Chemistry for Engineers

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. A central metal atom bonded to surrounding ions or molecules is called a
a. coordination compound.
b. ligand.
c. chelate.
d. Lewis acid.
e. Lewis base.
____ 2. What is the oxidation number of the chromium in [Cr(H2O)2Cl4]-?
a. 0
b. +1
c. +2
d. +3
e. +5
____ 3. A Lewis base is defined as a species that
a. increases the OH- concentration in water.
b. accepts a proton.
c. donates a pair of electrons to a bond.
d. has a negative charge.
e. is two electrons short of an octet in the valence shell.
____ 4. What is the mass percent of zinc in the chloride salt of Zn(NH3)62+?
a. 19.4%
b. 27.4%
c. 34.1%
d. 39.0%
e. 57.5%
____ 5. What is the electron configuration for Ti4+?
a. 1s22s22p63s23p64s2
b. 1s22s22p63s23p63d2
c. 1s22s22p63s23p63d24s2
d. 1s22s22p63s23p63d10
e. 1s22s22p63s23p6
____ 6. Which is a correct expression for converting Celsius to Fahrenheit?
a.

b.

c.

d.
e.

____ 7. How many significant figures are in the following volume: 5.00  104 mL?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
____ 8. All of the following are exact conversions EXCEPT
a. 1 pound = 453.6 g.
b. 1 m3 = 1  103 L.
c. 1 cm3 = 1 mL.
d. 2.54 cm = 1 inch.
e. 1 kg = 1  103 g.
____ 9. Atomic dimensions are often reported in Ångstroms (1 Å = 1 10-10 m). If the atomic
radius of an aluminum atom is 1.43 Ångstroms, what is its radius in millimeters?
a. 1.43 10-13 mm
b. 1.43 10-7 mm
c. 0.143 mm
d. 14.3 mm
e. 143 mm
____ 10. At what point is the temperature in C twice that of the temperature in F?
a. -40.0 C
b. -32.4 C
c. -24.6 C
d. -16.2 C
e. -8.88 C
____ 11. Which of the following is the largest mass?
a. 8.5 107 pg
b. 1.5 108 ng
c. 7.5 104 ng
d. 6.5 102 mg
e. 1.5 10-1 g
____ 12. At 0C, 35.7 g of sodium chloride (NaCl) will dissolve in 1.00  102 mL of water. What mass
of sodium chloride will dissolve in 7.75 L of water (at 0C)?
a. 4.61 g
b. 4.61 101 g
c. 7.75 101 g
d. 2.17 102 g
e. 2.77 103 g
____ 13. Which of the following statements describes a chemical change?
a. Oxygen reacts with aluminum, forming a protective surface coating.
b. The density of mercury metal is 13.534 g/cm3.
c. Ethyl alcohol evaporates from a beaker.
d. The melting point of sodium chloride (table salt) is 801°C.
e. Both answers a and d are correct.
____ 14. Which method is best for separating a mixture of ethyl alcohol and water?
a. distillation
 b. light absorption
c. electrolysis
d. gas-liquid chromatography
e. filtration
____ 15. Rank the subatomic particles from least to greatest mass.
a. electrons = neutrons = protons
b. electrons = protons < neutrons
c. electrons < neutrons = protons
d. electrons < protons < neutrons
e. electrons < neutrons < protons
____ 16. Which nuclear symbol describes oxygen-15, a radioactive element used in positron emission
tomography?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

____ 17. What is the identity of ?

a. zinc
b. silver
c. iridium
d. cesium
e. manganese
____ 18. Beta ( ) particles have identical properties to
a. helium atoms that have been stripped of their electrons.
b. elemental helium.
c. high energy radiation.
d. neutrons.
e. electrons.
____ 19. How many protons and electrons are in a sulfate ion, SO42-?
a. 46 protons and 48 electrons
b. 48 protons and 48 electrons
c. 48 protons and 50 electrons
d. 50 protons and 48 electrons
e. none of the above
____ 20. Which particle has 10 electrons?
a. F-
b. Ne
c. Mg2+
d. answers a and c
e. all of the above
____ 21. Which atom is likely to form a -3 ion?
a. Li
b. C
c. N
d. O
e. Al
____ 22. Identify the ions and their charges in KH2PO4.
a. K+, H+, P3-, O2-
b. K+, H2+, P3-, O8-
c. K+, H22+, P-1, O4-2
d. K+, H2PO4-
e. K+, H2+, PO43-
____ 23. What is the correct formula for potassium dichromate?
a. K2Cr2O7
b. K2(Cr2O7)2
c. K2CrO4
d. K2(CrO4)2
e. KCrO4
____ 24. What is the formula for chlorous acid?
a. HCl
b. HClO
c. HClO2
d. HClO3
e. HClO4
____ 25. What is the correct formula for aluminum selenide?
a. AlSe
b. AlSe2
c. Al2Se
d. Al2Se3
e. Al3Se2
____ 26. An atomic mass unit (amu) is defined as
a. 1.602 10-19 C.
b. the mass of 1 mole of hydrogen-1 atoms.
c. the mass of 1 hydrogen-1 atom.
d. the mass of 1 carbon-12 atom.
e. 1/12 the mass of 1 carbon-12 atom.
____ 27. Silver (107.87 amu) has two naturally occurring isotopes. In a typical sample, 51.84% of
silver exists as Ag-107 (106.9051 amu). Calculate the atomic mass of the other isotope.
a. 107.48 amu
b. 107.87 amu
c. 108.91 amu
d. 109.19 amu
e. 109.90 amu
____ 28. An element has three naturally occurring isotopes with the following abundances and
masses:

abundance mass (amu)

78.99% 23.985042
10.00% 24.985837
11.01% 25.982593

Determine the atomic mass of the element.

a. 24.31 amu
b. 24.98 amu
c. 74.95 amu
d. 2431 amu
 e. none of the above
____ 29. The average molar mass of lithium is 6.941. A sample of lithium consists of two isotopes with
masses of 6.01512 amu and 7.01600 amu. Determine the percent abundance of each isotope.
a. 7.49% Li-6 and 92.51% Li-7
b. 8.45% Li-6 and 91.55% Li-7
c. 12.49% Li-6 and 87.51% Li-7
d. 91.55% Li-6 and 8.45% Li-7
e. 92.51% Li-6 and 7.49% Li-7
____ 30. Which of the following samples contains the largest number of atoms?
a. 2.0 moles of H3PO4
b. 3.0 moles of H2SO3
c. 4.0 moles of HNO3
d. 6.0 moles of HClO
e. 8.0 moles of HBr
____ 31. Which is a correct method for determining the total number of atoms in 123 grams of sulfur
trioxide (SO3)?
a.

b.

c.

d.

e.

____ 32. Combustion analysis of 2.400 grams of toluene, an organic solvent, yields 8.023 g CO2 and
1.877 g H2O. What is the simplest formula for toluene?
a. C7H4
b. C4H7
c. C7H6
d. C8H7
e. C7H8
____ 33. An oxide of nitrogen contains 63.1% oxygen and has a molar mass of 76.0 g/mol. What is the
molecular formula for this compound?
a. N2O
b. NO
c. NO2
d. N2O3
e. N2O5
____ 42. If 16.4 g of oxygen gas react with excess hydrogen, what mass of water is produced?

2H2(g) + O2(g) 2H2O(g)

a. 9.23 g
b. 18.5 g
c. 20.4 g
d. 23.9 g
e. 36.9 g
____ 35. A mass of 8.15 g C2H4(g) reacts with excess oxygen. If 16.2 g CO2(g) is collected, what is the
percent yield of the reaction?

C2H4(g) + 3O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)

a. 25.6%
b. 31.7%
c. 41.0%
d. 57.1%
e. 63.3%
____ 36. 2.500 grams of MgSO4· H2O, a hydrated salt with an unknown water content, is dried in an
oven to remove the water. After drying, the anhydrous salt has a mass of 1.221 grams. How many moles
of water are present per mole of hydrated magnesium sulfate?
a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7
e. 9
____ 37. Hydrogen and nitrogen gases are reacted to produce 2.10 103 kg of ammonia. If the percent
yield of the reaction was only 15.2%, what mass of hydrogen was initially present (assuming H2(g) is the
limiting reactant)?

N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)

a. 3.73 102 kg
b. 2.45 103 kg
c. 3.64 103 kg
d. 1.09 104 kg
e. 1.64 106 kg
____ 38. The molarity of a solution is defined as
a. the moles of solute per liter of solution.
b. the moles of solute per kilogram of solution.
c. the moles of solute per kilogram of solvent.
d. the mass of solute (in grams) per liter of solution.
e. the mass of solute (in grams) per liter of solvent.
____ 39. If 7.83 g FeCl3(s) is dissolved in enough water to make 2.50 L of solution, what is the
concentration of Fe3+ in the solution?
a. 0.0193 M
b. 0.0582 M
c. 0.121 M
d. 0.319 M
e. 3.13 M
____ 40. If 17 g MgCl2 is dissolved in 5.0 L of water, what is the chloride ion molarity in the
solution?
a. 0.036 M
b. 0.071 M
c. 0.68 M
d. 0.77 M
e. 7.8 M
____ 41. How many moles of sodium ions are present in 2.50 L of 0.300 M Na3PO4?
a. 0.750 mol
b. 0.900 mol
c. 2.25 mol
d. 2.50 mol
e. 3.00 mol
____ 42. What mass of potassium nitrate is present in 71.3 mL of 0.250 M KNO3?
a. 0.00329 g
b. 0.00781 g
c. 0.0178 g
d. 1.80 g
e. 2.90 g
____ 43. What mass of potassium ions is present 25.0 mL of 0.50 M K2SO4?
a. 0.250 g
b. 0.489 g
c. 0.978 g
d. 2.18 g
e. 4.36 g
____ 44. What volume of 1.75 M hydrochloric acid must be diluted with water to prepare 0.500 L of
0.250 M hydrochloric acid?
a. 8.50 10-4 mL
b. 71.4 mL
c. 128 mL
d. 429 mL
e. 3.50 103 mL
____ 45. Which of the following ionic compounds is not soluble in water?
a. K2CO3
b. AgNO3
c. CaBr2
d. CsI
e. PbI2
____ 46. Write a balanced net ionic equation for the reaction of aluminum hydroxide, Al(OH) 3, with
nitric acid.
a. Al(OH)3(s) + 3H+(aq) → Al3+(aq) + 3H2O
b. Al(OH)3(s) + 3H+(aq) → AlH3(s) + 3OH-(aq)
c. (OH)3(aq) + 3H+(aq) → 3H2O
d. 3OH-(aq) + 3H+(aq) → 3H2O
e. Al3+(aq) + 3NO3-(aq) → Al(NO3)3(aq)
____ 47. According to the Arrhenius acid-base definition
a. acids produce H+ in aqueous solutions and bases produce OH- in aqueous solutions.
b. acids produce OH- in aqueous solutions and bases produce H+ in aqueous solutions.
c. acids only react with bases.
d. all hydrogen halides are strong acids.
e. acids and bases are strong electrolytes.
____ 48. Which list contains only strong acids?
a. HCl, HNO3, HF, HClO4
 b. H2SO4, H3PO4, HClO4, NH3
c. HCl, HNO3, H3PO4, HClO4
d. HCl, H2SO4, HClO4, HI
e. HNO3, H2SO4, NaOH, H3PO4
____ 49. Which of the following is a weak acid?
a. HBr
b. HCl
c. HF
d. HI
e. HClO4
____ 50. A microwave oven emits radiation at a frequency of 6.00 1010 Hz. What is the wavelength
of this light?
a. 3.98 10-23 m
b. 1.67 10-11 m
c. 5.00 10-3 m
d. 2.00 10-2 m
e. 2.00 10-1 m
____ 51. The Navy uses electromagnetic radiation of extremely long wavelengths to communicate with
submerged submarines. The Navy's ELF (Extremely Low Frequency) systems emit 76 s-1 radiation from
facilities located in Wisconsin and Michigan. What is the wavelength of this radiation (in meters)?
a. 2.1 10-7 m
b. 1.3 10-3 m
c. 2.5 103 m
d. 3.9 106 m
e. 2.3 1010 m
____ 52. Some digital cordless phones operate at 2.4 GHz. What is the energy, in joules, of a single 2.4
GHz photon?
a. 8.3 10-35 J
b. 1.6 10-24 J
c. 5.4 10-19 J
d. 0.96 J
e. 0.13 J
____ 53. The Pauli exclusion principle states that
a. no two electrons from a given atom can have the same spin.
b. no two electrons from a given atom can have the same four quantum numbers.
c. two electrons can occupy an orbital if they have the same spin.
d. two electrons can occupy an orbital if they have opposite spins.
e. two electrons can occupy an orbital if they have opposite charges.
____ 54. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers refers to a 2s orbital?
a. n = 1, = 2, m = 2, ms = + 1/2
b. n = 1, = 2, m = 1, ms = + 1/2
c. n = 2, = 2, m = 0, ms = + 1/2
d. n = 2, = 1, m = -1, ms = + 1/2
e. n = 2, = 0, m = 0, ms = + 1/2
____ 55. All of the following sets of quantum numbers are allowed EXCEPT
a. n = 1, = 0, m = 1, ms = - 1/2.
b. n = 2, = 1, m = 0, ms = + 1/2.
c. n = 3, = 1, m = -1, ms = - 1/2.
d. n = 4, = 3, m = -1, ms = - 1/2.
e. n = 6, = 3, m = -3, ms = + 1/2.
____ 56. How many orbitals have the following quantum numbers: n = 4, = 1?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
____ 57. How many orbitals have the following quantum numbers: n = 6, = 2 , m = -2?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 3
d. 5
e. 6
____ 58. What is the total capacity of electrons in n = 3?
a. 5
b. 10
c. 18
d. 32
e. 50
____ 59. What is the ground state electron configuration of 94Pu?
a. [Xe]5f66s2
b. [Xe]6f67s2
c. [Rn]6f67s2
d. [Rn]5f67s2
e. [Rn]5f66d107s2
____ 60. Hund's rule predicts that
a. the most stable electronic structure of an atom has electron spins paired.
b. no two electrons will share the same orbital.
c. electrons in an orbital have equal but opposite charges.
d. electrons must have opposite spins to share an orbital.
e. when several orbitals of equal energy are available, as in a given subshell, electrons enter
singly with parallel spins.
____ 61. What is the symbol of the atom or ion with the following orbital diagram?

1s 2s 2p
() () ()( )( )

a. 5B
b. 7N
c. 8O
d. 16S
e. 9F
____ 62. What is the symbol of the atom or ion with the following orbital diagram?

1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s
() () ()()() () ()()() ()()()( )( ) ()

a. 26Fe
b. 26Fe2+
c. 27Co+
d. 28Ni
e. 28Ni2+
____ 63. In general, ionization energies
a. increase down a group and increase across a period.
b. increase down a group and decrease across a period.
c. decrease down a group and increase across a period.
d. decrease down a group and decrease across a period.
e. increase with atomic mass and increase with atomic radii.
____ 64. In general, atomic radii
a. increase down a group and decrease across a period.
b. increase down a group and increase across a period.
c. decrease down a group and decrease across a period.
d. are proportional to atomic mass.
e. decrease down a group and increase across a period.
____ 65. Place the following atoms in order of increasing size: Al, Cl, Mg, O, and P.
a. Cl < O < P < Al < Mg
b. Cl < P < Al < Mg < O
c. O < Cl < P < Al < Mg
d. O < Mg < Al < P < Cl
e. none of the above
____ 66. Place the following atoms in order of increasing size: Ba, Ca, Mg, Na, and Rb.
a. Na < Mg < Ca < Rb < Ba
b. Mg < Na < Ca < Rb < Ba
c. Na < Rb < Mg < Ca < Ba
d. Ba < Rb < Ca < Mg < Na
e. Ba < Rb < Ca < Na < Mg
____ 67. Electronegativity increases
a. moving down a group in the periodic table.
b. moving from left to right across the periodic table.
c. with increasing atomic mass.
d. when electrons are paired.
e. with increasing atomic radii.
____ 68. Which of the following is not a correct Lewis structure?

a. NO2
b. NO2-
c. NO
d. N2O
e. All of the above are correct structures.
____ 69. Which of the following elements is most likely to form a molecule or ion that exceeds the
octet rule?
a. Na
b. S
c. B
d. F
e. C
____ 70. What is the correct Lewis structure of SF4?
a.

b.

c.

d.

e.

____ 71. What is the correct Lewis structure of XeF4?

a.

b.

c.
d.

e.

____ 72. Which of the following Lewis structures are resonance structures of thiocyanate ion?

a. (1) and (3)

b. (2), (3), and (4)
c. (1), (3), and (5)
d. (1), (3), and (4)
e. (2), (4), and (5)
____ 73. Which of the following species has a Lewis structure with a molecular geometry similar to
CS2?
a. H2S
b. NO2-
c. NO2
d. H2O
e. SCN-
____ 74. What is the formal charge on each atom in dichloromethane, CH2Cl2?
a. C = 0, H = 0, Cl = 0
b. C = 0, H = -1, Cl = +1
c. C = 0, H = +1, Cl = -1
d. C = -2, H = +1, Cl = +1
e. C = +4, H = -1, Cl = -1
____ 75. Use VSEPR theory to predict the molecular geometry of BH3.
a. triangular planar
b. triangular pyramidal
c. Linear
d. tetrahedral
e. triangular bipyramidal
____ 76. Use VSEPR theory to predict the molecular geometry of SO32-.
 a. bent
b. tetrahedral
c. square planar
d. triangular planar
e. triangular pyramidal
____ 77. Use VSEPR theory to predict the molecular geometry of ICl3.
a. triangular planar
b. triangular pyramidal
c. triangular bipyramidal
d. t-shaped
e. octahedral
____ 78. Which of the following species have the same molecular geometry: PO43-, SF4, PF5, and
XeF4?
a. PO43- and SF4
b. SF4 and PF5
c. PO43-, SF4, and XeF4
d. SF4 and XeF4
e. None of the species have the same molecular geometry.
____ 79. What are the bond angles in CO32-?
a. 90º
b. 109.5º
c. 120º
d. 90º and 120º
e. 180º
____ 80. What is the hybridization of the central atom in I3-?
a. sp
b. sp2
c. sp3
d. sp3d
e. sp3d2
____ 81. What is the hybridization of the central atom in XeF4?
a. sp
b. sp2
c. sp3
d. sp3d
e. sp3d2
___ 82. How many sigma and pi bonds are present in H2CO?
a. 1 sigma bond and 3 pi bonds
b. 2 sigma bonds and 2 pi bonds
c. 2 sigma bonds and 1 pi bond
d. 3 sigma bonds and 1 pi bond
e. none of the above
____ 83. Heat capacity is defined as
a. 4.18 J/g·ºC.
b. 4.18 cal/g·ºC.
c. the amount of heat necessary to raise the temperature of 1 gram of a substance by 1ºC.
d. the amount of heat necessary to raise the temperature of a system by 1ºC.
e. none of the above
____ 84. If the same amount of heat is added to 1.00 g of each of the following substances, which
substance will undergo the largest temperature change?
 Substance Specific Heat (J/g·ºC)
Al(s) 0.90
Cl2(g) 0.48
C6H6(l) 1.7
H2O(l) 4.2
NaCl(s) 0.87

a. Al(s)
b. Cl2(g)
c. C6H6(l)
d. H2O(l)
e. NaCl(s)
____ 85. Aluminum has a specific heat of 0.902 J/g·ºC. How many joules of heat are required to
change the temperature of 8.50 grams of aluminum from 25.0ºC to 93.4ºC?
a. 7.67 J
b. 71.7 J
c. 192 J
d. 483 J
e. 524 J
____ 86. Copper has a specific heat of 0.382 J/g·ºC. If 2.51 g of copper absorbs 2.75 J of heat, what is
the change in temperature?
a. 0.419ºC
b. 2.63ºC
c. 2.87ºC
d. 4.12ºC
e. 6.90ºC
____ 87. Copper has a specific heat of 0.382 J/g·ºC. The temperature of an unknown mass of copper
increases by 4.50ºC when it absorbs 3.97 J of heat. What is the mass of the copper?
a. 2.31 g
b. 4.90 g
c. 6.82 g
d. 8.85 g
e. 46.8 g
____ 88. The heat capacity of 5.00 grams of iron is 2.23 J/ºC. How much heat is required to heat the
iron by 50.0ºC?
a. 0.223 J
b. 22.3 J
c. 112 J
d. 558 J
e. 612 J
____ 89. If 35.0 J is required to heat 50.3 g Hg by 5.00ºC, what is the specific heat of mercury?
a. 0.139 J/g·ºC
b. 0.250 J/g·ºC
c. 0.572 J/g·ºC
d. 0.878 J/g·ºC
e. 1.49 J/g·ºC
____ 90. Water has a specific heat of 4.18 J/g·ºC. If 35.0 g of water at 98.8ºC loses 4.94 kJ of heat,
what is the final temperature of the water?
a. 32.0ºC
 b. 46.2ºC
c. 47.2ºC
d. 57.2ºC
e. 65.0ºC
____ 91. 30.0 g H2O at an unknown temperature is mixed with 27.0 g of water at 15.8ºC in a coffee-
cup calorimeter. If the final temperature of the mixture is 29.1ºC, what is the initial temperature of the
water?
a. 23.7ºC
b. 31.1ºC
c. 39.7ºC
d. 41.1ºC
e. 46.7ºC
____ 92. Acetylene, C2H2, is a gas commonly used in welding. If 2.328 g C2H2(g) is combusted in a
bomb calorimeter, the temperature of the calorimeter increases by 16.43ºC. If the heat capacity of the
calorimeter is 7.07 kJ/ºC, determine the enthalpy change per mole of acetylene.
a. 4.81 kJ
b. 49.9 kJ
c. 116 kJ
d. 1.30 103 kJ
e. 3.02 103 kJ
____ 93. Calculate E of a gas for a process in which the gas absorbs 25 J of heat and does 7 J of work
by expanding.
a. -32 J
b. -18 J
c. +18 J
d. +32 J
e. +180 J
____ 94. Concentrated phosphoric acid is 85.0% by mass H3PO4. If the molarity of concentrated H3PO4
is 14.5 M, what is the density?
a. 0.60 g/mL
b. 1.67 g/mL
c. 1.87 g/mL
d. 1.95 g/mL
e. 2.07 g/mL
____ 95. Pure acetic acid, often called glacial acetic acid, is a liquid with a density of 1.049 g/mL.
Which calculation correctly shows how to determine the volume of glacial acetic acid necessary to
prepare 250 mL of 0.400 M CH3CO2H(aq)?
a.

b.

c.

d.
e.

____ 96. Pure acetic acid, CH3CO2H(l), has a density of 1.049 g/mL. To prepare 1.00 L of 6.00 M
CH3CO2H(aq), one may
a. dilute 175 g of acetic acid to a volume of 1.00 L.
b. dilute 343 mL of acetic acid to a volume of 1.00 L.
c. dilute 360 mL of acetic acid to a volume of 1.00 L.
d. dilute 382 mL of acetic acid to a volume of 1.00 L.
e. dilute 1049 g of acetic acid to a volume of 1.00 L.
____ 97. If sea water contains 15 ppm gold, how many kilograms of sea water must be processed to
remove 1.00 g of gold?
a. 67 kg
b. 97 kg
c. 150 kg
d. 6.7 103 kg
e. 15 104 kg
____ 98. If a reactant loses electrons it is
a. reduced.
b. oxidized.
c. disproportionated.
d. the cathode.
e. a catalyst.
____ 99. The anode is where
a. electrolyte concentrations are lowest.
b. electrolyte concentrations are highest.
c. the Nernst potential is measured.
d. anions are produced.
e. oxidation occurs.
____ 100. The following reaction occurs spontaneously.

Cu2+(aq) + Zn(s) → Cu(s) + Zn2+(aq)

Write the balanced reduction half-reaction.

a. Zn(s) + 2e- → Zn2+(aq)
b. Zn(s) → Zn2+(aq) + 2e-
c. Zn2+(aq) + 2e- → Zn(s)
d. Cu2+(aq) + 2e- → Cu(s)
e. Cu(s) + 2e- → Cu2+(aq)
____ 101. The following reaction occurs spontaneously.

2Al(s) + 6H+(aq) → 2Al3+(aq) + 3H2(g)

Write the balanced oxidation half-reaction.

a. Al(s) → Al3+(aq) + 3e-
b. Al3+(aq) + 3e- → Al(s)
c. H2(g) → 2H+(aq) + 2e-
d. 2H+(aq) + 2e- → H2(g)
e. 2H+(aq) → H2(g) + 2e-
____ 102. Given the following half-reactions,

Pb(s) + 2I-(aq) → PbI2(s) + 2e-

I2(aq) + 2e- → 2I-(aq)

write the balanced overall reaction.

a. Pb(s) + I2(aq) + 2e- → PbI (s) + I-(aq)
b. Pb(s) + I2(aq) → PbI2(s)
c. Pb(s) + Cl2(aq) → Pb2+(aq) + 2I-(aq)
d. 2Pb(s) + 4e- → 2PbI(s) + I2(aq)
e. Pb(s) + e- + 2I-(aq) → PbI2(aq)
____ 103. What is the correct cell notation for the reaction below?

Cu2+(aq) + 2Ag(s) + 2Cl-(aq) → Cu(s) + 2AgCl(s)

a. Cu | Cu2+ || Cl- | AgCl | Ag

b. Cu | Cu2+ || Cl- | Ag | AgCl
c. Ag | AgCl || Cl- || Cu2+ | Cu
d. AgCl | Ag || Cl- || Cu2+ | Cu
e. Ag | AgCl | Cl- || Cu2+ | Cu
____ 104. Write the overall chemical reaction and calculate E for the following reduction and
oxidation half-reactions.

2H+(aq) + 2e- → H2(g) = 0.000 V

Zn(s) → Zn2+(aq) + 2e- = +0.762 V

a. Zn2+(aq) + H2(g) → Zn(s) + 2H+(aq) Eº = +0.381 V

b. Zn2+(aq) + H2(g) → Zn(s) + 2H+(aq) Eº = -0.762 V
c. Zn(s) + 2H+(aq) → Zn2+(aq) + H2(g) Eº = +0.762 V
d. Zn(s) + 2H+(aq) → Zn2+(aq) + H2(g) Eº = -0.762 V
e. Zn(s) + 2H+(aq) → Zn2+(aq) + H2(g) Eº = -0.381 V
____ 105. Which of the following half-reactions has been assigned a standard reduction potential of
0.00 V?
a. 2H+(aq) + 2e- → H2(g)
b. Ag+(aq) + e- → Ag(s)
c. Hg2Cl2(s) + 2e- → 2Hg(l) + 2Cl-(aq)
d. Au3+(aq) + 3e- → Au(s)
e. Cu2+(aq) + 2e- → Cu(s)
___ 106. What is the correct form of the Nernst equation?
a.
Eº = E -

b.
E = Eº -

c.
E = Eº -
d.
G = Eº +

e.
Gº = G -

____ 107. If a nucleus emits an alpha particle, its mass number

a. decreases by 4.
b. decreases by 2.
c. remains the same.
d. increases by 1.
e. decreases by 2.
____ 108. If a nucleus captures an electron, its atomic number
a. decreases by 2
b. decreases by 1.
c. remains the same.
d. increases by 1.
e. increases by 2.
____ 109. If a nucleus emits a beta particle, its atomic number
a. decreases by 2.
b. decreases by 1.
c. remains the same.
d. increases by 1.
e. increases by 2.
____ 110. If a nucleus captures an alpha particle and then emits a beta particle
a. its atomic number decreases by one and its mass number increases by 4.
b. its atomic number increases by one and its mass number increases by 4.
c. its atomic number increases by three and its mass number increases by 4.
d. its atomic number increases by two and its mass number increases by 3.
e. its atomic number decreases by one and its mass number increases by 3.
____ 111. Complete the following nuclear fission reaction.

____

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
____ 112. The following nuclear reaction is an example of __________.

a. fusion
b. fission
c. gamma radiation emission
d. beta emission
e. hydrogen combustion
____ 113. is used in radiotherapy and has a half-life of 5.26 yr. How long does it take for a
sample of to decompose to 25.0% of its original size?
a. 2.63 yr
b. 5.26 yr
c. 10.5 yr
d. 15.8 yr
e. 21.0 yr
____ 114. How many atoms decay in 12 hours in a 3.5 10-8 Ci source? (1 Ci = 3.700 1010 atom/s)
a. 4.1 10-14 atoms
b. 1.6 104 atoms
c. 5.0 104 atoms
d. 5.6 107 atoms
e. 4.6 1022 atoms
____ 115. What is the activity, in curies, of a source that has 1.3 109 disintegrations per second? (1 Ci
= 3.700 1010 atom/s)
a. 0.014 Ci
b. 0.035 Ci
c. 0.21 Ci
d. 3.7 Ci
e. 28 Ci
____ 116. A 1.00 g sample of decays to 0.87 g in 1.9 hr. What is the half-life of ?
a. 0.073 hr
b. 0.11 hr
c. 4.5 hr
d. 9.5 hr
e. 14 hr