes and dredged from ocean beds, and river beds of deltaic regions. The mining is in operation in all the
continents of the Globe. Environmental problems occur when the rate of extraction of sand, gravel and
other materials exceeds the rate of deposition.
• Sand is vital for the sustenance of rivers. The sand mining has several impacts on the river environment-
o Extraction of bed material in excess of replenishment by transport from upstream causes the bed to
lower (degrade) upstream and downstream of the site of removal.
o In-stream habitat is impacted by an increase in river gradient, suspended load, sediment transport, and
sediment deposition.
o Excessive sediment deposition for replenishment increases turbidity which prevents penetration of
light required for photosynthesis and reduces the food availability of aquatic fauna.
o Riparian habitat including a vegetative cover on and adjacent to the river banks it controls erosion
provides nutrient inputs into the stream and prevents intrusion of pollutants in the stream through
runoff. Bank erosion and change of morphology of the river can destroy the riparian vegetative cover.

o Bed degradation is responsible for channel shifting, causing loss of properties and degradation
of landscape, it can also undermine bridge supports, pipelines or other structures.
o Degradation may change the morphology of the river bed, which constitutes one aspect of the aquatic
habitat.
o Degradation can deplete the entire depth of gravelly bed material, exposing other substrates that may
underlie the gravel, which could, in turn, affect the quality of aquatic habitat. Lowering of
groundwater table in the flood plain because of the lowering of riverbed level as well as river
water level takes place because of extraction and draining out of excessive groundwater from
the adjacent areas. So, if a floodplain aquifer drains to the stream, groundwater levels can be
lowered as a result of bed degradation.
o Lowering of the water table can destroy riparian vegetation.
o Excessive pumping of groundwater in the process of mining in abandoned channels depletes
groundwater causing scarcity of irrigation and drinking water. In extreme cases, it may create ground
fissures and subsidence in adjacent areas.
o Unscientific and unregulated sand and gravel mining tend to increase channel bank scouring and
erosion. This causes a large degree of meandering of rivers and sometimes it could be in km.
o Rapid bed degradation may induce bank collapse and erosion by increasing the heights of banks.
o Polluting groundwater by reducing the thickness of the filter material especially if mining is taking
place at top of recharge fissures.
o Choking of the sand layer which acts as a filter for ingress of groundwater from the river by dumping
of finer material, compaction of filter zone due to movement of heavy vehicles. It also reduces the
permeability and porosity of the filter material.
o Removal of gravel from bars may cause downstream bars to erode if they subsequently receive less
bed material than is carried downstream from them by fluvial transport.
Q 47.B
• Recent context: The Sustainable Development Solutions Network for the United Nations released
the World Happiness Report on 20th March, 2020.
About the World Happiness Report:
• The World Happiness Report ranks 156 countries by how happy their citizens perceive themselves to be.
• The rankings are based on polling (Gallup World Poll) which looks at six variables: GDP per
capita, social support, healthy life expectancy, freedom, generosity, and absence of corruption.
Hence option c is correct.
• The 2020 Report for the first time ranked cities around the world by their subjective well-being and
looked into how the social, urban and natural environments combine to affect happiness.
Key highlights:
▪ Best performers:
o Finland is ranked as the world’s happiest nation for the third consecutive year
o Nordic states dominated the top 10, along with countries such as Switzerland, New Zealand and
Austria.
o Luxembourg edged into the 10th spot for the first time this year.
▪ Worst performers:
o The countries at the bottom are those afflicted by violent conflicts and extreme poverty, with
Zimbabwe, South Sudan and Afghanistan classified as the world’s least happy nations.
▪ India’s position:
o India, previously ranked at 140 dropped to 144.
o Its rank is way lower than its neighbours. Nepal is ranked 92, Pakistan is at 66, Bangladesh at 107 and
Sri Lanka at 130.
o India is a new entrant to the bottom-fifteen group.
Q 48.D
• Article 19(1) the Constitution of India guarantees the protection of certain freedoms as fundamental
rights.
• All citizens shall have the right
o To freedom of speech and expression;
o To assemble peaceably and without arms;
o To form associations or unions;
o To move freely throughout the territory of India;
o To reside and settle in any part of the territory of India; and
o To practise any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business
• However, right to strike is not expressly recognized in the Constitution of India. The Supreme Court
settled the Case of Kameshwar Prasad v. The State of Bihar on in 1958 by stating that right to strike is
not a fundamental right.
• India recognized Right to strike as a legal right under Industrial Disputes Act, which came into force
in 1947. Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 limits the rights of strikers and given the legal right of going on
strikes as stipulated in sections 22, 23 and 24 of the Act.
Q 49.C
• The 73rd Constitutional Amendment act of 1992 added a new Part-IX to the Constitution of India. This
part is entitled as ‘The Panchayats’ and consists of provisions from Articles 243 to 243 O. In addition, the
act has also added a new Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution. This schedule contains 29 functional
items of the panchayats.
• Salient features of the Act include Gram Sabha, Three tiers of Panchayati Raj, State Finance
Commission etc.
• The state legislatures are needed to enact laws to endow powers and authority to the Panchayats to enable
them functions of local government. The 11th schedule enshrines the distribution of powers between the
State legislature and the Panchayats. These 29 subjects include
o Agriculture, including agricultural extension
o Health and sanitation, including hospitals, primary health centers and dispensaries
o Health and sanitation, including hospitals, primary health centers and dispensaries
o Technical training and vocational education
o Land improvement, implementation of land reforms, land consolidation and soil conservation
o Minor irrigation, water management and watershed development
o Public distribution system
o Non-conventional energy sources.
• Slum development and up-gradation is included in Twelfth Schedule which contains functional items
of Municipalities.
Q 50.C
• Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunications (SWIFT) is member-owned cooperative
headquartered in Brussels, Belgium, that provides safe and secure financial transactions for its members.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• SWIFT is a messaging network that financial institutions use to securely transmit information and
instructions through a standardized system of codes.
• Under SWIFT, each financial organization has a unique code which is used to send and receive
payments.
• SWIFT does not facilitate funds transfer, rather, it sends payment orders, which must be settled by
correspondent accounts that the institutions have with each other. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• SWIFT India is a joint venture of top Indian public and private sector banks and SWIFT (Society
for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication). The company was created to deliver high quality
domestic financial messaging services to the Indian financial community. It has a huge potential to
contribute significantly to the financial community in many domains.
• Half a dozen public and private sector banks have been slapped with monetary penalties by the Reserve
Bank of India for non-compliance of directions in the Swift messaging system used by banks worldwide
for foreign currency transfers.
Q 51.D
• The Indian National Army (Azad Hind Fauj): It was an armed force formed by Indian nationalists in
1942 in Southeast Asia during World War II. The aim of the army was to secure Indian independence
with Japanese assistance. Initially formed in 1942 immediately after the fall of Singapore under Mohan
Singh, the first INA collapsed in December that year before it was revived under the leadership of
Subhash Chandra Bose in 1943. Bose worked out a master plan of campaign for the INA with the
ultimate goal of reaching Delhi: Chalo Delhi (on to Delhi) and gave the salutation ‘Jai Hind’. He set up
two INA headquarters, in Rangoon and in Singapore.

• The INA campaign had wide geographical reach and it involved the participation of diverse social groups
and political parties. The INA was demonstratively non-communal, with Muslims quite prominent among
its officers and ranks. The innovation of a women’s regiment proved a great inspiration for Indian women.
• When the Government announced its decision to prosecute some of the INA officers for treason, there
appeared massive demonstrations all over the country and there were persistent demands that the officers
should be released. Along with the congress, the entire political leadership of the country (including the
Muslim League) opposed the trails and demanded the release of the INA officers. Hence only statements
1 and 2 are correct.
Q 52.D
• Gene silencing is a technique that aims to reduce or eliminate the production of a protein from its
corresponding gene. It is an epigenetic modification of gene expression leading to the inactivation of
previously active genes. The epigenetic modification does not alter the DNA sequence. Hence, statement
1 is not correct.
• Genes are sections of DNA that contain the instructions for making proteins. Proteins are essential
molecules that perform an array of functions including signalling between cells, speeding up biochemical
reactions, and providing structural support for the cell. Each gene is responsible for producing a
corresponding protein in a two-step process.
• First, a copy of the information encoded in a gene is made in the form of messenger RNA (mRNA), a
process known as transcription. This occurs in the nucleus of the cell, the cellular structure where all of
the cell’s genetic material is contained. The mRNA subsequently travels out of the nucleus, and the
genetic information it carries is used to produce a specific protein, a process known as translation.
• Instead of directly editing DNA or inhibiting the transcription process, the key idea behind gene silencing
is intervening in gene expression prior to translation. By designing a molecule that can specifically
identify and breakdown the mRNA carrying instructions for making a certain protein, scientists have been
able to effectively decrease levels of that protein.
• There are various gene silencing methods currently employed in research and being developed as potential
disease therapeutics. Two of the leading and most understood methods of gene silencing are RNA
interference (RNAi) and antisense oligonucleotides (ASOs). Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• RNA Interference: In RNAi, the molecules that identify the target mRNA are called small-interfering
RNAs (siRNAs). Unlike normal single-stranded RNA found in cells – such as mRNA – siRNAs are short,
synthetically made double-stranded RNA molecules designed to pair with a specific mRNA strand. This
association of the siRNAs with a particular target mRNA causes the breakdown of the target mRNA by
recruiting other proteins that degrade the mRNA target. Because siRNAs are double-stranded, they are
more stable and less susceptible to degradation than ASOs, allowing them to continue to perform their
silencing function for a longer period of time in the cell.
• Antisense Oligonucleotides: Similar to siRNAs, ASOs are engineered by scientists to associate with a
target mRNA strand. The binding of the ASO to mRNA directs a protein to breakdown the mRNA.
However, unlike siRNAs, ASOs are smaller, single-stranded RNA molecules. As mentioned above,
single-stranded RNAs are not as stable as double-stranded ones; thus, ASOs are often chemically
modified to increase their durability in a biological environment. However, their smaller size and
chemical structure allow ASOs to be transported in cells and living tissues much more effectively than
siRNAs.
• RNAi is used in functional genomics (systematic analysis of loss-of-function phenotypes induced by
RNAi triggers) and developing therapies for the treatment of viral infection, dominant disorders,
neurological disorders, and many types of cancers (in vivo inactivation of gene products linked to human
disease progression and pathology). It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to viral
pathogens. For example, a nematode Meloidogyne incognita infects the roots of tobacco plants and causes
a great reduction in yield. A novel strategy was adopted to prevent this infestation which was based on the
process of RNA interference (RNAi).
Q 53.A
• The Pallavas were a powerful ancient dynasty that ruled a huge part of Southern India, including present
day Tamil Nadu, between the 6th and 9th centuries AD, with Kanchipuram as their capital. They are
credited with introducing the Dravidian style of temple architecture. The first Pallava shrines were rock-
cut cave temples.
• The Pallava cave temples of the TamilNadu region, including those in Mahabalipuram are some of the
oldest surviving specimens of Dravidian architecture. They date back to the reign of the Pallava ruler
Mahendravarman I, the father of Mamalla. Resembling Buddhist rock cut shrines, they consist of cave-
like verandahs or mandapas with rows of pillars.
• Most of the pillars are embellished with carved lions at their bases, a signature feature found in almost all
of Pallava architecture. Detailed panels depict episodes from Hindu mythology, and niches inside the
caves often house sculpted deities.
• The Varaha Mandapa in Mahabalipuram has stunning carvings that tell stories of Varaha, the avatar of
Lord Vishnu in the form of a boar.
• The Mahishamardini Mandapa is dedicated to Mahishamardini, a form of Goddess Durga, and the
Trimurti Mandapa to the trinity of Lord Brahma, Lord Vishnu and Lord Shiva.
• The Krishna Mandapa is known for a magnificent panel called Govardhanadhari, portraying Lord
Krishna holding up the mythical Govardhan hill to protect the people of his village from torrential rains.
• The other famous architectural features of constructed by Pallavas includes- Pancha Rathas, A monolithic
ratha, Bas relief, Shore temple, etc.
Q 54.A
• Black carbon is the sooty black material emitted as a result of incomplete combustion of gas and diesel
engines, coal-fired power plants, and other sources. It comprises a significant portion of particulate matter
or PM, which is an air pollutant.
• The fine particles absorb light and about a million times more energy than carbon dioxide. It is said to be
the second-largest contributor to climate change after CO2. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• But unlike CO2, which can stay in the atmosphere for years together, black carbon is short-lived and
remains in the atmosphere only for days to weeks before it descends as rain or snow. Hence, statement 1
is correct.
• The concentration varied from a minimum of 0.01μg/cubic meter in winter to 4.62μg/cubic meter during
summer. Being a pristine zone far from sources of pollution, the measurements are critical to establishing
a baseline for pollution loads and estimating the contribution of various sources to pollution.
• India is the second-largest emitter of black carbon in the world, with emissions expected to increase
dramatically in the coming decades, with the Indo Gangetic plains said to be the major contributor.
• Black carbon absorbs solar energy and warms the atmosphere. When it falls to earth with precipitation, it
darkens the surface of snow and ice, reducing their albedo (the reflecting power of a surface), warming
the snow, and hastening to melt. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Q 55.B
• Lithium-producing countries have grown in stature on the world mining stage in recent years, as interest
in the silvery-white metal grows in tandem with demand for the electric vehicles and consumer electronics
whose batteries it powers. Sometimes referred to as “white gold”, it is also used in ceramics and glass,
lubricating greases, polymer production, and air treatment. According to the latest figures from the US
Geological Survey (USGS), global lithium production in 2018 reached around 85,000 tonnes – up from
69,000 in the previous year. With a production of 51,000 metric tonnes in 2018, Australia occupies
the top spot in the list of top lithium-producing countries. The South American country, Chile, is
second on the list of top lithium-producing countries – and in 2018 produced 16,000 tonnes of the metal –
up from 14,200 the year before. The Salar de Atacama salt flat in Chile is home to one of the world’s
biggest lithium reserves. Lithium production in China hit 8,000 tonnes in 2018. Hence statement 1 is not
correct.
• India currently imports all its lithium needs. It imported lithium batteries worth $1.2 billion in fiscal
2019, up from $384 million in FY17. However, recently researchers at the Atomic Minerals Directorate, a
unit of India’s Atomic Energy Commission, have estimated lithium reserves of 14,100 tonnes in a patch of
land surveyed in Mandya, 100 km from Bengaluru. However, the official production of Lithium has not
commenced in India. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Q 56.D
• The concept of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) originated and developed in the USA in the 1960s. In
India, the PIL is a product of the judicial activism role of the Supreme Court. It was introduced in the
early 1980s. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer and Justice P.N. Bhagwati were the pioneers of the concept of
PIL.
• A PIL can be filed against a State/ Central Govt., Municipal Authorities, not any private party. The
definition of State is the same as given under Article 12 of the Constitution.
o The Government and Parliament of India
o The Government and Legislatures of each of the respective States.
o All local Authorities
o Other Authorities within the territory of India or under the Government of India
o A private party can be included in PIL as “Respondent”, after making concerned State Authority a
party. PIL can’t be filed against a party alone.
• The introduction of PIL in India was facilitated by the relaxation of the traditional rule of ‘locus standi’.
According to this rule, only that person whose rights are infringed alone can move the court for the
remedies, whereas, the PIL is an exception to this traditional rule. Under the PIL, any public-spirited
citizen or a social organisation can move the court for the enforcement of the rights of any person or
group of persons who because of their poverty or ignorance or socially or economically disadvantaged
position are themselves unable to approach the court for the remedies. Hence statement 1 is correct
and statement 2 is not correct.
• The Supreme Court and High Courts in exercise of powers under Article 32 and Article 226 of the
Constitution of India can entertain a petition filed by any interested person in the welfare of the people
who is in a disadvantaged position and, thus, not in a position to knock the doors of the Court.
• Hence Any citizen can file a public case by filing a petition:
o Under Art 32 of the Indian Constitution, in the Supreme court.
o Under Art 226 of the Indian Constitution, in the High court.
• Hence statement 3 is correct.
Q 57.A
• There are two Business Advisory Committees in the Parliament of India, one each for Lok Sabha and
Rajya Sabha. These committees regulate the program and time table of the concerned house. Hence
statement 1 is correct.
• The Constituent Assembly (Legislative) Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business came in force
immediately before the commencement of the Constitution of India was modified and adopted by the
Speaker of Lok Sabha in the exercise of the powers conferred on the Speaker by article 118(2) of the
Constitution and published under the title “Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the House
of the People” in the Gazette of India Extraordinary dated the 17th April 1952. Those rules were
amended by the Speaker from time to time on the recommendations of the Rules Committee of the
House until September 1954. In September 1954, Rules Committee decided that their
recommendations should be approved by the House before amendments were given effect to. Hence
• The Lok Sabha Business Advisory Committee has 15 members including Speaker, who is also its
chairman. The Rajya Sabha Business Advisory Committee has 11 members including the Vice-
President as its ex-officio chairman. The members are nominated by the speaker/chairman as the case may
be. The Committee was constituted for the first time in the Parliament in 1952.
• The function of the Committee is to recommend the time that should be allotted for the discussion of
such government legislative and other business as the Speaker, in consultation with the Leader of the
House, may direct to be referred to the Committee. The Committee, on its own initiative, may also
recommend to the Government to bring forward particular subjects for discussion in the House and
recommend allocation of time for such discussions. The Committee also indicates in the
proposed allocation of time, the different hours on which the various stages of Bill or Bills shall be
completed.
• The decisions reached by the Committee are always unanimous in character and representative of the
collective view of the House.
Q 58.B
• Statement 1 is not correct: Dayanand Saraswati invoked the authority of the Vedas as the most authentic
India religious text and sought to attack all the accretions incorporated into Hinduism after the Vedic
period. Thus he attacked idolatry, polytheism, ritualistic practices by Brahman priests, child marriages,
untouchability, caste rigidities, belief in magic charms, animal sacrifices, etc.
• Statement 3 is correct: He also criticized later Hindu scriptures like Puranas and gave the slogan “Back
to the Vedas”. He supported the Chaturvarna system, widow remarriage,. Inter-caste marriages, female
education, equal status for women, both in letter and spirit.
• Statement 2 is correct: He criticized the concept of humans to attain moksha (salvation) to seek union
with God. Instead, he advocated that God, soul, and matter (Prakriti) are all distinct and eternal entities.
He also opposed the belief in the principles of niyati (destiny). He stated that every individual must work
on his own for his salvation.
• Swami Dayanand believed in truth. His motto was Satyam Eva Jayate Na Anritam (Truth alone triumphs
and not untruth). Thus he anticipated Mahatma Gandhi who adhered to the two basic principles
throughout his life viz. Truth and Non-violence.
Q 59.B
• The President of India, in the exercise of the powers conferred by article 340 of the Constitution, has
appointed a Commission in 2017 to examine the sub-categorization of Other Backward Classes. Former
Delhi High Court Chief Justice G. Rohini has been appointed by President of India as the head of the
Commission. The exercise will involve the sub-categorization of 5,000 castes in the Central OBC list.
• Sub categorization of the OBCs will ensure that the more backward among the OBC communities
can also access the benefits of reservation for educational institutions and government jobs. Over 11
States including Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Puducherry, Karnataka, Haryana, Jharkhand, West
Bengal, Bihar, Maharashtra, Jammu and Kashmir and Tamil Nadu already sub-categorized OBCs.
Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The Supreme Court in its order in Indra Sawhney and others vs. Union of India observed that there is no
constitutional or legal bar to a State categorizing backward class as backward or more backward and
observed that sub-categorization is not impermissible in law.
• At present, there is a single central OBC list, with entries from each State apart from the different
states having their own state list of OBCs. Hence statement 1 is correct. There is no Central OBC sub-
categorization.
• OBC reservation became a reality after the implementation of the Mandal Commission report, which
categorized many castes as constituting backward classes and deserving of quotas.
• Till date, 3 Commissions has been appointed under Art 340: Kalelkar Commission in 1953, Mandal
Commission in 1980, Justice Rohini Commission in 2017. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• With the passage of 123rd Constitutional Amendment Act in 2018, it was apprehended that after this
enactment Article 340 may become redundant but rather this amendment is simply an effort to give
Constitutional status to this National Commission for Backward Classes (a Constitutional Body under
Article 338B of the Constitution of India under the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment). Article
340 would in no way become redundant and the government would still have the powers to set-up ad hoc
Committees under it. Also, this Constitutional amendment does not affect or alter in any way the present
powers or functions of the State Backward Classes Commissions and their powers for exclusion or
inclusion of backward classes in the State Backward classes list shall remain unchanged.
Q 60.D
• India is the world's second-largest tea producer after China. China is the World's Top Tea Exporter. In
2017, China accounted for 20.6 percent of global export value. Sri Lanka followed at 19.3 percent share,
in contrast, exported a comparable 260,000 metric tons of tea in 2018 but at a much lower value
(estimated at $650 million—about 7.5 percent of total tea value in 2017).
• In the 2018/2019 crop year, sugar production was 179 million metric tons, with 181 million metric tons
expected for 2019/2020. Approximately 80% of the world’s sugar is produced from sugarcane in tropical
and subtropical climates with the remaining 20% derived from sugar beet, which is grown mostly in the
temperate zones of the Northern Hemisphere. India became the world's largest sugar producer in
2018/2019, beating out Brazil for the first time in 16 years. India produced 33 million metric tons of
sugar. That is 19% of the world's total sugar production of 179 million metric tons. India is the largest
producer as well as consumer of Sugar. However, Brazil is the largest net exporter of Sugar in the
world.
• India is the world's largest producer of raw jute and jute goods, contributing to over 50 per cent and 40 per
cent respectively of global production. Bangladesh remains the world's largest exporter of jute fibre,
accounting for as much as 70% of global jute exports.
• India with 7.4 Billion USD remains the top exporter of rice in the world. India, currently the world's
largest exporter of rice, has seen a 35 per cent fall in rice exports so far this year, as domestic rates have
been higher than that offered by competitors. China is the world's largest rice producer — In 2018,
China’s paddy rice production amounted to over 208 million metric tons, which amounted to about one-
third of the total global paddy production.
Q 61.B
• Tabo caves are located, just above the ancient Tabo monastery, in Spiti Valley in Himachal Pradesh.
These caves were artificially excavated for monks and used as assembly halls. Hence pair 1 is not
correctly matched.
• Edakkal caves are located on the Ambukuthy Hills in Wayanad district in Kerala. They were believed to
be the camping shelters for neolithic communities. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.

• The famous Varaha cave or Boar cave is located in Mahabalipuram, near the coromandel coast of Chennai
in Tamil Nadu. It is a part of the Group of Monuments at Mahabalipuram, which is a UNESCO World
Heritage Site. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
Q 62.B
• Primary production is the synthesis of organic compounds from atmospheric or aqueous carbon dioxide. It
principally occurs through the process of photosynthesis but it also occurs through chemosynthesis, which
uses the oxidation or reduction of inorganic chemical compounds as its source of energy.
• Photosynthesis requires photosynthetic organisms, sunlight, carbon dioxide, water, and nutrients
like Nitrogen and Phosphorus, etc. Lack of any one of these may limit photosynthesis or primary
production. Hence all the options are correct.
• The organisms responsible for primary production are known as primary producers or autotrophs and
form the base of the food chain. In terrestrial ecoregions, these are mainly plants, while in aquatic
ecoregions phytoplankton predominates in this role. Reduction in the population of phytoplankton has a
direct bearing on primary productivity.
• Production varies among ecosystems, as well as overtime within ecosystems. Precipitation is the dominant
control worldwide, but nutrient availability often limits primary production in any particular, local system.
Q 63.B
• Arbitration, mediation and conciliation are the main Alternative Dispute Resolution Mechanism which is
generally adopted by the people to resolve their disputes in an informal manner.
• The difference between mediation and arbitration lies in the nature of the judgement taken by the experts.
While the decision taken by the arbitrator is binding on the parties, the mediator does not make the
judgement but helps the parties in arriving at an agreement. Also, the process of arbitration can start only
if there exists a valid Arbitration Agreement between the parties prior to the emergence of the dispute.
• The basic difference between mediation and conciliation is based on the role played by the third party
who is selected by the parties seeking a settlement, in consensus. In mediation, the mediator acts as a
facilitator who helps the parties in agreeing. Conversely, in conciliation, the conciliator is more like
an interventionist who provides probable solutions to the parties concerned, to settle disputes.
• Conciliation is a type of ADR where the settlement is made out of court. There is no involvement of the
court in the whole arbitral proceedings. The dispute is settled by a neutral third party, who is the
conciliator. The conciliation process is voluntary as it is on the mutual discretion of the parties to
choose conciliation as a method of resolving their dispute with the assistance of the conciliator; also
the proposal is not binding upon the parties. They are free to follow or not follow the proposal given
by the conciliator. It presides over litigation because the parties do not have to go through the technical
procedures and formalities of litigation; instead, conciliation allows parties for a friendly search to reach
an amicable solution.
• Meditation encourages a search for the solution by the parties themselves, involved in the dispute. The
basic motive of mediation is to provide opportunities to parties to negotiate and come to a final solution
catering to the needs of both sides. It is an assisted negotiation and an informal process in which parties
are aided by a third impartial person, who is the mediator, possessing specialized skills, requisite training
and sufficient experience necessary to assist the disputed parties for reaching a negotiated settlement.
Q 64.D
• The Congress Ministries resigned in October 1939 because of the political crisis brought about by World
War II. But Gandhiji welcomed the resignations for another reason they would help cleanse the Congress
of the ‘rampant corruption.’ He wrote to C. Rajagopalachari on 23 October 1939: ‘I am quite clear in my
mind that what has happened is best for the cause. It is a bitter pill I know. But it was needed. It will drive
away all the parasites from the body. We have been obliged to do the wrong things which we shall be able
to avoid.’
Q 65.D
• Kanada Kashayapa (300 B.C.), the author of the Vaisheshika Sutra, is the founder of the
Vaisheshika system. It specializes in the philosophy of nature. Kanada speaks of the six categories:
substance, quality, action or motion, community, particularity, and inherence. The later Vaisheshika
clearly recognize non-existence as the seventh category. Kanada does not clearly mention God in the
Vaisheshika Sutra. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Prasastapada (400 A.D.), Sridhara (1000 A.D.) and Udayana (1000A.D.) discuss the theistic proofs,
the nature of God, and His creation of the world out of the atoms and dissolution of it into them. The
Vaisheshika discusses the nature of the individual self, the proofs for its existence, the plurality of finite
souls, and their bondage and liberation.
• The term Vaisheshika is derived from the term visesa. The Vaisheshika system lays stress on particularity
(visesa) of the eternal substances. Ether, space, time, souls, internal organs, and the atoms of earth,
water, fire and air are eternal. Each of them has a particularity which is its distinctive
feature. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The Vaisheshika emphasizes the plurality and distinctness of physical things and individual souls. Its
special feature is the doctrine of atomism. The Vaisheshika school propounded the atom theory.
According to it, material objects are made up of atoms. This marked the beginning of physics in India. But
this scientific view was soon diluted with the belief in God and spiritualism, and this school put its faith in
both heaven and salvation. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Q 66.B
• India has a rich culture of dance and music, both classical and folk. Folk music is prevalent and practised
all over the country.
• Lotia is a folk music from Rajasthan, sung during the Lotia festival in the month of Chaitra. Hence, pair
1st is not correctly matched.
• Burrakatha is a highly dramatic form of ballad from Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. A bottle-shaped
drum (tambura) is played by the main performer while reciting a story. The ballad singers, like stage
actor, wear make up and a highly stylised costume. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• Tappa is a form of semi-classical vocal music from Punjab. Sung in Punjabi and Pashto language, it is
characterised by jumpy and flashy tonal movements with rhythmic and rapid notes. Hence, pair 3 is
correctly matched.
Q 67.D
• Department of Land Resources under the Ministry of Rural Development aims to ensure sustainable
improvement in productivity and livelihood/income potential of land, in particular, rainfed cultivated
areas and culturable wastelands. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched.
• The main objectives of the Department include:
o To increase the productivity of rainfed/degraded land through the process of integrated watershed
management;
o To support the States/UTs for implementation of Digital Land Records Modernization Programme
(DLRMP) with the aim to achieve a comprehensive land governance system known as Integrated
Land Information Management System;
o To administer land reforms and other related matters relating to land such as administration of the
Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement
Act, 2013(RFCTLARR), the National Rehabilitation and Resettlement Policy of 2007, the
Registration Act, 1908, etc.; and
o To launch National Mission on Bio-Diesel demonstration phase with the propagation of bio-fuel
plantations primarily on wastelands, based on the assessment of plantations already undertaken in the
country.
• The Pension and Pensioners Welfare Department under Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances
and Pensions is the nodal department for formulating policies relating to pension and retirement benefits
of Central Government personnel covered under the Central Civil Services (Pension) Rules, 1972. Apart
from formulating a pension policy for the Central Government pensioners/family pensioners, the
department is also keen to promote the welfare of pensioners and acts as a platform for redressal of
grievances of pensioners. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO) works under Department of Defence
Research and Development of Ministry of Defence. DRDO dedicatedly working towards enhancing
self-reliance in Defence Systems and undertakes design & development leading to production of world
class weapon systems and equipment in accordance with the expressed needs and the qualitative
requirements laid down by the three services. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.
Q 68.A
• Recently, India’s first e-waste clinic has been opened in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh. It would enable
segregation, processing and disposal of waste from both household and commercial units. The e-
waste clinic is jointly set up by the Central Pollution Control Board-CPCB and Bhopal Municipal
Corporation-BMC.

• Electronic waste will be collected door-to-door or could be deposited directly at the e-waste clinic. Door-
to-door collection will happen in two ways. Either separate carts for the collection of e-waste will be
designed, or separate bins will be attached to existing ones meant for solid and wet waste. The clinic is
being conceived in compliance with the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016. The CPCB will
provide technical support to the clinic. The most interesting aspect of e-waste clinic is that the clinic has
been prepared in junk low floor bus. The bus is decorated with e-waste material from outside and inside.
A TV has been also installed in it, in which documentary films on the subject of environmental damage
caused by e-waste will be shown.
Q 69.D
• Main feature of Dravida style was building storey upon storey above the chief deity room (Garbhagriha).
These stories had a typical style and came to be called vimana. A pillared hall called mandap was
generally placed in front of the sanctum. The entire structure was enclosed in a courtyard surrounded by
high walls pierced by lofty gates called gopurams.
Q 70.A
• India's External Debt denominated in Rupees (Rupee Debt) consists of the following categories:-
o The outstanding state credits (both defense and civilian) extended to India by the erstwhile Union of
Soviet Socialist Republic (USSR). The debt is denominated in Rupees and repayment of such debt is
made primarily through the export of goods to Russia;
o Rupee Denominated NRI Deposits viz. the Non-Resident (External) Rupee Account
[NR(E)RA] and the Non-Resident Ordinary Rupee (NRO) Accounts. The NR(E)RA is categorized
as an external debt liability since the principal amount held in such accounts, as well as the interest
accrued, are repatriable; Foreign currency Non-Resident (FCNR) deposits - a type of NRI deposits
are not treated as Rupee debt.
o Foreign Institutional Investors (FII) Investments in Government Treasury Bills (TBs) and dated
securities.
o FII Investments in corporate debt securities.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
Q 71.A
• Allelopathy is a biological phenomenon by which an organism produces one or more biochemicals that
influence the germination, growth, survival, and reproduction of other organisms.
• Through this process a plant releases chemicals that can either inhibit (negative allelopathy) or benefit
other plants (positive allelopathy), however, most of the allelopathic plants cause harm to other
plants. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Allelopathic chemicals can be present in any part of the plant. They can be found in leaves, flowers, roots,
fruits, or stems. They can also be found in the surrounding soil. Target species are affected by these toxins
in many different ways. The toxic chemicals may inhibit shoot/root growth, they may inhibit nutrient
uptake, or they may attack a naturally occurring symbiotic relationship thereby destroying the plant's
usable source of a nutrient.
• Not all plants have allelopathic tendencies. Some, though they exhibit these tendencies, may actually be
displaying aggressive competition of a non-chemical form. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Plants are involved in several types of competition for sunlight, water, and nutrients. In general, if it is of
a chemical nature, then the plant is considered an allelopathic. Some of the common species
are Parthenium, lantana, etc.
Q 72.A
• Haemophilia is a genetic disorder that prevents the clotting of blood. Hence statement 2 is not
correct.
• People with the disorder will not have sufficient clotting factors in their blood to arrest bleeding in
case of injuries. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Treatment: The bleeding is managed by injecting the missing clotting factor, the anti-hemophilia factor
(AHF), to the patients. In a majority of the patients, there will be a deficiency of Clotting Factor 8 or 9.
• Anticoagulants, commonly known as blood thinners, are chemical substances that prevent or reduce
coagulation of blood, prolonging the clotting time.
• Giving anticoagulant to a hemophilic patient will lead to more bleeding as the anticoagulant will further
prevent clotting leading ultimately to the death of the person.
• An anticoagulant medicine is used in patients to prevent blood clots from forming in veins, arteries, the
heart, and the brain of a patient.
• Heparin is a naturally occurring anticoagulant that prevents the formation and extension of blood
clots.
Q 73.A
• Option 1 is correct: The Union Cabinet has approved the policy guidelines to allow financially sound
State Government entities to borrow directly from bilateral ODA (Official Development Assistance)
partners for implementation of vital infrastructure projects. The guidelines will facilitate the State
Government entities to directly borrow from the external bilateral funding agencies subject to fulfilment
of certain conditions and all repayments of loans and interests to the funding agencies will be directly
remitted by the concerned borrower. The concerned State Government will furnish guarantee for the
Loan. The Government of India will provide counter-guarantee for the loan.
• Option 2 is correct: Recently Kerala has become the first state to impose calamity cess on GST. States
can levy such a cess if and only if it is approved by the GST Council. The formal request must first be
presented to the Council.
• Option 3 is not correct: In India, the Central Government issues both, treasury bills and bonds or
dated securities while the State Governments issue only bonds or dated securities, which are called
the State Development Loans (SDLs). G-Secs carry practically no risk of default and, hence, are called
risk-free gilt-edged instruments. Treasury bills or T-bills, which are money market instruments, are
short term debt instruments issued by the Government of India and are presently issued in three
tenors, namely, 91 day, 182 day and 364 day.
Q 74.B
• Prompt Corrective Action framework was introduced by RBI in 2002 as a structured early-intervention
mechanism for banks that become undercapitalized due to poor asset quality, or vulnerable due to loss of
profitability.
• It aims to check the problem of Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) in the Indian banking sector.
• The framework was reviewed in 2017 based on the recommendations of the working group of the
Financial Stability and Development Council.
• The PCA framework deems banks as risky if they slip some trigger points - capital to risk-weighted
assets ratio (CRAR), net NPA, Return on Assets (RoA) and Tier 1 Leverage ratio. PSL targets are
not the criteria. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Certain structured and discretionary actions are initiated in respect of banks hitting such trigger points.
• The PCA framework is applicable only to commercial banks and not co-operative banks and non-
banking financial companies (NBFCs).
• Out of the 21 state-run banks, 11 are under the PCA framework.
• PCA measures:
o RBI can place restrictions on dividend distribution, branch expansion, and management
compensation.
o Only in an extreme situation, would a bank be a likely candidate for resolution through amalgamation,
reconstruction or winding up.
o RBI may place restrictions on credit by PCA banks to unrated borrowers or those with high risks, but
it doesn’t invoke a complete ban on their lending.
o RBI may also impose restrictions on the bank on borrowings from the interbank market.
o Banks may also not be allowed to enter into new lines of business.
• NABARD had notified in its application (in 2018) of PCA for RRBs whose capital adequacy ratio falls
below 10%, gross NPA at 25% and return on assets less than 0.25%. The PCA framework of RBI does not
apply to RRBs. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Q 75.C
• The Assam Accord was a Memorandum of Settlement signed between representatives of the Government
of India and the leaders of the Assam movement in 1985. A six year agitation demanding identification
and deportation of illegal immigrants was launched by the All Assam Students' Union (AASU) in 1979
concluded with the signing of the Assam Accord.
• Originally, Right to Property was part of Fundamental Rights. The 44th Constitutional Amendment
Act of 1978 removed the right to property from the fundamental rights. However, Article 300 (A) was
inserted to affirm that no person shall be deprived of his/her property without the authority of law. Hence
right to property now became a constitutional right rather than a fundamental right.
• The prime ministership of Morarji Desai extended from March 1977 to July 1979. In the 1977 Indian
general election Janata Party won against the Congress party. Upon taking office, Morarji Desai became
the first Indian Prime Minister not belonging to the Congress party.
• The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 transferred five subjects to Concurrent List from State List, that
is, (a) education, (b) forests, (c) weights and measures, (d) protection of wild animals and birds, and (e)
administration of justice; constitution and organisation of all courts except the Supreme Court and the
high courts.. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
Q 76.C
• Radio waves have the longest wavelengths in the electromagnetic spectrum. The wavelengths of radio
waves range from thousands of metres to 30 cm. These correspond to frequencies as low as 3 Hz and as
high as 1 gigahertz (109 Hz).
• Radio waves are best-known for their use in communication technologies, such as television, mobile
phones and radios. Radio-wave communications signals travel through the air in a straight line, reflect off
of clouds or layers of the ionosphere, or are relayed by satellites in space. These devices receive radio
waves and convert them to mechanical vibrations in the speaker to create sound waves.
• Radio waves are used in various technologies including:
o Bluetooth: It is a proprietary wireless technology intended for short-range communication. It
provides a secure, robust, low power, and low cost method for exchanging information between
devices. Bluetooth uses short-wavelength UHF radio waves of a frequency range between 2.4 and
2.485 GHz. Bluetooth enables one to create a personal area network wherein multiple devices talk to
each other wirelessly via Bluetooth—a typical usage is home control automation systems.
o Wi-Fi: Wi-Fi uses radio waves to transmit information between your device and a router via
frequencies. Two radio-wave frequencies can be used, depending on the amount of data being sent:
2.4 gigahertz and 5 gigahertz. The higher the frequency, the greater the amount of data transmitted per
second.
o GPS: A global positioning system (GPS) is a network of satellites and receiving devices used to
determine the location of something on Earth. GPS receivers provide location in latitude, longitude,
and altitude. They also provide the accurate time. GPS includes 24 satellites that circle Earth in
precise orbits. Each satellite makes a full orbit of Earth every 12 hours. These satellites are constantly
sending out radio signals to establish location.
• Microwaves are a portion or "band" found at the higher frequency end of the radio spectrum, but they are
commonly distinguished from radio waves because of the technologies used to access them. Different
wavelengths of microwaves provide different information to scientists. Medium-length (C-band)
microwaves penetrate through clouds, dust, smoke, snow, and rain to reveal the Earth's surface.
• Microwaves that penetrate haze, light rain and snow, clouds, and smoke are beneficial for satellite
communication and studying the Earth from space. Radar technology is considered an active remote
sensing system because it actively sends a microwave pulse and senses the energy reflected back. Doppler
Radar, Scatterometers, and Radar Altimeters are examples of active remote sensing instruments that use
microwave frequencies.
• X-rays are electromagnetic waves with wavelengths in the range of 0.01 to 10 nanometers and energies in
the range of 100 eV to 100 keV. Because X-rays have very high energy they are known as ionizing
radiation and can harm living tissue. A very high radiation dose over a short amount of time causes
radiation sickness, while lower doses can give an increased risk of radiation-induced cancer. In medical
imaging this increased cancer risk is generally greatly outweighed by the benefits of the examination. The
ionizing capability of X-rays can be utilized in cancer treatment to kill malignant cells using radiation
therapy. It is also used for material characterization using X-ray spectroscopy
• Radiography is an imaging technique used to produce a photographic negative using X-rays or
similar ionizing radiation to view the internal form of an object. Applications of radiography include
medical radiography ("diagnostic" and "therapeutic") and industrial radiography. Hence, option (c) is
correct.
Q 77.B
• Purchasing Managers Index (PMI):
o PMI was originally developed in 1948 by the US-based non-profit group namely Institute of Supply
Management (ISM).
o Now it is published in a variety of different places, depending on the company and country.
o For India, the PMI Data is published by Japanese firm Nikkei but compiled and constructed by
Markit Economics. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

o Calculation of PMI: It is a survey-based measure that asks the respondents about changes in their
perception about key business variables as compared with the previous month. It is calculated
separately for the manufacturing and services sectors and then a composite index is
constructed. Hence statement 2 is correct. The PMI is a number from 0 to 100.
o PMI above 50 represents an expansion when compared to the previous month;
o PMI under 50 represents a contraction, and a reading at 50 indicates no change.
o If PMI of the previous month is higher than the PMI of the current month (as is the case mentioned
above), it represents that the economy is contracting.
o The PMI is usually released at the start of every month. It is, therefore, considered a good leading
indicator of economic activity.
o Significance: To provide information about current and future business conditions to company
decision-makers, analysts, and investors. As the official data on industrial output, manufacturing and
GDP growth comes much later, PMI helps to make informed decisions at an earlier stage.
Q 78.D
• Revolt of 1857 was a major, but ultimately unsuccessful, the uprising in India in 1857–58 against the rule
of the British East India Company, which functioned as a sovereign power on behalf of the British Crown
• The Indian rebellion was fed by resentments born of diverse perceptions, including invasive British-style
social reforms, harsh land taxes, summary treatment of some rich landowners and princes, as well as
skepticism about the improvements brought about by British rule
• Statement 1 is not correct: Impact of this revolt was higher in North India but in the south impact was
negligible, even the Madras army remained totally loyal and Punjab and Bengal were marginally affected.
• Statement 2 is not correct: As rebels lacked the forward-looking program, coherent ideology, a political
perspective or future vision of society. This all became weaknesses of the revolt.
• Statement 3 is not correct: Modern nationalism was unknown at that time. Patriotism meant love of
one’s small locality or at most one’s state.
Q 79.B
• The World Economic Forum launched the Reskilling Revolution, an initiative to provide one billion
people with better education, skills and jobs by 2030. The scheme aims to future-proof workers from
technological change and helps economies by providing new skills for the Fourth Industrial Revolution.
• This platform has been designed to skill the global workforce to future-proof their careers against the
expected displacement of millions of jobs and skills instability as a result of technological change. It is
also designed to provide businesses and economies with the skilled labour needed to fulfil the millions of
new roles that will be created by the Fourth Industrial Revolution, shifts in the global economy and
industrial transitions towards sustainability.
• Founding members of the initiative include Brazil, France, India, Pakistan, the Russian Federation,
UAE and the US. Business partners include PwC, Salesforce, ManpowerGroup, Infosys, LinkedIn,
Coursera Inc. and The Adecco Group.
Q 80.D
• Companies try to minimise giving taxes by taking advantage of depreciation, deductions, exemptions, etc
from the government.
• So the government imposes a Minimum Alternate Tax or MAT on these companies. This makes the
companies give at least a minimum amount of tax.
• Basically, companies that are popularly known as ‘zero-tax’ companies show profits as per the
Companies Act, but minimise tax outgo, as they display income that is zero or negative under the
provisions of the Income Tax Act. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• In India MAT is levied under Section 115JB of the Income Tax Act, 1961. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
• It was introduced in 1987, however, was repealed in 1990 and was re-inducted in 1997.
• In September 2019, GoI announced the reduction of Minimum Alternative Tax (MAT) for companies
from 18.5 percent to 15 percent for those who continue to avail exemptions and incentives.
• Also, companies that have their corporate tax rate cut to 22 percent without exemptions are not
applicable to pay MAT.
• MAT is applicable to all corporate entities, whether public or private and also to foreign
companies. However, it does not apply to any income accruing or arising to a company from life
insurance business. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Q 81.B
• The currency deposit ratio shows the amount of currency that people hold as a proportion of
aggregate deposits.
• An increase in currency deposit ratio leads to a decrease in money multiplier. Hence, statement 2
is correct.
• An increase in deposit interest rates will induce depositors to deposit more, thereby leading to a decrease
in Currency Deposit ratio. This will in turn lead to a rise in Money Multiplier. Hence, statement 3 is
not correct.
• It is a purely behavioural parameter which depends, among other factors, on the seasonal pattern of
expenditure. For example, CDR increases during festive season as people convert deposits to cash balance
for meeting the extra expenditure. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Q 82.A
• Articles 124 to 147 in Part V of the Constitution deal with the organisation, independence, jurisdiction,
powers, procedures and so on of the Supreme Court. The Parliament is also authorised to regulate
them.
• Originally, the strength of the Supreme Court was fixed at eight (one chief justice and seven other
judges), leaving it to the Parliament to increase the number. At present, the Supreme Court consists of
thirty-four judges (one chief justice and thirty three other judges). The judges of the Supreme Court are
appointed by the president.
• Articles 214 to 231 in Part VI of the Constitution deal with the organisation, independence, jurisdiction,
powers, procedures and so on of the high courts. Every high court (whether exclusive or common)
consists of a chief justice and such other judges as the president may from time to time deem necessary to
appoint. Thus, the Constitution does not specify the strength of a high court and leaves it to the
discretion of the president. The judges of a high court are appointed by the President.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
Q 83.C
• United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative (UNEP FI) is a partnership between UNEP
and the global financial sector to mobilize private sector finance for sustainable development. It was
created in the wake of the 1992 Earth Summit with a mission to promote sustainable finance. UNEP FI
hosts its Global Roundtable every other year and has done so since 1994. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• UNEP FI works with more than 300 members – banks, insurers, and investors – and over 100 supporting
institutions – to help create a financial sector that serves people and planet while delivering positive
impacts.
• UNEP FI supports global finance sector principles to catalyze integration of sustainability into financial
market practice. The frameworks of UNEP FI include:
o Principles for Responsible Banking (PRB)
o Principles for Sustainable Insurance (PSI)
o Principles for Responsible Investment (PRI)
• These frameworks establish the norms for sustainable finance, providing the basis for standard-setting and
helping to ensure private finance fulfils its potential role in contributing to achieving the 2030 Agenda for
Sustainable Development and Paris Agreement on Climate Change agreed by governments around the
world in 2015. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• UNEP FI also supports the Sustainable Stock Exchanges Initiative (SSEI), launched in 2012 with
UNCTAD, UN Global Compact, and the PRI. Today this involves 90 stock exchanges accounting for
almost all publicly-listed capital markets
Q 84.B
• Statement 1 is not correct: The “Transport and Marketing Assistance” (TMA) for specified
agriculture products scheme aims to provide assistance for the international component of freight
and marketing of agricultural produce which is likely to mitigate the disadvantage of a higher cost of
transportation of export of specified agriculture products due to trans-shipment and to promote brand
recognition for Indian agricultural products in the specified overseas markets. The Scheme was initially
applicable for a period as specified from time to time. Presently the Scheme would be available for
exports affected from 1.3.2019 to 31.03.2020. However, recently the Centre has relaxed the procedure for
exporters of agricultural produce to avail Transport and Marketing Assistance (TMA) for specified
products in view of the COVID-19 outbreak and the ongoing nationwide lockdown.
• Statement 2 is correct: The assistance will be provided on the export of all agriculture products covered
in HSN chapters 1 to 24 including marine and plantation products with some exceptions. Assistance
under TMA would be provided in cash through direct bank transfer as part reimbursement of
freight paid. FOB supplies where no freight is paid by Indian exporters are not covered under this
scheme. The assistance shall be admissible only if payments for the exports are received in Free Foreign
Exchange through normal banking channels. The scheme covers freight and marketing assistance for
export by air as well as by sea (both normal and reefer cargo).
• Statement 3 is not correct: Department of Commerce of the Ministry of Commerce & Industry has
notified the scheme for Transport and Marketing Assistance (TMA) for Specified Agriculture Products.
Q 85.A
• Natural resource accounting is an accounting system that deals with stocks and stock changes of natural
assets, comprising biota (produced or wild), subsoil assets (proved reserves), water and land with their
aquatic and terrestrial ecosystems. It is often used in the sense of physical accounting as well as monetary
evaluation of natural resources. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The data generated can be used to maintain a balance between economic growth and development and the
state of the environment. It can support policy for integrated environmental and economic analyses at the
sectoral and macro-economic levels. Therefore, the Environmental Accounting of Natural Resources is
seen as a means of demonstrating linkages between the environment and the economy for promoting
sustained productivity of the economy.
• The main purpose of natural resource accounting is to gather information on the state of natural resources
and the changes affecting them so as to help in the sustainable development of these resources.
• Natural resource accounting project in India is led by the National Statistical Office (NSO) under the
Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Various organizations like TERI, Indian Institute of Forest Management (IIFM), etc are involved in
accounting activities which then submits their report to NSO.
Q 86.D
• The Central Social Welfare Board was established in 1953 by a Resolution of Govt. of India to carry
out welfare activities for promoting voluntarism, providing technical and financial assistance to the
voluntary organisations for the general welfare of family, women, and children. The objective of setting
up the Central Social Welfare Board was to work as a link between the government and the
people. Dr.Durgabai Deshmukh was the founder Chairperson of the Central Social Welfare Board. The
Central Social Welfare Board obtained its legal status in 1969. It was registered under section 25 of the
Indian Companies Act, 1956. It functions under the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
Hence statements 1 and 2 are not correct.
• The State Social Welfare Boards were set up in 1954 in all States and Union Territories. The objective for
setting up of the State Social Welfare Boards was to coordinate welfare and developmental activities
undertaken by the various departments of State governments.
• As per Memorandum and Articles of Association, there is a provision of General Body and Executive
Committee for conducting the business of Central Social Welfare Board. The General Body is headed by
the Chairperson of the Central Social Welfare Board. It consists of all Chairpersons of the State Social
Welfare Boards, five professionals, one each from Law, Medicine, Nutrition, Social Work, Education
and Social Development, three eminent social workers and representatives of various departments of
Govt. of India.
Q 87.A
• The Subsidiary Alliance System was “Non-Intervention Policy” used by Lord Wellesley who was the
Governor-General (1798-1805) to establish the British Empire in India. According to this system, every
ruler in India had to accept to pay a subsidy to the British for the maintenance of the British army. Under
the Subsidiary Alliance system, the ruler of the allying Indian state was compelled to accept the
permanent stationing of a British force for its maintenance. Sometimes the ruler ceded part of his territory
instead of paying annual subsidy. The subsidiary treaty usually also provided that the Indian ruler would
agree to the posting at his court of a British Resident that he would not employ any European in his
service without the approval of the British, and that he would not negotiate with any other ruler without
consulting the Governor-General.
• By signing the Subsidiary Alliance, in reality, lost the right of self-defense, of maintaining
diplomatic relations, of employing foreign experts, and of settling disputes with the neighbors.
• Hence, all options are correct.
Q 88.C
• The Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration
o It is the world’s first, intergovernmental negotiated non-binding agreement covering all dimensions of
international migration in a holistic and comprehensive manner.
o It was adopted by the United Nations member countries in December 2018.
o It does not deal with the refugees. What it does is to promote migration by legal means for economic
opportunity, decent work for decent pay, preservation of labor and human rights and new pathways
for regular migration. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
o It recognizes the sovereign right of each state in determining its migration policy. Individual states
can distinguish between regular and irregular migrants and determine the conditions of entry and state
of non-nationals in their jurisdictions ns need not follow a prescriptive approach. Hence, statement 2
is correct.
o While many developed nations like the US, Australia, etc have shown reluctance to sign, India is one
of the early signatories to the agreement. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Q 89.C
• e-utthan is a Development Action Plan for Scheduled Castes undertaken by Ministry of Social
Justice and Empowerment.
• OBJECTIVES:
o The prime objective of the scheme is to enhance the reach of development interventions of the
Government and fill the gaps in service deficient Scheduled Caste dominant areas, in the education
sector through the efforts of voluntary organizations and other organizations and;
o It provides an environment for socio-economic upliftment and overall development of the Scheduled
Castes (SCs).
Q 90.C
• Continental Axis Hypothesis
o It is also known as the ‘continental orientation hypothesis’.
o It refers to a hypothesis on why certain regions of the world throughout history experienced more
economic development than others.
o It states that regions of the earth that are spread across a large latitudinal area, that is east-west,
are more likely to witness greater development than regions that extend longitudinally, that is
north-south.
o This is because temperatures are largely similar across latitudes, which helps technology and ideas to
spread among a larger population.
o It was first proposed by American geographer Jared Diamond in his popular 1997 book Guns, Germs,
and Steel.
o The Iron Curtain specifically refers to the imaginary line dividing Europe between Soviet influence
and Western influence, and symbolizes efforts by the Soviet Union to block itself and its satellite
states from open contact with the West and non-Soviet-controlled areas.
Q 91.C
• Export Promotion Capital Goods (EPCG) Scheme allows exporters to import capital goods (except
certain specified items under the Scheme) for pre-production, production and post-production at
zero customs duty.
• In return, the exporters are required to fulfill the export obligation to the tune of six times the
import duties, taxes and cess saved amount on capital goods, to be fulfilled in six years from date of
issue of the Authorization. Capital goods imported under EPCG authorizations for physical exports are
also exempt from Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST) and Compensation Cess, at present up to
31.03.2020.
Q 92.A
• The IUCN Species Survival Commission (SSC) is a science-based network of more than 9,000 volunteer
experts from almost every country of the world, all working together towards achieving the vision of, "A
just world that values and conserves nature through positive action to reduce the loss of diversity of life on
earth". Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Working in close association with IUCN’s Global Species Programme, SSC’s major role is to provide
information to IUCN on biodiversity conservation, the inherent value of species, their role in ecosystem

health and functioning, the provision of ecosystem services, and their support to human livelihoods. This
information is fed into The IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
• National governments' programs for the species conservation are overseen by respective national
agencies. SSC members provide scientific advice to conservation organisations, government agencies and
other IUCN members, and support the implementation of multilateral environmental agreements. Hence,
• The Policies, Guidelines & Standards produced by the SSC provide guidance to specialized conservation
projects and initiatives, such as re-introducing animals into their former ranges, handling confiscated
specimens, and halting the spread of invasive species.
Q 93.A
• India is the third-largest energy consumer in the world after the USA and China. With a share of 5.8
percent of the world’s primary energy consumption, India’s energy requirement is fulfilled primarily by
Coal, Crude Oil, Renewable Energy, and Natural Gas. However, India’s oil production is one of the
lowest among the major economies of the world and has been declining over a period of time.
• During 2019-20, the domestic crude oil production is estimated to be 32.6 MMT (Economic Survey
calculations). The trends in crude oil production show that it has witnessed a secular decline since
2014-15 with corresponding fall in onshore as well as offshore crude oil production.
• The reduction in crude oil production may be attributed to a natural decline in ageing and matured fields
and no major discoveries. It is worthwhile to note that the proven reserves of crude oil have decreased
concurrently since 2014, with the steeper fall in onshore reserves
Q 94.A
• Inverted duty structure is a situation where import duty on finished goods is low compared to the
import duty on raw materials that are used in the production of such finished goods.
• For example, suppose the tariff (import tax) on the import of tyres is 10% and the tariff on the imports of
natural rubber which is used in the production of tyres is 20%; this is a case of inverted duty structure.
This discourages the local production of goods using the imported raw materials as the price of imported
finished goods may seem more attractive.
Q 95.A
• Hydrophytes are plants which live in water and adjust with their surroundings. They either remain fully
submerged in the water or most of their body parts remain under the water.
• In order to survive, they develop various adaptations as tabulated below.

Q 96.B
• Rajaraja I, born Arulmoli Varman, often described as Rajaraja the Great, was a Chola emperor chiefly
remembered for reinstating the Chola power and ensuring its supremacy in south India and Indian Ocean.
Rajaraja was appointed heir apparent in his father’s life-time and had extensive experience of
administration and warfare before his accession to the throne. He destroyed the Chera navy at Trivandrum
and attacked Quilon.
• He then conquered Madurai and captured the Pandyan King. He also invaded Sri Lanka and annexed its
northern part to his empire. These moves were partly motivated by his desire to bring the trade with the
South-East Asian countries under his control.
• The Coromandel Coast and Malabar were the centers for India’s trade with the countries of South-East
Asia. One of his naval exploits was the conquest of the Maldive Islands.
• Aditya I, the son of Vijayalaya, was the Chola king who extended the Chola dominions by the conquest
of the Pallavas and occupied the Western Ganga Kingdom.
• Rajendra Chola I or Rajendra I was a Chola emperor of South India who succeeded his father Rajaraja
Chola I to the throne in 1014 CE.
The policy of expansion continued with the annexation of the southern provinces of the Chalukyas (the region
of modern Hyderabad). Campaigns against Ceylon and Kerala were also renewed. But Rajendra's ambitions
had turned northwards, even as far as the Ganges valley. An expedition set out and, marching through Orissa,
reached the banks of the Ganges, from where it is said the water of the sacred river was taken to the Chola
capital. Even more ambitious was Rajendra's overseas campaign involving both his army and his navy against
the kingdom of Shrivijaya in south-east Asia.
• Rajendra Chola II reigned as the Chola king succeeding his elder brother Rajadhiraja Chola in the 11th
century. He is best remembered for his role in the battle of Koppam along with his elder brother where he
dramatically turned the tables on the Chalukyan King Someshvara I, after the death of his brother in 1052.
• Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
Q 97.C
• The Sirhind Canal is a large irrigation canal that carries water from the Sutlej River in Punjab state,
India. It is one of the oldest and biggest irrigation works in the Indus river system and was inaugurated in
1882 CE. The canal begins at Ropar headworks near Ropar city in Rupnagar district of Punjab. The
Sirhind Canal and its distribution network are spread over a length of 3215 Km. Hence pair 1 is not
correctly matched.
• Kalingarayan Canal is a 140-kilometer long irrigation canal in the Erode district, Tamil Nadu. It was
constructed by Kongu chieftain Kalingarayan and was completed in 1283. It starts with Kalingarayan
Dam on River Bhavani, near Bhavani and flows through Erode before terminating near Kodumudi.
Recently the canal has suffered pollution. Farmers have urged the district administration to remove the
waste materials, including silt, dumped on both sides of the Kalingarayan Canal during the desilting
process. For these reasons, it has frequently been in the news. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
• Malampuzna canal system in Pal Ghats district, Periyar canal in Kozhikode district, and Pamba canal in
Quilon district were the major irrigation projects in Kerala which developed after independence. The
irrigation Canal which carries water from Malampuzha dam to various parts of the Palakkad
district. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
Q 98.C
• Statement 1 is not correct: According to Section 4 (ccc) and 4(d) of RPA, 1951, a person shall not be
qualified to be chosen to fill a seat in the House of the People or Lok Sabha unless, in the case of the
seat allotted to the State of Sikkim, he is an elector for the Parliamentary constituency for Sikkim and in
the case of any other seat, he is an elector for any Parliamentary constituency.
• Statement 2 is correct: According to Section 5(c) of RPA, 1951, a person shall not be qualified to be
chosen to fill a seat in the Legislative Assembly of a State unless he is an elector for any Assembly
constituency in that State.
• Statement 3 is not correct: According to Section 3 of RPA, 1951, the person shall not be qualified to
be chosen as a representative of any State or Union territory in the Council of States or Rajya
Sabha unless he is an elector for a Parliamentary constituency in India.
• A person shall not be qualified to be chosen to fill a seat in the Legislative Council of a State to be filled
by election unless he is an elector for any Assembly constituency in that State. A person shall not be
qualified to be chosen to fill a seat in the Legislative Council of a State to be filled by nomination by
the Governor unless he is ordinarily resident in the State. Hence, the requirement of ordinary
residency applies to the nominated candidates in the Legislative Council of a State.
Q 99.D
• Aarey Forest (also Aarey Colony) falls within the ecosensitive zone of Sanjay Gandhi National
Park (SGNP). It acts as a buffer between SGNP and the city, being one of the few green spaces (spread
over 2000 acres) left in Mumbai.
• It is an urban, unclassed and degraded moist deciduous type forest and the last forest left on the
floodplains of the Mithi river. It is known for its massive variety of flora and fauna. It has 77 species of
birds, 34 species of wildflowers, 86 species of butterflies, 13 species of amphibians, 46 species of reptiles,
16 species of mammals and 90 different types of spiders.
• This site is home to various 27 tribal communities including Katkaris, Mahadev Kolis, Mallar Kolis
and Warlis who are worried over the fears of eviction due to developmental projects.
• Its degradation started since the establishment of a milk colony in 1949 to revolutionize the processing
and marketing of dairy products in the city. In 1977, the Film City - now one of the identities of Mumbai -
was carved out of the Aarey forest.
• Recently it was in news over the protests against the cutting of nearly 2,500 trees to build a car shed
for the Mumbai Metro. Supreme Court ordered the stay over further cutting of trees.
• Mangar Bani sacred grove hill forest next to Mangar village on Delhi-Haryana border is in Faridabad
tehsil of Faridabad district in the Indian state of Haryana. It is an important biodiversity area within the
Northern Aravalli leopard wildlife corridor stretching from Sariska Tiger Reserve to Delhi.
• Lavasa is a privately planned city being built near Pune. It has been controversial for multiple reasons
including procurement of land, harm to the environment, and loans acquired through political corruption.
• Sharavathi Valley lies in Western Ghats of Karnataka. There has been a protest over the felling of trees in
the region due to three proposed projects i.e. Sharavathy Valley Pump Storage Power Plant; Power
transmission line from Chattisgarh to Goa; and the expansion of Kaiga Nuclear Plant.
Q 100.C
• Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB) and Technology Development Board are the
two statutory bodies under the Department of Science and Technology.
• The Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB) is a statutory body established through an Act of
Parliament, 2008 (SERB Act 2008). The mandate is to support basic research in emerging areas of
Science & Engineering. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Objectives:
o Serve as a premier agency for planning, promoting and funding of internationally competitive
research in emerging areas.
o Identify major inter-disciplinary research areas, and individuals, groups or institutions and funding
them for undertaking research.
o Assist in setting up infrastructure and environment for scientific pursuit.
o Enable in order to achieve synergy between academic institutions, research and development
laboratories and industry for promoting basic research in science and engineering. Hence, statement
2 is correct.
o Evolve a system of approach to expeditiously provide funding for research, including monitoring and
evaluation, by adopting modern management practices.
• With a view to providing financial assistance to the industrial concerns for the development and
commercialisation of indigenous technology in a dynamic economic environment, the Government of
India constituted a Technology Development Board (TBD) on 1st September 1996. As a Statutory Body
under the Department of Science & Technology, New Delhi. The Technology Development Board invests
in equity capital and gives soft loan to the industrial concerns and other agencies as applicable to-
Attempting the development and application commercial of indigenous technology or Adapting imported
technology to wider domestic application.
• The TDB is the first organization of its kind within the government framework with the sole objective of
commercializing the fruit of indigenous research. The Board plays a pro-active role by encouraging
enterprises to take up technology-oriented products. Provides equity capital or loans to industrial concerns
and financial assistance to research and development institutions. The loan carries a simple interest rate of
5% per annum. With its pro-active stance the Board:
o Facilitates interaction between industry, scientists, technocrats and specialists

o Fosters and innovation culture through the contract and cooperative research between industry and
institutions
o Provides an interface with financial institutions and commercial banks for leveraging funds
o Facilitates the creation of a new generation of entrepreneurs
o Assists partnerships with other, similar technology financing bodies
o Provides vistas for venturing into hi-tech areas
o Creates new job opportunities.
• Recently, the Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB) has invited proposal for specifically
designed scheme for COVID-19 and related respiratory viral infections, under ‘Intensification of Research
in High Priority Areas’ (IRHPA). The scheme will be for a 3-year duration. The scheme has been
announced in the backdrop of lack of an efficacious vaccine and lack of availability of suitable
chemotherapeutic interventions, to the current coronavirus outbreak and due to the urgent need to ramp up
national R&D efforts for new antivirals, vaccines and affordable diagnostic.
• Recently, Technology Development Board (TBD) has invited applications from Indian companies and
enterprises to address protection and home-based respiratory intervention for COVID-19 patients. The
Board will provide financial assistance by way of soft loans which will be up to 50% of project cost @
5% simple interest per annum, Equity participation, up to a maximum of 25% of the project cost or grant
in exceptional cases, for the purpose of (i) Encouraging the commercial application of indigenously
developed technology and (ii) For adapting imported technology to wider domestic application.

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