QUALIFYING EXAMINATION EXAMINATION

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer
for each item by shading the space corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet
provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which object as mentioned below requires individual photographs?
any clue to the perpetrators identity
identifying marks
tools or weapons used
wounds of the victim
2. In photographing a crime scene, what view will best feature the nature of the crime scene?
A. medium C. close- up
B. general D. extreme close- up
3. What is the normal developing time for a normally exposed film using a D-76 developer?
five to six minutes
eight to ten minutes
twelve to fifteen minutes
fifteen to twenty minutes
4. What is the ideal exposure setting of a film with ASA 100 at hazy sunlight?
A. 1/125 f5.6 C. 1/25 f11
B. 1/ 125 f8 D. 1/125 f16
5. Who invented the instant photographic process commonly known as Polaroid?
A. George Eastman C. Edwin Herbert Land
B. John Herschel D. William Talbot
6. What is called as distance from the optical center of the lens to the film when the lens is focused
at infinity?
A. focusing scale C. focal length
B. focal plane D. depth of field
7. The f numbers represents the ratio of what characteristics of the lens and the diameter of the lens
aperture?
A. depth of focus C. focal length
B. focal distance D. depth of field
8. A camera lens that is capable of taking photographs of extreme close- up without the need of
close- up attachment is called:
A. wide angle lens C. zoom lens
B. macro lens D. telephoto lens
9. An ideal camera type for police photography due to its versatility, compactness, interchangeability
of lenses and therefore an all purpose camera is:
A. range finder C. press type
B. single lens reflex D. box type
10. In police photography, when one say tripod, the stand has how many legs or vertical support?
A. two C. four
B. one D. three
11. In using ultra- violet light for the purpose of photographing fluorescence and in order that its
effect maybe recorded, it is necessary to use:
A. dark room C. ordinary room
B. lighted room D. sunlight
12. What type of lighting condition in sunlight wherein object in open space cast a transparent
shadow?
A. bright C. dull
B. hazy D. artificial
13. The scattering of light rays after passing through a small aperture is called:
A. reflection C. transmission
B. diffraction D. absorption
14. For a film with an ASA rating of 200, the exposure setting at bright sunlight of a normal subject
would be:
A. 1/125 f16 C. 1/30 f5.6
B. 1/60 f8 D. 1/250 f1.4
15. Process of obtaining photographic magnification of minutes objects by using a camera attached
to a compound microscope is called:
A. microfilming C. macroscopy
B. photo-macrograph D. photo- micrography
16. What was the first court which held upon the admissibility of fingerprint as evidence?
A. New Jersey court C. California court
B. Illinois court D. Seattle court
17. Why fountain pen ink, colored ink and stamp pad ink are objectionable for taking real
impressions?
they are too thin
they dry too slow
they do not easily smear
satisfactory for comparison purposes
18. What is that epidermal hairless skin found on the lower surface of the hands and feet covered
with minute ridges?
A. polydactyl skin C. epidermis
B. friction skin D. flexure line
19. What fingerprint pattern does not have ridge count?
A. whorls C. radial loops
B. arches D. ulnar loops
20. It is the ridge count of the first loop in a set with fingerprints beginning with the right thumb
except the little fingers.
A. final classification C. major classification
B. key classification D. primary classification
21. What is a system of identification which was used earlier than fingerprint system, made by
measuring various bony structure of human body developed by Alphonse Bertillion?
A. Portrait parle C. Tattoo
B. Anthropometry D. Photography
22. To determine whether a loop is radial, it is important that the examiner should know first what?
hand where the fingerprint came
finger nail of the subject
pattern of the ridge
person where the impression came
23. Which of the following distinguish plain arch from other fingerprint pattern?
has a core but no delta
presence of delta only
none of these
absence of delta and core
24. What was the first judicial case which upheld upon the admissibility of fingerprint as evidence?
People vs Miranda
People vs Escobedo
People vs Jennings
None of these
25. Is it perfectly alright to just examine the ransacked area of possible fingerprints?
yes, for no reason at all
yes, to close the case ASAP
yes, to avoid wastage
No
26. Who among the following gained the prominence as the man without fingerprints by removing his
friction ridge by means of surgery?
A. Robert James Pitts C. Albert Cohen
B. John Dillinger D. Alphonse Bertillon
27. Which among the following corresponds to the correct spelling of the word?
A. Antrophometry C. Anthrophometry
B. Anthoprometry D. Anthropometry
28. What fingers are rolled away from the body in taking a rolled impression?
both little fingers
both index fingers
all fingers except thumb
both thumb fingers
29. Who is the first Filipino fingerprint technician employed by the Philippine Constabulary?
A. Generoso Reyes C. Mr Jones
B. Isabela Bernales D. Proseso Tubid
30. What fingerprint pattern has two deltas and in which atleast one ridge makes a turn through one
complete circuit?
A. plain arch C. plain impression
B. loop D. plain whorl
31. What kind of questions should be formulated for purposes of polygraph examination?
narrative style
those answerable by yes or no
those that call for positive response
elaborated subject matter
32. When a subject makes admission or correction with respect to his answer to the control
question, he is usually ____________.
hesitant or resisting the test
telling a lie
telling the truth
did not understand the question
33. Who among the following makes a great improvement on the polygraph machine in 1926?
A. John Larson C. Leonard Keeler
B. Dr. Hanns Gross D. John Reid
34. What is usually conducted for the purpose of obtaining confession or an admission from the
subjects once deception is observed?
pre- test interview C. post- test interview
instrumentation D. initial interview
35. In lie detection, the examiner chart probes on the subject every after the taking of each chart. At
what stage is post- interrogation conducted?
done immediately before conducting the pre- test interview
done only on subjects who refuse to cooperate during the examination
done every after the taking of each chart
when fully convinced of the subjects guilt based on the charts taken
36. Which of the following statement is NOT true of a lie detector?
it can help locate stolen goods
it enables the comparison of conflicting statements
it obtains leads to the facts of the case
D. it determines the guilt or innocence of subject
37. What component of polygraph machine is consist of electrodes attached to the finger of the hand
and records the skin resistance of the subject to a very imperceptible amount of electricity?
A. Kymograph C. cardiosphygmograph
B. galvanograph D. pneumograph
38. It is the stage in the conduct of the polygraph test which is designed to prepare or condition the
subject for the actual test.
A. pre- test interview C. post- test interview
B. instrumentation D. initial interview
39. What type of question is designed to produce a response in an innocent subject?
A. control question C. irrelevant question
B. relevant question D. knowledge question
40. He suggests the used of the first galvanograph component for detecting deception.
A. Veraguth C. Sticker
B. Keeler D. Benussi
41. What method promotes anxiety by placing the accused on a line- up and he is identified by
several fictitious witnesses or victims who got associated with him in different offenses until subject
becomes desperate and confesses to the offense in order to escape accusations?
A. greater or lesser guilt C. reverse line-up
B. line- up D. stern approach
42. In surveillance at night, what equipment do you use if the area is unlighted?
telescope and extra large magnifiers
giant binoculars
snooperscope
camera with telephoto lens
43. Crime scene protection and preservation is the sole obligation of the officers who first arrived in
the scene, is it correct?
A. yes C. no
B. sometime D. it depends
44. In introducing physical evidence at a trial, three important factors must be constructed: First, the
evidence must be material and relevant, second the article must be properly identified and _______.
it must be part of the modus operandi
there must be a knowledge of laboratory procedures
the object must have been use in the commission of the crime
the chain of custody must be established
45. SPO4 Cruz has prepared a rough sketch of a homicide scene and is now at his district. At this
point it is most important that _____________.
the proper scale be used
a high grade of paper and ink be used
no changes be made on the sketch
this sketch be refined and improved
46. Another way of determining the number of shot fired is the testimony of witness and number of
_______.
A. exit shot C. incised wounds
B. punctured wounds D. entrance wounds
47. In the course of investigating the house where a stabbing took place, police find what to be
bloodstains on the front door. Since the unknown perpetrator and the victim who may die were both
cut their identities need to be established through the bloodstains. How will the police collect the
stains?
moisten a piece of clean cotton with a saline solution and
rub gently
remove the door and submit it to the crime lab
scrap the stain into white paper using a clean razor blade
blot the stain with a clean tissue soaked in alcohol
48. What is that means of identifying physical evidence in which the investigator inscribe initial, date
and time directly?
A. marking C. labeling
B. tagging D. none of these
49. Is it possible to have a number of gunshots wound entry is less than the exit wound?
A. maybe C. possible
B. impossible D. none of these
50. If your are the officer in charge of PACER, what significant requirement would you consider
critical of police officers being utilized in the campaign against kidnap for ransom syndicates?
well connected
trusted
experienced field officer
FBI trained
51. What medical evidence can show that a gunshot wound is homicidal?
no sign of struggle from the victim
site of wound entrance has no point of election
wounding firearm found in the hands of the victim
no disturbance in the crime scene
52. Rigor mortis is first observed in the jaws and neck, and moves to the head front direction. While
it starts at the same time, within how many hours can it be said to have been completed?
A. 6 to 8 C. 8 to 12
B. 12 to 24 D. 6 to 12
53. In crime scene investigation, who determines its entry/ exit?
A. the prober C. SOCO
B. the chief D. sleuth
54. Is it still possible to get DNA to a hair even if without root?
A. yes C. no
B. it depends D. possible
55. Since 1997, the LTO issued ten (10) commandments of Traffic which is not only useful to the
public but also to traffic investigators. The no. 1 of said commandments is_______.
if in doubt, dont overtake
do not overtake on the right
keep right
safety first
56. In planning for a traffic control program, which of the following is NOT a factor to consider?
model of cars and vehicles
incidence of traffic accidents
existing road/ highway system
traffic congestion hazards
57. What is the general rule for the movement of traffic in the Philippines?
A. keep to the left C. none of these
B. keep to the right D. watch out
58. How should a driver approach an intersection?
A. be at the right of way C. overtake other vehicles
B. give a signal D. be at the full stop
59. What is the combination of verbal warning and citations called?
Traffic consultation
Citation warnings
Written warnings
Traffic rules implementation
60. Where do we report collision between train and bus?
A. General investigation C. Auxiliary service
B. Traffic investigation D. Homicide division
61. Who built in 1885 the first vehicle propelled by a high speed internal combustion engine?
A. Walter Ladd C. Henry Ford
B. Joseph Cugnot D. Gottlieb Daimler
62. What kind of driver is one who shows a complete disregard for others, aggressive, impatient,
demanding and thoroughly selfish in his actions affecting other drivers?
A. vociferous C. defensive
B. egotists D. emotional
63. The lowest section of an extension ladder is known as:
A. heel C. butt
B. bed ladder D. fly ladder
64. A fire hydrant should be carefully opened when in use in order to:
prevent water hammer
to ensure that the drip valve is all the way closed
close the coupling
reduce the vibration of the hydrant
65. There is an increased quantity of carbon monoxide produced when fuel is burned in limited
supply of oxygen because ________.
carbon reacts with carbon monoxide
carbon reacts with carbon dioxide
carbon monoxide is an effective reducing agent
greater oxidation takes place
66. Why water is prohibited to quench Class D fires?
burning metals are too hot
water is not capable of extinguishing the fire
there is the danger of electrocution
explosion may occur
67. Which of the following does NOT fall under class A fires?
A. none of these C. burning nipa hut
B. exploding gas depot D. forest fire
68. Mechanical device strategically located in an installation or street where fire hose is connected
so that water with pressure will be available to extinguish fire.
A. fire hose box C. fire truck
B. hose reel D. fire hydrant
69. Carbon dioxide is hazardous because it:
is poisonous
explodes when ignited by spark
does not support life
supports combustion
70. When heat is transmitted in circulating medium, the method is called___________.
A. radiation C. oxidation
B. convection D. conduction
71. Under this theory, a police officers frustration in the realization of his ambition and goals in life
both as an officer of the law and as a private individual can push him to commit crime.
A. disorganization theory C. culture conflict theory
B. strain theory D. DAT
72. Who among the following criminologists explained the widely accepted Differential Association
Theory?
William Sheldon
Eleonor Glueck
Ernest Hooton
Edwin Sutherland
73. Which of the following occurs when a person is blocked or thwarted in the satisfaction of his
need?
A. frustration C. conflict
B. defense mechanism D. coping mechanism
74. Emil Durkheim theorized that ______ is a social condition in which norms are weak, conflicting or
absent?
differential association
deviance
anomie
chaos
75. The Classical theory in criminal law provides that the basis for criminal liability is human free will
and the purpose of penalty is________.
A. deterrence C. repression
B. rehabilitation D. retribution
76. The manner by which a person reacts to frustration is called______.
A. evasion C. fight
B. retreat D. coping mechanism
77. Who advocated the Strain theory?
A. Albert Cohen C. William Sheldon
B. Robert Merton D. Edwin Sutherland
78. What personality structure serves as the mans conscience, tells what is right and wrong and
direct towards morally acceptable responsive behaviors?
A. id C. ego
B. self esteem D. superego
79. A patient who have lost contact with reality is suffering from ______.
A. neurosis C. schizophrenia
B. psychoneurosis D. psychosis
80. What theory view crimes as one resulting from cultural values that permit or even demand
behavior that will violate the law?
A. disorganization theory C. culture defiance theory
B. strain theory D. DAT
81. Under this theory, it declares that the reaction of people and the subsequent effects of those
reactions create defiance. The point of study of this theory focused on the social interaction y which
individual becomes defiant.
A. Anomie C. DAT
B. Labeling D. Strain
82. Who advocated the Classical school of Criminology?
A. Garofalo C. Sheldon
B. Becarria D. Sutherland
83. What is the classification of crime when the offender acquires something as a consequence of
his criminal act?
A. seasonal C. extinctive
B. blue collar D. acquisitive
84. Which of these refers to the scientific analysis f the causes of crime?
A. criminal psychology C. criminal sociology
B. criminal etiology D. criminal demography
85. Crimes committed by persons who usually occupy key positions, maintains prestige and high
social are referred to as ________.
A. blue collar C. organized
B. economic D. white collar
86. It maintains that an individual will obey or disobey societal rules depending upon his ability to
rationalize whether he is protected from hurt or destruction. People become law abiding if they feel
they are benefited by it and they violate it if these laws are not favorable to them.
A. Sub- culture theory C. Differential Association theory
B. Neutralization theory D. Strain Theory
87. The doctrine of Utilitarian Hedonism was proposed by:
A. Edwin Sutherland C. Albert Cohen
B. Jeremy Bentham D. Robert Merton
88. Which of the words below is NOT related to the others?
A. transmute C. transient
B. alter D. metamorphose
89. Under the social control theory, there are factors of attachment, commitment, involvement and
belief. These are called ______ and the stronger these are, the less likelihood of delinquency.
A. social learning C. behavioral models
B. sub culture D. social bonds
90. What is a collective term for mental disorders that begin at or shortly after puberty and usually
lead to general failure of the mental facilities with the corresponding physiological impairment?
A. Delirium C. Demophobia
B. Dementia praecox D. Delusion
91. The agencies and institutions whose primary responsibility is dealing with juvenile offenders are
those juveniles in need of supervision comprises the:
A. juvenile justice C. juvenile system
B. minor judicial system D. juvenile justice system
92. Not providing a child with care and shelter to which he or she is entitled is a form of child abused
called_______.
A. exploitation C. neglect
B. abandonment D. trafficking
93. What type of gang primarily organized to carry out various illegal activities?
A. social gang C. violent gang
B. delinquent gang D. none of these
94. Under the doctrine of _______ the state has every right to protect children from improper
upbringing.
A. prima facie C. patria potestas
B. in loco parentis D. parens patria
95. Who among the following is considered as Zone of Peace in situations of armed conflict?
A. organization C. NGO
B. barangays D. children
96. Presidential Decree No. 603 as distinguished from adult probation law, is known as the:
A. revised penal code C. child and youth welfare code
B. child welfare act D. special protection for children
97. Police officers shall remain true to the people at all times. They must act with ________ and
shall not discriminate against anyone.
Candor and sincerity
Justness and sincerity
Fairness and integrity
Fairness and honesty
98. The behavior of lower specie is controlled by _____.
A. values C. intelligence
B. instinct D. learning
99. When is a child presumed to have been abandoned?
A. failure to provide care and support of the child for no
valid reason at all
B. upon failure to report to the law enforcement agency
Or the DSWD within 48 hours
C. upon failure to provide care and support of a child
atleast for 6 continuous months
D. any of these
100. A youth offender held for physical and mental examination, trial or pending an appeal, infusible
to furnish bail shall from the time of arrest be committed to the care of _____________.
Child and Youth Welfare
Bantay Bata Center
DSWD
City Jail