T-20, July 31, 2020

Question Type: fact

Difficulty of Question: moderate
Expected time to solve(in seconds): 60
Concept: Socio-economic development
Sub Concept: education
Concept field :

Q1 Consider the following statements:

1. Currently, India spends less than 1 percent of its GDP on education.
2. Gross Enrolment Ratio in higher education in India is less than 20
percent.
3. India spends less than 1 percent of its GDP on research and
development.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: India spent 3% of its total GDP on education in 2018-
19.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Gross Enrolment Ratio in higher education in India
is less than 26.3 percent.
Statement 3 is correct: Gross Expenditure on Research and Development
(GERD) as a percentage share of the Indian GDP hovers around 0.7 per cent.

Question Type: Concept

Difficulty of Question: moderate
Expected time to solve(in seconds): 60
Concept: Land Resources and Agriculture
Sub Concept:
Concept field :
Q2 With reference to Khazan farming, consider the following statements:
1. It is an estuarine agricultural system practised in Goa
2. It protects agricultural fields from salinity intrusion.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation:
Khazans are coastal wetlands of Goa. They were reclaimed from mangrove
forests, by an intricate system of dykes, sluice gates and canals and put to
multiple productive uses such as agriculture, aquaculture and salt panning.
Traditional Khazan technology protects agricultural fields and villages from
salinity intrusion, inundation and floods. Khazan dykes are built of mud from
fields. Outer walls or protective dykes are very thick to sustain pressure of
riverine water flow. A trench (chanoy) is made in between the two walls of
the protective dyke and is filled with clay from the fields, which serves as a
cementing substance.

Question Type: Concpet

Difficulty of Question: moderate
Expected time to solve(in seconds): 60
Concept: Executive
Sub Concept: State Executive
Concept field :

Q3 In which of the following matters, Governor can reserve the bill passed
by the state legislature for the President?
1. If the bill passed by the state legislature is of grave national importance
2. If the bill is direct opposition to the Directive Principles of State Policy
3. If the bill endangers the position of the state high court.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 only
 c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (d)

Explanation:
The Governor in one case is such reservation is obligatory, where the bill
passed by the state legislation endangers the position of the state high
court. In addition, the governor can also reserve the bill if it is the following
nature: Under Article 200, the Governor can reserve a bill passed by the
legislature for reconsideration of the President
● If the bill is unconstitutional, o if it is the big interest of the country,
● if it is direct opposition to the Directive Principles of State Policy,
● If the bill passed by the state legislature is of grave national
importance,
● if the bill deals with the compulsory acquisition of property under
Article 31 (3)

Question Type: fact

Difficulty of Question: moderate
Expected time to solve(in seconds): 60
Concept: Indian Paintings
Sub Concept: Classification of Indian Paintings
Concept field :

Q4 The Tanjore paintings are associated with the

a) Nayaka dynasty
b) Kadamba dynasty
c) Kalabhra dynasty
d) Eastern Ganga dynasty

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation:
Tanjore paintings date back to the 17th century when Tanjore was under the
Nayaka dynasty.

Question Type: fact

Difficulty of Question: moderate
Expected time to solve(in seconds): 60
Concept: National Income
Sub Concept: Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF)
Concept field :

Q5 With reference to 'Gross Fixed Capital Formation', consider the following

statements:
1. It refers to the Gross increase in physical assets without accounting for
disposals of fixed assets.
2. It is a component of the expenditure approach to calculating GDP.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation:
statement 1 is incorrect: Gross fixed capital formation (GFCF) refers to the
net increase in physical assets (investment minus disposals) within the
measurement period. It does not account for the consumption
(depreciation) of fixed capital, and also does not include land purchases.
Gross fixed capital formation measures the net increase in fixed capital.

statement 2 is correct: It is a component of the expenditure approach to

calculating GDP. GDP, as defined by the expenditure method, consider the
end-use of incomes generated on expenditure and investments. GDP, as
measured through the expenditure method, is the sum of :
● Private Final Consumption Expenditure (PFCE)
● Government Final Consumption Expenditure (GFCE)
● Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF), Change in stocks or inventories,
Valuables and the Net Exports (NX).

Question Type: fact

Difficulty of Question: moderate
Expected time to solve(in seconds): 60
Concept: Socio-Economic Development
Sub Concept: Health
Concept field :
Q6 Consider the following statements with reference to the Pradhan Mantri
Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY):
1. Under it, the government provides a health insurance cover to up to
five members in a family.
2. A beneficiary covered under the scheme can take cashless benefits
from any public/private empanelled hospitals across the country.
3. More than 10 crore families are covered under it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation:

Benefits of PM-JAY:
statement 1 is not correct: All families listed in the SECC database as per
defined criteria will be covered. No cap on family size and age of members.

statement 2 is correct: Free treatment available at all public and empanelled

private hospitals in times of need.

statement 3 is correct: More than 10.74 crore poor and vulnerable families
(approximately 50 crore beneficiaries) covered across the country.

Question Type: fact

Difficulty of Question: moderate
Expected time to solve(in seconds): 60
Concept: Environment Conservation
Sub Concept: Protected Area network
Concept field :

Q7 Nalabana Bird Sanctuary is located in

 a) Odisha
b) West Bengal
c) Tamil Nadu
d) Gujarat

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation:
Nalabana Bird Sanctuary or Nalabana Island is the core area of the Ramsar
designated wetlands of Chilika Lake. It was declared a bird sanctuary under
the Wildlife Protection Act in 1972.

Question Type: fact

Difficulty of Question: moderate
Expected time to solve(in seconds): 60
Concept: Current Affairs
Sub Concept:
Concept field :

Q8 Consider the following statements about the 'State Energy Efficiency

Index, 2019' :
1. It is developed by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) in association
with Alliance for an Energy-Efficient Economy (AEEE).
2. Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram are the top-performing states
according to the index.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The index is developed by Bureau of Energy
Efficiency (BEE) in association with Alliance for an Energy-Efficient Economy
(AEEE). It will help states contribute towards national goals on energy
security and climate action by helping drive EE policies and program
implementation at the state and local level, tracking progress in managing
the states’ and India’s energy footprint and institutionalising the data
capture and monitoring of EE activities by states.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Haryana, Kerala and Karnataka are the top-

performing states according to the index.

Question Type: fact

Difficulty of Question: moderate
Expected time to solve(in seconds): 60
Concept: Constitutional & Judicial Develo.
Sub Concept:
Concept field :
Q9 The Lex Loci Act of 1850 was related to
a) the abolition of the practice of female infanticide
b) the right of a religious convert to inherit ancestral property
c) the abolition of the practice of 'sati'
d) the right of widows to remarry

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation:
In 1850, the British passed the Caste Disabilities Removal Act. It is generally
known as the Lex Loci Act. This Caste Disabilities Removal Act extended the
principle of Section 9 of Regulation VII of 1832 of the Bengal Code to
embrace the whole of India: protecting the right of a convert to inherit
ancestral property. By this enactment, it was declared that renunciation of
or exclusion from religion or caste will not affect rights of property or
inheritance.

Question Type: fact

Difficulty of Question: moderate
Expected time to solve(in seconds): 60
Concept: International Organisations
Sub Concept:
Concept field :

Q10 ‘Global Risks Report’ is published by

a) World Economic Forum
b) Economist Intelligence Unit
c) World Bank
d) Germanwatch

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation:
Global Risks Report is an annual study published by the World Economic
Forum. Based on the work of the Global Risk Network, the report describes
changes occurring in the global risks landscape from year to year. The report
also explores the interconnectedness of risks and considers how the
strategies for the mitigation of global risks might be structured.

Question Type: Concept

Difficulty of Question: moderate
Expected time to solve(in seconds): 60
Concept: stock market
Sub Concept: equity
Concept field :

Q11 The term "Sweat Equity" sometimes mentioned in the news refers to:
a) Form of capital used by businesses to fund themselves by
compensating their employees with stock rather than cash
b) New Performance-based Evaluation framework designed by the
Central Government to incentivise employees to work harder
c) The equities in the labour-intensive industries
d) None of the above

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation:
Sweat equity refers to the effort and toil a company‘s owners and
employees contribute to a project or enterprise—and the value it creates. In
cash-strapped startups, owners and employees typically accept salaries that
are below their market values in return for a stake in the company, which
they hope to profit from when the business is eventually sold.

Question Type: fact

Difficulty of Question: moderate
Expected time to solve(in seconds): 60
Concept: Era of Mass Nationalism (1917-39)
Sub Concept: Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (April 13, 1919)
Concept field :

Q12 With reference to the Jallianwala Bagh massacre, consider the following
statements:
1. Lord Chelmsford was the Viceroy during this massacre.
2. Hunter Committee was set up to investigate the massacre.
3. Gandhiji returned the Kaiser-i-Hind title in protest against the
Jallianwala Bagh massacre
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (d)

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Chelmsford was Viceroy from 4 April 1916 – 2 April
1921
Statement 2 is correct: British Government established a committee headed
by Lord Hunter. This committee had 7 members, four British and three
Indians.
Statement 3 is correct: Gandhiji was awarded the Kaisar-i-Hind in 1915 for his
work during the Boer war. He returned the title in 1920 as part of the
national campaign protesting the Jallianwala Bagh massacre.

Question Type: fact

Difficulty of Question: moderate
Expected time to solve(in seconds): 60
Concept: India and Its Location
Sub Concept: India as a Geographical Unit
Concept field :

Q13 Through which of the following Indian states, Tropic of Cancer does not
pass ?
a) Rajasthan
b) Jharkhand
c) Mizoram
d) Manipur

Correct Answer: (d)

Explanation:
Tropic of Cancer passes through eight states in India: Gujarat, Rajasthan,
Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura and
Mizoram.
Question Type: fact
Difficulty of Question: moderate
Expected time to solve(in seconds): 60
Concept: Development & Extremism
Sub Concept:
Concept field :

Q14 Consider the following statements with respect to the Armed Forces
(Special Powers) Act, 1958:
1. Under the provisions of the Act, only the Union Government can
declare an area as disturbed area.
2. Prior permission of the Central government is required for
prosecution of an authorized officer.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct: Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act was enacted
in 1958 to bring under control what the government of India considered
‘disturbed’ areas. A disturbed area is one which is declared by notification
under Section 3 of the AFSPA. An area can be disturbed due to differences
or disputes between members of different religious, racial, language or
regional groups or castes or communities.

The Central Government or the Governor of the State or administrator of

the Union Territory can declare the whole or part of the State or Union
Territory as a disturbed area.

Statement 2 is correct: Under Section 4 of the AFSPA, an authorized officer

in a disturbed area enjoys certain powers. Prosecution of an authorized
officer requires prior permission of the Central government.
Question Type: fact
Difficulty of Question: moderate
Expected time to solve(in seconds): 60
Concept: Indian Constitution
Sub Concept: Devolution of Power and Finances
Concept field :

Q15 Consider the following statements regarding Inter-State Council:

1. It is a permanent body aimed at resolution of inter-state disputes.
2. It is headed by the Union Home Minister.
3. The Council provides no representation to Union territories.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
d) None

Correct Answer: (d)

Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Inter-State Council is not a permanent body.
According to Article 263, if at any time it appears to the President that the
public interests would be served by the establishment of a Council charged
with the duty of inquiring into and advising upon disputes which may have
arisen between States.

Statement 2 is incorrect: It is chaired by the Prime Minister.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Council consists of Prime Minister as Chairman,

Chief Ministers of all States, Chief Ministers of Union Territories having a
Legislative Assembly and Administrators of UTs not having a Legislative
Assembly.

Question Type: fact

Difficulty of Question: moderate
Expected time to solve(in seconds): 60
Concept: Resources
Sub Concept: Water Resources
Concept field :

Q16 Implementation of projects related to Interlinking of River is done by

a) Inland Waterways Authority of India
b) National Water Development Agency
c) Central Water Commission
d) National River Conservation Directorate

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation:
National Water Development Agency (NWDA) was established in 1982 as a
registered society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860. The functions
of NWDA
● Implementation of Interlinking of River projects
● Completion of water resources projects under Pradhan Mantri Krishi
Sinchai Yojana (PMKSY)

The Central government is working on the establishment of an exclusive

body to implement projects for linking rivers. To be called the National
Interlinking of Rivers Authority (NIRA), the proposed body is expected to
take up both inter-State and intra-State projects. It will also make
arrangements for generating up funds, internally and externally.

Question Type: fact

Difficulty of Question: moderate
Expected time to solve(in seconds): 60
Concept: Environment Conservation
Sub Concept: International Environment Conservation
Concept field :

Q17 Which of the following is/are correct with reference to the Cartagena
Biosafety Protocol (CPB)?
 1. It was negotiated under the aegis of the Convention on Biological
Diversity (CBD).
2. It aims to ensure safe transfer and use of living modified organisms
resulting from modern biotechnology.
3. India is a party to the protocol.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (d)

Explanation:
The Cartagena Biosafety Protocol (CBP) was negotiated under the aegis of
the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) and adopted in 2000.
India is a party to the Protocol.
The main objective of the Protocol is to ensure safe transfer, handling and
use of living modified organisms (LMOs) resulting from modern
biotechnology that may have adverse effect on the conservation and
sustainable use of biological diversity, taking into account risk to human
health.

Question Type: fact

Difficulty of Question: moderate
Expected time to solve(in seconds): 60
Concept: Resources
Sub Concept: Water Resources
Concept field :

Q18 With reference to the Central Ground Water Board (CGWB), consider
the following statements:
1. It is an office attached to the Ministry of Environment, Forest and
Climate Change.
2. Its mandate is to develop and disseminate technologies for
sustainable development and management of India's ground water
resources.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation:
Central Ground Water Board (CGWB), is a multi-disciplinary scientific
organization of the Ministry of Jal Shakti. It is the national apex agency
entrusted with the responsibilities of providing scientific inputs for
management, exploration, monitoring, assessment, augmentation and
regulation of ground water resources of the country.
Its mandate is to - Develop and disseminate technologies and monitor and
implement national policies for the scientific and sustainable development
and management of India's ground water resources.

Question Type: fact

Difficulty of Question: moderate
Expected time to solve(in seconds): 60
Concept: International Trade
Sub Concept: Sea Ports as Gateways of International Trade
Concept field :

Q19 With reference to major ports of India, consider the following

statements:
1. All the coastal states of India have a major port.
2. Tamil Nadu has the maximum number of major ports in India.
3. Jawaharlal Nehru Port is the largest container port in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: All the coastal states of India have a major port.
Kandla Port (Gujarat), Mumbai Port and Jawaharlal Nehru Port
(Maharashtra), Marmagao Port (Goa), New Mangalore Port (Karnataka),
Kochi Port (Kerala)
Kolkata Port and Haldia Port (West Bengal), Paradip Port (Odisha),
Visakhapatnam Port (Andhra Pradesh), Chennai Port, Ennore and Tuticorin
Port (Tamil Nadu)

Statement 2 is correct: Tamil Nadu has highest number of major ports (3) in
India.

Statement 3 is correct: Jawaharlal Nehru port is the largest container port in

India and is also known by Nhava Sheva.

Question Type: fact

Difficulty of Question: moderate
Expected time to solve(in seconds): 60
Concept: Industrial Regions of India
Sub Concept: Silk Industry
Concept field :

Q20 Tasar, Eri, Muga are related to which of the following ?

a) Fungi resistant varities of wheat
b) High yield rice varieties
c) Commercial silks native to India
d) Drought resistant pulses

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation:
Four types of commercial silks native to India - Mulberry, Tasar, Eri and
Muga.