T-20 10 August, 2020

Question Type: fact

Difficulty of Question: moderate
Expected time to solve(in seconds): 60
Concept: Current Affairs
Sub Concept:
Concept field :

Q1 Recently, Indian Railways introduced the first “Kisan Rail” connecting which
of the following states?
a) Maharashtra to Bihar
b) Uttar Pradesh to Punjab
c) Haryana to Chattisgarh
d) Punjab to West Bengal

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation:
Recently, Indian Railways introduced the first “Kisan Rail” from Devlali
(Maharashtra) to Danapur (Bihar).

Question Type: fact

Difficulty of Question: moderate
Expected time to solve(in seconds): 60
Concept: Current Affairs
Sub Concept:
Concept field :

Q2 With reference to Exercise Kavkaz 2020 recently seen in the news which of
the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a multilateral exercise of the United States and the ASEAN.
2. The invitation for participation in Kavkaz 2020 has been extended to
India.

Select the correct answer from the options given below:

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: (b)
Explanation:
statement 1 is incorrect: The exercise is aimed at assessing the ability of the
armed forces to ensure military security in Russia’s southwest, where serious
terrorist threats persist and preparing for the strategic command-staff drills.
The Kavkaz 2020 is also referred to as Caucasus-2020.
statement 2 is correct. The invitation for participation to Kavkaz 2020 has been
extended to at least 18 countries including India, China, Iran, Pakistan and
Turkey apart from other Central Asian Republics part of the SCO.

Question Type: fact

Difficulty of Question: moderate
Expected time to solve(in seconds): 60
Concept: Current Affairs
Sub Concept:
Concept field :

Q3 The term “Loya Jirga” sometimes seen in the news, in context of:
a) It is a traditional folk dance of western India which has been nominated
for being added to the UNESCO’s list of intangible cultural heritage.
b) It is a traditional assembly of elders in Afghanistan
c) It is a traditional method which originated in Afghanistan for cultivating
medicinal poppy.
d) It is a form of martial arts that developed in central Asian countries.

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation:
Loya Jirga is a mass national gathering that brings together representatives
from the various ethnic, religious, and tribal communities in Afghanistan. It is a
highly respected centuries-old consultative body that has been convened at
times of national crisis or to settle national issues. According to the Afghan
Constitution, a Loya Jirga is considered the highest expression of the Afghan
people. It is not an official decision-making body and its decisions are not
legally binding.
Question Type: fact
Difficulty of Question: moderate
Expected time to solve(in seconds): 60
Concept: India & its Neighbours
Sub Concept:
Concept field :

Q4 Consider the following statements regarding the Indus Water Treaty:

1. It is a water-distribution treaty between India and Pakistan, brokered by
the World Bank
2. The treaty has no provision for either country to unilaterally walk out of
the pact.
3. The treaty gives control over the waters of the Ravi, Chenab and Sutlej
to India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: is a water-distribution treaty between India and
Pakistan, brokered by the World Bank, to use the water available in the Indus
River and its tributaries.

Statement 2 is correct: The treaty has no provision for either country to

unilaterally walk out of the pact.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The treaty gives control over the waters of the
Chenab, Jhelum, Indus to Pakistan and Ravi, Beas, Sutej to India.

Question Type: fact

Difficulty of Question: moderate
Expected time to solve(in seconds): 60
Concept: institutions, posts and bodies
Sub Concept:
Concept field :

Q5 With reference to Airport Authority of India (AAI), consider the following

statements:
1. AAI is responsible for the development and maintenance of international
and domestic airports in India.
2. It is responsible for the enforcement of civil air regulations and air safety
standards.
3. It determines the tariff for the air transport services in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Airports Authority of India (AAI) was constituted by an
Act of Parliament and came into being on 1st April 1995 by merging erstwhile
National Airports Authority and International Airports Authority of India. The
functions of AAI are as follows: ● Design, Development, Operation and
Maintenance of international and domestic airports and civil enclaves. ●
Control and Management of the Indian airspace extending beyond the
territorial limits of the country, as accepted by ICAO. ● Construction,
Modification and Management of passenger terminals. ● Development and
Management of cargo terminals at international and domestic airports. ●
Provision of passenger facilities and information system at the passenger
terminals at airports. ● Expansion and strengthening of operation area, viz.
Runways, Aprons, Taxiway etc. ● Provision of visual aids.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) is the

regulatory body in the field of Civil Aviation primarily dealing with safety
issues. It is responsible for the regulation of air transport services
to/from/within India and for enforcement of civil air regulations, air safety and
airworthiness standards. It also coordinates all regulatory functions with the
International Civil Aviation Organisation.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Airports Economic Regulatory Authority (AERA) is a
statutory body constituted under the Airports Economic Regulatory Authority
of India Act, 2008. One of the statutory functions of the AERA is : To determine
the tariff for the aeronautical services taking into consideration: ● The capital
expenditure incurred and timely investment in the improvement of airport
facilities. ● The service provided, its quality and other relevant factors. ● The
cost for improving efficiency. ● Economic and viable operation of major
airports. ● Revenue received from services other than the aeronautical
services. ● The concession offered by the Central Government in any
agreement or memorandum of understanding or otherwise. ● Any other factor
which may be relevant for the purposes of this Act.

Question Type: Concept

Difficulty of Question: moderate
Expected time to solve(in seconds): 60
Concept: General Science
Sub Concept: Physics
Concept field :

Q6 Raman effect refers to:

a) splitting of a spectrum line into several components by the application of
an electric field.
b) change in the wavelength of light that occurs when a light beam is
deflected by molecules.
c) scattering of Gamma rays by heavy elements.
d) light scattering by particles in a colloid.

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Raman effect refers to change in the wavelength of light that occurs when a
light beam is deflected by molecules. When a beam of light traverses a dust-
free, transparent sample of a chemical compound, a small fraction of the light
emerges in directions other than that of the incident (incoming) beam.

Most of this scattered light is of unchanged wavelength. A small part, however,

has wavelengths different from that of the incident light; its presence is a
result of the Raman effect. The phenomenon is named after Indian physicist Sir
Chandrasekhara Venkata Raman, who first published observations of the effect
in 1928. Raman spectroscopy, an increasingly popular technique used in many
areas including biology and medicine is based on Raman scattering.

Question Type: Concept

Difficulty of Question: moderate
Expected time to solve(in seconds): 60
Concept: Foreign Trade and Investment
Sub Concept: Trade Policy
Concept field :

Q7 Which of the following are non-tariff barriers?

1. Import licenses
2. Phytosanitary measures
3. Export duties
4. Quota restrictions
5. Rules of origin

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
b) 2, 3 and 5 only
c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
d) 1 and 3 only

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation:
A non-tariff barrier is a form of non-tax restrictions trade where barriers to
trade are set up and take a form other than a tariff. It includes quotas,
embargoes, sanctions, levies and other restrictions and is frequently used by
large and developed economies.
Non-tariff barriers include Import bans; General or product-specific quotas;
Complex/discriminatory Rules of Origin; Unjustified Sanitary and Phytosanitary
conditions, Unreasonable/unjustified packaging, labelling, product standards;
Complex regulatory environment; Additional trade documents like Certificate
of Origin, Certificate of Authenticity etc.; Occupational safety and health
regulation; Import licenses; State subsidies; Export subsidies; Fixation of a
minimum import price among others.
Question Type: fact
Difficulty of Question: moderate
Expected time to solve(in seconds): 60
Concept: Constitutional & Judicial Develo.
Sub Concept: Development of Education
Concept field :

Q8 In the context of the modern history of India, Sargent Plan was related to:
a) famine policy
b) education policy
c) civil services reforms
d) judicial reforms

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation:
After the end of the Second World War, the Central Advisory Board of
Education (CABE) in India published a comprehensive report on the "Post-War
Educational Development in India" in the country. This was the first systematic
and national level attempt to review the problems of education as a whole. It is
also known as Sargent Plan after John Sargent, the then Educational Advisor to
the Government of India.

Question Type: fact

Difficulty of Question: moderate
Expected time to solve(in seconds): 60
Concept: Environment Conservation
Sub Concept: Acts and Policies
Concept field :

Q9 With reference to the 'Perform Achieve and Trade' (PAT) scheme, consider
the following statements:
1. It aims to improve energy efficiency in industries by trading in 'energy
efficiency certificates'.
 2. The scheme imposes mandatory specific energy consumption targets on
the covered facilities.
3. It is implemented by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (d)

Explanation:
The Perform Achieve Trade (PAT) is an innovative, market-based trading
scheme announced by the Indian Government in 2008 under its National
Mission on Enhanced Energy Efficiency (NMEEE) in National Action Plan on
Climate Change (NAPCC).

Statement 1 is correct: It aims to improve energy efficiency in industries by

trading in energy efficiency certificates in energy-intensive sectors. The scheme
provides the option to trade any additional certified energy savings with other
designated consumers to comply with the Specific Energy Consumption
reduction targets.

Statement 2 is correct: The scheme imposes mandatory specific energy

consumption targets on the covered facilities with less energy efficient
facilities having a greater reduction target than the more energy efficient ones.
Participation in the scheme is mandatory for certain designated consumers
under the ECA. The PAT scheme establishes plant-specific targets rather than a
sectoral target.
● Mandatory energy-intensive facilities are set by BEE.
● The PAT Scheme is being implemented in three phases. The first phase
ran from 2012-2015 covering 478 facilities from eight energy-intensive
sectors, namely aluminium, cement, chor-alkali, fertilizer, iron and steel,
pulp and paper, textiles and thermal power plants.

Statement 3 is correct: The scheme is being designed and implemented by the

Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE), under the Ministry of Power of India.
The 2010 amendment to the Energy Conservation Act (ECA) provides a legal
mandate to PAT.
Question Type: fact
Difficulty of Question: moderate
Expected time to solve(in seconds): 60
Concept: Science and Technology in India
Sub Concept:
Concept field :

Q10 Selective Catalytic Reduction (SCR) Technology can help automobile

industry in adhering to norms under BS-VI. How can the SCR Technology be
beneficial?
a) It converts Carbon Monoxide into Carbon Dioxide.
b) It converts SOX into Sulphur and water vapour.
c) It converts NOX into Nitrogen and water vapour.
d) It dissolves Particulate Matter into a reagent.

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation:
In SCR technology, a nitrogen-based reagent, which contains ammonia or urea,
is mixed with the outgoing waste gas mixture. It converts NOX molecule into
molecular Nitrogen and water vapour.

Question Type: fact

Difficulty of Question: moderate
Expected time to solve(in seconds): 60
Concept: International organizations
Sub Concept:
Concept field :

Q11 Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding International

Seabed Authority (ISA)?
1. It is an organization which controls all mineral-related activities in the
international seabed area.
2. All parties to United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)
are members to ISA.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation:
The International Seabed Authority (ISA) is comprised of 167 Member States,
and the European Union. All Parties to the 1982 United Nations Convention on
the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) are members of ISA. ISA is mandated as the
organization through which Parties to UNCLOS shall organize and control all
mineral-related activities in the international seabed area, known also as “the
Area.”

Question Type: fact

Difficulty of Question: moderate
Expected time to solve(in seconds): 60
Concept: international organizations
Sub Concept:
Concept field :

Q12 Consider the following statements regarding Treaty on the Non-

Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT):
1. The treaty was initiated as a response to the Indian nuclear tests at
Pokhran (1974).
2. It represents the only binding commitment in a multilateral treaty to the
goal of disarmament by the nuclear-weapon States.
3. It establishes a safeguards system under the responsibility of the
International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct: The Treaty on the Non-
Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT) is an international treaty whose
objective is to prevent the spread of nuclear weapons and weapons
technology, to promote cooperation in the peaceful uses of nuclear energy and
to further the goal of achieving nuclear disarmament and general and
complete disarmament. The Treaty represents the only binding commitment in
a multilateral treaty to the goal of disarmament by the nuclear-weapon States.
Opened for signature in 1968, the Treaty entered into force in 1970. On 11
May 1995, the Treaty was extended indefinitely. A total of 191 States have
joined the Treaty, including the five nuclear-weapon States.

Statement 3 is correct: The Treaty establishes a safeguards system under the

responsibility of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA). Safeguards are
used to verify compliance with the Treaty through inspections conducted by
the IAEA. The Treaty promotes cooperation in the field of peaceful nuclear
technology and equal access to this technology for all States parties, while
safeguards prevent the diversion of fissile material for weapons use.

Question Type: fact

Difficulty of Question: moderate
Expected time to solve(in seconds): 60
Concept: World geography through maps
Sub Concept: Asia through maps
Concept field :

Q13 Arrange the following cities in order of north to south :

1. Jerusalem
2. Beirut
3. Tbilisi
4. Jeddah

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 3-1-2-4
(b) 2-3-4-1
(c) 1-3-4-2
(d) 3-2-1-4

Correct Answer: (d)

Question Type: fact

Difficulty of Question: moderate
Expected time to solve(in seconds): 60
Concept: Socio-economic Development (polity)
Sub Concept:
Concept field :

Q14 Which of the following is/are correct with reference to the Mid-Day Meal
Scheme?
1. It covers school-going children studying in Classes I to VIII.
2. It envisages a certain calorie and protein requirement to be served to
children.
3. The cooking cost is sponsored entirely by the centre for all states and
UTs.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Objective of the scheme is to enhance the enrolment,

retention and attendance and simultaneously improve nutritional levels among
school-going children studying in Classes I to VIII of Government, Government -
aided schools, Special Training centres (STC) and Madarasas and Maktabs
supported under the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan.

Statement 2 is correct: The scheme guidelines envisage to provide cooked mid-

day meal with 450 calories and 12 g of protein to every child at primary level
and 700 calories and 20 g of protein at upper primary level.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The cooking cost is shared between the centre and
the states in the ratio 60:40 for non-NER states and UTs with the legislature,
100 per cent for remaining UTs and 90:10 for NER states and 3 Himalayan
states viz., Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir and Uttarakhand.

Question Type: Concept

Difficulty of Question: moderate
Expected time to solve(in seconds): 60
Concept: The Earth & The Universe
Sub Concept:
Concept field :

Q15 Which of the followings statements is/are correct regarding the term
‘Tidal Locking’?
1. The earth and the moon witness the phenomenon of Tidal Locking.
2. Tidal locking causes the coasts to observe only a single ebb and flow in a
day as compared to the normal twice day phenomenon.
3. It occurs only when a lunar eclipse is in formation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct - Tidal locking is the name given to the situation when
an object’s orbital period matches its rotational period. A great example of this
is our own Moon. The moon takes 28 days to go around the Earth and 28 days
to rotate once around its axis. This results in the same face of the Moon always
facing the Earth.

Statement 2 and 3 are incorrect – Tidal locking is also called gravitational

locking or captured rotation. It is the normal phenomenon of earth and moon
and has no such effect on tides.

Question Type: fact

Difficulty of Question: moderate
Expected time to solve(in seconds): 60
Concept: Government Schemes
Sub Concept:
Concept field :

Q16 Consider the following statements with reference to Pradhan Mantri

Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY):
1. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Woman and Child Development.
2. A woman can enlist either under Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana
(PMMVY) or Janani Suraksha Yojana and would be entitled to funds from
either one of these schemes.
3. This Scheme is available to only BPL cardholders, SC/STs and single
mothers.
4. This scheme is available to only the first living child of the family.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1, 2 and 4 only
 b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) All of the above

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct – It is an initiative of Ministry of Women and Child
Development. One should note that the Janani Suraksha Yojana is under
Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Statement 2 is incorrect - PMMVY would be implemented in all districts of the

country from 01.01.2017 under which the eligible beneficiaries get Rs. 5,000/- .
The remaining cash incentive as per approved norms towards Maternity
Benefit under Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) after institutional delivery so that
on an average, a woman gets Rs. 6000/-. Although facts cannot be mugged up
but a fundamental idea of the scheme and its reasons should be known.
PMMVY provides partial wage compensation to women for wage-loss during
childbirth and childcare and to provide conditions for safe delivery and good
nutrition and feeding practices.

Statement 3 is incorrect - The maternity benefits under Pradhan Mantri Matru

Vandana Yojana (PMMVY) are available to all Pregnant Women & Lactating
Mothers (PW&LM) except those in regular employment with the Central
Government or State Government or Public Sector Undertaking or those who
are in receipt of similar benefits under any law for the time being in force.

Statement 4 is correct - Providing partial compensation for the wage loss in

terms of cash incentives so that the woman can take adequate rest before and
after delivery of the first living child is an objective of the scheme.

Question Type: fact

Difficulty of Question: moderate
Expected time to solve(in seconds): 60
Concept: International organizations
Sub Concept:
Concept field :
Q17 With reference to World Customs Organization (WCO), consider the
following statements:
1. It is an intergovernmental organization established under United
Nations.
2. Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) of is the nodal body from India in
WCO.
3. It primarily deals with rules governing custom administrations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) All of the above

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect and 3 is correct: World Customs Organization (WCO)
was established in 1952 as the Customs Co-operation Council (CCC) with
headquartered in Brussels, Belgium. It is an independent intergovernmental
body whose mission is to enhance the effectiveness and efficiency of Customs
administrations. The organisation has divided its membership into six regions.
Each of the regions is represented by an elected vice-chairperson to the WCO
council. The WCO represents 182 customs administrations across the globe
that collectively process approximately 98 percent of world trade.

Statement 2 is incorrect: India is represented in World Customs Organisation

(WCO) by its Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC), which is also
the nodal agency of India in WCO council.

Question Type: Concept

Difficulty of Question: moderate
Expected time to solve(in seconds): 60
Concept: Nationalist Movement (1905-1918)
Sub Concept: The Swadeshi and Boycott Movement
Concept field :
Q18 With reference to Swadeshi and Boycott movement, consider the
following statements:
1. Indian National Congress adopted the resolution of supporting Swadeshi
and Boycott movement at its Calcutta Session (1906).
2. It led to decline in the import of foreign goods.
3. Movement came to an end with the unification of Bengal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation:

statement 1 is correct: it was 1906 session at Calcutta in which four resolutions

on self-government, boycott movement, Swadeshi and national education
were passed by the Congress, the Extremists gave a call for passive resistance
in addition to swadeshi and boycott which would include a boycott of
government schools and colleges, government service, courts, legislative
councils, municipalities, government titles, etc.

statement 2 is correct: Steps included the boycott of British goods like

Liverpool salt, Manchester cloth etc. The protest against British goods led to
the dropping of British textile five to fifteen times, refusal by priests to ritualize
marriages involving the exchange of foreign goods, refusal by washermen to
wash foreign clothes. This form of protest met with great success at the
practical and popular level.

statement 3 is not correct: Swadeshi movement fizzled out by 1908. It was

decided to annul the partition of Bengal in 1911 mainly to curb the menace of
revolutionary terrorism.

Question Type: Concept

Difficulty of Question: moderate
Expected time to solve(in seconds): 60
Concept: institutions, posts and bodies
Sub Concept: Constitutional Bodies
Concept field :

Q19 Which of the following statements is correct with respect to Comptroller

and Auditor General of India (CAG)?
a) CAG is an officer of the Parliament.
b) The Constitution authorises the President to prescribe the duties and
powers of the CAG.
c) CAG can be removed by the President only in accordance with the
procedure mentioned in the Constitution.
d) CAG lays the audit report of the Central Government before the
Parliament.

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation:
CAG has been created as an independent constitutional authority under the
Constitution. He/She is, therefore, neither an officer of Parliament, unlike his
US and UK counterparts nor is he an executive authority. Hence option A is not
correct.

The Constitution (Article 149) authorizes the Parliament to prescribe the duties
and powers of the CAG in relation to the accounts of the Union and of the
states and of any other authority or body. Hence option B is not correct.

He is provided with the security of tenure. He can be removed by the President

only in accordance with the procedure mentioned in the Constitution. Thus, he
does not hold his office till the pleasure of the President, though he is
appointed by him. Hence option C is correct.

He/She submits his audit reports relating to the accounts of the Centre to the
President, who shall, in turn, place them before both the Houses of Parliament.
Hence option D is not correct.

Question Type: fact

Difficulty of Question: moderate
Expected time to solve(in seconds): 60
Concept: Freedom & Partition (1939-1947)
Sub Concept:
Concept field :

Q20 Consider the following pairs of places of parallel governments and their
leaders during the Quit India movement:

Places Leaders
1. Tamluk Y. B. Chavan
2. Satara Satis Samant
3. Balia Chittu Pandey

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation:
Tamluk – Satish Samant
Satara – Y.B. Chavan
Balia – Chittu Pandey