POWER ENGINEERING MCQ

MODULE 01 - Combustion of Reactive Mixtures

Q1- In order to burn 1Kg of 𝑪𝑯𝟒 completely the minimum number of kilogram of oxygen
needed is (take atomic weight H, C & O as 1,12,& 16 respectively)
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6

Q2 - In a pulverized fuel-fired large power boiler, then heat transfer from the burning fuel
to the walls of the furnace is
a) By conduction only
b) By convection only
c) By conduction and convection
d) Predominately by radiation

Q3- Which one of the following gaseous fuels does not have different higher and lower
calorific values?
a) Methane
b) Ethane
c) Carbon Monoxide
d) Hydrogen

Q4- In steam generators a stoker acts as one of the following devices. what is this device?
a) Air preheating devices
b) Steam superheating devices
c) Air superheating device
d) Fuel feeding device

Q5- For maximum discharge the draught in mm of 𝑯𝟐 𝑶 is given by (H= Height of chimney
,T = Chimney gas temp, 𝑻𝟏 = atmosphere temp)
a) h=176.5 H/T
b) h= 176.5 H/𝑻𝟏
c) h = 176.5 T/H
d) h= 176.5 𝑻𝟏 /𝒉

Q6 - A chimney of height 40m has mean flue gas temp of 327℃. The temp of outside air is
30℃. The air fuel ratio is 14.3. Draught produced in mm of water column is
a) 2026 mm 𝑯𝟐 𝑶

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 b) 21.42 mm 𝑯𝟐 O
c) 23.26mm 𝑯𝟐 O
d) 24.61mm 𝑯𝟐 𝑶

Q7 - The higher calorific value of fuel occurs when water vapour

a) present in products of combustion is condensed to the initial temperature of the fuel
b) present in products of combustion is not condensed to the initial temperature of the
fuel
c) it is not formed during combustion of a fuel
d) it is formed during combustion of a fuel

Q8 - Consider the following statements:

The difference between higher and lower heating values of the fuels is due to
1. Heat carried by steam from the moisture content of fuel
2. Sensible heat carried away by the fuel gases
3. Heat carried away by steam from the combustion of hydrogen in the fuel
4. Heat lost by radiation
Which of these statements is/are correct?
a) 2,3&4
b) 1&2
c) 3 only
d) 1,2,3&4

Q9 - The expression for Stoichiometric air required for combustion of coal having C, H, O
& S is
𝑶
a) 4.32 (2.67 C + H - +S)
𝟖
𝑶
b) 4.32 (2.67 C + 8H + S - 𝟖 )
𝑶
c) 2.67 C +8 (H + )+ S
𝟖
𝑶
d) 2.67 C + 8 (H - ) +S
𝟖

MODULE 02 - Steam Generators / Steam turbine / Reaction turbine

Steam Generators

Q1 - The correct gas flow path in a typical large modern natural circulation boiler is
a) Combustion chamber, reheater, superheater, economizer, air preheater, I.D. fan,
electrostatic precipitator , stack

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 b) Combustion Chamber, superheater, reheater , economizer, air preheater,
electrostatic precipitator, I.D. fan, stack
c) Combustion chamber, Reheater, superheater, air preheater, economizer, electrostatic
precipitator, I.D. fan, Stack,
d) Combustion chamber, superheater, reheater , economizer, air preheater, I.D.fan,
electrostatic precipitator, stack

Q2 - Consider the following statements

For a fluidized bed boiler
1. There is less formation of 𝑵𝑶𝒙
2. It can burn inferior grades of coal
3. Furnace is compact
Which of these statements is/are correct?
a) 1&2
b) 2&3
c) 1&3
d) none of the above

Q3 - Which one of the following safety devices is used to protect the boiler when the water
level falls below a minimum level?
a) Water level indicator
b) Fusible plug
c) Blow off cock
d) Safety valve

Q4- Which of the following form part (s) of boiler mounting?

1. Economiser
2. feed check valve
3. steam trap
4. superheater
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 2 alone
b) 1&3
c) 2,3&4
d) 1,2,3&4

Q5 - Consider the following components

1. Radiation evaporator
2. Economiser
3. radiation superheater

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 4. convection superheater
In case of Benson boiler, the correct sequence of the entry of water through these components
is
a) 1,2,3,4
b) 1,2,4,3
c) 2,1,3,4
d) 2,1,4,3

Q6- At critical point the enthalpy of vaporization is

a) dependent on temperature only
b) maximum
c) minimum
d) zero

Q7 - The excess air required for combustion of pulverized coal is of the order of
a) 100 - 150%
b) 30-60%
c) 15-40%
d) 5-10%

Q8 - Match List-I with List - II

List - I
A. Soot blower
B. Electrostatic precipitator
C. Blow down
D. Zeolite
List - II
1. Removal of solid from boiler drums
2. To clean the tube surfaces of fly ash
3. Cleaning of flue gases
4. Air cleaning
5. Water purification
Select the correct codes given below
Codes :
A B C D
a) 2 4 3 5
b) 1 3 2 5
c) 3 2 1 4

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 d) 2 3 1 5

Q9 - _____________is a bent tube water tube boiler

a) Benson
b) Sterling
c) Cochran
d) Lamont

Q10 - Which of the following statements are true in the context of Lancashire boiler?
1. It is fire tube boiler
2. It employs two flue tubes and three passes
3. It is a water tube boiler
4. It makes use of external pump for circulation
Select the correct one
a) 1,2
b) 2,3
c) 1,4
d) 3,4

Q11 - Which boiler does not have a steam separating drum?

a) Lancashire
b) Lamont
c) Benson
d) Cornish

Q12 - The major short coming of fire tube boiler is

a) size and pressure limitation inherent in design
b) high cost
c) requirement of high draught
d) need of highly skilled labour for operation

Q13 - The mass flow rate of steam released from the drum is 2Kg/s and the mass flow rate
of saturated water at riser exit is 18kg/s the circulation ratio is
a) 9
b) 10
c) 8
d) 6

Q14 - Maximum amount of energy lost in boiler due to

a) incomplete combustion
b) flue gases

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 c) unburnt carbon in ash
d) ash content

Q15 - What is the disadvantage of natural draught?

a) it has less life
b) it has more maintenance cost of cleaning and more capital cost to build the chimney
c) the available draught decreases with increasing outside air temperature
d) all of the above

Q16 - The formation of scale boiler leads to

a) decrease in efficiency of boiler
b) increase in efficiency of boiler
c) increase in heat transfer
d) decrease in maintenance of boiler

Q17 - What is the pH value of water permissible for boiler?

a) 0
b) 7
c) slightly less than 7
d) slightly more than 7

Q18 - The boiler in which the tubes are surrounded by hot gases is called as
a) fire tube boiler
b) water tube boiler
c) both a. and b.
d) none of the above

Q19 - What is the purpose of using economizer in the boiler?

a) to heat feedwater by utilizing heat from exhaust gaseS
b) to heat feedwater by utilizing some heat from superheated steam
c) to superheat steam
d) none of the above

Q20 - The purpose of superheater in a boiler is

a) to increase the temperature of saturated steam with increase in its pressure
b) to increase the temperature of saturated steam without increase in its pressure
c) to increase the temperature of feedwater for better efficiency
d) none of the above

Q21 - Which device used to separate condensate from the steam without letting steam
escape?
a) condenser

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 b) steam valve
c) steam trap
d) none of the above

Q22 - What is the critical pressure of steam?

a) 221.2 bar
b) 220 bar
c) 120 bar
d) 300 bar

Q23 - How can we classify steam generators on the basis of application?

a) utility steam generators
b) industrial steam generator
c) marine steam generator
d) all of the mentioned

Q24 - What is the length of shell of a Locomotive boiler?

a) 5m
b) 4m
c) 3m
d) 2m

Q25 - An air preheater is installed _____________

a) between the economiser and chimney
b) before the superheater
c) before the economizer
d) none of the mentioned

Q26 - The natural draught is produced by _________

a) team jet
b) chimney
c) centrifugal fan
d) none of the mentioned

Q27 - The subcritical steam generators operate between a pressure ranges of ___________
a) 120-160 bar
b) 100-110 bar
c) 130-180 bar
d) 140- 200 bar

Q28 - Marine steam generators are ___________ fired.

a) water

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 b) oil
c) phenol
d) none of the mentioned

Q29- In a fire-tube boiler, the water is in ___________

a) tube
b) shell
c) drum
d) all of the mentioned

Q30 - In a water-tube boiler, water flows through?

a) drum
b) shell
c) tube
d) none of the mentioned

Q31 - Industrial steam generators operate in a pressure range of ___________

a) 5-105 bar
b) 6-106 bar
c) < 5 bar
d) > 105 bar

Q32 - Fire-tube boilers are used in?

a) industrial steam generators
b) utility steam generators
c) marine steam generators
d) none of the mentioned

Q33 - Which of the following is not an advantage of a fire-tube boiler?

a) low first cost
b) reliability in operation
c) more draught required
d) quick response to load changes

Q34 - Which of these is an externally fired boiler?

a) Package boiler
b) Scotch-marine boiler
c) Lancashire boiler
d) None of the mentioned

Q35 - What is the function of the fusible plug installed in a furnace?

a) to detect excess current

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 b) to detect excess heat
c) to detect water level in the tube
d) to detect water level in the shell

Q36- Which of the following gaseous fuels has the lowest calorific value?
a) Refinery Gas
b) Gobar Gas
c) Converter GaS
d) Blast Furnace Gas

Q37 - Flue gas discharge velocity through chimney of a big thermal power plant may be
around __________ m/sec.
a) 500
b) 0.5
c) 10
d) 50

Q38 - The diameter of flue tube in a Cornish boiler is __________ that of the shell.
a) 3/5
b) 2/5
c) 1/3
d) 1/4

Q39 - Willian’s line for the steam engine is a straight line relationship between the steam
consumption per hour and ___________
a) brake power
b) indicated power
c) pressure of steam
d) efficiency

Q40 - The shell diameter of a Locomotive boiler is?

a) 1.5m
b) 1m
c) 2m
d) 2.5m

Q41 - The number of fire tubes in a Cochran boiler are ___________

a) 75
b) 165
c) 225
d) 175

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Q42 - The chimney draught varies with?
a) climatic conditions
b) temperature of furnace gases
c) height of chimney
d) all of the mentioned

Q43 - Lancashire boiler has _____ internal flue tubes.

a) 1
b) 3
c) 2
d) 4

Q44 - Locomotive boiler is a ___________

a) single tube, vertical, externally fired & stationary boiler
b) single tube, horizontal, internally fired& stationary boiler
c) multitubular, horizontal, externally fired & stationary boiler
d) multitubular, horizontal, internally fired & mobile boiler

Q45 - Cut-off ratio is the ratio of?

a) cut-off volume to clearance volume
b) clearance volume to cut-off volume
c) volume at cut-off to swept volume
d) swept volume to volume at cut-off

Q46 - When steam after doing work in the cylinder passes into a condenser, the engine is said
to be a ___________
a) slow speed engine
b) vertical steam engine
c) condensing steam engine
d) no-condensing steam engine

Q47 - The performance of a boiler is measured by the ___________

a) dry flue gases
b) steam formation
c) moisture in fuel
d) unburnt carbon

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Steam/Reaction Turbines

Q1 - Correct order of the maximum efficiency of turbine will be

a) De Laval < Curtis < Rateau < Parson
b) Curtis < Rateau < De Laval < Parson
c) Parson < Rateau > De Laval < Curtis
d) Depends on velocity values

Q2 - A single impulse turbine with a diameter of 120cm runs at 3000rpm. If blade speed
ration is 0.42, then the inlet velocity of steam will be
a) 79m/s
b) 188m/s
c) 450m/s
d) 900m/s

Q3 - In a Parson’s reaction stage, blade velocity is 320m/s at the mean radius and the rotor
blade exit angle is 30°. For a minimum kinectic energy of steam leaving the stage , the steam
velocity at exits of stator will be
𝟔𝟒𝟎
a) m/s
√𝟑
b) 𝟔𝟒𝟎𝒎/𝒔
𝟑𝟐𝟎
c) m/s
√𝟑
d) 𝟏𝟔𝟎√𝟑 m/s

Q4 - Which one of the following relationship between angles of fixed blades and moving
blades corresponds to that of Parson’s turbine
a) 𝜶𝟏 = 𝜶𝟐
b) 𝜶𝟏 = 𝜷𝟐
c) 𝜶𝟐 = 𝜷𝟐
d) 𝜷𝟏 = 𝜷𝟐

Q5 - Assertion ( A ) : Modern turbines have velocity compounding at initial stages and

pressure compounding in subsequent stages
Reason (R) : Excessive tip leakage occurs in the high pressure region of reaction blading
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are individually true and R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true

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Q6 - Considering the varation of static pressure and absolute velocity in an impulse turbine
across one row of moving blades
a) both pressure and velocity decrease
b) pressure decreases but velocity increases
c) pressure remains constant, while velocity increases
d) pressure remains constant, while velocity decreases

Q7 - Which of the following statement is correct with respect to regenerative feed heating in
a steam cycle?
1. It increase cycle efficiency
2. It increases specific output
3. It reduces the condenser load
4. It improves the steam quality at the end of expansion
Select the correct one
a) 1&3 only
b) 2&4 only
c) 2&3 only
d) 1,2,3,&4

Q8 - Running speeds of steam turine can be brought down to practical limits by which of
the following method (s) /
1. By using heavy flywheel
2. By using a quick response governor
3. By compounding
4. By reducing fuel feed to the furnace

Q9 - The optimum velocity of steam (in m/s) for a single stage impulse turbine with a rotor
diameter 5m and a speed of 4000rpm when the nozzle angle is 30°
a) 2420
b) 2100
c) 1050
d) 1210

Q10 - Curtis turbine is a

a) Mixed flow turbine
b) Velocity compound impulse tuebine
c) pressure compound impulse turbine
d) Axial flow turbine

Q11 - A steam turbine receives steam steadily at 10bar with an enthalphy 5000kJ/kg and a
velocity of 500m/s and discharges at 1bar with an enthalphy of 3000kJ/kg and velocity

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50mm/s. If the net work output is 2000kJ/kg the heat transfer from the turbine casing to the
surrounding is equal to
a) 0
b) 201kJ/kg
c) 124kJ/kg
d) 40kJ/kg

Q12 - Consider the following characteristics

1. High steam and blade velocities
2. Low steam and blade velocities
3. Low speed of rotation
4. High carry over loss
Which of these characteristics are possessed by a simple impulse turbine?
a) 1&2
b) 2&3
c) 1&4
d) 3&4

Q13 - The compounding of stream turbine is done to

a) reduce turbine speed
b) improve efficiency
c) increase blade speed ratio
d) reduce axial thrust

Q14 - In reaction turbine with reduction of inlet pressure

a) the blade heights increase as the specific volume of steam decrease
b) the blade height increase as the specific volume of steam increases
c) the blade heights decrease as the specific volume of steam increase
d) the blade heights decrease as the specific volume of steam decrease

Q15 - The ratio of actual work done by the blade in a stage to the total isentropic enthalpy
drop in the stage is called
a) nozzle efficiency
b) gross stage efficiency
c) reheat factor
d) blade efficicency

Q16 - Bleeding in turbine means

a) leakage of steam
b) steam doing no useful work
c) extracted steam for preheating feed water

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 d) exhausted steam in condenser

Q17 - In an impulse turbine the energy supplied to the blades per kg of steam equal to
a) work done by steam
b) sum of KE & PE
c) Reaction energy of steam
d) kinetic energy of jet at entrance per kg of steam

Q18 - In flow through steam nozzle the actual discharge will be greater then the theoretical
value when
a) steam at inlet is superheated
b) steam at inlet is saturated
c) steam gets supersaturated
d) steam at inlet is wet

Q19 - Axial shift in steam turbine occurs due to

a) thermal expansion of turbine casing
b) wearing away of thrust bearing or pad
c) unequal expansion of rotor and casing
d) no axial shift is possible since it is a rotating machine

Q20 - The velocity of steam in impulse turbine as it flows through the blades
a) increases gradually
b) increases rapidly
c) drops gradually
d) remains constant

Q21 - The maximum blade efficiency of single stage impulse turbine in terms of nozzle angle
𝜶 under ideal condition proportional to
a) cos𝜶
b) sin 𝜶
c) si𝒏𝟐 𝜶
d) co𝒔𝟐 𝜶

Q22 - Steam turbine is classified on basis of __________

a) type of blades
b) exhausting condition
c) type of Steam flow
d) all of the mentioned

Q23 - Impulse blades are in the shape of __________

a) Rain drop

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 b) Circular
c) Half moon
d) None of the mentioned

Q24 - Reaction turbine works with the force obtained from change in pressure energy.
a) True
b) False

MODULE 03 - Gas Turbine

Q1 - A Gas turbine operates between 5℃ 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝟖𝟑𝟗℃ the pressure ratio for maximum work
is approximately (given 𝟒𝟏.𝟕𝟓 = 𝟏𝟏. 𝟑𝟏)
a) 128
b) 11.31
c) 24.6
d) none of the above

Q2 - In a single stage open cycle gas turbine the mass flow through the turbine is higher than
the mass flow through compressor because,
a) the specific volume of air increases by use of intercooler
b) the temp of air increases in the reheater
c) the combustion of fuel takes place in the combustion chamber
d) the specific heats at constant pressure for incoming and exhaust gases are different

Q3 - In a gas turbine hot combustion products with the specific heats 𝒄𝒑 =0.98 kJ/kgK and
𝒄𝒗 = 𝟎. 𝟕𝟓𝟑𝟖𝒌𝑱/𝒌𝒈𝑲 enter the turbines at 20 bar, 1500K exit at 1 bar. The isentropic
efficiency of the turbine is 0.94. The work developed by the turbine per kg of gas flow is
a) 689.64 kJ/kg
b) 794.66 kJ/kg
c) 1009.72 kJ/kg
d) 1312.00 kJ/kg

Q4 - The compression ratio of a gas power plant cycle corresponding to maximum work
output for the given temp limits of 𝑻𝒎𝒊𝒏 & 𝑻𝒎𝒂𝒙 will be
𝜸
𝑻𝒎𝒂𝒙 𝟐(𝜸−𝟏)
a) ( )
𝑻𝒎𝒊𝒏
𝜸
𝑻
b) (𝑻 𝒎𝒊𝒏 )𝟐(𝜸−𝟏)
𝒎𝒂𝒙
𝜸−𝟏
𝑻𝒎𝒂𝒙
c) ( 𝑻 ) 𝜸
𝒎𝒊𝒏

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 𝜸−𝟏
𝑻
d) (𝑻 𝒎𝒊𝒏 ) 𝜸
𝒎𝒂𝒙

Q5 - Use of maximum pressure ratio corresponding to maximum to minimum cycle temp

ratio in case of Joule cycle gives which one of the following ?
a) Maximum efficiency but very less specific work output
b) Maximum efficiency but very high specific work output
c) Minimum efficiency but very less specific work output
d) Minimum efficiency but very high specific

Q6 - Brayton cycle with infinite intercooling and rehaeating stages would approximate a
a) Stirling cycle
b) Ericsson cycle
c) Otto cycle
d) Atkinson cycle

Q7 - In an ideal air standard gas turbine cycle the minimum and maximum temperature are
respectively 310K & 1100K. Draw the cycle on a T-s diagram and calculate the optimal
pressure ratio of the cycle for maximum work output. Assume for air (𝜸 = 𝟏. 𝟒) is the ratio
of specific heats.
a) 9.174
b) 2.174
c) 14.582
d) 18.586

Q8 - Which of the following cycles are employed in ships and submarines ?

a) Open Brayton cycle
b) Closed Brayton cycle
c) Rankine cycle
d) Diesel cycle

Q9 - Arrange Otto cycle , Brayton cycle and Rankine cycle in increasing order of maximum
temp reached
a) Otto > Brayton > Rankine
b) Brayton > Rankine > Otto
c) Rankine > Otto > Brayton
d) Otto > Rankine > Brayton

Q10 - Arrange the following order in increasing order of pressure ratio

a) Otto > Brayton > Rankine
b) Brayton > Rankine > Otto
c) Rankine > Otto > Brayton

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 d) Otto > Rankine > Brayton

Q11 - The temperature at exit of compressor of a gas turbine operating on Brayton cycle is
127 ℃ and the maximum temperature reached is 1027℃ The back work ratio is :
a) 0.308
b) 0.410
c) 0.631
d) 0.841

Q12 - Which of the following are effect of regeneration in a gas cycle?

1. Net work output increases
2. Both heat supplied and heat rejected decreases
3. These is an increases in mean temperature of heat addition
4. There is a decrease in cycle efficiency
Select the correct one
a) 1,3
b) 2,3
c) 2,4
d) 1,4

Q13 - In a gas turbine cycle, the turbine output is 800kJ/kg, the compressor work is 500kJ/kg
and the heat supplied is 1200kJ/kg. The thermal efficiency of the cycle is
a) 15%
b) 25%
c) 30%
d) 35%

Q14- An open cycle constant pressure gas turbine uses a fuel of calorific value 45000kJ/kg
with A/F ratio 60:1 and develop a net output of 100kJ/kg of air. The thermal efficiency of the
cycle is
a) 10.33%
b) 12%
c) 13.33%
d) 16.67%

Q15 - Which one of the following is the correct statement?

In a two stage gas turbine plant with inter-cooling and reheating
a) both work ratio and thermal efficiency improves
b) work ratio improves but thermal efficiency decreases
c) thermal efficiency improves but work ratio decreases
d) both work ratio and thermal efficiency decreases

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Q16 - Which of the following statement correctly give the effects of intercooling ?
1. Decrease in compressor work input
2. Increase in turbine work output
3. For the plant of fixed power output , it reduces the size of plant
4. Increases in efficiency
Select the correct one
a) 1,3
b) 2,4
c) 1,4
d) 2,3

Q17 - Identify the types of Gas turbines ___________

a) Turbo jet
b) Turboprop
c) Turbo fan
d) All of the mentioned

Q18 - Gas Turbine Engines, when compared to Reciprocating engines have ________
a) high power to weight ratio
b) low power to weight ratio
c) produce low power
d) none of the mentioned

Q19 - Most preferable Gas turbines are required to be used in _____________

a) fluctuating loads
b) constant loads
c) idling conditions
d) none of the mentioned

Q20 - Gas turbines work on ________

a) Otto cycle
b) Dual cycle
c) Brayton cycle
d) Diesel cycle

Q21 - Gas turbine performance majorly depends on __________

a) compressor efficiency
b) calorific value of fuel used
c) nozzle efficiency
d) none of the mentioned

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Q22 - . In order to generate energy in Sahara Desert where water is available in significantly
low amount. Which system can we employ in such a place?
a) Steam Turbine
b) Gas Turbine
c) Steam Engine
d) Tidal Engine

Q23 - How many burners are placed in can-annular combustors in gas turbines?
a) 1
b) 3
c) 5
d) Not specific one or more

Q24 - Silo combustors are mounted Internal to gas turbine body.

a) True
b) False

Q25 - What does TRIT in a gas turbine stand for?

a) Turbine Rotor Inlet Temperature
b) Total Raise at Inlet Temperature
c) Temperature Raise In Turbine
d) None of the mentioned

Q26 - When at idle conditions Gas Turbine Engines use more fuel when compared to
Reciprocating engines.
a) True
b) False

Q27 - In Gas Turbines Compressors raise the pressure of air by _______ times.
a) 25
b) 15
c) 30
d) 10

Q28 - Turbine and Output shaft rotate freely without any connection to the engine.
a) True
b) False

Q29 - A compressor in the gas turbine is driven by the Turbine.

a) True
b) False

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Q30 - Turbojet is a combination of gas turbine with a propeller engine.
a) True
b) False

Q31 - What is bypass ratio in Turbofan?

a) None of the mentioned
b) Mass of the air passing through the engine / Mass of the air bypassing the engine
c) Air entering the engine / Air leaving the engine
d) Mass of the air bypassing the engine / Mass of the air passing through the engine

Q32 - Turbojet emits ______ engine noise when compared to Turbofan.

a) more
b) less
c) equal
d) none

Q33 - A closed cycle gas turbine follows ________

a) Dual Cycle
b) Brayton Cycle
c) Stirling cycle
d) Carnot cycle

Q34 - Tanuj and Shyam have a strong discussion over the advantages of Induction-
Extraction turbine.
Tanuj: They are employed when a particular manufacturing process require a large quantity
of steam at a particular pressure.
Shyam: They are employed when an abundance of waste steam is available at the same
pressure. Which one the two you think is correct?
a) Tanuj
b) Shyam
c) Tanuj & Shyam
d) None of the mentioned

Q35 - Arjun underwent industrial training in his 2nd year at National Thermal Power Plant.
But he was surprised to know that a special turbine is used to meet the electrical energy
requirement in the plant itself. Can you identify which turbine did he observe?
a) High Pressure Condensing Turbine
b) House Turbine
c) Gas Turbine
d) Mixed Pressure Turbine

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Q36 - This turbine is an ingenious method for accomplishing multi velocity staging in a single
wheel. Name this turbine?
a) Tangential Turbine
b) Single Stage Impulse Turbine
c) Multi Stage Impulse Turbine
d) None of the mentioned

Q37 - You own an industry in which the boiler generates a lot of waste steam which you think
could be utilized. Which turbine will you utilize?
a) Mixed Pressure Turbine
b) Back Pressure Turbine
c) Twin-Shaft Gas Turbine
d) Induction-Extraction Turbine

Q38 - Mac doubts that why do we use House Turbine in National Thermal Power Plants.
Can you clear his doubts?
a) The exhaust steam or extraction steam is used for feedwater heating or to supply
steam for small turbines serving as auxiliary drives
b) Have huge capacity sufficient enough to run the plant
c) Have minimum losses
d) They can be vertical compounded

Q39 - A marine officer asks you to design a turbine for marine propulsion. Which of the
below would be your best choice?
a) Mixed pressure turbine
b) Condensing high pressure regenerative turbine
c) Gas Turbine
d) Tandem-Compound double flow turbine

Q40 - . Gas and Steam turbine combined power plant produces more electricity than
traditional power plants by how much percent?
a) 25
b) 40
c) 50
d) The given statement was false

Q41 - Brayton cycle is also known as __________

a) Joule cycle
b) Regenerative cycle
c) Carnot cycle
d) None of the mentioned.

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Q42 - Brayton cycle is also called an Ericsson cycle.
a) True
b) False

Q43 - Actual Brayton cycle works on _________

a) Isoentropic process and Isobaric process
b) Adiabatic process and Isobaric process
c) Isoentropic process
d) None of the mentioned

Q44 - Ideal Brayton cycle consists of ________

a) Isoentropic process and Isobaric process
b) Adiabatic process and Isobaric process
c) Adiabatic process
d) None of the mentioned

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