Which of The Following Can Be Called As A Refrigeration Process?

Which of the following can be called as a refrigeration process?
(A) Cooling of a hot ingot from 1000°C to room temperature

(B) Cooling of a pot of water by mixing it with a large block of ice
(C) Cooling of a hot cup of coffee by leaving it on a table
(D) Cooling of hot water by mixing it with tap water
Answer
(B)
Evaporative cooling systems are ideal for

(A) cold and humid conditions
(B) hot and humid conditions
(C) hot and dry conditions
(D) moderately hot but humid conditions
Answer
(C)
One ton of the refrigeration is

(A) the standard unit used in refrigeration problems
(B) the cooling effect produced by melting 1 ton of ice
(C) the refrigeration effect to freeze 1 ton of water at 0°C into ice at 0°C in 24 hours
(D) the refrigeration effect to produce 1 ton of ice at NTP conditions
Answer
(C)
In SI unit, one ton of refrigeration is equal to

(A) 210 kJ/min
(B) 21 kJ/min
(C) 3.5 kJ/min
(D) 420 kJ/min
Answer
(A)
One ton refrigeration corresponds to

(A) 50 kcal/min
(B) 50 kcal/hr
(C) 80 kcal/min
(D) 80 kcal/hr
Answer
(A)
The coefficient of performance is the ratio of the refrigerant effect
to the
(A) heat of compression
(B) work done by compressor
(C) enthalpy increase in compressor
(D) all of the above
Answer
(D)
The COP of a domestic refrigerator

(A) is less than 1
(B) is more than 1
(C) is equal to 1
(D) depends upon the weather conditions
Answer
(B)
Pick up the wrong statement. A refrigerant should have

(A) low specific heat of liquid
(B) high boiling point
(C) high latent heat of vaporization
(D) higher critical temperature
Answer
(B)
The refrigerant for a refrigerator should have

(A) high sensible heat
(B) high total heat
(C) high latent heat
(D) low latent heat
Answer
(C)
Which of the following is not a desirable property of a refrigerant?

(A) High risibility with oil
(B) Low boiling point
(C) Good electrical conductor
(D) Large latent heat
Answer
(C)
Ammonia is one of the oldest refrigerants, which is still used

widely, because
(A) it offers excellent performance
(B) it is a natural refrigerant
(C) it is inexpensive
Answer
(D)
The boiling point of ammonia is

(A) -10.5°C
(B) -30°C
(C) -33.3°C
(D) -77.7°C
Answer
(C)
The synthetic refrigerants were extremely popular as they are:

(A) Environment friendly
(B) Mostly non-toxic and non-flammable
(C) Chemically stable
(D) Both (B) & (C)
Answer
(D)
Ammonia is
(A) non-inflammable
(B) non-toxic
(C) toxic and non-inflammable
(D) toxic and inflammable
Answer
(D)
Freon group of refrigerants are

(A) inflammable
(B) toxic
(C) non-toxic and inflammable
(D) non-toxic and non-inflammable
Answer
The ozone depletion potential of air is

(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 10
(D) 100
Answer
(A)
Which of the following refrigerant has the lowest global warming

potential?
(A) R-502
(B) CO2CO2
(C) R-134
(D) R-12
Answer
(B)
The freon group of refrigerants are

(A) halo-carbon refrigerants
(B) azeotrope refrigerants
(C) inorganic refrigerants
(D) hydro-carbon refrigerants
Answer
(A)
Which of the following is an azeotrope refrigerant?

(A) R-11
(B) R-40
(C) R-114
(D) R-502
Answer
(D)
Which of the following are secondary refrigerants?

(A) Water
(B) Calcium Chloride Brine
(C) Glycol
(D) All of the above
Answer
(D)
Chemical formula of Freon-12 is

(A) CCl2F2CCl2F2
(B) CCl2F3CCl2F3
(C) CCl3F2CCl3F2
(D) CCl3F3CCl3F3
Answer
(A)
The chemical formula of R-22 is

(A) CHClF2CHClF2
(B) CCl2F2CCl2F2
(C) CClF3CClF3
(D) CCl3FCCl3F
Answer
(A)
In larger industrial and commercial reciprocating compression

systems, the refrigerant widely used is
(A) ammonia
(B) carbon dioxide
(C) sulphur dioxide
(D) R-12
Answer
(A)
Carbon dioxide is
(A) colourless
(B) odourless
(C) non-flammable
Answer
(D)
Which of the following cycle uses air as the refrigerant
(A) Ericsson
(B) Stirling
(C) Rankine
(D) Bell-Coleman
Answer
(D)
If T1T1 is the lower temperature and T2T2 is the higher

temperature than the COP of the refrigeration system working on
the reversed Carnot cycle is given by
(A) T2−T1T1T2-T1T1
(B) T2−T1T2T2-T1T2
(C) T1T2−T1T1T2-T1
(D) T2T2−T1T2T2-T1
Answer
(C)
The COP of the reversed Carnot cycle may be improved by

(A) decreasing the higher temperature
(B) increasing the lower temperature
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) none of the above
Answer
(C)
The COP of a Carnot refrigerator in winter will be ___________ than in

summer.
(A) higher
(B) lesser
(C) same
(D) depends on the capacity of the plant
Answer
(A)
The COP of a domestic refrigerator in comparison to domestic air

conditioner will be
(A) same
(B) more
(C) less
(D) dependent on weather conditions
Answer
(C)
For the same compressor work, COP of the refrigerator as

compared to COP of the heat pump is
(A) low
(B) high
(C) same
(D) unpredictable
Answer
(B)
A refrigeration cycle operates between condenser temperature of

+27°C and evaporator temperature of -23°C. The Carnot COP of the
cycle will be
(A) 0.2
(B) 1.2
(C) 5
(D) 1
Answer
(C)
The relative COP is

(A) actual COP/theoretical COP
(B) theoretical COP/Actual COP
(C) actual COP x theoretical COP
(D) 1-(actual COP/theoretical COP)
Answer
(A)
Refrigeration in aeroplanes usually employs the following

refrigerant:
(A) R-11
(B) R-22
(C) Air
(D) None of the above
Answer
(C)
In aircraft, the air refrigeration cycle is used because of
(A) low weight per ton of refrigeration
(B) high heat transfer rate
(C) low temperature at high altitudes
(D) higher coefficient of performance
Answer
(A)
A boot-strap air cooling system has

(A) one heat exchanger
(B) two heat exchanger
(C) one heat exchanger and one cooling turbine
(D) two heat exchanger and two cooling turbine
Answer
(B)
An ordinary passenger aircraft requires a cooling system of

capacity
(A) 2 TR
(B) 4 TR
(C) 8 TR
(D) 20 TR
Answer
(C)
The air cooling system mostly used in transport type aircraft is

(A) simple air cooling system
(B) simple evaporative air cooling system
(C) boot-strap air cooling system
Answer
(C)
The reduced ambient air cooling system has

(A) one cooling turbine and one heat exchanger
(B) one cooling turbine and two heat exchangers
(C) two cooling turbines and one heat exchanger
(D) two cooling turbines and two heat exchangers
Answer
(C)
The cooling system used for supersonic aircraft and rockets is

(A) simple air cooling system
(B) boot-strap air cooling system
(C) reduced ambient air cooling system
(D) regenerative air cooling system
Answer
(D)
The vapour compression refrigerator employs the following cycle

(A) Rankine
(B) Brayton
(C) Carnot
(D) Reversed Carnot
Answer
(D)
In a refrigeration cycle, heat is rejected by the refrigerant in a

(A) expansion valve
(B) condenser
(C) compressor
(D) evaporator
Answer
(B)
Domestic refrigerator working on vapour compression cycle uses

the following type of expansion device:
(A) Electrically operated throttling valve
(B) Manually operated valve
(C) Thermostatic valve
(D) Capillary tube
Answer
(D)
In a refrigeration system, the expansion device is connected

between the
(A) compressor and condenser
(B) condenser and receiver
(C) receiver and evaporator
(D) evaporator and compressor
Answer
(C)
In the vapour compression refrigeration system, the condition of

refrigerant is saturated liquid
(A) after passing through the condenser
(B) before passing through the condenser
(C) before entering the compressor
(D) after passing through the expansion valve
Answer
(A)
In vapour compression refrigeration system, the condition of

refrigerant is very wet vapour
Answer
(D)
In the vapour compression refrigeration system, the condition of

refrigerant is dry & saturated vapour
Answer
(C)
The higher temperature in the vapour compression cycle occurs at

(A) expansion valve
(B) condenser discharge
(C) compressor discharge
(D) evaporator
Answer
(C)
In the refrigeration system, heat absorbed in comparison to heat

rejected is
(A) more
(B) less
(C) same
(D) can't say
Answer
(B)
The subcooling is a process of cooling the refrigerant in VCR

system
(A) before compression
(B) after compression
(C) before throttling
(D) after throttling
Answer
(C)
The process of undercooling is generally brought about by

(A) circulating more quantity of cooling water through the condenser
(B) using water colder than the main circulating water
(C) employing a heat exchanger
(D) any of the above
Answer
(D)
Rating of a domestic refrigerator is of the order of

(A) 0.1 ton
(B) 5 ton
(C) 10 ton
(D) 40 ton
Answer
(A)
If the ice in a plant is made at -6°C and if the temperature

difference between ice and refrigerant is 5°C, then the refrigerant
temperature is
(A) -1°C
(B) 0°C
(C) -11°C
(D) -6°C
Answer
(C)
One of the purposes of sub-cooling the liquid refrigerant is to

(A) reduce compressor overheating
(B) reduce compressor discharge temperature
(C) increase cooling effect
(D) ensure that only liquid and not the vapour enters the expansion (throttling) valve
Answer
(D)
Moisture in refrigeration system causes

(A) ineffective refrigeration
(B) high power consumption
(C) freezing automatic regulating valve
(D) corrosion of whole system
Answer
(C)
The advantage of dry compression is that

(A) it permits higher speeds to be used
(B) it permits complete evaporation in the evaporator
(C) it results in high volumetric and mechanical efficiency
Answer
(D)
For obtaining high COP, the pressure range of compressor should

be
(A) high
(B) low
(C) optimum
(D) depends on capacity
Answer
(B)
Reducing suction pressure in the refrigeration cycle

(A) lowers evaporation temperature
(B) increases the power required per ton of refrigeration
(C) lowers compressor capacity because the vapour is lighter
Answer
(D)
The COP of a refrigeration cycle with lowering of condenser

temperature, keeping the evaporator temperature constant, will
(A) increase
(B) decrease
(C) may increase or decrease depending on the type of refrigerant used
(D) remain unaffected
Answer
(A)
At lower temperatures and pressures, the latent heat of

vaporisation of a refrigerant
(A) decreases
(B) increases
(C) remains same
(D) depends on other factors
Answer
(B)
The short horizontal line on the pressure-enthalpy chart show

(A) constant pressure lines
(B) constant temperature lines
(C) constant specific volume lines
(D) constant entropy lines
Answer
(B)
The purpose of installing a flash chamber in the refrigeration

circuit is to
(A) improve overall heat transfer coefficient
(B) reduce pressure losses through the evaporator
(C) reduce the size of the evaporator by avoiding vapours going to the evaporator
Answer
(D)
Which system is used to maintain different temperatures at

different points,
(A) single evaporator system
(B) multi evaporator system
(C) single compression system
(D) multi compression system
Answer
(B)
The COP of a vapour compression plant in comparison to vapour

absorption plant is
(A) more
(B) less
(C) same
(D) depends on the size of the plant
Answer
(A)
The COP of the VAR system is _________ compared to the COP of the
VCR system.
(A) high
(B) less
(C) same
(D) depends on the capacity of the plant
Answer
(B)
Absoption system normally uses the following refrigerant:

(A) CO2CO2
(B) SO2SO2
(C) NH3NH3
(D) R-11
Answer
(C)
Aqua-ammonia is used as a refrigerant in the following type of

refrigeration system
(A) compression
(B) indirect
(C) absorption
Answer
(C)
Fittings in the ammonia absorption refrigeration system are made

of
(A) cast steel or forgings
(B) copper
(C) brass
(D) aluminium
Answer
(A)
Ammonia-absorption refrigeration cycle requires

(A) very little work input
(B) maximum work input
(C) nearly same work input as for vapour compression cycle
(D) zero work input
Answer
(A)
The work input requirement for ammonia absorption

refrigeration cycle is low, because
(A) ammonia has a high thermal conductivity
(B) ammonia has a high latent heat
(C) pumping process involves liquid
(D) pumping process involves vapour
Answer
(C)
Cooling water is required for the following equipment in ammonia

absorption plant
(A) condenser
(B) evaporator
(C) absorber
(D) Condenser, absorber and separator (rectifier)
Answer
(D)
In a lithium bromide absorption refrigeration system

(A) lithium bromide is used as a refrigerant and water as an absorbent
(B) lithium bromide is used as an absorbent and water as a refrigerant
(C) ammonia is used as a refrigerant and lithium bromide as an absorbent
Answer
(B)
The refrigerator which does not require a compressor is known as

(A) vapour absorption refrigerator
(B) vapour compression refrigerator
(C) Electrolux refrigerator
(D) Carnot refrigerator
Answer
(C)
The fluids used in the Electrolux refrigerator are

(A) water and hydrogen
(B) ammonia and hydrogen
(C) ammonia, water and hydrogen
(D) none of these
Answer
(C)
An Electrolux refrigerator is called

(A) single-fluid absorption system
(B) two-fluids absorption system
(C) three-fluids absorption system
Answer
(C)
The moisture in a refrigerant is removed by

(A) evaporator
(B) safety relief valve
(C) dehumidifier
(D) driers
Answer
(D)
The leaks in a refrigeration system is detected by

(A) halide torch which on detection produces greenish flame lighting
(B) sulphur sticks which on detection gives white smoke
(C) using reagents
(D) smelling
Answer
(A)
The suction pipe diameter of the refrigerating unit in comparison

to the delivery side is
(A) bigger
(B) smaller
(C) equal
(D) smaller/bigger depending on capacity
Answer
(A)
A refrigerant compressor is used to

(A) raise the pressure of the refrigerant
(B) raise the temperature of the refrigerant
(C) circulate the refrigerant through the refrigerating system
Answer
(D)
The domestic refrigerator uses the following type of compressor

(A) centrifugal
(B) axial
(C) miniature sealed unit
(D) piston type reciprocating
Answer
(D)
A hermetically sealed unit implies

(A) compressor is sealed
(B) the compressor motor is sealed
(C) the complete refrigeration unit is sealed
(D) compressor and motor are sealed
Answer
(D)
The centrifugal compressors are generally used for refrigerants
that require
(A) small displacements and low condensing pressures
(B) large displacements and high condensing pressures
(C) small displacements and high condensing pressures
(D) large displacements and low condensing pressures
Answer
(D)
The bank of tubes at the back of the domestic refrigerator is

(A) evaporator tubes
(B) condenser tubes
(C) capillary tubes
Answer
(B)
The natural convection air-cooled condensers are used in

(A) domestic refrigerators
(B) water coolers
(C) room air conditioners
Answer
(A)
Formation of frost on the evaporator in refrigerator

(A) increases heat transfer
(B) is immaterial
(C) decreases heat transfer
(D) decreases compressor power
Answer
(C)
In a refrigeration system, the flow of refrigerant is controlled by

(A) compressor
(B) condenser
(C) evaporator
(D) expansion valve
Answer
(D)
Presence of moisture in a refrigerant affects the working of

(A) compressor
(B) condenser
(C) evaporator
(D) expansion valve
Answer
(D)
A thermostatic expansion valve in a refrigeration system

(A) ensures the evaporator completely filled with the refrigerant of the load
(B) Is suitable only for constant load systems
(C) maintains different temperatures in the evaporator in proportion to the load
Answer
(A)
The thermostatic expansion valve operates on the changes in the

(A) degree of superheat at the exit from the evaporator
(B) the temperature of the evaporator
(C) pressure in the evaporator
Answer
(A)
The thermostatic expansion valve is also called

(A) constant pressure valve
(B) constant temperature valve
(C) constant superheat valve
(D) both (B) and (C)
Answer
(C)
Most thermostatic expansion valves are set for a superheat of

(A) 5°C
(B) 10°C
(C) 15°C
(D) 20°C
Answer
(A)
The science of study of the thermodynamic properties of a

mixture of dry air and water vapour in the atmosphere is called
(A) Refrigeration
(B) Psychrometry
(C) Air conditioning
Answer
(B)
The mixture of a number of gases by volume in the air is known as

(A) dry air
(B) moist air
(C) saturated air
Answer
(A)
A mixture of dry air and water vapour, when the air has diffused
the maximum amount of water vapour into it, is called
(A) dry air
(B) moist air
(C) saturated air
(D) specific humidity
Answer
(C)
The total pressure exerted by the mixture of air and water vapour
is equal to the sum of pressures which each constituent would
exert, if it occupied the same space by itself. This statement is
called
(A) Kinetic theory of gases
(B) Newton's law of gases
(C) Dalton's law of partial pressures
(D) Avogadro's hypothesis
Answer
(C)
Dry bulb temperature is the temperature of air recorded by a

thermometer, when
(A) it is not affected by the moisture present in the air
(B) its bulb is surrounded by a wet cloth exposed to the air
(C) the moisture present in it begins to condense
Answer
(A)
Wet bulb temperature is the temperature of air recorded by a

thermometer, when
(A) it is not affected by the moisture present in the air
(B) its bulb is surrounded by a wet cloth exposed to the air
(C) the moisture present in it begins to condense
Answer
(B)
The temperature at which moisture present in the air is begins to

condense is known as
(A) dry bulb temperature
(B) wet bulb temperature
(C) dew point temperature
(D) wet bulb depression
Answer
(C)
The difference between dry bulb temperature and wet bulb

temperature is called
(A) dry bulb depression
(B) wet bulb depression
(C) dew point depression
(D) degree of saturation
Answer
(B)
The difference between dry bulb temperature and dew point

temperature is called
(A) dry bulb depression
(B) wet bulb depression
(C) dew point depression
Answer
(C)
The sling psychrometer is used to measure

(A) dry bulb temperature only
(B) wet bulb temperature only
(C) specific humidity
(D) both A and B
Answer
(D)
The specific humidity is the mass of water vapour present in

(A) one cubic meter of wet air
(B) one cubic meter of dry air
(C) one kg of wet air
(D) one kg of dry air
Answer
(D)
The ratio of the actual specific humidity to the specific humidity

when the air is saturated at the same dry bulb temperature is
called
(A) humidity ratio
(B) relative humidity
(C) absolute humidity
Answer
(D)
The ratio of actual mass of water vapour in a given volume of

moist air to the mass of water vapour in the same volume of
saturated air at the same temperature and pressure is called
(A) humidity ratio
(C) absolute humidity
Answer
(B)
The instrument used to measure relative humidity of air is

(A) hygrometer
(B) hydrometer
(C) pyrometer
(D) anemometer
Answer
(A)
The mass of water vapour present in __________ is called absolute

humidity.
(A) 1 cubic meter of wet air
(B) 1 cubic meter of dry air
(C) 1 kg of wet air
(D) 1 kg of dry air
Answer
(B)
The dry bulb temperature lines on the psychrometric chart are

(A) vertical and uniformly spaced
(B) horizontal and uniformly spaced
(C) horizontal and non-uniformly spaced
(D) curved lines
Answer
(A)
In a psychrometric chart, specific humidity (moisture content)

lines are
(D) curved lines
Answer
(B)
The horizontal and non-uniformly spaced lines on a psychrometric

chart indicates
Answer
(C)
The inclined straight and non-uniformly spaced lines on a

psychrometric chart indicates
Answer
(B)
The relative humidity lines on a psychrometric chart are

(D) curved lines
Answer
(D)
Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) The constant enthalpy lines are also constant wet bulb temperature lines
(B) The wet bulb and dry bulb temperature are equal at saturation condition
(C) The wet-bulb temperature is a measure of enthalpy of moist air
Answer
(D)
The scale given in mm of Hg on the left side of the psychrometric

chart is called
(A) enthalpy scale
(B) sensible heat factor scale
(C) vapour pressure scale
Answer
(C)
In a saturated air-water vapour mixture, the

(A) dry bulb temperature is higher than wet bulb temperature
(B) dew point temperature is lower than wet bulb temperature
(C) dry bulb, wet bulb and dew point temperature are same
(D) dry bulb temperature is higher than dew point temperature
Answer
(C)
For unsaturated air, the dew point temperature is __________ wet

bulb temperature.
(A) equal to
(B) less than
(C) more than
(D) can’t predict
Answer
(B)
The wet bulb depression indicates __________ humidity of the air.

(A) absolute
(B) relative
(C) specific
(D) any of the above
Answer
(B)
The wet-bulb depression is zero when relative humidity is

(A) 0%
(B) 50%
(C) 75%
(D) 100%
Answer
(D)
The minimum temperature to which water can be cooled in a

cooling tower is
(A) dew point temperature of air
(B) wet bulb temperature of air
(C) dry bulb temperature of air
(D) ambient air temperature
Answer
(B)
A low wet bulb temperature indicates very __________ humidity.

(A) low
(B) high
(C) can’t predict
(D) 100%
Answer
(A)
The wet bulb temperature at 100% relative humidity is __________

dew point temperature.
(A) same as
(B) lower than
(C) higher than
(D) may lower or higher
Answer
(A)
The sensible cooling process on the psychrometric chart is shown

by
(A) horizontal line
(B) vertical line
(C) inclined line
(D) curved
Answer
(A)
During sensible cooling of air __________remains constant.

(A) dew point temperature
(B) specific humidity
(C) dry bulb temperature
(D) both A and B
Answer
(D)
The dry bulb temperature during sensible cooling of air

(A) remains constant
(B) increases
(C) decreases
(D) first increases then decreases
Answer
(C)
Which of the following statement is TRUE?

(A) During sensible cooling of the air, both dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures decrease
(B) During sensible cooling of the air, dry bulb temperature decreases but wet bulb temperature
remains constant
(C) During sensible cooling of the air, dry and wet bulb temperatures decrease but dew point
temperature remains constant
(D) Both A and C
Answer
(D)
In case of sensible cooling of air, the coil efficiency is given by

(where BPF = by-pass-factor)
(A) BPF - 1
(B) 1 - BPF
(C) BPF
(D) 1 + BPF
Answer
(B)
When BPF of the cooling coil is 0.3, then its efficiency will be
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 0.7
(D) 0.5
Answer
(C)
The by-pass factor of a cooling coil decreases with

(A) decrease in fin spacing and increase in number of rows
(B) increase in fin spacing and increase in number of rows
(C) increase in fin spacing and decrease in number of rows
(D) decrease in fin spacing and decrease in number of rows
Answer
(A)
The by-pass factor for a cooling coil

(A) increases with increase in velocity of air passing through it
(B) decreases with increase in velocity of air passing through it
(C) remains unchanged with increase in velocity of air passing through it
(D) may increase or decrease with increase in velocity of air passing through it depending upon the
condition of air entering
Answer
(A)
The wet bulb temperature during sensible heating of air

(B) increases
(C) decreases
(D) first increases then decrease
Answer
(B)
The atmospheric air at dry bulb temperature of 15°C enters a

heating coil maintained at 40°C. The air leaves the heating coil at
25°C. The by-pass factor of the heating coil is
(A) 0.376
(B) 0.4
(C) 0.6
(D) 0.67
Answer
(C)
The humidification process on the psychrometric chart is shown

by
(A) horizontal line
(B) vertical line
(C) inclined line
(D) curved
Answer
(B)
During humidification process __________ remains constant.

(A) relative humidity
(B) dry bulb temperature
(D) wet bulb temperature
Answer
(B)
The specific humidity during dehumidification process

(B) increases
(C) decreases
(D) first increases then decreases
Answer
(C)
The moisture content during cooling and dehumidification

process
(B) decreases
(C) increases
(D) none of these
Answer
(B)
In order to cool and dehumidify a stream of moist air, it must be

passed over the coil at a temperature
(A) which lies between the dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures of the incoming stream
(B) which lies between the wet bulb and dew point temperatures of the incoming stream
(C) which is lower than the dew point temperature of the incoming stream
(D) of adiabatic saturation of incoming stream
Answer
(C)
It is desired to condition the outside air from 70% relative

humidity and 45°C dry bulb temperature to 50% relative humidity
and 25°C dry bulb temperature (room condition). The practical
arrangement will be
(A) dehumidification
(B) cooling and humidification
(C) cooling and dehumidification
(D) dehumidification and pure sensible cooling
Answer
(C)
The relative humidity __________ as air gets drier.

(A) increases
(B) decreases
(C) remains constant
(D) can’t predict
Answer
(B)
Sensible heat factor is given by (where S.H. = Sensible Heat and

L.H. = Latent Heat)
(A) S.H/(S.H + L.H)
(B) (S.H + L.H) /S.H
(C) (L.H - S.H)/S.H
(D) S.H/(L.H - S.H)
Answer
(A)
If sensible heat factor zero, then it indicates

(A) no sensible heat transfer
(B) no latent heat transfer
(C) both sensible and latent heat transfer
(D) neither sensible nor latent heat transfer
Answer
(A)
Sensible heat factor during pure sensible cooling is

(A) 0
(B) 0.5
(C) 1
(D) between 0 to 1
Answer
(C)
In a psychrometric process, the sensible heat added is 30 kJ/s and

the latent heat added is 20 kJ/s. The sensible heat factor for the
process will be
(A) 0.3
(B) 0.6
(C) 0.7
(D) 0.8
Answer
(B)

(A) During cooling and humidification process, the enthalpy of air decreases
(B) During cooling and humidification process, the enthalpy of air increases
(C) During cooling and humidification process, the enthalpy of air remains constant
(D) During cooling and humidification process, the enthalpy of air may increase, decrease or
remain constant depending upon the temperature of the wet surface
Answer
(D)
The psychrometric process used in air cooler is

(A) cooling and dehumidification
(B) heating and humidification
(C) cooling and humidification
(D) heating and dehumidification
Answer
(C)
The evaporative cooling systems are

(A) environment friendly
(B) offer lower initial and lower running cost
(C) easier to maintain and fabricate
Answer
(D)
Which of the following psychrometric process used in the cooling

tower?
(A) Heating and dehumidification
(B) Heating and humidification
(C) Cooling and dehumidification
(D) Cooling and humidification
Answer
(D)
During adiabatic saturation process on unsaturated air __________

remains constant.
(A) relative humidity
(B) dew point temperature
(C) dry bulb temperature
(D) wet bulb temperature
Answer
(D)
The specific humidity during heating and humidification process

(B) increases
(C) decreases
(D) remains constant
Answer
(B)
In an air washer system, if the temperature of the spraying water

is higher than the dry bulb temperature of entering air, then the
air is
(A) heated and dehumidified
(B) heated and humidified
(C) cooled and humidified
(D) cooled and dehumidified
Answer
(B)
During heating and humidification, the final relative humidity of

the air
(A) can be lower or higher than that of the entering air
(B) is lower than that of the entering air
(C) is higher than that of the entering air
Answer
(A)
In chemical dehumidification process

(A) dew point temperature decreases
(B) wet bulb temperature decreases
(C) dry bulb temperature increases
(D) all of these
Answer
(D)
An air washer can work as a

(A) humidifier
(B) dehumidifier
(C) filter
Answer
(D)
The metabolic rate depends mainly on

(A) age of the human being
(B) the activity level of the human being
(C) the sex of the human being
Answer
(B)
The index which corelates the combined effects of air

temperature, relative humidity and air velocity on the human
body, is known as
(A) mean radiant temperature
(B) effective temperature
(D) none of these
Answer
(B)
The optimum effective temperature for human comfort is

(A) higher in winter than in summer
(B) lower in winter than in summer
(C) same in winter and summer
(D) not dependent on season
Answer
(B)
Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) The human body can lose heat even if its temperature is less than the atmospheric
temperature
(B) The increase in air movement increases the evaporation from the human body
(C) The warm air increases the rate of radiation of heat from the human body
(D) Both A and B
Answer
(D)
When the temperature of the surrounding is higher than the

temperature of the body, then the heat loss by convection from
the body to the surrounding will be
(A) negative
(B) positive
(C) zero
(D) none of these
Answer
(A)
ASHRAE stands for

(A) American Society of Heating, Refrigerating and Air-Conditioning Engineering
(B) American Society of Heating, Refrigerating and Air-Conditioning Engineers
(C) American Society of Heating, Refrigerating and Air-Conditioning Engineers Association
Answer
(B)
The comfort conditions in air conditioning are at (where DBT = Dry

bulb temperature, and RH = Relative humidity)
(A) 25°C DBT and 100% RH
(B) 20°C DBT and 80% RH
(C) 25°C DBT and 50% RH
(D) 22°C DBT and 40% RH
Answer
(C)
The human body feels comfortable when the heat stored in the
body is
(A) positive
(B) zero
(C) negative
(D) none of these
Answer
(B)
The degree of warmth or cold felt by a human body depends

mainly on
(C) air velocity
(D) all of these
Answer
(D)
In summer comfort cooling, the air of the occupied space should
not have a relative humidity above
(A) 80%
(B) 60%
(C) 40%
(D) 20%
Answer
(B)
As the amount of clothing & activity level increases

(A) the surrounding DBT should be increased to maintain thermal comfort
(B) the surrounding DBT should be decreased to maintain thermal comfort
(C) the surrounding DBT remains constant to maintain thermal comfort
Answer
(B)
The surrounding air velocity affects

(A) convective heat transfer from the body only
(B) surrounding air velocity affects evaporative heat transfer from the body only
(C) surrounding air velocity affects both convective and evaporative heat transfers from the body
Answer
(C)
From the ASHRAE comfort chart, it is observed that

(A) lower dry bulb temperatures and higher moisture content are recommended for winter
(B) lower dry bulb temperatures and lower moisture content are recommended for winter
(C) lower dry bulb temperatures and higher moisture content are recommended for summer
Answer
(B)
A human body feels comfortable when the heat produced by the

metabolism of the human body is equal to the
(A) heat stored in the human body
(B) heat dissipated to the surroundings
(C) sum of A and B
(D) difference of A and B
Answer
(C)
Sensible heat load

(A) raise the DBT of air in the conditioned space
(B) raise the specific humidity of air in the conditioned space
(C) raise both DBT and specific humidity of air in the conditioned space
(D) raise the DPT of air in the conditioned space
Answer
(A)
Estimation of heat transfer rate through the building is complex

due to
(A) the complex structure of walls & roofs consisting of wide variety of materials
(B) varying indoor and outdoor conditions
(C) large size of the buildings
(D) both A and B
Answer
(D)
Which of the following is not latent heat gain source

(A) Lightening
(B) Ventilation and infiltration
(C) Occupants body
(D) Cooking foods, baking, and boiling
Answer
(A)
Heat transfer through the building can be considered as a steady,

if
(A) variation in outdoor conditions with time are not significant
(B) variation in indoor conditions with time are not significant
(C) thermal capacity of the building is large
Answer
(D)
When the outside air is introduced for ventilation purpose, there

is a
(A) sensible heat gain
(B) latent heat gain
(C) sensible heat gain as well as latent heat gain
(D) none of these
Answer
(C)
The human body in a cooled space constitutes cooling load of

(A) sensible heat only
(B) latent heat only
(C) sensible heat and latent heat
(D) none of these
Answer
(C)

(A) Fenestration is important in buildings as it provides visual communication to the outside world
(B) Heat transfer through fenestration generally forms a small part of the total building load
(C) Heat transfer due to fenestration depends only on the properties of the transparent material
(D) Fenestration is undesirable and hence should be minimized
Answer
(A)
The function of ventilated air is

(A) to dilute the odours inside the occupied space to a socially acceptable level
(B) to maintain CO2 concentration at a satisfactory level
(C) to pressurizing the escape routes in the event of a fire
Answer
(D)
The uncontrolled entry of untreated, outdoor air directly into the

conditioned space is known as
(A) ventilation
(B) infiltration
(C) pressurization
Answer
(B)
Stack effect
(A) takes place when outdoor air is warmer than indoor air
(B) takes place when outdoor air is cooler than indoor air
(C) depends on the temperature difference between indoor and outdoor air
(D) does not depend on building height
Answer
(C)
Due to stack effect

(A) in winter outdoor air enters from openings provided at the base of the building and leaves from
the openings provided at the top
(B) in winter, outdoor air enters from openings provided at the top of the building and leaves from
the openings provided at the bottom
(C) in summer, outdoor air enters from openings provided at the base of the building and leaves
from the openings provided at the top
Answer
(A)

(A) Ventilation is required for supply of oxygen for breathing only
(B) Ventilation is uncontrolled, while infiltration is controlled
(C) Ventilation requirement depends on occupancy and also on activity level
Answer
(C)
CLTD stand for

(A) Cooling Load Temperature Difference
(B) Cooling Load Logarithmic Temperature Difference
(C) Cooling Load Temperature Deviation
Answer
(A)
ICL (Instantaneous Cooling Load) on air conditioning equipment is

always less than IHG (Instantaneous Heat Gain) due to
(A) wind and stack effect
(B) heat inertia of building material
(C) infiltration
Answer
(B)
ICL (Instantaneous Cooling Load) on air conditioning equipment is

(A) always less than IHG (Instantaneous Heat Gain)
(B) more than IHG (Instantaneous Heat Gain)
(C) equal to IHG (Instantaneous Heat Gain)
(D) may more or less than IHG (Instantaneous Heat Gain)
Answer
(A)
ACH (Air Change Hour) is equal to

(A) air flow rate/volume of the room
(B) air flow rate - volume of the room
(C) air flow rate + volume of the room
(D) volume of the room
Answer
(A)
The function of the duct in the air conditioning unit is

(A) air cooling
(B) air cleaning
(C) air drying
(D) air distribution
Answer
(D)
The duct is made of

(A) galvanised iron
(B) aluminium
(C) fibreglass
(D) any one of these
Answer
(D)
For rectangular ducts, the aspect ratio is equal to

(A) sum of longer and shorter sides
(B) sum of longer and shorter sides
(C) product of longer and shorter sides
(D) ratio of longer and shorter sides
Answer
(D)
The aspect ratio for rectangular ducts should not be greater

than____in any case.
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 16
Answer
(A)
State which of the following statement is TRUE?

(A) The air conditioning duct should have high aspect ratio for good performance
(B) If the air conditioning duct is diverging, then the angle of divergence should be as small as
possible to reduce pressure loss
(C) To minimize noise and vibration, air should flow with a low velocity
(D) Both B and C
Answer
(D)
Rectangular ducts are generally preferred over the circular duct in

building as
(A) for a given flow rate, the pressure drop is less compared to circular duct
(B) for a give pressure drop, it required less material compared to circular duct
(C) it is easy to fabricate & match better with building profile
Answer
(C)
In a duct of uniform cross section

(A) only static pressure remains constant
(B) static pressure increases along the length
(C) the total pressure decreases along the length
(D) only the dynamic pressure remains constant
Answer
(C)
Dynamic losses take place in the duct due to

(A) change in the velocity or direction of airflow due to the variety of fittings
(B) friction
(C) change in the pressure
Answer
(A)
Velocity reduction method is used for

(A) very simple duct layout
(B) very large duct layout
(C) simple and large duct layout
Answer
(A)

(A) If not done properly, the velocity method gives rise to large sized ducts
(B) In the equal friction method, dampering is not required
(C) In the static regain method, dampering is required
Answer
(D)

(A) In a duct layout, the total pressure drop is maximum in the index run
(B) In a balanced condition, the total pressure drop is equal for all duct runs
(C) Dampers are required for balancing the flow in each duct run
Answer
(D)
The method, in which the size of the duct is designed to give equal
frictional pressure drop per meter length in all ducts is
(A) velocity reduction method
(B) equal friction method
(C) static regain method
Answer
(B)
In designing ducts, the equal friction method is ideal

(A) only for return ducts
(B) when the system is balanced
(C) when the system is not balanced
(D) none of these
Answer
(B)
The method used for high-velocity and long duct runs is

Answer
(C)
The most commonly used method for the design of duct size is
(D) dual or double method
Answer
(C)
The static regain method of designing the ducts as compared to

equal friction method
(A) increases balancing problems
(B) increases the cost of sheet metal for the duct
(C) decreases the cost of sheet metal for the duct
Answer
(B)
State which of the following statements are TRUE?

(A) Compared to other outlet types, a grille has lower entrainment ratio and a greater drop
(B) Ceiling diffusers are recommended when the ceiling height is high
(C) Sidewall diffusers are generally used in large spaces
(D) Both A and C
Answer
(D)
Air conditioning system used for

(A) cooling
(B) heating
(C) dehumidifying
(D) all of these
Answer
(D)
HVAC stands for

(A) Heating, Ventilation and Air Cooling
(B) Heating, Ventilation and Air Conditioning system
(C) Heating, Ventilation and Air Conditioning
(D) Heating, Ventilation and Air Conditioning for Engineers
Answer
(C)
The window air conditioner is used for

(A) auditorium
(B) cinema hall
(C) small size room
Answer
(C)
Which of the following statement is TRUE for the window air

conditioner?
(A) The first part can be located anywhere the room with a decorative display
(B) No compressor noise and vibrations in the room
(C) No window opening and fixing needed
Answer
(D)
In a split air conditioner, IDU (Indoor Unit) has

(A) compressor and condenser
(B) evaporator
(C) expansion device and evaporator
(D) compressor, condenser and expansion device
Answer
(B)
In a split air conditioner, ODU (Outdoor Unit) has

(A) compressor, condenser and expansion device
(B) compressor and condenser
(C) evaporator
(D) expansion device and evaporator
Answer
(A)
Split air conditioner available in the rage of

(A) 0.5 to 3 TR
(B) 5 to 10 TR
(C) 10 to 15 TR
(D) 0.1 to 0.5 TR
Answer
(A)
EER stands for

(A) Economical Energy Rating
(B) Environment Effectiveness Rating
(C) Energy Efficiency Ratio
Answer
(C)
Which of the following are the advantages of a split air

conditioner over the window air conditioner?
(A) No compressor noise and vibrations in the room
(B) No window opening and fixing needed.
(C) The first part can be located anywhere the room with a decorative display
Answer
(D)
The air conditioner suitable for 5 to 100 TR cooling capacity is

(A) packaged air conditioner
(B) split air conditioner
(C) window air conditioner
Answer
(A)
(A) An air handling unit convey air between conditioned space and plant
(B) An air handling unit consists of supply and return air fans
(C) The fan used in an air conditioning system consumes a large amount of power
Answer
(D)
Selection of a suitable air conditioning system depends on

(A) type of the building
(B) initial and running costs
(C) reliability and serviceability
Answer
(D)
In summer air conditioning, the air is

(A) cooled and dehumidified
(B) cooled and humidified
(C) heated and humidified
(D) heated and dehumidified
Answer
(A)
For summer air conditioning, the relative humidity of air should

not be less than
(A) 40%
(B) 60%
(C) 75%
(D) 90%
Answer
(B)
In winter air conditioning, the air is

(A) cooled and humidified
(B) cooled and dehumidified
(C) heated and humidified
(D) heated and dehumidified
Answer
(C)
For winter air conditioning, the relative humidity air should not be
more than
(A) 40%
(B) 60%
(C) 75%
(D) 90%
Answer
(A)
The year-round air conditioning system is

(A) used either as a summer air conditioning system or as a winter air conditioning system
(B) used during summer, the heaters are always switched-off
(C) used during winter, the heating and dehumidification coils are switched off
Answer
(A)
The central air conditioning system has __________ overall efficiency

as compared to individual systems
(A) same
(B) higher
(C) lower
(D) may lower or higher
Answer
(B)
The sensible heat factor for auditorium or cinema hall is generally

kept as
(A) 0.6
(B) 0.7
(C) 0.8
(D) 0.9
Answer
(B)
In all air system

(A) water is used as a medium to transfer heat from space
(B) air is used as a medium to transfer heat from space
(C) both air and water are used as a medium to transfer heat from space
Answer
(B)
The operation theatre in a hospital is to be air-conditioned.

Suggest the percentage of outside air being circulated in the
theatre is
(A) zero
(B) 20
(C) 50
(D) 100
Answer
(D)
In all water system

(A) water is used as a medium to transfer heat from space
(B) air is used as a medium to transfer heat from space
(C) both air and water are used as a medium to transfer heat from space
Answer
(A)

(A) All water systems are suitable in buildings requiring individual room control
(B) All water systems consume less space compared to all air systems
(C) Both A and B
(D) All water systems offer lower initial and running costs
Answer
(C)

(A) Small unitary systems have air-cooled condensers, while larger systems can be either air-cooled
or water-cooled
(B) A split type room air conditioner should be used when the room does not have an exterior wall
(C) It is possible to provide fresh air in a window air conditioner, whereas this is not possible in a
split air conditioner
(D)
1. In a refrigeration cycle, the flow of refrigerant is controlled by

(A) Compressor
(B) Condenser
(C) Evaporator
(D) Expansion valve
2. The colour of the flame of halide torch, in case of leakage of Freon refrigerant,
will change to
(A) Bright green
(B) Yellow
(C) Red
(D) Orange
3. For air conditioning the operation theater in a hospital, the percentage of

outside air in the air supplied is
(A) Zero
(B) 20
(C) 50
(D) 100
4. In vapour compression cycle using NH₃ as refrigerant, initial charge is filled at
(A) Suction of compressor
(B) Delivery of compressor
(C) High pressure side close to receiver
(D) Low pressure side near receiver
5. The temperature of air recorded by a thermometer, when it is not affected by

the moisture present in the air, is called
(A) Wet bulb temperature
(B) Dry bulb temperature
(C) Dew point temperature
(D) None of these
6. Absorption system normally uses the following refrigerant

(A) Freon-11
(B) Freon-22
(C) CO2
(D) Ammonia
7. Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) In vapour absorption refrigerator, the compression of refrigerant is avoided.
(B) Sub-cooling can be achieved by circulating more quantity of cooling water
through the condenser.
(C) In vapour compression refrigeration, the vapour is drawn in the compressor
cylinder during its suction stroke and is compressed adiabatically during the
compression stroke.
8. Allowable pressure on high pressure side or ammonia absorption system is of

the order of
(A) Atmospheric pressure
(B) Slightly above atmospheric pressure
(C) 24 bars
(D) 56 bars
9. The C.O.P. of a Carnot refrigerator in winter will be _________ as compared to

C.O.P. in summer.
(A) Same
(B) Lower
(C) Higher
(D) None of these
10. Chaperon equation is a relation between

(A) Temperature, pressure and enthalpy
(B) Specific volume and enthalpy
(C) Temperature and enthalpy
(D) Temperature, pressure, specific volume and enthalpy
11. During humidification process, __________ increases.

(B) Relative humidity
(C) Dry bulb temperature
(D) Specific humidity
12. Where does the lowest temperature occur in a vapour compression cycle?

(A) Condenser
(B) Evaporator
(C) Compressor
(D) Expansion valve
13. The ratio of actual mass of water vapour in a given volume of moist air to the
mass of water vapour in the same volume of saturated air at the same
temperature and pressure, is called
(A) Humidity ratio
(C) Absolute humidity
(D) Degree of saturation
14. Under cooling in a refrigeration cycle

(A) Increases C.O.P
(B) Decreases C.O.P
(C) C.O.P remains unaltered
(D) Other factors decide C.O.P
15. In a domestic vapour compression refrigerator, the refrigerant commonly used

is
(A) CO₂
(B) Ammonia
(C) R-12
(D) All of these
ANSWERs
(1) Answer: Option D (2) Answer: Option A (3) Answer: Option D (4) Answer: Option
C (5) Answer: Option B (6) Answer: Option D (7) Answer: Option D (8) Answer:
Option D (9) Answer: Option C (10) Answer: Option D (11) Answer: Option B (12)
Answer: Option B (13) Answer: Option B (14) Answer: Option A (15) Answer: Option
C
1. The COP of a vapour compression plant in comparison to vapour absorption

plant is
(A) More
(B) Less
(C) Same
(D) More/less depending on size of plant
2. The fluids used in Electrolux refrigerator are
(A) Water and hydrogen
(B) Ammonia and hydrogen
(C) Ammonia, water and hydrogen
(D) None of these
3. Domestic refrigerator working on vapour compression cycle uses the following

type of expansion device
(A) Electrically operated throttling valve
(B) Manually operated valve
(C) Thermostatic valve
(D) Capillary tube
4. The condition of refrigerant after passing through the expansion or throttle

valve, in a vapour compression system is
(A) High pressure saturated liquid
(B) Wet vapour
(C) Very wet vapour
(D) Dry vapour
5. An important characteristic of absorption system of refrigeration is

(A) Noisy operation
(B) Quiet operation
(C) Cooling below 0°C
(D) Very little power consumption
6. The centrifugal compressors are generally used for refrigerants that require
(A) Small displacements and low condensing pressures
(B) Large displacements and high condensing pressures
(C) Small displacements and high condensing pressures
(D) Large displacements and low condensing pressures
7. Rick up the incorrect statement

(A) Lithium bromide used in vapour absorption cycle is non volatile
(B) Lithium bromide plant can't operate below 0°C
(C) A separator is used in lithium bromide plant to remove the unwanted water
vapour by condensing
(D) Concentration of solution coming out of lithium bromide generator is more in
comparison to that entering the generator
8. During dehumidification process, the relative humidity

(A) Remains constant
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) None of these
9. The refrigerant widely used in domestic refrigerators is

(A) Ammonia
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Sulphur dioxide
(D) R-12
10. The moisture in a refrigerant is removed by

(A) Evaporator
(B) Safety relief valve
(C) Dehumidifier
(D) Driers
11. During sensible cooling of air ________ decreases.

12. At lower temperatures and pressures, the latent heat of vaporisation of a

refrigerant
(A) Decreases
(B) Increases
(C) Remain same
(D) Depends on other factors
13. The wet bulb depression is zero when relative humidity is

(A) Zero
(B) 0.5
(C) 0.75
(D) 1.0
14. The C.O.P of a refrigeration cycle with increase in evaporator temperature,

keeping condenser temperature constant, will
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) Remain unaffected
(D) May increase or decrease depending on the type of refrigerant used
15. During humidification process, dry bulb temperature

(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) None of these
ANSWERs
(1) Answer: Option A (2) Answer: Option C (3) Answer: Option D (4) Answer: Option C
(5) Answer: Option B (6) Answer: Option D (7) Answer: Option C (8) Answer: Option C
(9) Answer: Option D (10) Answer: Option D (11) Answer: Option C (12) Answer:
Option B (13) Answer: Option D (14) Answer: Option A (15) Answer: Option A
1. The vapour pressure of refrigerant should be
(A) Lower than atmospheric pressure
(B) Higher than atmospheric pressure
(C) Equal to atmospheric pressure
(D) Could be anything
2. Which of the following statement is wrong?

(A) The performance of the vapour compression refrigerator varies considerably with
both vaporising and condensing temperatures.
(B) In vapour compression cycle, the useful part of the heat transfer is at the
condenser.
(C) In ammonia-hydrogen (Electrolux) refrigerator, no compressor, pump or fan is
required.
(D) The effect of under-cooling the liquid refrigerant is to decrease the coefficient of
performance.
3. In a vapour compression system, the condition of refrigerant before passing
through the condenser is
(A) Saturated liquid
(B) Wet vapour
(C) Dry saturated vapour
(D) Superheated vapour
4. For proper refrigeration in a cabinet, if the temperature and vapour pressure

difference between cabinet and atmosphere is high, then
(A) Bigger cabinet should be used
(B) Smaller cabinet should be used
(C) Perfectly tight vapour seal should be used
(D) Refrigerant with lower evaporation temperature should be used
5. During sensible heating of air _________ decreases.

6. One ton refrigeration corresponds to

(A) 50 kcal/ min
(B) 50 kcal/ hr
(C) 80 kcal/ min
(D) 80 kcal/ hr
7. The process, generally used in winter air-conditioning to warm and humidity the
air, is called
(A) Humidification
(B) Dehumidification
(C) Heating and humidification
(D) Cooling and dehumidification
8. The leaks in a refrigeration system using Freon are detected by

(A) Halide torch which on detection produces greenish flame lighting
(B) Sulphur sticks which on detection gives white smoke
(C) Using reagents
(D) Smelling
9. The reduced ambient air cooling system has

(A) One cooling turbine and one heat exchanger
(B) One cooling turbine and two heat exchangers
(C) Two cooling turbines and one heat exchanger
(D) Two cooling turbines and two heat exchangers
10. In vapour compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is saturated liquid

(A) After passing through the condenser
(B) Before passing through the condenser
(C) After passing through the expansion throttle valve
(D) Before entering the expansion valve
11. Which of the following refrigerant has the maximum ozone depletion potential
in the stratosphere?
(A) Ammonia
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Sulphur dioxide
(D) Fluorine
12. If the evaporator temperature of a plant is lowered, keeping the condenser

temperature constant, the h.p. of compressor required will be
(A) Same
(B) More
(C) Less
(D) More/less depending on rating
13. Hydrogen is used in Electrolux refrigeration system so as to _________ the rate

of evaporation of the liquid ammonia passing through the evaporator.
(A) Equalize
(B) Reduce
(C) Increase
(D) None of these
14. Pick up the wrong statement. A refrigerant should have

(A) Tow specific heat of liquid
(B) High boiling point
(C) High latent heat of vaporisation
(D) Higher critical temperature
15. The pressure at the inlet of a refrigerant compressor is called

(A) Suction pressure
(B) Discharge pressure
(C) Critical pressure
(D) Back pressure
ANSWERs
(1) Answer: Option B (2) Answer: Option D (3) Answer: Option D (4) Answer: Option
C (5) Answer: Option B (6) Answer: Option A (7) Answer: Option C (8) Answer: Option
A (9) Answer: Option C (10) Answer: Option A (11) Answer: Option D (12) Answer:
Option B (13) Answer: Option C (14) Answer: Option B (15) Answer: Option A
1. Condensing temperature in a refrigerator is the temperature
(A) Of cooling medium
(B) Of freezing zone
(C) Of evaporator
(D) At which refrigerant gas becomes liquid
2. In aircraft, air refrigeration Cycle is used because of

(A) Low weight per tonne of refrigeration
(B) High heat transfer rate
(C) Low temperature at high altitudes
(D) Higher coefficient of performance
3. Highest pressure encountered in a refrigeration system should be

(A) Critical pressure of refrigerant
(B) Much below critical pressure
(C) Much above critical pressure
(D) Near critical pressure
4. The refrigerant used for absorption refrigerators working on heat from solar
collectors is a mixture of water and
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Sulphur dioxide
(C) Lithium bromide
(D) R-12
5. One ton of the refrigeration is

(A) The standard unit used in refrigeration problems
(B) The cooling effect produced by melting 1 ton of ice
(C) The refrigeration effect to freeze 1 ton of water at 0°C into ice at 0°C in 24 hours
(D) The refrigeration effect to produce 1 ton of ice at NTP conditions
6. The dry bulb temperature during sensible heating of air

(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) None of these
7. Vertical lines on pressure-enthalpy chart show constant

(A) Pressure lines
(B) Temperature lines
(C) Total heat lines
(D) Entropy lines
8. During heating and dehumidification process, dry bulb temperature

(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) None of these
9. The evolution of heat of solution takes place in ammonia absorption plant when
(A) Ammonia vapour goes into solution
(B) Ammonia vapour is driven out of solution
(C) Lithium bromide mixes with ammonia
(D) Weak solution mixes with strong solution
10. In a pressure enthalpy chart, the space to the left of the saturated liquid line
represents
(A) Wet vapour region
(B) Superheated vapour region
(C) Sub-cooled liquid region
(D) None of these
11. In vapour compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is high pressure

saturated liquid
(C) After passing through the expansion or throttle valve
12. In a bootstrap air evaporative cooling system, the evaporator is provided

(A) Between the combustion chamber and the first heat exchanger
(B) Between the first heat exchanger and the secondary compressor
(C) Between the secondary compressor and the second heat exchanger
(D) Between the second heat exchanger and the cooling turbine
13. The COP of a domestic refrigerator

(A) Is less than 1
(B) Is more than 1
(C) Is equal to 1
(D) Depends upon the make
14. The air cooling system mostly used in transport type aircrafts is
(A) Simple air cooling system
(B) Simple evaporative air cooling system
(C) Bootstrap air cooling system
(D) All of these
15. The higher temperature in vapour compression cycle occurs at

(A) Receiver
(B) Expansion valve
(C) Evaporator
(D) Compressor discharge
ANSWERs
(1) Answer: Option D (2) Answer: Option A (3) Answer: Option B (4) Answer: Option C
(5) Answer: Option C (6) Answer: Option B (7) Answer: Option C (8) Answer: Option B
(9) Answer: Option A (10) Answer: Option C (11) Answer: Option D (12) Answer:
Option D (13) Answer: Option B (14) Answer: Option C (15) Answer: Option D
1. Dry bulb temperature is the temperature of air recorded by a thermometer,
when
(A) It is not affected by the moisture present in the air
(B) Its bulb is surrounded by a wet cloth exposed to the air
(C) The moisture present in it begins to condense
2. In refrigerators, the temperature difference between the evaporating refrigerant

and the medium being cooled should be
(A) High, of the order of 25°
(B) As low as possible (3 to 11°C)
(C) Zero
(D) Any value
3. The evaporator changes the low pressure liquid refrigerant from the expansion
valve into
(A) High pressure liquid refrigerant
(B) Low pressure liquid and vapour refrigerant
(C) Low pressure vapour refrigerant
(D) None of these
4. Choose the correct statement

(A) A refrigerant should have low latent heat
(B) If operating temperature of system is low, then refrigerant with low boiling point
should be used
(C) Pre-cooling and sub-cooling bf refrigerant are same
(D) Superheat and sensible heat of a refrigerant are same
5. Carbon dioxide is
(A) Colourless
(B) Odourless
(C) Non-flammable
(D) All of these
6. Reducing suction pressure in refrigeration cycle

(A) Lowers evaporation temperature
(B) Increases power required per ton of refrigeration
(C) Lowers compressor capacity because vapour is lighter
7. The coefficient of performance of a domestic refrigerator is ________ as

compared to a domestic air-conditioner.
(A) Same
(B) Less
(C) More
(D) None of these
8. If a gas is to be liquefied, its temperature must be

(A) Increased to a value above its critical temperature
(B) Reduced to a value below its critical temperature
(C) Equal to critical temperature
9. The capacity of a domestic refrigerator is in the range of

(A) 0.1 to 0.3 TR
(B) 1 to 3 TR
(C) 3 to 5 TR
(D) 5 to 7 TR
10. The lowest thermal diffusivity is of

(A) Iron
(B) Lead
(C) Aluminium
(D) Rubber
11. In a vapour compression cycle, the refrigerant immediately after expansion

valve is
(A) Liquid
(B) Sub-cooled liquid
(C) Saturated liquid
(D) Wet vapour
12. Which of the following statement is correct for ammonia as a refrigerant?

(A) It is toxic to mucous membranes.
(B) It requires large displacement per TR compared to fluoro carbons.
(C) It reacts with copper and its alloys.
(D) All of these
13. Critical pressure of a liquid is the pressure

(A) Above which liquid will remain liquid
(B) Above which liquid becomes gas
(C) Above which liquid becomes vapour
(D) Above which liquid becomes solid
14. The optimum effective temperature for human comfort is
(A) Higher in winter than in summer
(B) Lower in winter than in summer
(C) Same in winter and summer
(D) Not dependent on season
15. Formation of frost on evaporator in refrigerator

(A) Results in loss of heat due to poor heat transfer
(B) Increases heat transfer rate
(C) Is immaterial
(D) Can be avoided by proper design
ANSWERs
(1) Answer: Option A (2)Answer: Option B (3) Answer: Option C (4) Answer: Option B
(5) Answer: Option D (6) Answer: Option D (7) Answer: Option B (8) Answer: Option
C (9) Answer: Option A (10) Answer: Option D (11) Answer: Option D (12) Answer:
Option D (13) Answer: Option A (14) Answer: Option B (15) Answer: Option A
1. A one tonne refrigerating machine means that
(A) One tonne is the total mass of machine
(B) One tonne refrigerant is used
(C) One tonne of water can be converted into ice
(D) One tonne of ice when melts from and at 0° C in 24 hours, the refrigeration effect
is equivalent to 210 kJ/min
2. The suction pipe diameter of refrigerating unit compressor in comparison to

delivery side is
(A) Bigger
(B) Smaller
(C) Equal
(D) Smaller/bigger depending on capacity
3. The coefficient of performance (C.O.P.) of a refrigerator working as a heat pump

is given by
(A) (C.O.P.)P = (C.O.P.)R + 2
(B) (C.O.P.)P = (C.O.P.)R + 1
(C) (C.O.P)P = (C.O.P)R - 1
(D) (C.O.P)P = (C.O.P)R
4. Presence of moisture in a refrigerant affects the working of

(A) Compressor
(B) Condenser
(C) Evaporator
(D) Expansion valve
5. During heating and humidification, the final relative humidity of air

(A) Can be lower or higher than that of the entering air
(B) Is lower than that of the entering air
(C) Is higher than that of the entering air
6. Which of the following cycles uses air as the refrigerant?

(A) Ericson
(B) Stirling
(C) Carnot
(D) Bell Coleman
7. The curved lines on a psychrometric chart indicates

(A) Dry bulb temperature
(B) Wet bulb temperature
(D) Relative humidity
8. On the pressure-enthalpy diagram, condensation and desuperheating is

represented by a horizontal line because the process
(A) Involves no change in volume
(B) Takes place at constant temperature
(C) Takes place at constant entropy
(D) Takes place at constant pressure
9. When the temperature of the surrounding is higher than the temperature of the
body, then the heat loss by convection from the body to the surrounding will be
(A) Positive
(B) Negative
(C) Zero
(D) None of these
10. The general rule for rating refrigeration systems (excepting for CO₂ system) is
to approximate following h.p. per ton of refrigeration
(A) 0.1 to 0.5 h.p. per ton of refrigeration
(B) 0.5 to 0.8 h.p. per ton of refrigeration
(C) 1 to 2 h.p. per ton of refrigeration
(D) 2 to 5 h.p. per ton of refrigeration
11. The atmospheric air at dry bulb temperature of 15°C enters a heating coil
maintained at 40°C. The air leaves the heating coil at 25°C. The bypass factor of the
heating coil is
(A) 0.376
(B) 0.4
(C) 0.6
(D) 0.67
12. The change in evaporator temperature in a refrigeration cycle, as compared to

change in condenser temperature, influences the value of C.O.P.
(A) More
(B) Less
(C) Equally
(D) Unpredictable
13. Most thermostatic expansion valves are set for a superheat of

(A) 5°C
(B) 10°C
(C) 15°C
(D) 20°C
14. In a refrigeration system, heat absorbed in comparison to heat rejected is

(A) More
(B) Less
(C) Same
(D) More for small capacity and less for high capacity
15. A thermostatic expansion valve in a refrigeration system

(A) Ensures the evaporator completely filled with refrigerant of the load
(B) Is suitable only for constant load systems
(C) Maintains different temperatures in evaporator in proportion to load
ANSWERs
(1) Answer: Option D (2) Answer: Option A (3) Answer: Option B (4) Answer: Option
D (5) Answer: Option A (6) Answer: Option D (7) Answer: Option D (8) Answer:
Option D (9) Answer: Option B (10) Answer: Option C (11) Answer: Option C (12)
Answer: Option A (13) Answer: Option A (14) Answer: Option B (15) Answer: Option
A
1. Freon group of refrigerants are
(A) Inflammable
(B) Toxic
(C) Non-inflammable and toxic
(D) Nontoxic and non-inflammable
2. The boiling point of ammonia is

(A) -10.5°C
(B) -30°C
(C) -33.3°C
(D) -77.7°C
3. For obtaining high COP, the pressure range of compressor should be

(A) High
(B) Low
(C) Optimum
(D) Any value
4. A reversible engine has ideal thermal efficiency of 30%. When it is used as a

refrigerating machine with all other conditions unchanged, the coefficient of
performance will be
(A) 1.33
(B) 2.33
(C) 3.33
(D) 4.33
5. Cooling water is required for following equipment in ammonia absorption plant

(A) Condenser
(B) Evaporator
(C) Absorber
(D) Condenser, absorber and separator (rectifier)
6. The freezing point of sulphur dioxide is

(A) -56.6°C
(B) -75.2°C
(C) -77.7°C
(D) -135.8°C
7. Mass flow ratio of NH₃ in comparison to Freon-12 for same refrigeration load
and same temperature limits is of the order of
(A) 1: 1
(B) 1: 9
(C) 9: 1
(D) 1: 3
8. In a refrigeration system, the expansion device is connected between the

(A) Compressor and condenser
(B) Condenser and receiver
(C) Receiver and evaporator
(D) Evaporator and compressor
9. The vapour compression refrigerator employs the following cycle

(A) Rankine
(B) Carnot
(C) Reversed Rankine
(D) Reversed Carnot
10. In actual air-conditioning applications for R-12 and R-22, and operating at a
condenser temperature of 40° C and an evaporator temperature of 5° C, the heat
rejection factor is about
(A) 1
(B) 1.25
(C) 2.15
(D) 5.12
11. Rating of a domestic refrigerator is of the order of

(A) 0.1 ton
(B) 5 tons
(C) 10 tons
(D) 40 tons
12. A human body feels comfortable when the heat produced by the metabolism
of human body is equal to the
(A) Heat dissipated to the surroundings
(B) Heat stored in the human body
(C) Sum of (A) and (B)
(D) Difference of (A) and (B)
13. The bank of tubes at the back of domestic refrigerator is

(A) Condenser tubes
(B) Evaporator tubes
(C) Refrigerant cooling tubes
(D) Capillary tubes
14. In a lithium bromide absorption refrigeration system

(A) Lithium bromide is used as a refrigerant and water as an absorbent
(B) Water is used as a refrigerant and lithium bromide as an absorbent
(C) Ammonia is used as a refrigerant and lithium bromide as an absorbent
15. The condition of refrigerant after passing through the condenser in a vapour
compression system is
(B) Wet vapour
ANSWERs
(1) Answer: Option D (2) Answer: Option C (3) Answer: Option B (4) Answer: Option B
(5) Answer: Option D (6) Answer: Option B (7) Answer: Option B (8) Answer: Option C
(9) Answer: Option D (10) Answer: Option B (11) Answer: Option A (12) Answer:
Option C (13) Answer: Option A (14) Answer: Option B (15) Answer: Option A
1. The value of C.O.P in vapour compression cycle is usually
(A) Always less than unity
(B) Always more than unity
(C) Equal to unity
(D) Any one of the above
2. The C.O.P. of a refrigerator working on a reversed Carnot cycle is (where T₁ =

Lowest absolute temperature, and T₂ = Highest absolute temperature)
(A) T₁ / (T₂ - T₁)
(B) (T₂ - T₁)/T₁
(C) (T₁ - T₂)/T₁
(D) T₂/ (T₂ - T₁)
3. Which of the following is not a desirable property of a refrigerant?

(A) High risibility with oil
(B) Low boiling point
(C) Good electrical conductor
(D) Large latent heat
4. The refrigerant after condensation process is cooled below the saturation

temperature before throttling. Such a process is called
(A) Sub-cooling or under-cooling
(B) Super-cooling
(C) Normal cooling
(D) None of these
5. A certain refrigerating system has a normal operating suction pressure of 10

kg/cm gauge and condensing pressure of about 67 kg/cm. The refrigerant used is
(A) Ammonia
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Freon
(D) Brine
6. The capillary tube, as an expansion device, is used in

(A) Domestic refrigerators
(B) Water coolers
(C) Room air conditioners
(D) All of these
7. If a heat pump cycle operates between the condenser temperature of +27°C and
evaporator temperature of -23°C, then the Carnot COP will be
(A) 0.2
(B) 1.2
(C) 5
(D) 6

(A) The human body can lose heat even if its temperature is less than the
atmospheric temperature.
(B) The increase in air movement increases the evaporation from the human body.
(C) The warm air increases the rate of radiation of heat from the human body.
(D) Both (A) and (B)
9. In a flooded evaporator refrigerator, an accumulator at suction of compressor is

used to
(A) Collect liquid refrigerant and prevent it from going to compressor
(B) Detect liquid in vapour
(C) Superheat the vapour
(D) Collect vapours
10. The minimum temperature to which water can be cooled in a cooling tower is
(A) Dew point temperature of air
(B) Wet bulb temperature of air
(C) Dry bulb temperature of air
(D) Ambient air temperature
11. Highest temperature encountered in refrigeration cycle should be

(A) Near critical temperature of refrigerant
(B) Above critical temperature
(C) At critical Temperature
(D) Much below critical temperature
12. The operating pressure for refrigerating units using R-12 as a refrigerant is
(A) 2 bar
(B) 8 bar
(C) 15 bar
(D) 30 bar
13. The domestic refrigerator uses following type of compressor

(A) Centrifugal
(B) Axial
(C) Miniature sealed unit
(D) Piston type reciprocating
14. A bootstrap air cooling system has

(A) One heat exchanger
(B) Two heat exchangers
(C) Three heat exchangers
(D) Four heat exchangers
15. Critical temperature is the temperature above which

(A) A gas will never liquefy
(B) A gas will immediately liquefy
(C) Water will evaporate
(D) Water will never evaporate
ANSWERs
(1) Answer: Option B (2) Answer: Option A (3) Answer: Option C (4) Answer: Option A
(5) Answer: Option B (6) Answer: Option D (7) Answer: Option D (8) Answer: Option
D (9) Answer: Option A (10) Answer: Option B (11) Answer: Option D (12) Answer:
Option B (13) Answer: Option D (14) Answer: Option B (15) Answer: Option A
(A) The constant enthalpy lines are also constant wet bulb temperature lines
(B) The wet bulb and dry bulb temperature are equal at saturation condition
(C) The wet bulb temperature is a measure of enthalpy of moist air
2. In vapour compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is very wet vapour
(D) Before entering the compressor
3. During cooling and dehumidification, dry bulb temperature

(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) None of these
4. Ammonia absorption refrigeration cycle requires

(A) Very little work input
(B) Maximum work input
(C) Nearly same work input as for vapour compression cycle
(D) Zero work input
5. Which of the following refrigerant has the highest freezing point.

(A) Ammonia
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Sulphur dioxide
(D) R-12
6. A standard ice point temperature corresponds to the temperature of

(A) Water at 0°C
(B) Ice at 4°C
(C) Solid and dry ice
(D) Mixture of ice and water under equilibrium conditions
7. The sub-cooling in a refrigeration cycle

(A) Does not alter C.O.P.
(B) Increases C.O.P.
(C) Decreases C.O.P.
(D) None of these
8. The condensing pressure due to the presence of non-condensable gases, as

compared to that actually required for condensing temperatures without non-
condensable gases,
(A) Will be higher
(B) Will be lower
(C) Will remain unaffected
(D) May be higher or lower depending upon the nature of non-condensable gases
9. The Freon group of refrigerants are

(A) Halocarbon refrigerants
(B) Zoetrope refrigerants
(C) Inorganic refrigerants
(D) Hydrocarbon refrigerants
10. For better C.O.P of refrigerator, the pressure range corresponding to
temperature in evaporator and condenser must be
(A) Small
(B) High
(C) Equal
(D) Anything
11. In vapour compression refrigeration system, refrigerant occurs as liquid

between
(A) Condenser and expansion valve
(B) Compressor and evaporator
(C) Expansion valve and evaporator
(D) Compressor and condenser
12. The wet bulb depression indicates _________ humidity of the air.
(A) Absolute
(B) Relative
(C) Specific
(D) None of these
13. The sensible heat factor during the heating and humidification process is given
by (where h₁ = Enthalpy of air entering the heating coil, h₂ = Enthalpy of air leaving
the heating coil, and hA = Enthalpy of air at the end of humidification process)
(A) (hA - h2)/ (h1 - h2)
(B) (h2 - hA)/ (h1 - h2)
(C) (h1 - h2)/ (hA - h2)
(D) (hA - h1)/ (h2 - h1)
14. The lower horizontal line of the refrigeration cycle plotted on pressure-
enthalpy diagram represents
(A) Condensation of the refrigerant vapour
(B) Evaporation of the refrigerant liquid
(C) Compression of the refrigerant vapour
(D) Metering of the refrigerant liquid
15. The leakage in a refrigeration system using Freon is detected by

(A) Halide torch
(B) Sulphur sticks
(C) Soap and water
(D) All of these
ANSWERs
(1) Answer: Option D (2) Answer: Option D (3) Answer: Option C (4) Answer: Option
A (5) Answer: Option B (6) Answer: Option D (7) Answer: Option B (8) Answer:
Option A (9) Answer: Option A (10) Answer: Option A (11) Answer: Option C (12)
Answer: Option B (13) Answer: Option D (14) Answer: Option B (15) Answer: Option
A
1. The conditioned air supplied to the room must have the capacity to take up
(A) Room sensible heat load only
(B) Room latent heat load only
(C) Both room sensible heat and latent heat loads
2. Moisture in Freon refrigeration system causes

(A) Ineffective refrigeration
(B) High power consumption
(C) Freezing automatic regulating valve
(D) Corrosion of whole system
3. The boiling point of ________ is 10.5°C.

(A) Ammonia
(B) R-12
(C) Sulphur dioxide
(D) Carbon dioxide
4. The refrigeration effect in a dry evaporator compared to flooded evaporator in a

similar plant is
(A) Same
(B) More
(C) Less
(D) More or less depending on ambient conditions
5. The index which correlates the combined effects of air temperature, relative
humidity and air velocity on the human body, is known as
(A) Mean radiant temperature
(B) Effective temperature
(D) None of these
6. Which of the following refrigerants has lowest freezing point?

(A) Freon-12
(B) NH3
(C) CO2
(D) Freon-22
7. The thermostatic expansion valve is used in ________ type of evaporators.

(A) Flooded
(B) DX coil
(C) Dry
(D) None of these

(A) 100°C
(B) 50°C
(C) 33.3°C
(D) 0°C
9. The specific humidity during heating and humidification process.

(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) None of these
10. The relative coefficient of performance is

(A) Actual COP/theoretical COP
(B) Theoretical COP/actual COP
(C) Actual COP × theoretical COP
(D) None of these
11. The wet bulb temperature at 100% relative humidity is ________ dew point
temperature.
(A) Same as
(B) Lower than
(C) Higher than
(D) None of these
12. Vapour compression refrigeration is somewhat like

(A) Carnot cycle
(B) Rankine’s cycle
(C) Reversed Carnot cycle
13. A heat pump working on a reversed Carnot cycle has a C.O.P. of 5. It works as a
refrigerator taking 1 kW of work input. The refrigerating effect will be
(A) 1 kW
(B) 2 kW
(C) 3 kW
(D) 4 kW
14. Aqua ammonia is used as refrigerant in the following type of refrigeration

system
(A) Compression
(B) Direct
(C) Indirect
(D) Absorption
15. Air conditioning means
(A) Cooling
(B) Heating
(C) Dehumidifying
(D) All of these
ANSWERs
(1) Answer: Option C (2) Answer: Option C (3) Answer: Option C (4) Answer: Option C
(5) Answer: Option B (6) Answer: Option D (7) Answer: Option C (8) Answer: Option C
(9) Answer: Option B (10) Answer: Option A (11) Answer: Option A (12) Answer:
Option D (13) Answer: Option D (14) Answer: Option D (15) Answer: Option D
1. The advantage of dry compression is that
(A) It permits higher speeds to be used
(B) It permits complete evaporation in the evaporator
(C) It results in high volumetric and mechanical efficiency
2. The specific humidity during dehumidification process

(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) None of these
3. The C.O.P. of a refrigeration cycle with lowering of condenser temperature,

keeping the evaporator temperature constant, will
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) May increase or decrease depending on the type of refrigerant used
(D) Remain unaffected
4. The alignment circle is marked on the psychrometric chart at
5. A refrigeration cycle operates between condenser temperature of + 27°C and

evaporator temperature of -23°C. The Carnot coefficient of performance of cycle
will be
(A) 0.2
(B) 1.2
(C) 5
(D) 6
6. Relative humidity is given by (where pv = Partial pressure of water vapour, pb =

Barometric pressure, ps = Pressure of saturated air, pd = Pressure at dry bulb
temperature, pw = Saturation pressure corresponding to wet bulb temperature,
and μ = Degree of saturation)
(A) 0.622 Pv / (Pb - Pv)
(B) μ/[1 - (1 - μ) (Ps/Pb)]
(C) [Pv (Pb - Pd)]/ [Pd (Pb - Pv)]
(D) None of these
7. In refrigerator, liquid receiver is required between condenser and flow

controlling device, if quantity of refrigerant for system is
(A) Less than 2 kg
(B) More than or equal to 3.65 kg
(C) More than 10 kg
(D) There is no such consideration
8. During sensible cooling,

(A) Relative humidity remains constant
(B) Wet bulb temperature increases
(C) Specific humidity increases
(D) Partial pressure of vapour remains constant
9. Choose the wrong statement

(A) Temperature of medium being cooled must be below that of the evaporator
(B) Refrigerant leaves the condenser as liquid
(C) All solar thermally operated absorption systems are capable only of intermittent
operation
(D) Frost on evaporator reduces heat transfer
10. The superheating in a refrigeration cycle

(A) Does not alter C.O.P.
(B) Increases C.O.P.
(C) Decreases C.O.P.
(D) None of these
11. Refrigeration in aeroplanes usually employs the following refrigerant

(A) CO2
(B) Freon-11
(C) Freon-22
(D) Air
12. The condition of refrigerant as it leaves the compressor in a vapour
compression system is
(B) Wet vapour
13. The coefficient of performance is the ratio of the refrigerant effect to the
(A) Heat of compression
(B) Work done by compressor
(C) Enthalpy increase in compressor
14. The bypass factor (B. P. F.) in case of sensible heating of air is (Where td₁ = Dry
bulb temperature of air entering the heating coil, td₂ = Dry bulb temperature of air
leaving the heating coil, and td₃ = Dry bulb temperature of heating coil)
(A) (td₂ - td₃)/(td₃ - td₁)
(B) (td₃ - td₂)/(td₃ - td₁)
(C) (td₃ - td₁)/(td₂ - td₃)
(D) (td₃ - td₁)/(td₃ - td₂)
15. Air refrigeration operates on

(A) Carnot cycle
(B) Reversed Carnot cycle
(C) Rankine’s cycle
(D) Brayton cycle
ANSWERs
(1) Answer: Option D (2) Answer: Option C (3) Answer: Option A (4) Answer: Option B
(5) Answer: Option C (6) Answer: Option B (7) Answer: Option B (8) Answer: Option D
(9) Answer: Option A (10) Answer: Option C (11) Answer: Option D (12) Answer:
Option D (13) Answer: Option D (14) Answer: Option B (15) Answer: Option D
1. In order to cool and dehumidify a stream of moist air, it must be passed over the
coil at a temperature
(A) Which lies between the dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures of the incoming
stream
(B) Which lies between the wet bulb and dew point temperatures of the incoming
stream
(C) Which is lower than the dew point temperature of the incoming stream
(D) Of adiabatic saturation of incoming stream
2. Superheating in a refrigeration cycle

(A) Increases C.O.P
(B) Decreases C.O.P
(C) C.O.P remains unaltered
(D) Other factors decide C.O.P
3. The specific humidity during cooling and dehumidification

(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) None of these
4. Chaperon equation is applicable for registration at

(A) Saturation point of vapour
(B) Saturation point of liquid
(C) Sublimation temperature
(D) Triple point
5. For ammonia refrigerating systems, the tubes of a shell and tube condenser are
made of
(A) Copper
(B) Aluminium
(C) Steel
(D) Brass
6. The refrigerant for a refrigerator should have

(A) High sensible heat
(B) High total heat
(C) High latent heat
(D) Low latent heat
7. The bypass factor for a cooling coil

(A) Increases with increase in velocity of air passing through it
(B) Decreases with increase in velocity of air passing through it
(C) Remains unchanged with increase in velocity of air passing through it
(D) May increase or decrease with increase in velocity of air passing through it
depending upon the condition of air entering
8. Accumulators should have adequate volume to store refrigerant charge at least

(A) 10%
(B) 25%
(C) 50%
(D) 75%
9. The dry bulb temperature lines, on the psychrometric chart are

(A) Vertical and uniformly spaced
(B) Horizontal and uniformly spaced
(C) Horizontal and non-uniformly spaced
(D) Curved lines
10. In S.J. unit, one ton of refrigeration is equal to

(A) 210 kJ/ min
(B) 21 kJ/ min
(C) 420 kJ/ min
(D) 840 kJ/ min
11. The cooling system used for supersonic aircrafts and rockets is
(A) Simple air cooling system
(B) Bootstrap air cooling system
(C) Reduced ambient air cooling system
(D) Regenerative air cooling system
12. Short horizontal lines on pressure-enthalpy chart show

(A) Constant pressure lines
(B) Constant temperature lines
(C) Constant total heat lines
(D) Constant entropy lines
13. Which of the following statement is wrong?
(A) The value of C.O.P. is always greater than one
(B) In a vapour compression system, the condition of refrigerant before entering the
compressor is dry saturated vapour
(C) The space between the saturated liquid line and saturated vapour line, in a
pressure enthalpy chart, is wet vapour region
14. One ton of refrigeration is equal to the refrigeration effect corresponding to

melting of 1000 kg of ice
(A) In 1 hour
(B) In 1 minute
(C) In 24 hours
(D) In 12 hours
15. In a vapour absorption refrigeration system, the compressor of the vapour

compression system is replaced by
(A) Liquid pump
(B) Generator
(C) Absorber and generator
(D) Absorber, generator and liquid pump
ANSWERs
(1) Answer: Option C (2) Answer: Option B (3) Answer: Option C (4) Answer: Option A
(5) Answer: Option C (6) Answer: Option C (7) Answer: Option A (8) Answer: Option C
(9) Answer: Option A (10) Answer: Option A (11) Answer: Option D (12) Answer:
Option A (13) Answer: Option D (14) Answer: Option C (15) Answer: Option D
1. Efficiency of a Carnot engine is given as 80%. If the cycle direction be reversed,
what will be the value of C.O.P. of reversed Carnot Cycle?
(A) 1.25
(B) 0.8
(C) 0.5
(D) 0.25
2. The refrigerant supplied to a compressor must be

(A) Superheated vapour refrigerant
(B) Dry saturated liquid refrigerant
(C) A mixture of liquid and vapour refrigerant
(D) None of these
3. One of the purposes of sub cooling the liquid refrigerant is to

(A) Reduce compressor overheating
(B) Reduce compressor discharge temperature
(C) Increase cooling effect
(D) Ensure that only liquid and not the vapour enters the expansion (throttling) valve
4. The ratio of heat extracted in the refrigerator to the work-done on the

refrigerant is called
(A) Coefficient of performance of refrigeration
(B) Coefficient of performance of heat pump
(C) Relative coefficient of performance
(D) Refrigerating efficiency
5. In vapour compression cycle the condition off refrigerant is dry saturated vapour
(D) Before entering the compressor
6. In larger industrial and commercial reciprocating compression systems,

refrigerant widely used is
(A) Ammonia
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Sulphur dioxide
(D) R-12
7. In vapour compression cycle the condition of refrigerant is superheated vapour

8. In which of the following refrigeration system, waste heat can be effectively

used?
(A) Vapour compression cycle
(B) Vapour absorption cycle
(C) Air refrigeration cycle
(D) None of these
9. Pick up the correct statement about giving up of heat from one medium to other
in ammonia absorption system
(A) Strong solution to weak solution
(B) Weak solution to strong solution
(C) Strong solution to ammonia vapour
(D) Ammonia vapours to weak solution
10. The material of pipe lines for a system using Freon as a refrigerant should be
(A) Brass
(B) Copper
(C) Steel
(D) Aluminium
11. Ammonia is
(A) Non-toxic
(B) Non-inflammable
(C) Toxic and non-inflammable
(D) Highly toxic and inflammable
12. The sensible heat factor during cooling and dehumidification process is given
by (where h₁ = Enthalpy of air entering the cooling coil, h₂ = Enthalpy of air leaving
the cooling coil, and hA = Enthalpy of air at the end of dehumidification process)
(A) (hA - h2)/ (h1 - h2)
(B) (h2 - hA)/ (h1 - h2)
(C) (h1 - h2)/ (hA - h2)
(D) (hA - h1)/ (h2 - h1)
13. Most of the domestic refrigerators work on the following refrigeration system
(A) Vapour compression
(B) Vapour absorption
(C) Carnot cycle
(D) Electrolux refrigerator
14. For unsaturated air, the dew point temperature is __________ wet bulb
temperature.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) None of these
15. Air refrigeration cycle is used in

(A) Domestic refrigerators
(B) Commercial refrigerators
(C) Air conditioning
(D) Gas liquefaction
ANSWERs
(1) Answer: Option D (2) Answer: Option A (3) Answer: Option D (4) Answer: Option
A (5) Answer: Option D (6) Answer: Option A (7) Answer: Option B (8) Answer:
Option B (9) Answer: Option B (10) Answer: Option B (11) Answer: Option D (12)
Answer: Option A (13) Answer: Option A (14) Answer: Option B (15) Answer: Option
D
1. The temperature of air recorded by a thermometer, when its bulb is surrounded
by a wet cloth exposed to the air, is called
(B) Dry bulb temperature
(D) None of these
2. The C.O.P. of an absorption type refrigerator is given by (where T₁ =
Temperature at which the working substance receives heat, T₂ = Temperature of
cooling water, and T₃ = Evaporator temperature)
(A) [T₁ (T₂ - T₃)] / [T₃ (T₁ - T₂)]
(B) [T₃ (T₁ - T₂)]/ [T₁ (T₂ - T₃)]
(C) [T₁ (T₁ - T₂)] / [T₃ (T₂ - T₃)]
(D) [T₃ (T₂ - T₃)] / [T₁ (T₁ - T₂)]
3. The humidity ratio or specific humidity is the mass of water vapour present in
(A) 1 m3 of wet air
(B) 1 m3 of dry air
(C) 1 kg of wet air
(D) 1 kg of dry air
4. During adiabatic saturation process on unsaturated air __________ remains

constant.
(A) Relative humidity
(B) Dew point temperature
(D) Wet bulb temperature
5. Degree of saturation or percentage humidity is

(A) The mass of water vapour present in 1 m³ of dry air
(B) The mass of water vapour present in 1 kg of dry air
(C) The ratio of the actual mass of water vapour in a unit mass of dry air to the mass
of water vapour in the same mass of dry air when it is saturated at the same
temperature and pressure
(D) The ratio of actual mass of water vapour in a given volume of moist air to the
mass of water vapour in the same volume of saturated air at the same temperature
and pressure
6. The reciprocating refrigerant compressors are very suitable for
(A) Small displacements and low condensing pressures
(B) Large displacements and high condensing pressures
(C) Small displacements and high condensing pressures
(D) Large displacements and low condensing pressures
7. The desirable property of a refrigerant is

(A) Low boiling point
(B) High critical temperature
(C) High latent heat of vaporisation
(D) All of these
8. The humidification process, on the psychrometric chart is shown by

(A) Horizontal line
(B) Vertical line
(C) Inclined line
(D) Curved line
9. The evaporator used in household refrigerators is

(A) Frosting evaporator
(B) Non-frosting evaporator
(C) Defrosting evaporator
(D) None of these
10. In case of sensible heating of air, the coil efficiency is given by (where B.P.F. =
Bypass factor)
(A) B.P.F. - 1
(B) 1 - B. P.F.
(C) 1/ B.P.F.
(D) 1 + B.P.F.
11. In a refrigerating machine, heat rejected is _________ heat absorbed.

(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
12. In aqua ammonia and Lithium bromide water absorption refrigeration systems,
the refrigerants are respectively
(A) Water and water
(B) Water and lithium bromide
(C) Ammonia and lithium bromide
(D) Ammonia and water
13. In air-conditioning of aeroplanes, using air as a refrigerant, the cycle used is

(A) Reversed Carnot cycle
(B) Reversed Joule cycle
(C) Reversed Brayton cycle
(D) Reversed Otto cycle
14. The mass of water vapour present in __________ is called absolute humidity.
(A) 1 m3 of water
(B) 1 m3 of dry air
(C) 1 kg of wet air
(D) 1 kg of dry air
15. While designing the refrigeration system of an aircraft, the prime consideration
is that the
(A) System has high C.O.P.
(B) Power per TR is low
(C) Mass of refrigerant circulated in the system is low
(D) Mass of the refrigeration equipment is low
ANSWERs
(1) Answer: Option A (2) Answer: Option B (3) Answer: Option D (4) Answer: Option
D (5) Answer: Option C (6) Answer: Option C (7) Answer: Option D (8) Answer:
Option B (9) Answer: Option A (10) Answer: Option B (11) Answer: Option C (12)
Answer: Option D (13) Answer: Option C (14) Answer: Option B (15) Answer: Option
D
1. The formation of frost on cooling coils in a refrigerator
(A) Increases heat transfer
(B) Improves C.O.P. of the system
(C) Increases power consumption
(D) Reduces power consumption
2. The power per tonne of refrigeration is

(A) 3.5/C.O.P.
(B) C.O.P/3.5
(C) 3.5 × C.O.P.
(D) None of these
3. The wet bulb temperature during sensible heating of air
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) None of these
4. The relative humidity is defined as

(A) The mass of water vapour present in 1 m3 of dry air
(B) The mass of water vapour present in 1 kg of dry air
(C) The ratio of the actual mass of water vapour in a unit mass of dry air to the mass
temperature and pressure
(D) The ratio of actual mass of water vapour in a given volume of moist air to the
mass of water vapour in the same volume of saturated air at the same temperature
and pressure
5. As relative humidity decreases, the dew point temperature will be ________ wet
bulb temperature.
(A) Same as
(B) Lower than
(C) Higher than
(D) None of these
6. In a psychrometric process, the sensible heat added is 30 kJ/s and the latent
heat added is 20 kJ/s. The sensible heat factor for the process will be
(A) 0.3
(B) 0.6
(C) 0.67
(D) 1.5
7. An Electrolux refrigerator is called a _________ absorption system.
(A) Single fluid
(B) Two fluids
(C) Three fluids
(D) None of these
8. It is desired to condition the outside air from 70% relative humidity and 45° C
dry bulb temperature to 50% relative humidity and 25° C dry bulb temperature
(room condition). The practical arrangement will be
(A) Dehumidification
(B) Cooling and humidification
(C) Cooling and dehumidification
(D) Dehumidification and pure sensible cooling
9. The difference between dry bulb temperature and wet bulb temperature, is
called
(A) Dry bulb depression
(B) Wet bulb depression
(C) Dew point depression
10. The coefficient of performance of Heat Pump is always _________ one.

(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
11. An evaporator is also known as
(A) Freezing coil
(B) Cooling coil
(C) Chilling coil
(D) All of these
12. A refrigeration system

(A) Removes heat from a low temperature body and delivers it to a high temperature
body
(B) Removes heat from a high temperature body and delivers it to a low temperature
body
(C) Rejects energy to a low temperature body
13. Nusselt number (NN) is given by

(A) NN = hl/k
(B) NN = μ cp/k
(C) NN = ρ V l /μ
(D) NN = V²/t.cp
14. The temperature of ammonia after compression in a vapour compression

system is
(A) 20 to 50°C
(B) 50 to 70°C
(C) 70 to 110°C
(D) None of these
15. A pressure gauge on the discharge side of a refrigerant compressor reads too
high. The reasons will be
(A) Lack of cooling water
(B) Water temperature being high
(C) Dirty condenser surface
(D) All of these
ANSWERs
(1) Answer: Option C (2) Answer: Option A (3) Answer: Option B (4) Answer: Option D
(5) Answer: Option B (6) Answer: Option B (7) Answer: Option C (8) Answer: Option C
(9) Answer: Option B (10) Answer: Option C (11) Answer: Option D (12) Answer:
Option A (13) Answer: Option A (14) Answer: Option C (15) Answer: Option D
1. For evaporators and condensers, for the given conditions, the logarithmic mean
temperature difference (tm) for parallel flow is ________ that for counter flow.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
2. A vapour absorption refrigerator uses _________ as a refrigerant.

(A) Water
(B) Ammonia
(C) Freon
(D) Aqua-ammonia
3. Bell Coleman cycle is a

(B) Reversed Otto cycle
(C) Reversed Joule cycle
(D) Reversed Rankine cycle
4. The coefficient of performance of Electrolux refrigerator is the ratio of

(A) Heat supplied by the gas burner to the heat absorbed by the evaporator
(B) Heat absorbed by the evaporator to the heat supplied by the gas burner
(C) Heat supplied by the gas burner minus the heat absorbed by the evaporator to
the heat supplied by the gas burner
(D) Heat absorbed by the evaporator minus the heat supplied by the gas burner to
the heat absorbed by the evaporator
5. Which of the following refrigerant has the lowest freezing point?

(A) R-11
(B) R-12
(C) R-22
(D) Ammonia
6. In Electrolux refrigerator
(A) Ammonia is absorbed in hydrogen
(B) Ammonia is absorbed in water
(C) Ammonia evaporates in hydrogen
(D) Hydrogen evaporates in ammonia
7. One tonne of refrigeration (1TR) means that the heat removing capacity is
(A) 21 kJ/min
(B) 210 kJ/min
(C) 420 kJ/min
(D) 620 kJ/min
8. The superheated vapour region, in a pressure enthalpy chart, is represented by

the space
(A) To the left of saturated liquid line
(B) To the right of saturated liquid line
(C) Between the saturated liquid line and saturated vapour line
9. A good refrigerant should have

(A) High latent heat of vaporisation and low freezing point
(B) High operating pressures and low freezing point
(C) High specific volume and high latent heat of vaporisation
(D) Low C.O.P. and low freezing point

(A) Commercial refrigerators
(B) Domestic refrigerators
(C) Air-conditioning
(D) Gas liquefaction
11. In a saturated air-water vapour mixture, the

(A) Dry bulb temperature is higher than wet bulb temperature
(B) Dew point temperature is lower than wet bulb temperature
(C) Dry bulb, wet bulb and dew point temperature are same
(D) Dry bulb temperature is higher than dew point temperature
12. The capillary tube is not used in large capacity refrigeration systems because
(A) Cost is too high
(B) Capacity control is not possible
(C) It is made of copper
(D) Required pressure drop cannot be achieved
13. The thermostatic expansion valve operates on the changes in the

(A) Degree of superheat at exit from the evaporator
(B) Temperature of the evaporator
(C) Pressure in the evaporator
14. In a vapour compression system, the condition of refrigerant before entering

the expansion or throttle valve is
(A) High pressure saturated liquid
(B) Wet vapour
(C) Very wet vapour
(D) Dry vapour
15. The freezing point of R-12 is

(A) -86.6°C
(B) -95.2°C
(C) -107.7°C
(D) -135.8°C
ANSWERs
(1) Answer: Option A (2) Answer: Option D (3) Answer: Option C (4) Answer: Option B
(5) Answer: Option C (6) Answer: Option C (7) Answer: Option B (8) Answer: Option C
(9) Answer: Option A (10) Answer: Option D (11) Answer: Option C (12) Answer:
Option B (13) Answer: Option A (14) Answer: Option A (15) Answer: Option D
1. The unit of thermal diffusivity is
(A) m/hK
(B) m/h
(C) m²/h
(D) m²/hK
2. The comfort conditions in air conditioning are at (where DBT = Dry bulb

temperature, and RH = Relative humidity)
3. The pressure at the outlet of a refrigerant compressor is called

(A) Suction pressure
(B) Discharge pressure
(C) Critical pressure
(D) Back pressure
4. The bypass factor, in case of sensible cooling of air, is given by (where td₁ = Dry
bulb temperature of air entering the cooling coil, td₂ = Dry bulb temperature of air
leaving the cooling coil, and td₃ = Dry bulb temperature of the cooling coil)
(A) (td₁ -td₃)/( td₂ -td₃)
(B) (td₂ -td₃)/( td₁ -td₃)
(C) (td₃ -td₁)/( td₂ -td₃)
(D) (td₃ -td₂)/( td₁ -td₃)
5. The operating temperature of a cold storage is 2°C. The heat leakage from the
surrounding is 30 kW for the ambient temperature of 40°C. The actual C.O.P. of
refrigeration plant used is one fourth that of ideal plant working between the same
temperatures. The power required to drive the plant is
(A) 1.86 kW
(B) 3.72 kW
(C) 7.44 kW
(D) 18.6 kW
6. In chemical dehumidification process,

(A) Dew point temperature decreases
(B) Wet bulb temperature decreases
(C) Dry bulb temperature increases
(D) All of these
7. Environmental protection agencies advice against the use of chlorofluorocarbon

refrigerants since
(A) These react with water vapour and cause acid rain
(B) These react with plants and cause greenhouse effect
(C) These react with oxygen and cause its depletion
(D) These react with ozone layer
8. When the lower temperature of a refrigerating machine is fixed, then the

coefficient of performance can be improved by
(A) Operating the machine at higher speeds
(B) Operating the machine at lower speeds
(C) Raising the higher temperature
(D) Lowering the higher temperature
9. The bypass factor of a cooling coil decreases with

(A) Decrease in fin spacing and increase in number of rows
(B) Increase in fin spacing and increase in number of rows
(C) Increase in fin spacing and decrease in number of rows
(D) Decrease in fin spacing and decrease in number of rows
10. A mixture of dry air and water vapour, when the air has diffused the maximum
amount of water vapour into it, is called
(A) Dry air
(B) Moist air
(C) Saturated air
11. The total pressure exerted by the mixture of air and water vapour is equal to
the sum of pressures which each constituent would exert, if it occupied the same
space by itself. This statement is called
(A) Kinetic theory of gases
(B) Newton's law of gases
(C) Dalton's law of partial pressures
(D) Avogadro's hypothesis
12. The relative humidity lines on a psychrometric chart are

(D) Curved lines
13. The C.O.P. of a heat pump working on a reversed Carnot cycle is

(A) T₁/(T₂ - T₁)
(B) (T₂ - T₁)/T₁
(C) (T₁ - T₂)/T₁
(D) T₂/(T₂ - T₁)
14. A vapour absorption refrigeration system

(A) Gives noisy operation
(B) Gives quiet operation
(C) Requires little power consumption
(D) Cools below 0°C
15. A refrigerating system operating on reversed Brayton refrigeration cycle is used

for maintaining 250 K. If the temperature at the end of constant pressure cooling is
300 K and rise in the temperature of air in the refrigerator is 50 K, then the net
work of compression will be (assume air as working substance with Cp = 1 kJ/kg)
(A) 25 kJ/kg
(B) 50 kJ/kg
(C) 100 kJ/kg
(D) 125 kJ/kg
ANSWERs
(1) Answer: Option C (2) Answer: Option C (3) Answer: Option B (4) Answer: Option B
(5) Answer: Option D (6) Answer: Option D (7) Answer: Option D (8) Answer: Option
D (9) Answer: Option A (10) Answer: Option C (11) Answer: Option C (12) Answer:
Option D (13) Answer: Option D (14) Answer: Option B (15) Answer: Option B
1. The ratio of the actual mass of water vapour in a unit mass of dry air to the mass
temperature and pressure, is called
(A) Humidity ratio
(C) Absolute humidity
2. During dehumidification process, _________ remains constant.

3. Pressure of water vapour is given by

(A) 0.622 Pv/ (Pb - Pv)
(B) μ/[1 - (1 - μ) (Ps/Pb)]
(C) [Pv (Pb - Pd)]/ [Pd (Pb - Pv)]
(D) None of these
4. R-12 is generally preferred over R-22 in deep freezers since

(A) It has low operating pressures
(B) It gives higher coefficient of performance
(C) It is miscible with oil over large range of temperatures
5. In a spray washing system, if the temperature of water is higher than the dry
bulb temperature of entering air, then the air is
(A) Heated and dehumidified
(B) Heated and humidified
(C) Cooled and humidified
(D) Cooled and dehumidified
6. A valve which maintains a constant degree of superheat at the end of the

evaporator coil, is called
(A) Automatic expansion valve
(B) High side float valve
(C) Thermostatic expansion valve
(D) Low side float valve
7. An infinite parallel planes with emissivities e₁ and e₂, the interchange factor for

radiation from surface 1 to surface 2 is given by
(A) (e₁ + e₂)/ e₁ + e₂ - e₁e₂
(B) 1/e₁ + 1/e₂
(C) e₁ + e₂
(D) e₁e₂
8. The emissivity of a polished silver body is _________ as compared to black body.

(A) Same
(B) Low
(C) Very low
(D) High
9. Air refrigerator works on
(B) Bell Coleman cycle
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
10. The relative coefficient of performance is equal to

(A) (Theoretical C.O.P.)/ (Actual C.O.P.)
(B) (Actual C.O.P.) /(Theoretical C.O.P.)
(C) (Actual C.O.P.) × (Theoretical C.O.P.)
(D) None of these
11. In case of sensible cooling of air, the coil efficiency is given by

(A) B.P.F. - 1
(B) 1 - B.P.F.
(C) 1/ B.P.F.
(D) 1 + B.P.F.
12. For large tonnage (more than 200 TR) air-conditioning applications, the
compressor recommended is
(A) Reciprocating
(B) Rotating
(C) Centrifugal
(D) Screw
13. The wet bulb temperature during sensible cooling of air

(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) None of these
14. A condenser of refrigeration system rejects heat at the rate of 120 kW, while its
compressor consumes a power of 30 kW. The coefficient of performance of the
system will be
(A) 1/4
(B) 1/3
(C) 3
(D) 4
15. A refrigerant with the highest critical pressure is

(A) R-11
(B) R-12
(C) R-22
(D) Ammonia
ANSWERs
(1) Answer: Option D (2) Answer: Option C (3) Answer: Option D (4) Answer: Option
C (5) Answer: Option B (6) Answer: Option D (7) Answer: Option A (8) Answer: Option
C (9) Answer: Option C (10) Answer: Option B (11) Answer: Option B (12) Answer:
Option C (13) Answer: Option C (14) Answer: Option D (15) Answer: Option D
1. In aqua ammonia absorption refrigeration system, incomplete rectification leads
to accumulation of water in
(A) Condenser
(B) Evaporator
(C) Absorber
(D) None of these
2. Most air cooled condensers are designed to operate with a temperature
difference of
(A) 5°C
(B) 8°C
(C) 14°C
(D) 22°C
3. In a reversed Brayton cycle, the heat is absorbed by the air during

(A) Isentropic compression process
(B) Constant pressure cooling process
(C) Isentropic expansion process
(D) Constant pressure expansion process
4. Wet bulb temperature is the temperature of air recorded by a thermometer,

when
(A) It is not affected by the moisture present in the air
(B) Its bulb is surrounded by a wet cloth exposed to the air
(C) The moisture present in it begins to condense
5. The difference between dry bulb temperature and dew point temperature, is
called
(A) Dry bulb depression
(B) Wet bulb depression
(C) Dew point depression
6. In mechanical refrigeration system, the refrigerant has the maximum
temperature
(A) In evaporator
(B) Before expansion valve
(C) Between compressor and condenser
(D) Between condenser and evaporator
7. The central air conditioning system has ___________ overall efficiency as

compared to individual systems.
(A) Same
(B) Lower
(C) Higher
(D) None of these
8. Moisture should be removed from refrigerants to avoid

(A) Freezing at the expansion valve
(B) Restriction to refrigerant flow
(C) Corrosion of steel plates
(D) All of these
9. The specific humidity during humidification process

(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) None of these
10. During a refrigeration cycle, heat is rejected by the refrigerant in a
(A) Compressor
(B) Condenser
(C) Evaporator
(D) Expansion valve
11. In a vapour compression system, the condition of refrigerant is dry saturated

vapour
(A) Before entering the compressor
(B) After leaving the compressor
(C) Before entering the condenser
(D) After leaving the condenser
12. During sensible cooling of air, specific humidity

(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) None of these
13. In a psychrometric chart, specific humidity (moisture content) lines are

(D) Curved lines
14. The horizontal and non-uniformly spaced lines on a psychrometric chart

indicates
15. In a vapour compression refrigeration system, a throttle valve is used in place

of an expander because
(A) It considerably reduces mass of the system
(B) It improves the C.O.P., as the condenser is small
(C) The positive work in isentropic expansion of liquid is very small
(D) It leads to significant cost reduction
ANSWERs
(1) Answer: Option A (2) Answer: Option C (3) Answer: Option D (4) Answer: Option B
(5) Answer: Option C (6) Answer: Option C (7) Answer: Option C (8) Answer: Option D
(9) Answer: Option B (10) Answer: Option B (11) Answer: Option A (12) Answer:
Option A (13) Answer: Option B (14) Answer: Option C (15) Answer: Option C
1. Which of the following refrigerant is highly toxic and flammable?
(A) Ammonia
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Sulphur dioxide
(D) R-12
2. The dehumidification process, on the psychrometric chart, is shown by

(A) Horizontal line
(B) Vertical line
(C) Inclined line
(D) Curved line
3. The wet bulb temperature at 100% relative humidity is ________ dry bulb
temperature.
(A) Same as
(B) Lower than
(C) Higher than
(D) None of these
4. The human body feels comfortable when the heat stored in the body is
(A) Positive
(B) Negative
(C) Zero
(D) None of these
5. The heat rejection factor (HRF) is given by

(A) 1 + C.O.P
(B) 1 - C.O.P.
(C) 1 + (1/C.O.P)
(D) 1 - (1/C.O.P)
6. In order to collect liquid refrigerant and to prevent it from going to a ________,

a device known as accumulator is used at the suction of compressor.
(A) Compressor
(B) Condenser
(C) Expansion valve
(D) Evaporator
7. The vertical and uniformly spaced lines on a psychrometric chart indicates

8. The undesirable property of a refrigerant is

(A) Non-toxic
(B) Non-flammable
(C) Non-explosive
(D) High boiling point
9. The process, generally used in summer air conditioning to cool and dehumidify
the air, is called
(A) Humidification
(B) Dehumidification
(C) Heating and humidification
(D) Cooling and dehumidification
10. The leakage in a refrigeration system using ammonia is detected by

(A) Halide torch
(B) Sulphur sticks
(C) Soap and water
(D) All of these
11. The lowest temperature during the cycle in a vapour compression system

occurs after
(A) Compression
(B) Expansion
(C) Condensation
(D) Evaporation
12. In a domestic refrigerator, a capillary tube controls the flow of refrigerant from
the
(A) Expansion valve to the evaporator
(B) Evaporator to the thermostat
(C) Condenser to the expansion valve
(D) Condenser to the evaporator
13. The refrigerant used in small tonnage commercial machines (hermetically

sealed units) is
(A) Ammonia
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Sulphur dioxide
(D) R-12
14. When the air is passed through an insulated chamber having sprays of water
maintained at a temperature higher than the dew point temperature of entering
air but lower than its dry bulb temperature, then the air is said to be
(A) Cooled and humidified
(B) Cooled and dehumidified
(C) Heated and humidified
(D) Heated and dehumidified
15. A refrigerant compressor is used to

(A) Raise the pressure of the refrigerant
(B) Raise the temperature of the refrigerant
(C) Circulate the refrigerant through the refrigerating system
ANSWERs
(1) Answer: Option A (2) Answer: Option B (3) Answer: Option A (4) Answer: Option C
(5) Answer: Option C (6) Answer: Option A (7) Answer: Option A (8) Answer: Option
D (9) Answer: Option D (10) Answer: Option B (11) Answer: Option D (12) Answer:
Option A (13) Answer: Option C (14) Answer: Option A (15) Answer: Option D
01. The temperature rise, between the condenser outlet and expansion valve in
ammonia vapour compression system, should be as low as possible.
(A) Yes
(B) No
02. During sub-cooling, sensible heat from a liquid refrigerant is removed.

(A) Yes
(B) No
03. The expression [Pv (Pb - Pd)/ Pd (Pb - Pv)] is used for calculating relative
humidity.
(A) Yes
(B) No
04. The final relative humidity of the air during cooling and dehumidification is
generally __________ than that of entering air.
(A) Lower
(B) Higher
05. In a pressure enthalpy chart, the space between the saturated liquid line and
saturated vapour line represents sub-cooled liquid region.
(A) True
(B) False
06. R-11 has the highest critical point temperature.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
07. The mass of water vapour present in 1 kg of dry air, is called humidity ratio.
(A) True
(B) False
08. When the discharge pressure is too high in a refrigeration system, high
pressure control is installed to stop the compressor.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
09. In absorption vapour systems, the refrigerant widely used is R-12.

(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
10. A Bell Coleman refrigerator working on dense air system as compared to open
air system, for the same range of temperature, results in higher coefficient of
performance.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
11. Dew point temperature is the temperature of air recorded by a thermometer,

when the moisture present in it begins to condense.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
12. If the condenser temperature is kept constant, the coefficient of performance

of a refrigeration cycle increases with the increase in evaporator temperature.
(A) Yes
(B) No
13. The relative humidity ________ as air gets drier.

(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
14. The coefficient of performance (C.O.P.) is the reciprocal of the efficiency of a

heat engine.
(A) True
(B) False
15. The coefficient of performance of vapour compression refrigeration system is

quite ________ as compared to air refrigeration system.
(A) Low
(B) High
16. During sensible cooling of air, the relative humidity increases.

(A) Yes
(B) No
17. The heating of air, without any change in its specific humidity, is known as
sensible heating.
(A) True
(B) False
18. The absolute humidity is the mass of water vapour present in 1 m^3 of dry air.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
19. A condenser is used in the _________ pressure side of a refrigerating system.

(A) Low
(B) High
20. R-12 has the ________ freezing point.

(A) Lowest
(B) Highest
01. The sensible heat gain is due to the __________ difference between the fresh
air and the air in space.
(A) Temperature
(B) Humidity
02. Dew point temperature corresponds to the saturation temperature of vapour

at its partial pressure.
(A) True
(B) False
03. If the evaporator temperature is kept constant, the coefficient of performance

of refrigeration cycle ________ with the increase in condenser temperature.
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
04. The refrigerant carbon dioxide is not widely used because of its _________
power requirements per tonne of refrigeration and high operating pressures.
(A) Low
(B) High
05. The inclined and non-uniformly spaced straight lines on a psychrometric chart
indicate wet bulb temperature.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
06. For a given dry bulb temperature, as the relative humidity ________ the wet
bulb temperature will increase.
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
07. In a psychrometric chart, dew point temperature lines are horizontal and non-
uniformly spaced.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
08. In a shell and coil condenser, water flows in the shell and the refrigerant in the
coil.
(A) True
(B) False
09. The process of adding moisture to the air, without change in its dry bulb
temperature, is known as humidification.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
10. The wet bulb temperature lines, on the psychrometric chart, are curved lines.
(A) True
(B) False
11. The highest temperature during the cycle in a vapour compression system
occurs after evaporation.
(A) True
(B) False
12. The cooling of air, without any change in its specific humidity, is known as
sensible cooling.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
13. The freezing point of carbon dioxide is equal to boiling point of R-12.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
14. The sulphur sticks, in case of leakage of ammonia refrigerant, gives white
smoke.
(A) True
(B) False
15. The capacity of the cooling tower and spray ponds __________ as the wet bulb
temperature of air decreases.
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
16. Dehydration is the process of removing water vapour from the surrounding air.
(A) True
(B) False
17. During sensible heating of air, specific humidity remains constant.

(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
18. The _________ point of ammonia is -77.7°C.

(A) Freezing
(B) Boiling
19. The expansion valve in a refrigerator controls the flow of refrigerant.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
20. A simple air cooling system is good for ________ flight speeds.
(A) Low
(B) High
1. Pick up the wrong statement. A refrigerant should have

(a) Tow specific heat of liquid
(b) high boiling point
(c) high latent heat of vaporisation
(d) higher critical temperature
(e) low specific volume of vapour.
Ans: b
2. A standard ice point temperature corresponds to the temperature of
(a) water at 0°C
(b) ice at – 4°C
(c) solid and dry ice
(d) mixture of ice, water and vapour under equilibrium conditions under
NTP conditions
(e) mixture of ice and water Under equilibrium conditions.
Ans: e
3. Vapor compression refrigeration is some what like
(a) Carnot cycle
(b) Rankine cycle
(c) reversed Camot cycle
(d) reversed Rankine cycle
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e
4. Which of the following cycles uses air as the refrigerant
(a) Ericsson
(b) Stirling
(c) Carnot
(d) Bell-coleman
Ans: d
5. Ammonia-absorption refrigeration cycle requires
(a) very little work input
(b) maximum work input
(c) nearly same work input as for vapour compression cycle
(d) zero work input
Ans: a
6. An important characteristic of absorption system of refrigeration is
(a) noisy operation
(b) quiet operation
(c) cooling below 0°C
(d) very little power consumption
(e) its input only in the form of heating.
Ans: b
7. The relative coefficient of performance is
(a) actual COP/fheoretical COP
(b) theoretical COP/actual COP
(c) actual COP x theoretical COP
(d) 1-actual COP x theoretical COP
(e) 1-actual COP/fheoretical COP.
Ans: a
8. Clapeyron equation is a relation between
(a) temperature, pressure and enthalpy
(b) specific volume and enthalpy
(c) temperature and enthalpy
(d) temperature, pressure, and specil volume
(e) temperature, pressure, specific volur and’enthalpy.
Ans: e
9. Clapeyron equation is applicable for registration at
(a) saturation point of vapor
(b) saturation point of liquid
(c) sublimation temperature
(d) triple point
(e) critical point.
Ans: a
10. In vapour compression cycle, the conditii of refrigerant is saturated
liquid
(a) after passing through the condenser
(b) before passing through the condensei
(c) after passing through the expansion throttle valve
(d) before entering the expansion valve
(e) before entering the compressor.
Ans: a
11. In vapor compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is very wet
vapor
(b) before passing through the condenser
(c) after passing through the expansion or throttle valve
Ans: e
12. In vapor compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is high
pressure saturated liquid
(c) after passing through the expansion or thiottle valve
Ans: d
13. In vapour compression cycle the condition of refrigerant is
superheated vapour
(d) before [entering the expansion valve
Ans: b
14. In vapor compression cycle the condition off refrigerant is dry
saturated vapor
(e) before entering the compressor..
Ans: e
(a) -100°C
(b) -50°C
(c) - 33.3°C
(d) 0°C
(e) 33.3°C.
Ans: c
16. One ton of refrigeration is equal to the refrigeration effect
corresponding to melting of 1000 kg of ice
(a) in 1 hour
(b) in 1 minute
(c) in 24 hours
(d) in 12 hours
(e) in 10 hours.
Ans: c
17. One ton refrigeratiqn corresponds to
(a) 50 kcal/min
(b) 50 kcal/kr
(c) 80 kcal/min
(d) 80 kcal/hr
(e) 1000 kcal/day.
Ans: a
18. In S.J. unit, one ton of refrigeration is equal to
(a) 210 kJ/min
(b) 21 kJ/min
(c) 420 kJ/min
(d) 840 kJ/min
(e) 105 kJ/min.
Ans: a
19. The vapor compression refrigerator employs the following cycie
(a) Rankine
(b) Carnot
(c) Reversed Rankine
(d) Brayton
(e) Reversed Carnot.
Ans: e
20. Allowable pressure on high-pressure side or ammonia absorption
system is of the order of
(a) atmospheric pressure
(b) slightly above atmospheric pressure
(c) 2-4 bars
(d) 5-6 bars
(e) 7-10 bars.
Ans: d
21. The moisture in a refrigerant is removed by
(a) evaporator
(b) safety relief valve
(c) dehumidifier
(d) driers
(e) expansion valve
Ans: d
22. The condensing pressure due to the presence of non-condensable
gases, as compared to that actually required for condensing
temperatures without non-condensable gases,
(a) will be higher
(b) will be lower
(c) will remain unaffected
(d) may be higher or lower depending upon the nature of non-
condensable gases
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a
23. Critical pressure of a liquid is the pressure
(a) above which liquid will remain liquid
(b) above which liquid becomes gas
(c) above which liquid becomes vapour
(d) above which liquid becomes solid
(e) at which all the three phases exist together.
Ans: a
24. Critical temperature is’ the temperature above which
(a) a gas will never liquefy
(b) a gas will immediately liquefy
(c) water will evaporate
(d) water will never evaporate
Ans: a
25. The refrigerant for a refrigerator should have
(a) high sensible heat
(b) high total heat
(c) high latent heat
(d) low latent heat
(e) low sensible heat
Ans: c
26. Rating of a domestic refrigerator is of the order of
(a) 0.1 ton
(b) 5 tons
(c) 10 tons
(d) 40 tons
(e) 100 tons.
Ans: a
27. The COP of a domestic refrigerator
(a) is less than 1
(b) is more than 1
(c) is equal to 1
(d) depends upon the make
(e) depends upon the weather conditions.
Ans: b
28. The domestic refrigerator uses following type of compressor
(a) centrifugal
(b) axial
(c) miniature sealed unit
(d) piston type reciprocating
Ans: d
29. Presence of moisture in a refrigerant affects the working of
(a) compressor
(b) condenser
(c) evaparator
(d) expansion valve.
(e) heat transfer.
Ans: d
30. Refrigeration in aeroplanes usually employs the following refrigerant
(a) Co2
(b) Freon-11
(c) Freon-22
(d) Air
Ans: d
31. Domestic refrigerator working on vapour compression cycle uses the
following type of expansion device
(a) electrically operated throttling valve
(b) manually operated valve
(c) thermostatic valve
(d) capillary tube
(e) expansion valve.
Ans: d
32. Air refrigeration operates on
(a) Carnot cycle
(b) Reversed Carnot cycle
(c) Rankine cycle
(d) Erricson cycle
(e) Brayton cycle.
Ans: e
(a) domestic refrigerators
(b) commercial refrigerators
(c) air conditioning
(d) gas liquefaction
(e) such a cycle does not exist.
Ans: d
34. In a vapor compression cycle, the refrigerant immediately after
expansion valve is
(a) liquid
(b) sub-cooled liquid
(c) saturated liquid
(d) wet vapour
(e) dry vapour.
Ans: d
35. The vapor pressure of refrigerant should be
(a) lower than atmospheric pressure
(b) higher than atmospheric pressure
(c) equal to atmospheric pressure
(d) could be anything
Ans: b
36. For better COP of refrigerator, the pressure range corresponding to
temperature in evaporator and condenser must be
(a) small
(b) high
(c) euqal
(d) anything
(e) under some conditions small and under some conditions high.
Ans: a
37. The bank of tubes at the back of domestic refrigerator are
(a) condenser tubes
(b) evaporator tubes
(c) refrigerant cooling tubes
(d) capillary tubes
(e) throttling device.
Ans: a
38. The higher temperature in vapour compression cycle occurs at
(a) receiver
(b) expansion valve
(c) evaporator
(d) condenser discharge
(e) compressor discharge.
Ans: e
39. Highest temperature encountered in refrigeration cycle should be
(a) near critical temperature of refrigerant
(b) above critical temperature
(c) at critica. temperature
(d) much below critical temperature
(e) could be anywhere.
Ans: d
40. In refrigerator, liquid receiver is required between condenser and
flow controlling device, if quantity of refrigerant for system is
(a) less than 2 kg
(b) more than or equal to 3.65 kg
(c) more than 10 kg
(d) there is no such consideration
(e) pone of the above.
Ans: b
41. Absorption system normally uses the following refrigerant
(a) Freon-11
(b) Freon-22
(c) C02
(d) S02
(e) ammonia.
Ans: e
42. One of the purposes of sub-cooling the liquid refrigerant is to
(a) reduce compressor overheating
(b) reduce compressor discharge temperature
(c) increase cooling effect
(d) ensure that only liquid and not the vapour enters the expansion
(throttling) valve
Ans: d
43. The value of COP in vapour compression cycle is usually
(a) always less than unity
(b) always more than unity
(c) equal to unity
(d) any one of the above
Ans: b
44. In a refrigeration system, heat absorbed in comparison to heat
rejected is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same
(d) more for small capacity and less for high capacity
(e) less for small capacity and more for high capacity.
Ans: b
45. Condensing temperature in a refrigerator is the temperature
(a) of cooling medium
(b) of freezing zone
(c) of evaporator
(d) at which refrigerant gas becomes liquid
(e) condensing temperature of ice.
Ans: d
<h3><em>Refrigeration and Air Conditioning Interview Questions and
Answers pdf:-</em></h3>
46. Formation of frost on evaporator in refrigerator
(a) results in loss of heat due to poor heat transfer
(b) increases heat transfer rate
(c) is immaterial
(d) can be avoided by proper design
(e) decreases compressor power.
Ans: a
47. In refrigerators, the temperature difference between the evaporating
refrigerant and the medium being cooled should be
(a) high, of the order of 25°
(b) as low as possible (3 to 11°C)
(c) zero
(d) any value
Ans: b
48. In a flooded evaporator refrigerator, an accumulator at suction of
compressor is used to
(a) collect liquid refrigerant and prevent it from going to compressor
(b) detect liquid in vapour
(c) superheat the vapour
(d) collect vapours
(e) increase refrigeration effect.
Ans: a
49. Accumulators should have adequate volume to store refrigerant
charge at least
(a) 10%
(b) 25%
(c) 50%
(d) 75%
(e) 100%.
Ans: c
50. At lower temperatures and pressures, the latent heat of vaporisation
of a refrigerant
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains same
(d) depends on other factors
Ans: b
<h3><em>Refrigeration and Air Conditioning Objective Questions and
Answers pdf :-</em></h3>
51. A refrigeration cycle operates between condenser temperature of +
27°C and evaporator temperature of- 23°C. The Cannot coefficient of
performance of cycle will be
(a) 0.2
(b) 1.2
(c) 5
(d) 6
(e) 10.
Ans: c
52. Which of the following is not a desirable property of a refrigerant
(a) high triiscibility with oil
(b) low boiling point
(c) good electrical conductor
(d) large latent heat
(e) non-inflammable.
Ans: c
53. In vapor compression refrigeration system, refrigerant occurs as
liquid between
(a) condenser and expansion valve
(b) compressor and evaporator
(c) expansion valve and evaporator
(d) compressor and condenser
Ans: c
54. Pick up the correct statement about giving up of heat from one
medium to other in ammonia absorption system
(a) strong solution to weak solution
(b) weak solution to strong solution
(c) strong solution to ammonia vapour
(d) ammonia vapour to weak solution
(e) ammonia vapour to strong solution.
Ans: b
55. Efficiency of a Carnot engine is given as 80%. If the- cycle direction be
reversed, what will be the value of COP of reversed Carnot cycle
(a) 1.25
(b) 0.8
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.25
Ans: d
56. Highest pressure encountered in a refrigeration system should be
(a) critical pressure of refrigerant
(b) much below critical pressure
(c) much above critical pressure
(d) near critical pressure
(e) there is no such restriction.
Ans: b
57. If a heat pump cycle operates between the condenser temperature of
+27°C and evaporator temperature of – 23°C, then the Carnot
COP will be
(a) 0.2
(b) 1.2
(c) 5
(d) 6
(e) 10.
Ans: d
58. A certain refrigerating system has a normal operating suction
pressure of 10 kg/cm gauge and condensing pressure of about 67 kg/cm.
The refrigerant used is
(a) Ammonia
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Freon
(d) Brine
(e) Hydrocarbon refrigerant.
Ans: b
59. Aqua ammonia is used as refrigerant in the following type of
(a) compression
(b) direct
(c) indirect
(d) absorption
Ans: d
60. If the evaporator temperature of a plant is lowered, keeping the
condenser temperature constant, the h.p. of compressor required will be
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) more/less depending on rating
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b
61. In a refrigeration cycle, the flow of refrigerant is controlled by
(a) compressor
(b) condenser
(c) evaporator
(d) expansion valve
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d
62. Where does the lowest temperature occur in a vapour compression
cycle ?
(a) condenser
(b) evaporator
(c) compressor
(d) expansion valve
(e) receiver.
Ans: b
63. The leaks in a refrigeration system using Freon are detected by
(a) halide torch which on detection produces greenish flame lighting
(b) sulphur sticks which on detection gives white smoke
(c) using reagents
(d) smelling
(e) sensing reduction in pressure.
Ans: a
64. rick up the incorrect statement
(a) lithium bromide used in vapour absorption cycle is nonvolatile
(b) lithium bromide plant can’t operate below 0°C
(c) a separator is used in lithium bromide plant to remove the unwanted
water vapour by condensing
(d) concentration of solution coming out of lithium bromide generator is
more in comparison to that entering the generator
(e) weak solution in liquid heat exchanger gives up heat to the strong
solution.
Ans: c
65. The lower horizontal line of the refrigeration cycle plotted on
pressure-enthalpy-diagram represents
(a) condensation of the refrigerant vapour
(b) evaporation of the refrigerant liquid
(c) compression of the refrigerant vapour
(d) metering of the refrigerant liquid
Ans: b
66. Mass flow ratio of NH3 in comparison to Freon-12 for same
refrigeration load and same temperature limits is of the order of
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 1 : 9
(c) 9 : 1
(d) 1 : 3
(e) 3 : 1
Ans: b
67. Freon group of refrigerants are
(a) inflammable
(d) toxic
(c) non-inflammable and toxic
(d) non-toxic and inflammable
(e) non-toxic and non-inflammable.
Ans: e
68 Ammonia is
(a) non-toxic
(b) non-inflammable
(c) toxic and non-inflammable
(d) highly toxic and inflammable
Ans: d
69. In vapour compression cycle using NH3 as refrigerant, initial charge is
filled at
(a) suction of compressor
(b) delivery of compressor
(c) high pressure side close to receiver
(d) low pressure side near receiver
(e) anywhere in the cycle.
Ans: c
70. Short horizontal lines on pressure-enthalpy chart show
(a) constant pressure lines
(b) constant temperature lines
(c) constant total heat lines
(d) constant entropy lines
(e) constant volume lines.
Ans: a
71. On the pressure-enthalpy diagram, condensation and desuperheating
is represented by a horizontal line because the process
(a) involves no change in volume
(b) takes place at constant temperature
(c) takes place at constant entropy
(d) takes place at constant enthalpy
(e) takes place at constant pressure.
Ans: e
72. One ton of the refrigeration is
(a) the standard unit used in refrigeration problems
(b) the cooling effect produced by melting 1 ton of ice
(c) the refrigeration effect to freeze 1 ton of water at 0°C into ice at 0°C
in 24 hours
(d) the refrigeration effect to produce 1 ton of ice at NTP conditions
(e) the refrigeration effect to produce 1 ton of ice in 1 hour time.
Ans: c
73. Superheating in a refrigeration cycle
(a) increases COP
(b) decreases COP
(c) COP remains unaltered
(d) other factors decide COP
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b
74. For proper refrigeration in a cabinet, if the temperature and vapour
pressure difference between cabinet and atmosphere is high, then
(a) bigger cabinet should be used
(b) smaller cabinet should be used
(c) perfectly tight vapour seal should be used
(d) refrigerant with lower evaporation temperature should be used
(e) refrigerant with high boiling point must be used.
Ans: c
75. Choose the correct statement
(a) A refrigerant should have low latent heat
(b) If operating temperature of system is low, then refrigerant with low
boiling point should be used
(c) Precooling and subcooling bf refrigerant are same
(d) Superheat and sensible heat of a. refrigerant are same
(e) Refrigerant is inside the lubes in case of a direct-expansion chiller.
Ans: b
76. The suction pipe diameter of refrigerating unit compressor in
comparison to delivery side is
(a) bigger
(b) smaller
(c) equal
(d) smaller/bigger depending on capacity
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a
77. Moisture in freon refrigeration system causes
(a) ineffective refrigeration
(b) high power consumption
(c) freezing automatic regulating valve
(d) corrosion of whole system
(e) breakdown of refrigerant.
Ans: c
78. The advantage of dry compression is that
(a) it permits higher speeds to be used
(b) it permits complete evaporation in the evaporator
(c) it results in high volumetirc and mechanical efficiency
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
79. Choose the wrong statement
(a) Temperature of medium being cooled must be below that of the
evaporator
(b) Refrigerant leaves the condenser as liquid
(c) All solar thermally operated absorption systems are capable only of
intermittent operation
(d) frost on evaporator reduces heat transfer
(e) refrigerant is circulated in a refrigeration system to transfer heat.
Ans: a
80. Under-cooling in a refrigeration cycle
(a) increases COP
(b) decreases COF
(c) COP remains unaltered
(d) other factors decide COP
(e) unperdictable.
Ans: a
81. For obtaining high COP, the pressure range of compressor should be
(a) high
(b) low
(c) optimum
(d) any value
(e) there is no such criterion.
Ans: b
82. The coefficient of performance is the ratio of the refrigerant effect to
the
(a) heat of compression
(b) work done by compressor
(c) enthalpy increase in compressor
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
83. The C.O.P of a refrigeration cycle with increase in evaporator
temperature, keeping condenser temperature constant, will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unaffected
(d) may increase or decrease depending on the type of refrigerant used
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a
84. Vertical lines on pressure-enthalpy chart show constant
(a) pressure lines
(b) temperature lines
(c) total heat lines
(d) entropy lines
(e) volume lines.
Ans: c
85. Most of the domestic refrigerators work on the following
(a) vapour compression
(b) vapour absorption
(c) carnot cycle
(d) electrolux refrigerator
(e) dual cycle.
Ans: a
86. The general rule for rating refrigeration systems (excepting for C02
system) is to approximate following h.p. per ton of refrigeration
(a) 0.1 to 0.5 h.p. per ton of refrigeration
(b) 0.5 to 0.8 h.p. per ton of refrigeration
(c) 1 to 2 h.p. per ton of refrigeration
(d) 2 to 5 h.p. per ton of refrigeration
(e) 5 to 10 h.p. per ton refrigeration.
Ans: c
87. Reducing suction pressure in refrigeration cycle
(a) lowers evaporation temperature
(b) increases power required per ton of refrigeration
(c) lowers compressor capacity because vapour is lighter
(d) reduces weight displaced by piston
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
88. Cooling water is required for following equipment in ammonia
absorption plant
(a) condenser
(b) evaporator
(c) absorber
(d) condenser and absorber
(e) condenser, absorber and separator (rectifier).
Ans: e
89. The refrigeration effect in a dry evaporator compared to flooded
evaporator in a similar plant is
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) more or less depending on ambient conditions
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c
90. The C.O.P. of a refrigeration cycle with lowering of condenser
temperature, keeping the evaporator temperature constant, will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) may increase or decrease depending on the type of refrigerant used
(d) remain unaffected
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a
91. Which of the following refrigerants has lowest freezing point
(a) Freon-12
(b) NH3
(c) C02
(d) Freon-22
(e) S02.
Ans: d
92. The COP of a vapor compression plant in comparison to vapor
absorption plant is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same
(d) more/less depending on size of plant
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a
93. The C.O.P. of a domestic refrigerator in comparison to domestic air
conditioner will be
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) dependent on weather conditions
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c
94. The evolution of heat of solution takes place in ammonia absorption
plant when
(a) ammonia vapour goes into solution
(b) ammonia vapour is driven out of solution
(c) lithium bromide mixes with ammonia
(d) weak solution mixes with strong solution
(e) lithium bromide is driven out of solution.
Ans: a
95. The change in evaporator temperature in a refrigeration cycle, as
compared to change in condenser temperature, influences the value of
C.O.P.
(a) more
(b) less
(c) equally.
(d) unpredictable
Ans: a
1 In a mechanical refrigeration system, the refrigerant has the maximum

temperature:
between compressor and condenser
QUESTION: 2
At 100% Rh, the three characteristics DBT (Dry Bulb Temperature), WBT (Wet
Bulb Temperature) & DPT (Dew Point Temperature) are
Equal
QUESTION: 3
A simple saturated refrigeration cycle has the following state points. Enthalpy
after compression = 425 kJ/kg; enthaly after throttling = 125 kJ/kg; enthalpy
before compression = 375 kJ/kg. The COP of refrigeration is:
5
QUESTION: 4
The purpose of installing a flash chamber in the refrigeration circuit is to:
improve overall heat transfer co-efficient
reduce pressure losses through the evaporator
reduce the size of the evaporator by avoiding vapours going to the

evaporator
all of the above
QUESTION: 5
If ha is enthalpy of dry air, hy is enthalpy of water vapour and w is specific
humidity, the enthalpy of moist air will be
ha + whv
QUESTION: 6
In Electrolux refrigerator ________
Ammonia evaporates in hydrogen
QUESTION: 7
The expression 0.622PVP−Pv is used to determine
Specific humidity
QUESTION: 8
Cryogenics refers to
thermodynamic analysis at low temperature
engineering field concerned with equipment in the range of – 150°C

to absolute zero
Cryogenics is the branches of engineering that involve the study of very low
temperatures, how to produce them, and how materials behave at those
temperatures.The cryogenic temperature range has been defined as from
−150 °C (123 K) to absolute zero (−273 °C), the temperature at which
molecular motion comes as close as theoretically possible to ceasing
completely.
QUESTION: 9
A house requires 2 × 105 kJ/h of heat for heating during winter the work done to
operate heat pump is 3 × 104 kJ/h then COP will be ________
6.66
QUESTION: 10
Absorption system normally uses the following refrigerant:
Ammonia
QUESTION: 11
Condition of refrigerator after leaving the compressor and before entering

condenser is
Super-heated vapor
QUESTION: 12
A Carnot cycle refrigerator operates between 250 K and 300 K. Its coefficient of
QUESTION: 13
The coefficient of performance is the ratio of the refrigerant effect to the _____.
B. Work done by the compressor
QUESTION: 14
COP of air refrigerator is related with COP of vapour compression refrigerator

as
(COP)air < (COP)vap.c.
QUESTION: 15
Formation of frost on evaporator in refrigerator
results in loss of heat due to poor heat transfer
QUESTION: 16
Pick up the correct statement -
The refrigerant should have high thermal conductivity and low freezing
temperature
QUESTION: 17
1 ton of refrigeration implies heat transfer at the rate of
210 kJ/min
QUESTION: 18
The throttling operation in a refrigeration cycle is carries out in:
QUESTION: 19
Bell – Coleman cycle is applicable to:
 A.
Vapour compressor refrigeration

 B.
Vapor absorption refrigeration

 C.
Air refrigeration

 D.
All of them
Solution:
Air Refrigeration System and Bell-Coleman Cycle or Reversed Brayton Cycle:
 In air refrigeration system, air is taken into the compressor from atmosphere
and compressed.
 The hot compressed air is cooled in heat exchanger upto the atmospheric
temperature (in ideal conditions).
 The cooled air is then expanded in an expander. The temperature of the air
coming out from the expander is below the atmospheric temperature due to
isentropic expansion.
 The low temperature air coming out from the expander enters into the
evaporator and absorbs the heat. The cycle is repeated.
QUESTION: 20
R-12 is preferred over R-22 in deep freezer because
It is miscible with oil over a large range of
1) COP of a carnot heat pump operating between -30C and 270C is
a) 10
b) 9
c) 0.111
d) 0.10
View Answer
Option – a)
2)Which is the primary refrigerant in central air conditioning plant

(a) Air
(b) Water
(c) Freon-22
(d) None
(Ans:c)
3) One tones of refrigeration is equal to
a) 210 kJ/min
b) 3.5 kJ/min
c) 105 KJ/min
d) 250 kJ/min
View Answer
Option – a)
4)Which is the secondary refrigerant in an ice plant

(i) Mercury
(j) Brine solution
(k) Freon-22
(l) None
(Ans:b)
5) Which is usually the costliest item in a refrigeration system ?
a) Condenser
b) Capillary tube
c) Compressor
d) Evaporator
View Answer
Option – c)
6)Latent heat is highest for

(a) Refrigerant – 22
(b) Ammonia
(c) Water
(d) None
(Ans:c)
7) An Electrolux refrigerator uses
a) one pump
b) two pump
c) no pump
d) three pump
View Answer
Option – c)
8) The ideal gas-refrigeration cycle is similar to
Brayton cycle
b. Reversed Brayton cycle
c. Rankine cycle
d. Reversed Rankine cycle
ans – b
9) A carnot refrigerator has a COP of 6. What is the ratio of the lower to the higher
absolute temperature
a) 1/6
b) 7/8
c) 6/7
d) 1/7
Option – c)
10)For the same capacity of plant, the COP of the vapour absorption refrigeration
system is
lower than the COP of the vapour compression refrigeration system

b. higher than the COP of the vapour compression refrigeration system
c. same as the COP of the vapour compression refrigeration system
d. cannot say
ans – a
11) Large sized industrial air-conditioning plant are
a) Air cooled
b) Ground cooled
c) Water Cooled
d) Ammonia cooled
View Answer
Option – c)
12)Clapeyron equation is a relation between
(a) temperature, pressure and enthalpy
(b) specific volume and enthalpy
(c) temperature and enthalpy
(d) temperature, pressure, and specil volume
(e) temperature, pressure, specific volur and’enthalpy.
Ans: e
13) Which one of the following refrigerants has the highest

critical temperature ?
a) Water
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Freon 12
d) Ammonia
View Answer
Option – a)
14)The boiling point of ammonia is
(a) 100° C
(b) 50° C
(c) 33.3° C
(d) 0°C
Ans: c
15) The correct nomenclature for ethylene is
a) R 150
b) R 740
c) R 1150
d) R 12
View Answer
Option – a)
16) When there is leakage of ammonia refrigerant, the

sulphur stick gives
a) red smoke
b) blue smoke
c) white smoke
d) black smoke
View Answer
Option – c)
17) The recommemnded material use with Ammonia as a

refrigerants is
a) Copper
b) Aluminium
c) Steel
d) Brass
View Answer
Option – c)
18)In milk chilling plants, the usual secondary refrigerant is
a) Ammonia solution
b) Sodium silicate
c) Glycol
d) Brine
View Answer
Option – d)
19) An evaporator is also known as
a) freezing coil
b) cooling coil
c) chilling coil
d) all of these
View Answer
Option – d)
20) Which of the following factor does not affect the

condenser capacity ?
a) Material
b) Contact area
c) Temperature difference
d) Rate of natural convection
View Answer
Option – d)
21) Indication of amount of moisture in air is given by
a) DBT
b) WBT
c) DPT
d) Saturation temperature
View Answer
Option – b)
22) The mass of water vapour in one m3 of dry air is defined

as
a) Specific humidity
b) Humidity ratio
c) Absolute humidity
d) Relative humidity
View Answer
Option – c)
23) The wet bulb depression is zero, when relative humidity

is equal to
a) zero
b) 0.5
c) 0.75
d) 1.0
View Answer
Option – d)
24) The heat production from a normal healthy mass when

asleep is about
a) 45 W
b) 20 W
c) 60 W
d) 70 W
View Answer
Option – c)
25) The human body feeds comfortable when the heat stored
in the body is
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Zero
d) Either zero or negative
View Answer
Option – c)
26) The aspect ratio, for rectangular ducts, should not be

greater than …….. in any case
a) 8
b) 10
c) 12
d) 16
View Answer
Option – a)
27) A duct is said to be a low velocity duct if the velocity of

air in the duct is upto
a) 600 m/min
b) 800 m/min
c) 1200 m/min
d) 1600 m/min
View Answer
Option – a)
1) For a domestic refrigerator the COP is
a) More than 1
b) Less than 1
c) Equal to 1
d) Unpredictable.
View Answer / Hide Answer
ANSWER: a) More than 1
2) Relative COP is equal to
a) Actual C.O.P / theoretical C.O.P

b) Actual C.O.P x theoretical C.O.P
c) Theoretical C.O.P / actual C.O.P
d) None of these.

ANSWER: a) Actual C.O.P / theoretical C.O.P
3) How is the capacity of a refrigerating machine expressed?
a) Inside volume of the cabinet.

b) Lowest temperature attained.
c) Rate of abstraction of heat from the space being cooled.
d) Gross weight of machine is tonnes.
ANSWER: c) Rate of abstraction of heat from the space being cooled.
4) The critical pressure of a liquid is
a) The pressure above which a liquid will explode.

b) The pressure above which a liquid will always convert into a vapour.
c) The pressure above which a liquid will remain a liquid.
d) The pressure below which a liquid will always be a vapour form.
5) The highest temperature of refrigerant in a mechanical refrigeration

system occurs
a) Before expansion valve.

b) In evaporator.
c) Between evaporation and condenser.
d) Between compressor and condenser.
ANSWER: d) Between compressor and condenser.
6) When does the refrigerant exist as saturated liquid in a vapour

compression cycle?
a) After passing through the expansion valve

b) After passing through the condenser
c) Before passing through the condenser
d) Before entering through the compressor
ANSWER: b) After passing through the condenser
7) What is the effect of superheating in a refrigeration cycle?
a) Does not change COP

b) Decreases COP
c) Increases COP
d) None of these
ANSWER: b) Decreases COP
8) In a refrigeration cycle a capillary tube is used
a) To produce cooling effect.

b) To control the temperature of refrigerated space.
c) To convert refrigerant from liquid to vapour state.
d) To control the flow of refrigerant.
ANSWER: d) To control the flow of refrigerant.
9) ……………….is the most distinguishing feature of absorption type

refrigerator.
a) Small size for the same refrigerating machine.

b) Only low grade of energy in the form of heat used.
c) Higher C.O.P
d) Quieter operation.

ANSWER: d) Quieter operation.
10) Ammonia is preferred as a refrigerant in large commercial

installations because
a) It has low latent heat.

b) It is non-toxic.
c) It is relatively cheap.
d) It has low working pressure.
ANSWER: c) It is relatively cheap.
11) The diameter of the suction pipe of refrigerating unit compressor, in

comparison to delivery side is
a) Bigger.
b) Smaller.
c) Equal.
d) Unpredictable.
ANSWER: a) Bigger.
12) Which among the following advantages are entailed by dry

compression?
a) It permits complete evaporation in the evaporator.

b) It permits higher speeds to be used.
c) It results in high volumetric and mechanical efficiencies.
d) All of these.
ANSWER: d) All of these.

13) A clicking sound may be heard in the expansion valve of a newly
charged ammonia compressor system due to
a) Less charge of ammonia.

b) Excessive charge of ammonia.
c) Leakage of ammonia.
d) Choking of evaporator coils.
ANSWER: a) Less charge of ammonia.
14) Flash chamber in the refrigeration circuit is installed
a) To reduce the size of evaporator by avoiding vapour going to evaporator.

b) To improve overall heat transfer co-efficient.
c) To reduce pressure losses through the evaporator.
d) All of these.
ANSWER: d) All of these.
15) If R-22 refrigeration system is charged with R-12 then
a) It will not function.

b) It will have considerable fluctuations in the operating pressures.
c) Its refrigeration capacity will be reduced to about one-third.
d) It will operate at low temperature.
ANSWER: c) Its refrigeration capacity will be reduced to about one-third.
16) In a flooded evaporator ………………type of expansion device is employed?
a) Self-actuated expansion valve.

b) Capillary tube.
c) Thermostatic device.
d) Float valve.
ANSWER: d) Float valve.
17) A pressure gauge on the discharge side of compressor
a) Gives an idea about the C.O.P of the cycle.

b) Gives a warning when the pressure reaches a dangerous point.
c) Confirms the flow of refrigerant in cycle.
d) None of these.
ANSWER: b) Gives a warning when the pressure reaches a dangerous point.
18) In a vapour compression system, a thermometer is installed in the main line

close to the compressor as
a) It helps the operator to adjust compressor for greater efficiency.

b) Temperature helps in calculating the C.O.P.
c) Temperature indicates whether liquid or vapour refrigerant is going to
compressor.
d) None of these.
19) Which refrigerants will be preferred if space occupied by the refrigerating plant
and cost are the major considerations?
a) Methyl chloride.
b) Ammonia.
c) Sulphur dioxide.
d) Carbon dioxide.
20) In vapour absorption system using ammonia, water is required for
a) Condenser only.
b) Separator only.
c) Absorber, separator and condenser.
d) Absorber only.
ANSWER: c) Absorber, separator and condenser.
21) What is the function of brine agitator in an ice plant?
a) To reduce compressor power.

b) To obtain uniform temperature of brine.
c) To increase C.O.P.
d) None of these.
ANSWER: b) To obtain uniform temperature of brine.
22) Which of the following statement is correct?
a) Dew point temperature is the saturation temperature corresponding to the partial

pressure of the water vapour in moist air.
b) Dew point temperature can be measured with the help of thermometer.
c) Dew point temperature is the same as the thermodynamic wet bulb temperature.
d) For saturated air, dew point temperature is less than the web bulb temperature.
ANSWER: a) Dew point temperature is the saturation temperature corresponding

to the partial pressure of the water vapour in moist air.
23) Relative humidity is
a) It denotes the amount of water vapour actually present in air as a percentage of

maximum amount that could be present at that particular temperature.
b) It represents the ratio of mass of water vapour to the mass of dry air in a given
volume of air water vapour mixture.
c) It is the mass of water vapour per unit volume of air water vapour mixture.
d) None of these.
ANSWER: a) It denotes the amount of water vapour actually present in air as a

percentage of maximum amount that could be present at that particular
temperature.
24) In a psychrometric chart what does the vertical lines parallel to the ordinate
indicates
a) Wet bulb temperature.

b) Specific humidity.
c) Dew point temperature.
d) Dry bulb temperature.
ANSWER: d) Dry bulb temperature.
25) …………………… can be measured by a sling psychrometer.
a) Absolute humidity.
b) Dry bulb as well as wet bulb temperatures.
c) Specific humidity.
d) Wet bulb temperature.
ANSWER: b) Dry bulb as well as wet bulb temperatures.

26) Among the following which statement is incorrect regarding “dehumidification
process”?
a) Enthalpy of saturation increases.

b) Dry bulb temperature remains unchanged.
c) Moisture is removed.
d) Specific humidity and relative humidity decreases.
ANSWER: a) Enthalpy of saturation increases.
27) What does the curved lines on a psychrometric chart indicates?
a) Dew point temperature.

b) Relative humidity.
c) Specific humidity.
d) Dry bulb temperature.
ANSWER: b) Relative humidity.
28) Which of the following decreases during sensible cooling of air?
a) Specific humidity.
b) Wet bulb temperature.
c) Dry bulb temperature.
d) None of these.
ANSWER: c) Dry bulb temperature.

29) Dew point temperature is constant as long as there is no change in
a) Volume of air.
b) Relative and specific humidity of air.
c) Moisture content of air.
d) WBT and DBT.
ANSWER: c) Moisture content of air.
30) Sensible heat factor is given by
a) (LH – SH)/SH
b) (LH + SH)/SH
c) SH/(LH - SH)
d) SH/(LH + SH)
ANSWER: d) SH/(LH + SH)
1.
Moist air is treated as an ideal gas mixture of water vapor and dry air
(molecular weight of air = 28.84 and molecular weight of water = 18). At a
location, the total pressure is 100 kPa, the temperature is 30°C and the
relative humidity is 55%. Given that the saturation pressure of water at 30°C
is 4246 Pa, the mass of water vapor per kg of dry air is ______ grams.
2.
.
A. 14.2 gm/kg of dry air
B. 15.2 gm/kg of dry air
C. 13.2 gm/kg of dry air
D. 12.2 gm/kg of dry air
Correct Option: A
.
1.
A stream of moist air (mass flow rate = 10.1 kg/s) with humidity ratio of 0.01
kg/kg dry air mixes with a second stream of superheated water vapour
flowing at 0.1 kg/s. Assuming proper and uniform mixing with no
condensation, the humidity ratio of the final stream in (kg/kg dry air) is
______.
2.
.
A. 0.02 kg/kg dry air
B. 0.01 kg/kg dry air
C. 0.03 kg/kg dry air
D. 0.5 kg/kg dry air
.
View Hint View Answer Discuss in Forum
.
Correct Option: A
.
.
.
.
1.
The pressure, dry bulb temperature and relative humidity of air in a room are
1 bar, 30°C and 70%, respectively. If the saturated steam pressure at 30°C is
4.25 kPa, the specific humidity of the room air in kg of water vapour/kg dry
air is
2.
.
A. 0.0083
B. 0.0101
C. 0.0191
D. 0.0232
.
.
Correct Option: C
.
.
.
.
1.
A room contains 35 kg of dry air and 0.5 kg of water vapor. The total pressure
and temperature of air in the room are 100 kPa and 25°C respectively. Given
that the saturation pressure for water at 25°C, is 3.17 kPa, the relative
humidity of the air in the room is
2.
.
A. 67%
B. 55%
C. 83%
D. 71%
.
.
Correct Option: D
.
.
1.
If a mass of moist air in an airtight vessel is heated to a higher temperature,
then
2.
.
A. specific humidity of the air increases
B. specific humidity of the air decreases
C. relative humidity of the air increases
D. relative humidity of the air decreases
.
.
Correct Option: D
.
1.
A moist air sample has dry bulb temperature of 30°C and specific humidity of
11.5 g water vapour per kg dry air. Assume molecular weight of air as 28.93.
If the saturation vapour pressure of water at 30°C is 4.24 kPa and the total
pressure is 90 kPa, then the relative humidity (in%) of air sample is
2.
.
A. 50.5
B. 38.5
C. 56.5
D. 68.5
.
.
Correct Option: B
.
Given: DBT = 30°C, w = 11.5 g/kg
∴ Relative humidity
.
Specific humidity Total pressure
= ×
0.622 saturation vapour pressure
.
w Pa
φ= ×
0.622 Pvs
.
11.5 × 90
φ= = 0.385
0.622 × 1000 × 4.24
φ ≈ 38.5%
.
.
1.
Moist air at a pressure of 100 kPa is compressed to 500 kPa and then cooled
to 35°C in an aftercooler. The air at the entry to the aftercooler is
unsaturated and becomes just saturated at the exit of the aftercooler. The
saturation pressure of water at 35°C is 5.628 kPa. The partial pressure of
water vapour (in kPa) in the moist air entering the compressor is closest to
2.
.
A. 0.57
B. 1.13
C. 2.26
D. 4.52
.
.
Correct Option: B
.
Assuming that compression is isentropic in air compressors, the process can
be described on the T - s diagram. The process in the intercooler is constant
pressure
p2 = p3
But p2 = 5p1
.
p2 p3
p1 = =
5 5
.
5.628
p1 = = 1.13kPa
5
.
.
1.
A building has to be maintained at 21 °C (dry bulb) and 14.5°C(wet bulb). The
dew point temperature under these conditions is 10.17°C. The outside
temperature is –23°C (dry bulb) and the internal and external surface heat
transfer coefficients are 8 W/m2K and 23 W/ m2K respectively. If the building
wall has a thermal conductivity of 1.2 W/mK, the minimum thickness (in m)
of the wall required to prevent condensation is
2.
.
A. 0.471
B. 0.407
C. 0.321
D. 0.125
.
.
Correct Option: B
.
NA
1.
For a typical sample of ambient air (at 30°C, 75% relative humidity and
standard atmospheric pressure), the amount of moisture in kg per kg of dry
air will be approximately.
2.
.
A. 0.002
B. 0.027
C. 0.25
D. 0.75
.
Correct Option: B
1.
Dew point temperature of air at one atmospheric pressure (1.013 bar) is
18°C. The air dry bulb temperature is 30°C. The saturation pressure of water
at 18°C and 30°C are 0.02062 bar and 0.04241 bar respectively. The specific
heat of air and water vapour respeetively are 1.005 and 1.88 kJ/kgK and the
latent heat of vaporization water of 0°C is 2500 kJ/kg. The specific humidity
(kg/kg of dry air) and enthalpy (kJ/kg of dry air) of this moist air respectively,
are
2.
.
A. 0.01051, 52.64
B. 0.01291, 63.15
C. 0.01481, 78.60
D. 0.01532, 81.40
.
Correct Option: B
.
1.
For air with a relative humidity of 80%
2.
.
A. the dry bulb temperature is less than the wet bulb temperature
B. the dew point temperature is less than wet bulb temperature
C. the dew point and web bulb temperature are equal
D. the dry bulb and dew point temperatures are equal
.
.
Correct Option: B
For air at a given temperature, as the relative humidity is increased

isothermally,
A. the wet bulb temperature and specific enthalpy increase

B. the wet bulb temperature and specific enthalpy decrease
C. the wet bulb temperature increases and specific enthalpy decreases
D. the wet bulb temperature decreases and specific enthalpy increases
Discuss in Forum
.
Correct Option: A
.
Atmospheric air from 40°C and 60 percent relative humidity can be brought
to 20°C and 60 percent relative humidity by
1.
.
A. Cooling and dehumidification process
B. Cooling and humidification process
C. Adiabatic saturation process
D. Sensible cooling process
.
Correct Option: A
1.
A reversed Carnot cycle refrigerator maintains a temperature of –5°C. The
ambient air temperature is 35°C. The heat gained by the refrigerator at a
continuous rate is 2.5 kJ/s. The power (in watt) required to pump this heat
out continuously is _______
2.
.
A. 373.13
B. 373.23
C. 373
D. 473.13
Correct Option: A
1.
A thin layer of water in a field is formed after a farmer has watered it. The
ambient air conditions are: temp. 20°C and relative humidity 5%. An extract
of steam tables is given below.
Neglecting the heat transfer between the water and the ground, the water
temperature in the field after phase equilibrium is reached equals
2.
.
A. 10.3°C
B. –10.3°C
C. –14.5°C
D. 14.5°C
.
.
Correct Option: C
.
Given data:
Φ = 5% = 0.05
Tdb = 20°C
From table
At 20°C, Ps = 2.34 kPa
.
Pv
Φ=
Ps
.
0.05 Pv
= 2.34
Pv =.117 k Pa By Interpolation method,
.
(-10 + 15
Tdb = - 15 + × (0.117 - .1)
0.26 - 0.10
= – 15 + 0.531 = – 14.5° C
.
.
1.
A heat engine having an efficiency of 70% is used to drive a refrigerator
having a coefficient of performance of 5. The energy absorbed from low
temperature reservoir by the refrigerator for each kJ of energy absorbed
from high temperature source by the engine is
2.
.
A. 0.14kJ
B. 0.71kJ
C. 3.5 kJ
D. 7.1 kJ
.
.
Correct Option: C
.
.
Energy absorbed from low temperature reservoir by the refrigerator for each kJ of
energy absorbed from high temperature source by the engine = 3.5 kJ.
1.
The thermodynamic cycle shown in figure (T-s diagram) indicates
2.
.
A. reversed Carnot cycle
B. reversed Brayton cycle
C. vapor compression cycle
D. vapor absorption cycle
.
Correct Option: B
1.
The COP of a Carnot heat pump operating between 6°C and 37°C is
2.
.
A. 10
B. 55
C. 8
D. 7
.
Correct Option: A
A heat pump with refrigerant R22 is used for space heating between
temperature limits of – 20°C and 25°C. The heat required is 200 MJ/ h.
Assume specific heat of vapour at the time of discharge as 0.98 kJ/kgK. Other
relevant properties are given below. The enthalpy (in kJ/ kg) of the
refrigerant at isentropic compressor discharge is_________.
1.
.
A. 433.3
B. 433.9
C. 433.8
D. 433
Correct Option: A
A vapour absorption refrigeration system is a heat pump with three thermal

reservoirs as shown in the figure. A refrigeration effect of 100 W is required
at 250 K when the heat source available is at 400 K. Heat rejection occurs at
300 K. The minimum value of heat
A. 167
B. 100
C. 80
D. 20
Correct Option: C
An industrial heat pump operates between the temperatures of 27°C and

-13°C. The rates of heat addition and heat rejection are 750 W and 1000 W,
respectively. The COP for the heat pump is
1.
.
A. 7.5
B. 6.5
C. 4.0
D. 3.0
.
Correct Option: C
List-I
A. Liquid to suction heat exchange
B. Constant volume heat addition
C. Normal shock
D. Ammonia-water
List-II
1. Vapour absorption refrigeration
2. Vapour compression refrigeration
3. Diesel cycle
4. Otto cycle
5. Converging nozzle
6. Converging diverging nozzle
A. A – 2, B – 4, C – 6, D – 1
B. A – 5, B – 4, C – 6, D – 1
C. A – 2, B – 4, C – 5, D – 1
D. A – 2, B – 4, C – 6, D – 5
.
Correct Option: A
Clearance volume of a reciprocating compressor is 100 ml, and the volume of

the cylinder at bottom dead centre is 1.0 litre. The clearance ratio of the
compressor is
1.
.
A. 1/11
B. 1/10
C. 1/9
D. 1/1.1
Discuss in Forum
.
Correct Option: C
A refrigerator uses R134a as its refrigerant and operates on a ideal vapour-

compression refrigeration cycle between 0.14 MPa and 0.8 MPa. If the mass
flow rate of the refrigerant is 0.05 kg/s, the rate of heat rejection to the
environment is _______ kW.
Given data:
At P = 0.14 MPa, h = 236.04 kJ/kg , s = 0.9322 kJ/kgK
At P = 0.8 MPa, h = 272.05 kJ/kg (superheated vapour)
At P = 0.8 MPa, h = 93.42 kJ/kg (saturated liquid)
.
A. 8.931 kW
B. 89.31 kW
C. 9.831 kW
9.813 kw
.
Correct Option: A
.
1.
Refrigerant vapor enters into the compressor of a standard vapor
compression cycle at –10°C (h = 402 J/kg) and leaves the compression at 50°C
(h = 432 kJ/kg). It leaves the condenser at 30°C (h = 237 kJ/kg). The COP of
the cycle is ________.
2.
.
A. 5.0
B. 5.5
C. 4.5
D. 1.5
.
.
Correct Option: B
.
Work done = 432 – 402 = 30 kJ/kg
Refrigerating effect = 402 – 237 = 165 kJ/kg.
.
COP 165
= 5.5
= 30
.
.
1.
The power required for compressor in kW is
2.
.
A. 5.94
B. 1.83
C. 7.9
D. 39.5
.
.
Correct Option: C
.
Power required by compressor p = ṁ(h2 – h1)
= 0.2 (276.45 – 237) = 7.9 kW
1.
The rate at which heat is extracted, in kJ/s from the refrigerated space is
2.
.
A. 28.3
B. 42.9
C. 34.4
D. 14.6
.
.
Correct Option: A
In an ideal vapour compression refrigeration cycle, the specific enthalpy of

refrigerant (in kJ/kg) at the following states is given as :
Inlet of condenser : 283
Exit of condenser : 116
Exit of evaporator : 232
The COP of this cycle is
.
A. 2.27
B. 2.75
C. 3.27
D. 3.75
Correct Option: A
The vapour compression refrigeration cycle is represented as shown in the

figure below, with state 1 being the exit of the evaporator. The coordinate
system used in this figure is
A. p–h
B. T–s
C. p–s
D. T–h
.
Correct Option: D
1.
A R-12 refrigerant reciprocating compressor operates between the
condensing temperature of 30º and evaporator temperature of –20ºC. The
clearance volume ratio of the compressor is 0.03. Specific heat ratio of the
vapour is 1.15 and the specific volume at the suction is 0.1089 m3/kg. Other
properties at various states are given in the figure. To realize 2 tons of
refrigeration, the actual volume displacement rate considering the effect of
clearance is
2.
.
A. 6.35 × 10–3 m3/s
B. 63.5 × 10–3 m3/s
C. 635 × 10–3 m3/s
D. 4.88 × 10–3 m3/s
Correct Option: A
In the window air conditioner, the expansion device used is

1.
.
A. capillary tube
B. thermostatic expansion valve
C. automatic expansion valve
D. float valve
.
Correct Option: A
Direction: A refrigerator based on ideal vapour compression cycle operates between

the temperature limits of –20°C and 40°C. The refrigerant enters the condenser as
saturated vapour and leaves as saturated liquid. The enthalpy and entropy values for
saturated liquid and vapour at these temperatures are given in the table below.
The COP of the refrigerator is
A. 2.0
B. 2.33
C. 5.0
6.0
.
Correct Option: B
If refrigerant circulation rate is 0.025 kg/s, the refrigeration effect is equal to

.
A. 2.1 kW
B. 2.5 kW
C. 3.0 kW
D. 4.0 kW
Correct Option: A
In a vapour compression refrigeration system, liquids to suction heat

exchanger is used to
A. Keep the COP constant

B. Prevent the liquid refrigerant from entering the compressor
C. Sub-cool the liquid refrigerant leaving the condenser
D. Sub-cool the vapour refrigerant from the evaporator
Correct Option: C
Round the clock cooling of an apartment having a load of 300 MJ/day

requires and air conditioning plant of capacity about
A. 1 ton
B. 5 tons
C. 10 tons
Correct Option: A

Which of The Following Can Be Called As A Refrigeration Process?

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Which of The Following Can Be Called As A Refrigeration Process?

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Which of the following can be called as a refrigeration process?

(A) Cooling of a hot ingot from 1000°C to room temperature

Evaporative cooling systems are ideal for

One ton of the refrigeration is

In SI unit, one ton of refrigeration is equal to

One ton refrigeration corresponds to

The COP of a domestic refrigerator

Pick up the wrong statement. A refrigerant should have

The refrigerant for a refrigerator should have

Which of the following is not a desirable property of a refrigerant?

Ammonia is one of the oldest refrigerants, which is still used

The boiling point of ammonia is

The synthetic refrigerants were extremely popular as they are:

Freon group of refrigerants are

The ozone depletion potential of air is

Which of the following refrigerant has the lowest global warming

The freon group of refrigerants are

Which of the following is an azeotrope refrigerant?

Which of the following are secondary refrigerants?

Chemical formula of Freon-12 is

The chemical formula of R-22 is

In larger industrial and commercial reciprocating compression

If T1T1 is the lower temperature and T2T2 is the higher

The COP of the reversed Carnot cycle may be improved by

The COP of a Carnot refrigerator in winter will be ___________ than in

The COP of a domestic refrigerator in comparison to domestic air

For the same compressor work, COP of the refrigerator as

A refrigeration cycle operates between condenser temperature of

The relative COP is

Refrigeration in aeroplanes usually employs the following

A boot-strap air cooling system has

An ordinary passenger aircraft requires a cooling system of

The air cooling system mostly used in transport type aircraft is

The reduced ambient air cooling system has

The cooling system used for supersonic aircraft and rockets is

The vapour compression refrigerator employs the following cycle

In a refrigeration cycle, heat is rejected by the refrigerant in a

Domestic refrigerator working on vapour compression cycle uses

In a refrigeration system, the expansion device is connected

In the vapour compression refrigeration system, the condition of

In vapour compression refrigeration system, the condition of

In the vapour compression refrigeration system, the condition of

The higher temperature in the vapour compression cycle occurs at

In the refrigeration system, heat absorbed in comparison to heat

The subcooling is a process of cooling the refrigerant in VCR

The process of undercooling is generally brought about by

Rating of a domestic refrigerator is of the order of

If the ice in a plant is made at -6°C and if the temperature

One of the purposes of sub-cooling the liquid refrigerant is to

Moisture in refrigeration system causes

The advantage of dry compression is that

For obtaining high COP, the pressure range of compressor should

Reducing suction pressure in the refrigeration cycle

The COP of a refrigeration cycle with lowering of condenser

At lower temperatures and pressures, the latent heat of

The short horizontal line on the pressure-enthalpy chart show

The purpose of installing a flash chamber in the refrigeration

Which system is used to maintain different temperatures at

The COP of a vapour compression plant in comparison to vapour

Absoption system normally uses the following refrigerant:

Aqua-ammonia is used as a refrigerant in the following type of

Fittings in the ammonia absorption refrigeration system are made

Ammonia-absorption refrigeration cycle requires