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1. World Air Quality Report 2019 is released by which among the
following?

1. TERI
2. Greenpeace International
3. IQAir
4. World Economic Forum

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 4 only

Ans: (b) 2 and 3 only

Learning Zone: World Air Quality Report 2019 was released by the pollution
tracker IQAir and Greenpeace. The ranking is based on a comparison of PM 2.5
levels. Bangladesh emerged as the most polluted country for PM 2.5. Pakistan,
Mongolia, Afghanistan and India followed behind respectively.

Why is this question important? Twenty-one of the world’s 30 cities with the
worst air pollution is in India. Six cities from India are in the top ten. Ghaziabad, an
area close to New Delhi in northern Uttar Pradesh state, is ranked as the world’s
most polluted city, with an average PM 2.5 concentration measurement of 110.2 in
2019.

2. With reference to Rakhigarhi in Haryana, recently seen in the news,


consider the following statements

1. It is a 5,000-year-old site that showcases continuity from the Harappan age


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to the present times.


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2. The site is located in the Sarasvati river plain.


Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c) Both 1 and 2

Learning Zone: Rakhigarhi, in Haryana, became an archaeological hotspot when


Amarendra Nath, former director of the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI),
undertook excavations at the site in 1997.

The ASI team unearthed a fire altar, parts of a city wall, drainage structures as well
as a hoard of semi-precious beads.

Villagers subsequently began to see the significance of the terracotta shards that
littered Rakhigarhi.

It is a 5,000-year-old site that showcases continuity from the Harappan age to the
present times. The village also has Havelis that are a couple of hundred years old.
The site is located in the Sarasvati river plain, some 27 km from the seasonal
Ghaggar river.

In May 2012, the Global Heritage Fund declared Rakhigarhi one of the 10 most
endangered heritage sites in Asia.

Why is this question important? The centre is moving ahead with its plan to
develop Rakhigarhi as a tourist hub and set up a museum.

As part of encroachment removal at the Rakhigarhi heritage site, 152 households are
being shifted to flats.

3. In the context of Surrogacy (Regulation) Bill, 2020 who among the


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following can be a surrogate mother?


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(a) Any willing Person
(b) A close relative of a couple
(c) From the list of willing people formed by local bodies
(d) None of the above

Ans: (a) Any willing Person

Learning Zone: It allows any “willing” woman to be a surrogate mother and


proposes that widows and divorced women can also benefit from its provisions,
besides infertile Indian couples.

The bill also proposes to regulate surrogacy by establishing National Surrogacy


Board at the central level and, State Surrogacy Board and appropriate authorities in
states and Union Territories respectively.

The proposed insurance cover for surrogate mother has now been increased to 36
months from 16 months provided in the earlier version. Commercial surrogacy will
be prohibited including the sale and purchase of human embryo and gametes.

Why is this question important? Union Cabinet has approved the Surrogacy
(Regulation) Bill, 2020.

The amended bill is reformed version of the draft legislation which was passed by
Lok Sabha in August 2019 but its provisions, including that only a close relative of a
couple can be a surrogate mother, had invited criticism.

4. Ease 3.0, recently seen in the news is related with which among the
following?

(a) tech-enabled banking


(b) Ease of doing business-enhancement initiative
(c) Highway Navigation
(d) Stalled infrastructure projects in India

Ans: (a) tech-enabled banking


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Learning Zone: Ease (Enhanced Access and Service Excellence) 3.0 reform agenda
aims at providing smart, tech-enabled public sector banking for aspiring India.

New features that customers of public sector banks may experience under EASE 3.0
reforms agenda include facilities like:

Palm Banking for “End-to-end digital delivery of financial service”.


“Banking on Go” via EASE banking outlets at frequently visited spots like malls,
stations, complexes, and campuses.

Why is this question important? Recently Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman


launched Ease 3.0 for tech-enabled banking. This move is expected to change the
customer’s experience at the Public Sector Banks (PSBs).

5. Which among the following is/are technical textiles?

1. Bulletproof vests
2. Medical textiles
3. Agrotextiles for crop protection
4. Spacesuits
5. molten metal protection for welders

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only


(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Ans: (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Learning Zone: A technical textile is a textile product manufactured for non-


aesthetic purposes, where the function is the primary criterion. Technical textiles
include textiles for automotive applications, medical textiles (e.g., implants),
geotextiles (reinforcement of embankments), agro textiles (textiles for crop
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protection), and protective clothing (e.g., heat and radiation protection for firefighter
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clothing, molten metal protection for welders, stab protection and bulletproof vests,
and spacesuits).

Why is this question important? The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs


(CCEA) has approved the setting up of a National Technical Textiles Mission at an
total outlay of ₹1,480 Crore.

6. Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulation (BEFR) often seen in the news is


related to

(a) Partition of Bengal


(b) The inner line Permit system
(c) Enclaves exchange between India and Bangladesh
(d) Maoist defending initiative

Ans: (b) Inner Line Permit System

Learning Zone: The BEFR allows Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Mizoram and
Nagaland not to let non-resident Indians in without an inner-line permit for a
temporary stay.

Why is this question important? The Mizoram government has sought the
revision of the boundary with Assam, based on the Bengal Eastern Frontier
Regulation (BEFR), 1873 and the Inner Line of the Lushai Hills Notification of 1993.

7. ICoSDiTAUS-2020, recently seen in the news is related to:

(a) Science and Technology Exhibition


(b) Conference of AYUSH Ministry
(c) Defence exercise between India and China
(d) Joint Naval Conference of Indian Ocean Rim Nations

Ans: (b) Conference of Ayush Ministry

Learning Zone: It is an international conference on standardisation of Diagnosis


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and Terminologies in AYUSH held recently in Delhi.


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The Conference adopted the “New Delhi Declaration on Collection and Classification
of Traditional Medicine (TM) Diagnostic Data”.

The declaration emphasised the commitment of the countries to Traditional Medicine


as a significant area of health care. It further sought the opportunity for including
traditional systems of medicine like Ayurveda, Unani, and Siddha in the International
Classification of Diseases of WHO, which is the standard diagnostic tool for health
management across the world.

Why is this question important? ICoSDiTAUS-2020 is the biggest ever


international event dedicated to standardisation of Diagnosis and Terminologies of
Traditional Medicine in terms of the broad level of participation covering virtually all
the continents.

8. ‘Indradhanush’ is a joint military exercise between India and which


among the following?

(a) Mongolia
(b) Bangladesh
(c) United Kingdom
(d) Russia

Ans: (c) the United Kingdom

Learning Zone: Indradhanush is a joint military exercise between the air forces of
India and the United Kingdom.

The focus of this edition of the exercise, being held in India, is ‘Base Defence and
Force Protection’.

Why is this question important? The 5th edition of India-UK joint Air Force
Exercise ‘Indradhanush’ began at Air Force Station, Hindan (Ghaziabad, Uttar
Pradesh) on 24th February 2020.

9. With reference to RAISE 2020, recently seen in the news, consider the
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following statements?
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1. It is an initiative to find out technological solutions for poverty alleviation in
South Asia.
2. It is organized by UNICEF.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Learning Zone: It is a maiden summit on Artificial Intelligence to spearhead social


empowerment, inclusion and transformation.

This is India’s first Artificial Intelligence summit to be organized by the Government


in partnership with the industry and academia.

Why is this question important? The summit will be a global meeting of minds
to exchange ideas and charter a course to use AI for social empowerment, inclusion
and transformation in key areas like healthcare, agriculture, education and smart
mobility amongst other sectors.

10. With reference to Market Intelligence and Early Warning System


(MIEWS) Web Portal, consider the following statements

1. It is a platform for ‘real-time monitoring’ of the prices of all vegetables.


2. It is an initiative by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries.
3. The portal also offers an e-commerce facility of the vegetables to the people.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
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(c) 1 and 3 only


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(d) 2 and 3 only


Ans: (b) 2 only

Learning Zone: The MIEWS Dashboard and Portal is a ‘first-of-its-kind’ platform for
‘real-time monitoring’ of the prices of tomato, onion and potato (TOP). It is an
initiative by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries.

It also generates alerts for intervention under the terms of Operation Greens (OG)
scheme.

The portal would disseminate all relevant information related to TOP crops such as
prices and arrivals, area, yield and production, imports and exports, crop calendars,
crop agronomy, etc. in an easy to use visual format.

The MIEWS system is designed to provide advisories to farmers to avoid cyclical


production as well as an early warning in situations of gluts.

Why is this question important? It is a recent initiative by the government.

11. With reference to the Central Consumer Protection Authority, consider


the following statements

1. It will inquire or investigate into matters relating to violations of consumer


rights or unfair trade practices suo motu.
2. It will recall goods or withdrawal of services that are “dangerous, hazardous
or unsafe.
3. It can impose a penalty up to Rs 10 lakh, with imprisonment up to two years,
on the manufacturer or endorser of false and misleading advertisement.

Which of the above statements is/are correct

(a) 1 and 3 only


(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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Ans: (d) 1, 2 and 3


Learning Zone: Powers and Functions of Central Consumer Protection Authority

● Inquire or investigate into matters relating to violations of consumer rights or


unfair trade practices suo motu, or on a complaint received, or on a direction
from the central government.
● Recall goods or withdrawal of services that are “dangerous, hazardous or
unsafe.
● Pass an order for a refund of the prices of goods or services so recalled to
purchasers of such goods or services; discontinuation of practices which are
unfair and prejudicial to consumer’s interest”.
● Impose a penalty up to Rs 10 lakh, with imprisonment up to two years, on
the manufacturer or endorser of false and misleading advertisements. The
penalty may go up to Rs 50 lakh, with imprisonment up to five years, for
every subsequent offence committed by the same manufacturer or endorser.
● Ban the endorser of a false or misleading advertisement from making an
endorsement of any products or services in the future, for a period that may
extend to one year. The ban may extend up to three years in every
subsequent violation of the Act.
● File complaints of violation of consumer rights or unfair trade practices before
the District Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission, State Consumer
Disputes Redressal Commission, and the National Consumer Disputes
Redressal Commission.

Why is this question important? The government is all set to establish a Central
Consumer Protection Authority. The authority is being constituted under Section
10(1) of The Consumer Protection Act, 2019.

12. With reference to National Science Day 2020, consider the following
statements

1. It is celebrated to commemorate the discovery of the ‘Raman Effect’.


2. The theme for National Science Day 2020 is “Women in Science”.

Which of the above statements is /are correct?


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(a) 1 only
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(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c) Both 1 and 2

Learning Zone: 28th February is celebrated as National Science Day (NSD) in


India. NSD is celebrated to commemorate the discovery of the ‘Raman Effect’, which
led to Sir C.V. Raman winning the Nobel Prize.

The first National Science Day was celebrated on February 28, 1987.

Why is this question important? This year, the theme for National Science Day
2020 is “Women in Science”, which aims to appreciate the contribution of women in
the field of science.

13. 1000 springs initiative often seen in the news, is related to:

(a) Horticulture promotion


(b) Counter-terrorism initiative
(c) Protection of National Parks
(d) GIS-based Atlas

Ans: (d) GIS-Based Atlas

Learning Zone: It is an online portal on GIS-based Spring Atlas with the


hydrological and chemical properties of the springs mentioned.

It aims To improve access to safe and adequate water for the tribal communities
living in a difficult and inaccessible part of rural areas in the country. It is an
integrated solution around natural springs.

Why is this question important? It is a recently launched Initiative.

14. With reference to Farmers Producer Organisation (FPO), Consider the


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following statements
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1. It is an entity formed by primary producers which include farmers, milk
producers, fishermen, weavers, rural artisans, and craftsmen.
2. It provides for sharing of profits/benefits among the members.
3. An FPO can be a Producer Company, a Cooperative Society or any other legal
form.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only


(b) 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Learning Zone: Farmers’ Producer Organisation (FPO), also known as farmers’


producer company (FPC), is an entity formed by primary producers. These include
farmers, milk producers, fishermen, weavers, rural artisans, and craftsmen.

An FPO can be a Producer Company, a Cooperative Society or any other legal form.
FPOs are basically the hybrids of cooperatives and private companies.

The participation, organisation and membership pattern of these companies are


more or less similar to the cooperatives. But their day-to-day functioning and
business models resemble those of the professionally-run private companies.

The Companies Act was amended by incorporating Section-IX A in it to allow


creation and registration of FPOs under it.

Members of the FPO will manage their activities together in the organization to get
better access to technology, input, finance and market for faster enhancement of
their income.

Why is this question important? Prime Minister Narendra Modi will launch
10,000 Farmers Producer Organisations (FPOs) all over the country, on 29 February,
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in Chitrakoot, Uttar Pradesh.


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15. 2020 CD3, recently seen in the news is a

(a) Asteroid
(b) The satellite launch vehicle of NASA
(c) Electric Vehicle Technology
(d) Cyber Warfare method

Ans: (a) Asteroid

Learning Zone: It is actually an asteroid, about the size of a car; its diameter is
about 1.9-3.5 m. It is called a Temporarily Captured Object (TCO). And unlike our
permanent Moon, the mini-moon is temporary; it will eventually break free of Earth’s
orbit and go off on its own way.

Why is this question important? Astronomers have observed a small object


orbiting Earth, which they have dubbed a 2020 CD3, “mini-moon” or the planet’s
“second moon”.

16. With reference to the Curative Petition, Consider the following


statements

1. The concept was first evolved by the Supreme Court of India in Rupa Ashok
Hurra vs. Ashok Hurra and another case (2002).
2. The concept of the curative petition is not supported by the Indian
Constitution.
3. Such a petition needs to be filed within 30 days from the date of judgement
or order.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 2 and 3 only
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(c) 1 and 3 only


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(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c) 1 and 3 only

Learning Zone: The concept was first evolved by the Supreme Court of India in
Rupa Ashok Hurra vs. Ashok Hurra and another case (2002) on the question
whether an aggrieved person is entitled to any relief against the final
judgement/order of the Supreme Court, even after the dismissal of a review petition.

The concept of the curative petition is supported by Article 137 of the Indian
Constitution.

It provides that in the matter of laws and rules made under Article 145, the Supreme
Court has the power to review any judgement pronounced (or order made) by it.
Such a petition needs to be filed within 30 days from the date of judgement or
order.

Why is this question important? It was in the news related to the Nirbhaya
Case.

17. Which among the following is/are activities undertaken by a Krishi


Vigyan Kendra?

1. Farm advisory service.


2. Training programme for different categories of people.
3. Monetary support to poor farmers
4. On-farm testing

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 4 only


(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (b) 1, 2 and 4


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Learning Zone: KVKs provide several farm support activities like providing
technology dissemination to farmers, training, awareness etc.

To achieve these, KVKs undertake:

Farm advisory service.


Training programme for different categories of people.
Training programme for the extension functionaries.
Front line demonstration.
On-farm testing.

Why is this question important? 11th National Krishi Vigyan Kendra (KVK)
Conference was recently inaugurated.

18. With reference to the National Investigation Agency (NIA), consider


the following statements

1. It acts as the Central Counter-Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency.


2. It is empowered to deal with terror-related crimes across states with special
permission from the states.
3. The presiding judge of special NIA courts is a retired supreme court judge.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

Ans: (a) 1 only

Learning Zone: It acts as the Central Counter-Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency.


It is empowered to deal with terror-related crimes across states without special
permission from the states. Established under the National Investigation Agency Act
2008.
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Various Special Courts have been notified by the Central Government of India for the
trial of the cases registered at various police stations of NIA under Section 11 and 22
of the NIA Act 2008. Any question as to the jurisdiction of these courts is decided by
the Central Government. These are presided over by a judge appointed by the
Central Government on the recommendation of the Chief Justice of the High Court
with jurisdiction in that region.

Why is this question important? The Delhi High Court has sought response of
the Centre and the AAP government on a PIL seeking National Investigation Agency
(NIA) probe under the unlawful activities law UAPA into the violence in northeast
Delhi over the Citizenship (Amendment) Act (CAA).

19. With reference to the National Sports Development Fund, consider the
following statements

1. It is established under the Charitable Endowments Act 1890.


2. The fund is managed by The President of India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (a) 1 only

Learning Zone: It is Established in 1998 under the Charitable Endowments Act


1890 and notified by Government of India in November 1998.

Purpose of creation is to impart momentum and flexibility to assist the cause of


sports. Role of the Fund is supplementary to the overall policy and activities of the
Department of Sports in achieving excellence in sports.

The Fund is managed by a Council constituted by the Central Government. Union


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Minister in charge of Youth Affairs and Sports is the Chairperson of the Council.
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Members of the Council include senior Officers of the Department of Sports,


Chairman & Managing Directors of Private and Public Sector Companies /
Corporations, representatives of Sports Promotion Boards, etc.

Why is this question important? Under CSR initiative, Security Printing &
Minting Corporation of India (SPMCIL) contributes Rs 1 crore towards the National
Sports Development Fund.

20. Which among the following is/are most common rare diseases
recorded in India?

1. Haemophilia
2. Cancer
3. Thalassemia
4. Sickle-cell anaemia
5. Chikungunya

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only


(b) 2, 3 and 5 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only

Ans: (c) 1, 3 and 4 only

Learning Zone: The most common rare diseases recorded in India are
Haemophilia, Thalassemia, sickle-cell anaemia and primary immunodeficiency in
children, auto-immune diseases, Lysosomal storage disorders such as Pompe
disease, Hirschsprung disease, Gaucher’s disease, Cystic Fibrosis, Hemangiomas and
certain forms of muscular dystrophies.

A rare disease also referred to as an orphan disease, is any disease that affects a
small percentage of the population.

Most rare diseases are genetic, and are present throughout a person’s entire life,
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even if symptoms do not immediately appear.


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Why is this question important? Rare Disease Day was observed on February
29.

21. RaIDer-X, recently seen in the news is a:

(a) explosives detection device


(b) Submarine detection radar
(c) Army Exercise between India And Australia
(d) Initiative to trace money laundering activities in India

Ans: (a) Explosives detection device

Learning Zone: It is an explosives detection device. It can detect up to 20


explosives from a stand-off distance of two meters. Developed by the High Energy
Material Research Laboratory (HEMRL) — an arm of the DRDO — in Pune and the
Indian Institute of Science in Bangalore. It can also discern bulk explosives even if
they have been concealed.

Why is this question important? It is recently developed by The Defence


Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and the Indian Institute of Science
in Bangalore

22. Which among the following countries proposed a law to make sanitary
products free for all?

(a) Denmark
(b) Scotland
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Nigeria

Ans: (b) Scotland

Learning Zone: The Scottish Parliament recently passed the Period Products (Free
Provision) (Scotland) Bill that aims to make sanitary products free for women of all
age groups.
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When passed, Scotland may become the first country in the world to end ‘period
poverty’.

Why is this question important? It is a recent initiative.

23. With reference to Ekam Fest, recently seen in the news consider the
following statements

1. It is being organised by National Handicapped Finance Development


Corporation (NHFDC) under M/o Social Justice & Empowerment.
2. It aims to promote craftsmanship & products of divyang (physically-
challenged) artisans and entrepreneurs.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c) Both 1 and 2

Learning Zone: Exhibition-cum-Fair “EKAM Fest” is being organised by National


Handicapped Finance Development Corporation (NHFDC) under M/o Social Justice &
Empowerment.

Aim: To promote craftsmanship & products of divyang (physically-challenged)


artisans and entrepreneurs.

Why is this question important? It was a recent initiative.

24. Which among the following is/are possible benefits if a spot is


declared as a World Heritage Site?

1. It drives up demand for travel and tourism from around the world to the site.
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2. It will give free entry to domestic tourists who visit the site.
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3. It will be a heavy onus on the government of the country in which the Site is
located for its conservation and upkeep.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (c) 1 and 3 only

Learning Zone: When getting featured on the list of World Heritage Sites it affords
the location a coveted status, driving up demand for travel and tourism from around
the world geared towards it.

At the same time, a heavy onus is placed on the government of the country in which
the Site is located for its conservation and upkeep.

The Committee conducts regular audits at declared Sites and can place a spot that is
seriously threatened on the List of World Heritage in Danger.

If the Outstanding Universal Value of the property is destroyed, the Committee can
consider deleting the property from the World Heritage List.

Why is this question important? The Government of India has submitted two
nomination dossiers namely ‘Dholavira: A Harappan City’ and ‘Monuments and Forts
of Deccan Sultanate’ for inclusion in the World Heritage List for the year 2020.

25. With reference to Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushlaya Yojana,


consider the following statements

1. It is a youth employment scheme aimed at rural youth of 15 to 35 years of


age.
2. It is a placement linked skill development program which allows skilling in a
PPP mode and assured placements in regular jobs in an organization not
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owned by the skilled person.


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3. It is managed by the Ministry of Rural Development.


Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Learning Zone: It is a placement linked skill development program which allows


skilling in a PPP mode and assured placements in regular jobs in an organization not
owned by the skilled person. DDU-GKY is being undertaken as a PPP Project all over
the country through Project Implementing Agencies (PIAs) registered with the
Ministry of Rural Development.

Further, Guidelines of the scheme mandate State Governments to take up skill


training projects with Corporate Social Responsibility funding.

DDU-GKY Guidelines provide for setting apart 15% of the funds for national level
beneficiaries from among minority groups.
Beneficiary Eligibility is:
Rural Youth:15 – 35 Yrs
SC/ST/Women/PVTG/PWD: up to 45 Yrs

Why is this question important? The National Institute of Rural Development


and Panchayati Raj (NIRDPR) will soon undertake a real-time assessment of
government’s flagship youth employment scheme the Deen Dayal Upadhyaya
Grameen Kaushal Yojana (DDU-GKY).

26. With reference to in-flight Wi-fi connectivity consider the following


statements

1. In-flight Wi-Fi connectivity can only be accessed through satellite-based


services.
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2. At present In-flight Wi-Fi connectivity is banned in India.


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Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Learning Zone: In-flight connectivity systems use two kinds of technologies–


terrestrial and satellite internet services.

Once flight mode is activated, the plane’s antenna will link to terrestrial Internet
services provided by telecom service providers.

Then, when the aircraft has climbed to 3,000 m, the antenna will switch to satellite-
based services.

This way, there will be no break in Internet services to passengers, and cross-
interference between terrestrial and satellite networks will be avoided.

Why is this question important? The government has permitted airlines


operating in India to provide in-flight WiFi services to passengers.

Previously, the Telecom Commission had given its green signal to in-flight
connectivity of the Internet and mobile communications on aircraft in Indian
airspace in 2018.

27. Which among the following statements is/are true regarding National
Interlinking of Rivers Authority (NIRA)?

1. It is expected to take up both inter-State and intra-State projects.


2. It will make arrangements for generating funds, internally and externally.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:


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(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c) Both 1 and 2

Learning Zone: The NRLP is formally known as the National Perspective Plan,
envisages the transfer of water from water ‘surplus’ basins where there are flooding
to water ‘deficit’ basins where there is drought/scarcity, through inter-basin water
transfer projects.

It is designed to ease water shortages in western and southern India while


mitigating the impacts of recurrent floods in the eastern parts of the Ganga basin.
Functions of NIRA:

● It is expected to take up both inter-State and intra-State projects.


● It will also make arrangements for generating funds, internally and externally.

Why is this question important? The Central government is working on the


establishment of an exclusive body to implement projects for linking rivers- To be
called the National Interlinking of Rivers Authority (NIRA).

28. With reference to Sukhna Lake recently seen in the news, consider the
following statements

1. It is located in the foothills of the Shivalik Hills.


2. It is a natural lake.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Ans: (a) 1 only


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Learning Zone: The man-made Sukhna Lake was built in 1958 by Le Corbusier, the
architect of Chandigarh. Located in the foothills of the Shivalik Hills, it was designed
to collect runoff water from the Hills. The Lake, which is in the process of being
officially notified as a wetland, also has a nearby wildlife sanctuary that is home to
sambar, pangolin, wild boars, red jungle fowl, cobras and other species.

Why is this question important? The Punjab and Haryana high court has
declared Sukhna Lake a “living entity” or “legal person” with rights, duties and
liabilities of a living person.

It also declared all citizens of Chandigarh as loco parentis (in the place of a parent)
to save the lake from extinction.

29. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana


(PMBJP), consider the following statements

1. It creates awareness about generic medicines through education and


publicity.
2. It provides free medicine to all BPL category people.
3. Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India (BPPI) is the implementing agency of PMBJP.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (c) 1 and 3 only

Learning Zone: ‘Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana’ is a campaign


launched by the Department of Pharmaceuticals, Govt. Of India, to provide quality
medicines at affordable prices to the masses through special kendra’s known as
Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Jan Aushadhi Kendra.
24

Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India (BPPI) is the implementing agency of PMBJP.


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SALIENT FEATURES OF THE SCHEME:

● Ensure access to quality medicines.


● Extend coverage of quality generic medicines so as to reduce the out of
pocket expenditure on medicines and thereby redefine the unit cost of
treatment per person.
● Create awareness about generic medicines through education and publicity so
that quality is not synonymous with an only high price.
● A public programme involving Government, PSUs, Private Sector, NGO,
Societies, Co-operative Bodies and other Institutions.
● Create demand for generic medicines by improving access to better
healthcare through low treatment cost and easy availability wherever needed
in all therapeutic categories.

Why is this question important? Janaushadhi week is being celebrated across


the country from 1st March to 7th March 2020.

30. Which among the following statements is/are true regarding Black
carbon?

1. It results from the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels and biomass.


2. It is short-lived and remains in the atmosphere only for days to weeks.
3. It absorbs solar energy and warms the atmosphere.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Learning Zone: Black carbon results from the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels
and biomass. BC is produced both naturally and by human activities as a result of
25

the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels, biofuels, and biomass. Primary sources
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include emissions from diesel engines, cookstoves, wood burning and forest fires.
The fine particles absorb light and about a million times more energy than carbon
dioxide.

It is said to be the second-largest contributor to climate change after CO2. But


unlike CO2, which can stay in the atmosphere for years together, black carbon is
short-lived and remains in the atmosphere only for days to weeks before it descends
as rain or snow.

Black carbon absorbs solar energy and warms the atmosphere. When it falls to earth
with precipitation, it darkens the surface of snow and ice, reducing their albedo (the
reflecting power of a surface), warming the snow, and hastening melting.
India is the second-largest emitter of black carbon in the world.

Why is this question important? Researchers recently conducted a study on


varying levels of Black Carbon in the Himalayas.

31. Which among the following is/are possible benefits of Merger of


banks?

1. Small banks can gear up to international standards.


2. Saving of considerable time in clearing and reconciliation of accounts.
3. It can diversify risk management.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Learning Zone:
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Major Benefits of Merging are:


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● Small banks can gear up to international standards with innovative products
and services with the accepted level of efficiency.
● PSBs, which are geographically concentrated, can expand their coverage
beyond their outreach.
● Reduction in the cost of doing business.
● Technical inefficiency reduces.
● The size of each business entity after the merger is expected to add strength
to the Indian Banking System in general and Public Sector Banks in particular.
● The synergy of operations and scale of economy in the new entity will result
in savings and higher profits.
● A great number of posts of CMD, ED, GM and Zonal Managers will be
abolished, resulting in savings of crores of Rupee.
● Customers will have access to fewer banks offering them a wider range of
products at a lower cost.
● Mergers can diversify risk management.

Why is this question important? The government has approved a scheme for
the amalgamation of 10 state-owned banks into four.

After the process is complete, India will have 12 PSBs instead of 27 back in 2017.

32. Hague convention, often seen in the news, is related to:

(a) Child Abduction


(b) Hazardous Chemical substances
(c) Sustainable development
(d) IMF formation

Ans: (a) Child Abduction

Learning Zone: The Hague Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child
Abduction or Hague Abduction Convention is a multilateral treaty developed by the
Hague Conference on Private International Law that provides an expeditious method
to return a child internationally abducted by a parent from one member country to
another.
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Why is this question important? It is related to the Child Adoption Regulatory
Authority (CARA).

33. With reference to North-East Venture Fund (NEVF), consider the


following statements

1. It is a close-ended fund with a capital commitment of Rs 100 crore.


2. It is the first dedicated venture capital fund for the North Eastern Region.
3. It is initiated by North Eastern Development Finance Corporation Limited
(NEDFi)in association with the Ministry of Finance.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Learning Zone: North East Venture Fund (NEVF is Launched in September 2017.

It is Set up by North Eastern Development Finance Corporation Limited (NEDFi)in


association with the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (M-DoNER).
It is a close-ended fund with a capital commitment of Rs 100 crore.

It is the first dedicated venture capital fund for the North Eastern Region.

Its objective is to contribute to the entrepreneurship development of the NER and


achieve attractive risk-adjusted returns through long term capital appreciation by
way of investments in privately negotiated equity/ equity-related investments.

The investment under this scheme ranges from Rs. 25 lakh to Rs.10 crore per
venture, which is long term in nature with an investment horizon of 4-5 years.
28

Why is this question important? The NEVF (North-East Venture Fund) disbursed
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over Rs.18 crore to 12 start-ups till date- the information given in Parliament.
Buy the book “Important Acts that Transformed India” : Click here – -books
29
Page
34. Freedom in the World 2020, recently seen in the news, is a report
released by which among the following?

(a) Freedom House


(b) Transparency international
(c) United Nations Human Rights Council
(d) World Economic forum

Ans: (a) Freedom House

Learning Zone: Freedom in the World 2020 has been released by America based
Freedom House.

Finland, Norway, Sweden, the Netherlands and Luxembourg are the top five
countries in the free category.

The report has placed India at 83rd position along with Timor-Leste and Senegal
among the bottom five of “free democracies”.

India witnessed the worst score decline among the world’s 25 largest democracies.

Why is this question important? It is a recently released report

35. Which among the following statements is/are true regarding the
International Criminal Court (ICC)?

1. It is founded by the Rome Statute.


2. It has the capacity to arrest suspects for the international crimes of genocide,
crimes against humanity, and war crimes.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
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(c) Both 1 and 2


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(d) Neither 1 nor 2


Ans: (a) 1 only

Learning Zone: The International Criminal Court (ICC), located in The Hague, is
the court of last resort for prosecution of genocide, war crimes, and crimes against
humanity.

It is the first permanent, treaty-based, an international criminal court established to


help end impunity for the perpetrators of the most serious crimes of concern to the
international community.

Its founding treaty, the Rome Statute, entered into force on July 1, 2002.

It does not have the capacity to arrest suspects and depends on member states for
their cooperation.

Why is this question important? ICC gives go-ahead to probe Afghanistan


alleged war crimes.

Prosecutors have been given the green light to investigate alleged war crimes and
crimes against humanity in Afghanistan – and beyond its borders – linked to Afghan,
Taliban and US troops.

36. With reference to Solar Charkha Mission, consider the following


statements

1. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Textiles.


2. The Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) would implement the
programme.
3. It seeks to generate employment in rural areas and contribute to the green
economy.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
31

(b) 2 and 3 only


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(c) 1 and 3 only


(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b) 2 and 3 only

Learning Zone: It is Launched in 2018. It is a Ministry of Micro Small & Medium


Enterprises (MSME) initiative launched during June 2018. The Khadi and Village
Industries Commission (KVIC) would implement the programme.

It seeks to generate employment in rural areas and contribute to the green


economy. The mission will entail a subsidy of Rs 550 crore in the initial two years for
50 clusters and every cluster will employ 400 to 2000 artisans.

Why is this question important? Based on the Expression of Interest (EOI), a


total of 10 proposals have been approved under Mission Solar Charkha till date
which is expected to benefit about 13784 artisans/workers.

37. Considering the following pairs

1. Nai Roshni – Leadership development of women belonging to minority


communities.

2. Nai Manzil – Scheme of interest subsidy to students of minority communities


on educational loans for overseas higher studies.

3. Hamari Dharohar- A scheme to preserve the rich heritage of minority


communities of India

4. Padho Pardesh – A scheme for formal school education & skilling of school
dropouts

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
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(c) 1 and 3 only


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(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c) 1 and 3 only

Learning Zone: Maulana Azad National Fellowship Scheme – Provide fellowships in


the form of financial assistance.

Naya Savera – Free Coaching and Allied Scheme – The Scheme aims to provide free
coaching to students/candidates belonging to minority communities for qualifying in
entrance examinations of technical/ professional courses and Competitive
examinations.

Padho Pardesh – Scheme of interest subsidy to students of minority communities on


educational loans for overseas higher studies.

Nai Udaan – Support for students clearing Prelims conducted by Union Public Service
Commission (UPSC), State Public Service Commission (PSC) Staff Selection
Commission (SSC) etc.

Nai Roshni – Leadership development of women belonging to minority communities.

Seekho Aur Kamao – Skill development scheme for the youth of 14 – 35 years age
group and aiming at improving the employability of existing workers, school
dropouts etc.

Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram (PMJVK) restructured in May 2018 earlier
known as MsDP – Implemented for the benefit of the people from all sections of the
society in identified Minority Concentration Areas for creation of assets in education,
skill and health sectors.

Jiyo Parsi – Scheme for containing population decline of Parsis in India.

USTTAD (Upgrading the Skills and Training in Traditional Arts/Crafts for


Development) launched in May 2015.

Nai Manzil – A scheme for formal school education & skilling of school dropouts
33

launched in Aug. 2015.


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Hamari Dharohar- A scheme to preserve the rich heritage of minority communities of
India under the overall concept of Indian culture implemented since 2014-15.

Why is this question important? These are schemes initiated for minorities in
India.

38. Consider the following statements

1. The Speaker is empowered to force a Member to withdraw from the House,


or to place him/her under suspension only after consultation with Rules
Committee
2. The speaker is empowered to revoke a suspension of a member upon his/her
discretion.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Learning Zone: Rule Number 373 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of
Business says: “The Speaker, it is of the opinion that the conduct of any Member is
grossly disorderly, may direct such Member to withdraw immediately from the
House, and any Member so ordered to withdraw shall do so forthwith and shall
remain absent during the remainder of the day’s sitting.”

While the Speaker is empowered to place a Member under suspension, the authority
for revocation of this order is not vested in him/her. It is for the House, if it so
desires, to resolve on a motion to revoke the suspension.

Why is this question important? Seven Congress members were recently


suspended for unruly behaviour in the Lok Sabha. The motion was passed by a voice
34

vote.
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39. With reference to the Indian Ocean Commission, consider the
following statements

1. It is an intergovernmental organization that links 5 African nations.


2. The Commission has a Secretariat which is located in Mauritius.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c) Both 1 and 2

Learning Zone: It is an intergovernmental organization created in 1982.

It was institutionalized in 1984 by the Victoria Agreement in Seychelles.

The IOC is composed of five African Indian Ocean nations: Comoros, Madagascar,
Mauritius, Réunion (an overseas region of France), and Seychelles.

The Commission has a Secretariat which is located in Mauritius and headed by a


Secretary-General.

Why is this question important? India was recently accepted as an observer in


the Indian Ocean Commission, getting a seat at the table of the organization that
handles maritime governance in the western Indian Ocean.

India’s entry is a consequence of its deepening strategic partnership with France as


well as its expanding ties with the Vanilla Islands.

40. ‘Mac-binding’ recently seen in the news is associated with:

(a) Cryptocurrency
35

(b) Internet connectivity


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(c) Cotton production


(d) Satellite launch vehicle

Ans: (b) Internet Connectivity

Learning Zone: Every device has a Media Access Control (MAC) address, a
hardware identification number that is unique to it. While accessing the Internet,
every device is assigned an IP address.

Mac-binding essentially means binding together the MAC and IP addresses, so that
all requests from that IP address are served only by the computer having that
particular MAC address.

In effect, it means that if the IP address or the MAC address changes, the device
can no longer access the Internet. Also, monitoring authorities can trace the specific
system from which a particular online activity was carried out.

Why is this question important? According to a recent order issued by the


government, the Internet has been restored in Jammu and Kashmir, but the
connectivity will be made available “with mac-binding”.

41. With reference to OPEC+, consider the following statements

1. It is an alliance of Opec and non-Opec producers.


2. India is a member of this organisation
3. It aims to undertake production restrictions to help revive the flailing market.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (c) 1 and 3 only


36

Learning Zone: Opec+ refers to the alliance of crude producers, who have been
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undertaking corrections in supply in the oil markets since 2017.


OPEC plus countries include Azerbaijan, Bahrain, Brunei, Kazakhstan, Malaysia,
Mexico, Oman, Russia, South Sudan and Sudan.

The Opec and non-Opec producers first formed the alliance at a historic meeting in
Algiers in 2016.

The aim was to undertake production restrictions to help resuscitate a flailing


market.

Why is this question important? Saudi Arabia, the world’s top oil exporter, plans
to raise its crude oil production significantly above 10 million barrels per day (BPD)
in April, after the collapse of the OPEC+ supply cut agreement with Russia.

42. With reference to Input Tax Credit, Consider the following statements

1. It is the tax that a business pays on a purchase and that it can use to reduce
its tax liability when it makes a sale.
2. Under GST rule it is available for any business.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (a) 1 only

Learning Zone: It is the tax that a business pays on a purchase and that it can use
to reduce its tax liability when it makes a sale.

In simple terms, input credit means at the time of paying tax on output, you can
reduce the tax you have already paid on inputs and pay the balance amount.
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Why is this question important? Restrictions imposed on the input tax credit,
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used by business establishments to reduce their tax liability, on inward supplies


under the Central Goods and Services Tax Act have been challenged in the
Rajasthan High Court with the plea that the amendment made to a rule to introduce
the provision had imposed “unreasonable and arbitrary” conditions.

43. ‘Marakkars’, a group of people recently seen in the news is a:

(a) Tribal group in North East India


(b) Craftsmen from Andhra Pradesh
(c) People of Arab descent migrated to India from Tunisia
(d) The particularly vulnerable tribal group settled in Bastar.

Ans: (c) People of Arab descent migrated to India from Tunisia

Learning Zone: By some accounts, they were of Arab origin and had migrated from
Tunisia to Panthalayani near Koyilandy in present-day Kozhikode. They later moved
to the region around present-day Kottakkal and Thikkodi near Payyoli.

By other accounts, the Marakkars were descendants of an affluent businessman


from the Cochin kingdom who migrated later to Calicut. The Marakkars were mostly
Muslims, but in some parts, they have been found to be Hindus as well.

Why is this question important? Recently, a petition was filed in the Kerala High
Court against the film- Marakkar: The Lion of the Arabian Sea, alleging ‘distortion of
history’ and demanding a stay on the release. It is said to be the most expensive
Malayalam film ever made.

44. Gender Social Norms Index, recently seen in the news, is released by
which among the following?

(a) World Economic Forum


(b) UN Development Programme (UNDP)
(c) UNICEF
(d) Amnesty International

Ans: (b) UN Development Programme (UNDP)


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Learning Zone: The first Gender Social Norms Index was recently released by the
UN Development Programme (UNDP).

This index measures how social beliefs obstruct gender equality in areas like politics,
work, and education, and contains data from 75 countries, covering over 80 per cent
of the world’s population.

The index found new clues to the invisible barriers women face in achieving equality
– potentially forging a path forward to breaking through the so-called “glass ceiling”.

Why is this question important? It has been released recently.

45. With reference to Enforcement Directorate, consider the following


statements

1. It is administered by the Department of Revenue.


2. It enforces two laws mainly Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA)
and Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c) Both 1 and 2

Learning Zone: It is a Multi-Disciplinary Organization mandated with the task of


enforcing the provisions of two special fiscal laws – Foreign Exchange Management
Act, 1999 (FEMA) and Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA).

The origin of this Directorate goes back to 1st May 1956, when an ‘Enforcement
Unit’ was formed, in Department of Economic Affairs, for handling Exchange Control
Laws violations under Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1947 (FERA ’47).
39
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In the year 1957, this Unit was renamed as ‘Enforcement Directorate’. The
administrative control of the Directorate was transferred from the Department of
Economic Affairs to the Department of Revenue in 1960.

Why is this question important? Yes, Bank founder Rana Kapoor was recently
placed under arrest by the Enforcement Directorate.

46. With regard to Kyasanur Forest Disease (KFD), consider the following
statements

1. It is a bacterial disease.
2. It is doesn't affect human beings.
3. There is no specific treatment for KFD.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

Ans: (b) 3 only

Learning Zone: KFD is caused by the Kyasanur Forest Disease Virus (KFDV). The
virus was identified in 1957 when it was isolated from a sick monkey from the
Kyasanur Forest. Since then, between 400-500 humans cases per year have been
reported.

Hard ticks (Hemaphysalis spinigera) are the reservoir of the KFD virus and once
infected, remain so for life.

Rodents, shrews, and monkeys are common hosts for KFDV after being bitten by an
infected tick. KFDV can cause epizootics with high fatality in primates.

Transmission to humans may occur after a tick bite or contact with an infected
40

animal, most importantly a sick or recently dead monkey.


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The disease as of now is stated to be transmitted through monkeys. Large animals
such as goats, cows, and sheep may become infected with KFD but play a limited
role in the transmission of the disease.

Doctors say there is no specific treatment for KFD, but early hospitalisation and
supportive therapy is important. Supportive therapy includes the maintenance of
hydration and the usual precautions for patients with bleeding disorders.

Why is this question important? Frequently comes in news

47. Sahyadri Megha, recently seen in the news is a:

(a) Rain bearing cloud named in the Western Ghats


(b) A new variety of paddy
(c) Cloud computing initiative
(d) Air Force Exercise

Ans: (b) A New variety of paddy

Learning Zone: It is a new variety of paddy resistant to blast disease and rich in
nutrients. It was developed by the University of Agricultural and Horticultural
Sciences (UAHS), Shivamogga, as part of its initiative to prevent the decline in the
area under paddy cultivation.

Why is this question important? It has been recently released.

48. Women Transforming India Awards, sometimes seen in the news is


given by

(a) NITI Aayog


(b) Ministry of Women and Child Development
(c) The President of India
(d) ActionAid India

Ans: (a) NITI Aayog


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Learning Zone: WTI Awards are NITI Aayog’s initiative to highlight the
commendable and ground-breaking endeavours of India’s women leaders and
changemakers.

Since 2018, the Awards have been hosted under the aegis of NITI Aayog’s Women
Entrepreneurship Platform with a special focus on entrepreneurship.

Why is this question important? NITI Aayog recently organised the Fourth
Edition of the Women Transforming India Awards.

49. With reference to WISTEMM program recently seen in the news,


consider the following statements

1. It is an initiative by the Department of Science and Technology.


2. It provides opportunities to Indian Women Scientists, Engineers &
Technologists to undertake international collaborative research in premier
institutions in the U.S.A.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c) Both 1 and 2

Learning Zone: Women in Science, Technology, Engineering, Mathematics and


Medicine (WISTEMM)”program is implemented by the Department of Science and
Technology(DST).

It is to provide opportunities to Indian Women Scientists, Engineers & Technologists


to undertake international collaborative research in premier institutions in the U.S.A,
to enhance their research capacities and capabilities.
42

Why is this question important? It is a recent initiative by the government.


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50. With reference to PM Ujjwala Yojana, consider the following
statements

1. It is a scheme to provide LPG (liquefied petroleum gas) connections to poor


households.
2. Under the initiative, half of the Indian states became kerosene free.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (a) 1 only

Learning Zone: It is a scheme that aims to provide LPG (liquefied petroleum gas)
connections to poor households.

Key features: A deposit-free LPG connection is given to eligible with the financial
assistance of Rs 1,600 per connection by the Centre.

The scheme gained traction with its ambit being expanded to include 80 million poor
families from the earlier target of 50 million families with an additional allocation of
Rs4,800 crore.

The government in September 2019 met the target of eight crores LPG connections
under the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana.

But, only three States have become kerosene free. These include- Haryana, Punjab
and Andhra Pradesh.

Union Territories that have become kerosene-free are the Union Territories of Delhi,
Chandigarh, Daman & Diu, Dadra & Nagar Haveli, Andaman & Nicobar Island and
Puducherry.
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Why is this question important? Recently a Parliamentary committee’s
observations on the performance of the PM Ujjwala Yojana has been released.

51. Consider the following statements

1. Sir Creek is a 96-km strip of water disputed between India and Pakistan in the
Rann of Kutch.
2. Kharai camels are swimming camels found only in Gujarath.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c) Both 1 and 2

Learning Zone: Sir Creek is a 96-km strip of water disputed between India and
Pakistan in the Rann of Kutch marshlands.

Originally named Ban Ganga, Sir Creek is named after a British representative.
The Creek opens up in the Arabian Sea and roughly divides the Kutch region of
Gujarat from the Sindh Province of Pakistan.

Kharai Camel or Swimming Camels are found only in Gujarat’s Bhuj area. It has been
recently recognized as a separate breed (one among nine such breeds found in
India) of the camel for better conservation. This camel is adapted to the extreme
climate of Ran of Kachh where shallow seas and high salinity is prevalent. Kharai
Camel can live in both coastal and dry ecosystems. It grazes on saline/mangrove
trees and is tolerant of high saline water. It can swim up to three kilometres into the
sea in search of mangroves, their primary food. The camel is distinct from other
camels because of its rounded back, long and thin legs and small feet.

Why is this question important? Sir creek dispute Often comes in news
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52. With reference to National Mission on Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical
Systems (NM-ICPS), consider the following statements

1. The Mission aims at the establishment of 15 Technology Innovation Hubs


across the country.
2. It will be implemented by the Department of Science &Technology under
Ministry of Science and Technology for a period of five years.
3. The mission aims to provide free broadband connectivity in the coastal
regions.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (a) 1 and 2 only

Learning Zone: The NM-ICPS is a comprehensive Mission which would address


technology development, application development, human resource development &
skill enhancement, entrepreneurship and start-up development in Cyber-Physical
System (CPS) and associated technologies.

The Mission aims at the establishment of 15 Technology Innovation Hubs (TIH), 6


Application Innovation Hubs (AIH) and 4 Technology Translation Research Parks
(TTRP).

These Hubs & TTRPs will connect to Academics, Industry, Central Ministries and
State Government in developing solutions at reputed academic, R&D and other
organizations across the country in a hub and spoke model.

It will be implemented by the Department of Science &Technology under Ministry of


Science and Technology for a period of five years
45

Why is this question important? The Department of Science and Technology


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(DST) has sanctioned Rs 7.25 crore to the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Mandi
to establish a Technology Innovation Hub (TIH) under the National Mission on
Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems (NM-ICPS).

53. Gadgil & Kasturirangan Committee often comes in the news is related
to:

(a) Doubling farmers Income


(b) Western Ghats
(c) Conservation of Himalayas
(d) Bt Crops

Ans: (b) Western Ghats

Learning Zone: Gadgil Committee


● It defined the boundaries of the Western Ghats for the purposes of ecological
management.
● It proposed that this entire area be designated as ecologically sensitive area
(ESA).
● Within this area, smaller regions were to be identified as ecologically sensitive
zones (ESZ) I, II or III based on their existing condition and nature of the
threat.
● It proposed to divide the area into about 2,200 grids, of which 75 per cent
would fall under ESZ I or II or under already existing protected areas such as
wildlife sanctuaries or natural parks.
● The committee proposed a Western Ghats Ecology Authority to regulate these
activities in the area.

Kasturirangan Committee

● None of the six concerned states agreed with the recommendations of the
Gadgil Committee, which submitted its report in August 2011.
● In August 2012, then Environment Minister constituted a High-Level Working
Group on the Western Ghats under Kasturirangan to “examine” the Gadgil
Committee report in a “holistic and multidisciplinary fashion in the light of
responses received” from states, central ministries and others.
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● The Kasturirangan report seeks to bring just 37% of the Western Ghats under
the Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA) zones — down from the 64% suggested
by the Gadgil report.

Why is this question important? A public interest litigation petition has been
filed in the Madras High Court seeking a direction to the Centre and State
government to constitute a permanent body for taking serious steps to safeguard
the flora, fauna and other natural resources in the Eastern and Western Ghat areas
in Tamil Nadu.

54. ‘United for Biodiversity’, recently seen in the news, is an initiative by


which among the following?

(a) UNEP
(b) World Wildlife Fund
(c) European Commission
(d) US Government

Ans: (c) European Commission

Learning Zone: The European Commission (EC) has launched the ‘United for
Biodiversity’ coalition.

It was launched on World Wildlife Day 2020- 3rd March.

The coalition is made up of zoos, aquariums, botanical gardens, national parks, and
natural history and science museums from around the world.

The coalition offers the opportunity for all such institutions to “join forces and boost
public awareness about the nature crisis, ahead of the crucial COP-15 of the
Convention on Biological Diversity in Kunming, China in October 2020.

Why is this question important? A recent initiative on the topic of Environment


and Ecology.
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55. Which among the following is/are examples of Shared Economy?


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1. Uber Taxi
2. Furniture rental services
3. Oyo Life

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

And: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Learning Zone: The sharing economy, also known as collaborative consumption or


peer-to-peer-based sharing, is a concept that highlights the ability of individuals to
rent or borrow goods rather than buy and own them.

The ‘shared economy’ includes segments such as co-working (Awfis, WeWork India),
co-living (Stanza Living, OYO Life, Oxford Caps), shared mobility (Uber, Ola, Shuttl)
and furniture rental (Furlenco, Rentomojo.)

Why is this question important? The shared economy in India is estimated to be


about $2 billion industry by the end of the current year, according to a recent report
by Maple Capital Advisors.

56. With reference to Gaur, consider the following statements

1. It is the largest extant bovine in the world.


2. It is native to Africa.
3. The IUCN status of Gaur is Vulnerable.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 2 and 3 only
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(c) 1 and 3 only


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(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c) 1 and 3 only

Learning Zone: Gaur is the largest extant bovine in the world. Gaur is grassland
specialists and their main food is grass. Native to south and southeast Asia.

The species is listed as ‘vulnerable’ on the International Union for Conservation of


Nature’s Red List of Threatened Species since 1986.

Why is this question important? Gaur (Bos gaurus) have not only returned to
Bihar’s Valmiki Tiger Reserve (VTR) but are also breeding there due to an increase in
grassland cover. They have been attracted to VTR due to the increase in grassland
cover

57. With reference to the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, consider the
following statements

1. It provides for a 3-tier structure of the National and State Commissions and
District Forums.
2. Each District Forum is headed by a person who is or has been or is eligible to
be appointed as a District Judge and each State Commission is headed by a
person who is or has been a Judge of High Court.
3. The provisions of this Act cover ‘goods’ only not services.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (a) 1 and 2 only

Learning Zone: The Consumer Protection Act, 1986 provides for a 3-tier structure
of the National and State Commissions and District Forums for the speedy resolution
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of consumer disputes. They are quasi-judicial bodies.


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Composition: Each District Forum is headed by a person who is or has been or is
eligible to be appointed as a District Judge and each State Commission is headed by
a person who is or has been a Judge of High Court.

Ambit: The provisions of this Act cover ‘goods’ as well as ‘services’. The goods are
those which are manufactured or produced and sold to consumers through
wholesalers and retailers. The services are in the nature of transport, telephone,
electricity, housing, banking, insurance, medical treatment, etc.

Why is this question important? A district consumer disputes redressal forum in


New Delhi has directed e-commerce platform Flipkart to compensate a complainant
by paying over ₹11,000 for delivering a defective mobile handset and failing to
redress the grievance.

58. With reference to the Epidemic Diseases Act of 1897, consider the
following statements

1. It was introduced by the colonial government to tackle the epidemic of


bubonic plague that had spread in the erstwhile Bombay Presidency in the
1890s.
2. It has never been invoked in Independent India.
3. It provides penalties for disobeying any regulation or order made under the
Act.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (C) 1 and 3 only

Learning Zone: It is routinely enforced across the country for dealing with
outbreaks of diseases such as swine flu, dengue, and cholera.
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It was introduced by the colonial government to tackle the epidemic of bubonic
plague that had spread in the erstwhile Bombay Presidency in the 1890s.

It empowers state governments/UTs to take special measures and formulate


regulations for containing the outbreak.

It also provides penalties for disobeying any regulation or order made under the Act.
These are according to section 188 of the Indian Penal Code (disobedience to order
duly promulgated by public servant).

In 2018, the district collector of Gujarat’s Vadodara issued a notification under the
Act declaring the Khedkarmsiya village in Waghodia taluka as cholera-affected after
31 persons complained of symptoms of the disease.

In 2015, to deal with malaria and dengue in Chandigarh, the Act was implemented
and controlling officers were instructed to ensure the issuance of notices and
challans of Rs 500 to offenders.

Why is this question important? The Centre has asked states and Union
Territories to invoke provisions of Section 2 of Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897, so that
Health Ministry advisories are enforceable.

59. Consider the following statements

1. An outbreak is a sudden rise in the cases of a disease in a particular place.


2. An epidemic is a large outbreak among a particular population or region.
3. A pandemic is “the worldwide spread of a new disease” which would at least
touch 20 countries.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 2 and 3 only


(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2 only
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Ans: (d) 1 and 2 only


Learning Zone: An outbreak is understood to be a sudden rise in the cases of a
disease in a particular place.

An epidemic is a large outbreak among a particular population or region (such as the


current situation in China).

A pandemic is “the worldwide spread of a new disease”. There is no specific number


of countries that a disease must touch for WHO to classify it as a pandemic.

Why is this question important? Definitions are related to COVID-19 cases all
over the world.

60. With regard to Additional Tier-1 bonds, consider the following


statements

1. They are a type of unsecured, perpetual bonds that banks issue to shore up
their core capital base to meet the Basel-III norms.
2. These bonds have no maturity date.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c) Both 1 and 2

Learning Zone: They are a type of unsecured, perpetual bonds that banks issue to
shore up their core capital base to meet the Basel-III norms.

Key features:

These have higher rates than tier-II bonds.


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These bonds have no maturity date.


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The issuing bank has the option to call back the bonds or repay the principal after a
specified period of time.
The attraction for investors is a higher yield than secured bonds issued by the same
entity.

Why is this question important? The Association of Mutual Funds in India


(AMFI) has recently written to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Securities
and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) to allow fund houses a temporary write-down of
additional tier-1 bonds of Yes Bank to avoid a huge hit on the net asset value of
schemes that hold such bonds.

61. In the context of Major Port Authorities Bill, 2020, who among the
following has now been given powers to fix tariff which will act as a
reference tariff for purposes of bidding for PPP projects?

(a) Ministry of Shipping


(b) State Government
(c) Tariff Authority for Major Ports (TAMP)
(d) Ministry of Commerce and Industries

Ans: (c) Tariff Authority for Major Ports (TAMP)

Learning Zone: The salient features of the Major Port Authorities Bill 2020 are:

Compared to the Major Port Trusts Act, 1963 the bill reduces the number of sections
to 76 from 134 by eliminating overlapping and obsolete Sections.

Simplified composition of the Board of Port Authority which will comprise of 11 to 13


Members from the present 17 to 19 Members representing various interests.

Provision has been made for the inclusion of representative of State Government in
which the Major Port is situated, Ministry of Railways, Ministry of Defence and
Customs, Department of Revenue as Members in the Board apart from a
Government Nominee Member and a Member representing the employees of the
Major Port Authority.
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Tariff Authority for Major Ports (TAMP) has now been given powers to fix tariff which
will act as a reference tariff for purposes of bidding for PPP projects. PPP operators
will be free to fix tariff based on market conditions.

Why is this question important? Major Port Authorities Bill 2020 Introduced in
The Loksabha.

62. With reference to Foreigners Tribunals, consider the following


statements

1. The district magistrates in all States and Union Territories to set up such
tribunals.
2. only the State administration could move to the Tribunal to decide on whether
a person staying illegally in India is a foreigner or not.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (a) 1 only

Learning Zone: The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has amended the Foreigners
(Tribunals) Order, 1964, and has empowered district magistrates in all States and
Union Territories to set up tribunals (quasi-judicial bodies) to decide whether a
person staying illegally in India is a foreigner or not.

Earlier, the powers to constitute tribunals were vested only with the Centre.

Typically, the tribunals there have seen two kinds of cases: those concerning
persons against whom a reference has been made by the border police and those
whose names in the electoral roll have a “D”, or “doubtful”, marked against them.
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The amended order (Foreigners (Tribunal) Order, 2019) also empowers individuals
to approach the Tribunals. Earlier, only the State administration could move the
Tribunal against a suspect.

Why is this question important?: A series of judgments delivered by the Gauhati


High Court recently has brought into sharp focus the utter brutality of the regime
governing the Foreigners’ Tribunals in Assam.

63. With reference to CRIME MULTI AGENCY CENTRE (Cri-MAC), recently


seen in the news, consider the following statements

1. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Home.


2. It aims to share information between various police forces on heinous crimes.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c) Both 1 and 2

Learning Zone: Cri-MAC aims to share information between various police forces
on heinous crimes.

It is meant to share information on heinous crimes and other issues related to inter-
state coordination.

Why is this question important? It is a recent initiative by the Ministry of the


Home.

64. In Which among the following location, a vulture restaurant has


recently started?
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(a) Pong Dam Lake WildLife sanctuary


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(b) Periyar Tiger reserve


(c) Eravikulam Wildlife Sanctuary
(d) Tadoba Andhari Tiger Reserve

Ans: (a) Pong Dam Lake WildLife sanctuary

Learning Zone: It is a feeding station for vultures in the Pong Dam Lake Wild Life
sanctuary in Kangra district of Himachal Pradesh.

It has been set up as a part of state wildlife wing’s ongoing project to conserve the
big scavenging bird in natural habitat, whose numbers showed a critical decline in
the past decades in Indian sub-continent.

Measuring 100 meters x 100 meters with seven feet high fencing at an open space
in Suknara near Nagrota Surian in Pong wetland, the ‘Vulture Restaurant’ provides
deskinned carcasses to vultures.

There are seven species of vultures in the new world and 16 species in the old world
that includes Europe, Africa, Asia, Australia, etc. Out of 16 in the old world, eight
species (including Himalayan Griffon, Eurasian Griffon) have been reported in Kangra
district also.

Why is this question important? It is a recent initiative.

65. With reference to ‘Floor Test’, often seen in the news, consider the
following statements

1. The floor test is an extra-constitutional mechanism.


2. If some MLAs remain absent or abstain from voting, the majority is counted
on the basis of those present and voting.
3. The voting process can happen orally, with electronic gadgets or a ballot
process.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only


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(b) 2 and 3 only


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(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b) 2 and 3 only

Learning Zone: A floor test is a constitutional mechanism. It is used to determine if


the incumbent government enjoys the support of the legislature.

This voting process happens in the state’s Legislative Assembly or the Lok Sabha at
the central level.

Technically, the chief minister of a state is appointed by the Governor. The


appointed chief minister usually belongs to the single largest party or the coalition
which has the ‘magic number’. The magic number is the total number of seats
required to form a government or stay in power. It is the half-way mark, plus one.
In case of a tie, the Speaker casts the deciding vote.

However, at times, a government’s majority can be questioned. The leader of the


party claiming the majority has to move a vote of confidence.

If some MLAs remain absent or abstain from voting, the majority is counted on the
basis of those present and voting. This effectively reduces the strength of the House
and in turn, brings down the majority-mark.

The voting process can happen orally, with electronic gadgets or a ballot process.

Why is this question important? Madhya Pradesh Chief Minister Kamal Nath has
requested Governor Lalji Tandon to hold a floor test in the Assembly session starting
from March 16, on a date fixed by the Speaker.

66. With reference to the Essential Commodities Act, Consider the


following statements

1. It is used by the Government to regulate the production, supply and


distribution of a whole host of commodities it declares ‘essential’.
2. The list of items under the Act includes drugs, fertilisers, pulses and edible
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oils, and petroleum and petroleum products.


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3. Under the Act, the government can also fix the maximum retail price (MRP) of
any packaged product that it declares an “essential commodity”.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Learning Zone: The ECA was enacted way back in 1955.

It has since been used by the Government to regulate the production, supply and
distribution of a whole host of commodities it declares ‘essential’ in order to make
them available to consumers at fair prices.

The list of items under the Act includes drugs, fertilisers, pulses and edible oils, and
petroleum and petroleum products.

The Centre can include new commodities as and when the need arises, and take
them off the list once the situation improves.

Under the Act, the government can also fix the maximum retail price (MRP) of any
packaged product that it declares an “essential commodity”.

Why is this question important? Govt brings masks and hand sanitizers under
the Essential Commodities Act.

Under the EC Act, powers of the Central Government have already been delegated
to the States by way of orders from 1972 to 1978. The States/UTs, therefore, may
take action against the offenders.

67. With reference to National Clean Air Programme (NCAP), consider the
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following statements
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1. It will be executed by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB).
2. Under the programme Centre also plans to scale up the air quality monitoring
network across India.
3. The plan includes cities from all the states of India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (a) 1 and 2 only

Learning Zone: National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) is launched in January 2019,
it is the first-ever effort in the country to frame a national framework for air quality
management with a time-bound reduction target.

The programme will not be notified under the Environment Protection Act or any
other Act to create a firm mandate with a strong legal back up for cities and regions
to implement NCAP in a time-bound manner for effective reduction.

The plan includes 102 non-attainment cities, across 23 states and Union territories,
which were identified by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) on the basis of
their ambient air quality data between 2011 and 2015.

As part of the programme, the Centre also plans to scale up the air quality
monitoring network across India. At least 4,000 monitors are needed across the
country, instead of the existing 101 real-time air quality (AQ) monitors, according to
an analysis.

Why is this question important? Union Environment Ministry has asked for city-
level plans for the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) as these problems need to
be dealt with at the local level.
59

68. Blue-chip stocks, often seen in the news is related to:


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(a) Shares of IT companies
(b) Shares of Startups
(c) Shares of very large and well-recognised companies
(d) Maritime security

Ans: (c) Shares of very large and well-recognised companies

Learning Zone: Blue-chip stocks are shares of very large and well-recognised
companies with a long history of sound financial performance.

These stocks are known to have capabilities to endure tough market conditions and
give high returns in good market conditions.

Why is this question important? Blue-chip stocks generally cost high, as they
have a good reputation and are often market leaders in their respective industries.

69. With reference to ‘Sepsis’, consider the following statements

1. It is a life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by the body’s immune


system overreacting in response to an infection.
2. It is triggered by virus infection only.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (a) 1 only

Learning Zone: Sepsis is a life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by the body’s


immune system overreacting in response to an infection. This overactive, toxic
response can lead to tissue damage, multiple organ failure and death.
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Viruses, bacteria, fungi or parasites — sepsis can be triggered by a variety of


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pathogens.
The causes of sepsis are usually pneumonia, wound infections, urinary tract
infections or infections in the abdominal cavity.

Ebola and yellow fever viruses, dengue, swine flu or bird flu viruses can also cause
sepsis.

Why is this question important? It is a common cause of death from coronavirus

70. Which among the following best describes ‘One Health’?

(a) It calls for health attention of all sections of people irrespective of gender,
caste, religion, creed etc.
(b) It is an action-oriented initiative to provide better health facilities to animals.
(c) It recognises that the health of human beings is connected to the health of
animals and the environment.
(d) It is to provide tertiary care health facilities to rural areas at a cheap cost.

Ans: (c) It recognises that the health of human beings is connected to the
health of animals and the environment.

Learning Zone: The concept of ‘One Health’, which recognises that health of
human beings is connected to the health of animals and environment, is gaining
importance as most of the contagious diseases affecting humans are zoonotic
(animal to man origin) in nature.

Why is this question important? The concept of One Health can be effectively
implemented for reducing the incidence of emerging zoonotic threats like COVID-19.

71. Addis Ababa Action Agenda (AAAA), often seen in the news is related
to:

(a) Climate Change


(b) Poverty Eradication
(c) Indian Ocean Security
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(d) Sustainable Development


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Ans: (d) Sustainable Development

Learning Zone: Addis Ababa Action Agenda provides a global framework for
effective mobilisation of resources at the national and international level for
sustainable development.

Implementation of this agenda also supports the implementation of the Sustainable


Development Goals (SDGs).

Why is this question important? Thirty-six major changes to the global indicator
framework for the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were approved and
adopted by the United Nations Statistical Commission (UNSC).

72. With reference to NCS (NATIONAL CAREER SERVICE), consider the


following statements

1. It hosts career-related services such as dynamic job matching, career


counselling, job notifications etc.
2. It is a project under the Ministry of Labour and Employment.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c) Both 1 and 2

Learning Zone: It is one of the mission mode projects under the umbrella of E-
Governance Plan.

It works towards bridging the gap between job-seekers and employers, candidates
seeking training and career guidance and agencies providing training and career
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counselling by transforming the National Employment Service.


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NCS provides a host of career-related services such as dynamic job matching, career
counselling, job notifications, vocational guidance, information on skill development
courses, internships and alike.

Why is this question important? The Parliamentary Standing Committee on


Labour in its report has flagged the under-utilisation of funds by the Union Labour
and Employment Ministry, which was yet to spend almost 20% of its 2019-2020
Budget (revised estimate) as on February 10.

The report noted that utilisation of funds for the National Career Services (NCS)
scheme of the Ministry, which facilitates job-seekers, was the worst compared to
other schemes.

73. Consider the following pairs

1. Perseverance Rover - US
2. ExoMars - JAPAN
3. Hope Mars Orbiter - UAE

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 only

Ans: (b) 1 and 3 only

Learning Zone: NASA’s Perseverance rover, formerly known as Mars 2020, will
take off in July from Cape Canaveral.

The United Arab Emirates’ Hope Mars orbiter is slated to launch on a Japanese H-2A
rocket this summer.

ExoMars is a joint endeavour between ESA and the Russian space agency,
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Roscosmos.
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Why is this question important? All the above Missions are expected to launch
soon.

74. COVID-19 Solidarity Response Fund, recently seen in the news is


initiated by:

1. WHO
2. United Nations Foundation
3. Swiss Philanthropy Foundation
4. European Union

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 2, 3 and 4 only


(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only

Ans: (c) 2 and 3 only

Learning Zone: The United Nations Foundation and the Swiss Philanthropy
Foundation have created the solidarity fund to support WHO and partners in a
massive effort to help countries prevent, detect, and manage the novel coronavirus
– particularly those where the needs are the greatest.

Why is this question important? Recent initiative on containing COVID-19.

75. With reference to Herd Immunity, Consider the following statements

1. Herd protection of the unvaccinated occurs when a sufficient proportion of the


group is immune.
2. The individuals who are more prone to the infection and cannot become
immune due to medical reasons can be provided protection through this
method.
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Which of the above statements is/are correct?


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(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c) Both 1 and 2

Learning Zone: Herd immunity is a kind of indirect protection from an infectious


disease. It is a measure of providing protection to those people who are less
immune compared to others when a large number of the population is prone to an
infectious disease.

This measure helps in breaking the vicious chain of infection or may help in stopping
or slowing down the infectious disease.

The individuals who are more prone to the infection and cannot become immune
due to medical reasons can be provided protection through this method. In simple
words, when a large number of people catch any infectious disease, say COVID-19,
the body of the people affected will produce the antibodies in response to fight the
disease and eradicate it

Why is this question important? The UK’s Chief Scientific Adviser has said a
degree of herd immunity will help the UK population as Covid-19 spreads.

76. With reference to Excise Duty, Consider the following statements

1. It is the taxes levied on the manufacture of goods within the country.


2. All excise duties are subsumed under GST without exemptions.
3. The Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBEC) is responsible for
collecting excise duty.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 2 only
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(c) 3 only
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(d) 1 and 3 only


Ans: (d) 1 and 3 only

Learning Zone: Excise duty refers to the taxes levied on the manufacture of goods
within the country, as opposed to custom duty that is levied on goods coming from
outside the country.

In July 2017 the Centre introduced GST that subsumed a number of indirect taxes
including excise duty. This means excise duty, technically, does not exist in India
except on a few items such as liquor and petroleum.

The Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBEC) is responsible for collecting
excise duty. The rates of Central Excise Duty are defined by the Central Excise Tariff
Act, 1985.

Why is this question important? The government has recently raised excise duty
on petrol and diesel by ₹3 each to boost revenue collections taking advantage of the
declining global crude oil price

77. Which among the following industries is/are assigned in the Red
category based on their pollution load by the Ministry of Environment,
Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC)?

1. Cement industry
2. Petrochemicals
3. Paints
4. Stone crushers
5. Sugar
6. Soap manufacturing

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:


(a) 1, 2, 3, and 6 only
(b) 1, 2 and 5 only
(c) 4 and 6 only
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(d) 1, 3, 4 and 6 only


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Ans: (b) 1, 2 and 5 only

Learning Zone: Industries are categorised based on their pollution load by the
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).

Red category: Includes Cement industry, Petrochemicals, pharmaceuticals, sugar,


paper and pulp, nuclear power plants, organic chemicals, fertilizers, firecrackers.

Orange category: Includes coal washeries, glass manufacturing, paints, stone


crushers, and aluminium and copper extraction from scrap.

Green category: Includes aluminium utensils, steel furniture, soap manufacturing


and tea processing.

White category: Includes the industries that are “practically non-polluting”. These
industries, like air cooler or air conditioning units, chalk factories, biscuit tray units,
won’t need a green clearance enabling easier financing.

Why is this question important? It is a topic which often comes in news.

78. Recently initiated India’s first women-only medical college to offer


free medical education is at:

(a) Lady Hardinge Medical College


(b) Symbiosis Medical College for Women (SMCW)
(c) Kasturba Medical College, Manipal
(d) Christian Medical College Vellore

Ans: (b) Symbiosis Medical College for Women (SMCW)

Learning Zone: Symbiosis to set up country’s first women-only medical college to


offer free medical education.

It will be called the Symbiosis Medical College for Women (SMCW). It will be the first
medical college in the country to offer free medical education. The college will be
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located at the campus of the Symbiosis International University at Lavale, Pune.


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Why is this question important? It is a recent initiative.

79. With reference to University for Peace (UPEACE), consider the


following statements

1. It is an intergovernmental organization with university status.


2. It was established by treaty at the United Nations General Assembly in 1980.
3. It is a dedicated institution for higher education in Peace and Conflict studies.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Learning Zone: It is an intergovernmental organization with university status.


Established by treaty at the United Nations General Assembly in 1980 and has its
main campus in Costa Rica.

The University has the unique status of not only being a dedicated institution for
higher education in Peace and Conflict studies, but also an international treaty body
organization mandated by the United Nations General Assembly.

Why is this question important? It is an international organization which often


comes in the news.

80. With reference to the State Election Commission, Consider the


following statements

1. The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the President of India.


2. The Courts cannot interfere in the conduct of polls to local bodies and self-
government institutions.
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Which of the above statements is/are correct?


(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (b) 2 only

Learning Zone: The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor.

As per article 243(C3) the Governor, when so requested by the State Election
Commission, make available to the State Election Commission such staff as may be
necessary for the discharge of the functions.

Courts cannot interfere in the conduct of polls to local bodies and self-government
institutions once the electoral process has been set in motion.

Article 243-O of the Constitution bars interference in poll matters set in motion by
the SECs; Article 329 bars interference in such matters set in motion by the EC.

Why is this question important? The Andhra Pradesh government has filed
petitions in the Supreme Court and the High Court over the issue of the State
Election Commission (SEC) postponing the local body elections citing the COVID-19
threat.

81. Consider the following statements

1. A Starred Question is one to which a member desires an oral answer from the
Minister in the House.
2. An Unstarred Question is one to which a written answer is desired by the
member and is deemed to be laid on the Table of the House by the Minister.
3. A Short notice question is the one on a matter of public importance and of
urgent character for an oral answer at a notice less than 10 days prescribed
as the minimum period of notice for asking a question in the ordinary course.
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Which of the above statements is/are correct?


(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Learning Zone: Starred Questions: A Starred Question is one to which a member


desires an oral answer from the Minister in the House and is required to be
distinguished by him/her with an asterisk. Answers to such a question may be
followed by supplementary questions by members.

Unstarred Questions: An Unstarred Question is one to which a written answer is


desired by the member and is deemed to be laid on the Table of the House by the
Minister. Thus it is not called for oral answer in the House and no supplementary
question can be asked thereon.

Short Notice Questions: A member may give notice of question on a matter of public
importance and of urgent character for an oral answer at a notice less than 10 days
prescribed as the minimum period of notice for asking a question in the ordinary
course. Such a question is known as ‘Short Notice Question’.

Why is this question important? Congress leader Rahul Gandhi recently said his
right as an MP to ask a supplementary question in Lok Sabha was taken away as
Speaker Om Birla did not allow him to ask one.

Rahul Gandhi was asking the government to name wilful bank loan defaulters but
was not allowed another supplementary question amid uproar in the lower house.

82. With regard to Appropriation Bill, Consider the following statements

1. It is a money bill that allows the government to withdraw funds from the
Consolidated Fund of India.
2. The Appropriation bill shall be passed by a Ballot vote.
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Which of the above statements is/are correct?


(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (a) 1 only

Learning Zone: Appropriation Bill is a money bill that allows the government to
withdraw funds from the Consolidated Fund of India to meet its expenses during the
course of a financial year.

As per article 114 of the Constitution, the government can withdraw money from the
Consolidated Fund only after receiving approval from Parliament.

To put it simply, the Finance Bill contains provisions on financing the expenditure of
the government, and the Appropriation Bill specifies the quantum and purpose for
withdrawing money.

The Appropriation Bill is passed by a voice vote.

Why is this question important? The Lok Sabha has passed the Appropriation
Bill 2020-21 that empowers the government to draw over ₹110 lakh crore from the
Consolidated Fund of India for its working, as well as for the implementation of its
programmes and schemes.

83. With reference to Bharat Stage Emission Standards (BSES), consider


the following statements

1. They are set by the Central Pollution Control Board.


2. It was first brought into effect in 2000 under the head “India 2000”.
3. The government implemented BS5 in 2016 and planning to introduce Bharat
Stage VI (BS6) in 2020.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?


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(a) 2 and 3 only


(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1 and 2 only

Ans: (d) 1 and 2 only

Learning Zone: It is Introduced in the year 2000. They are set by the Central
Pollution Control Board under the Ministry of Environment and Climate Change.

Objective: To keep air pollutants emitted by the internal combustion engine of


vehicles under control.

They are based on European (EURO) emission standards. Bharat Stage (BS)
emission norms were first brought into effect in 2000 under the head “India 2000”.
This was followed by BS2 in 2001 and BS3 in 2005.

However, the emission norms were made more stringent only with the enforcement
of Bharat Stage IV (BS4). Thereafter, the Government of India skipped the
implementation of BS5 in 2016 and decided to introduce Bharat Stage VI (BS6) in
2020 instead.

Why is this question important? The Society of Indian Automobile


Manufacturers has said it has approached the Supreme Court seeking directions to
ensure that sale and registration of BS-IV compliant vehicles are allowed till March
31, 2020.

84. With reference to Uranium, consider the following statements

1. The biological half-life for uranium is about 15 days.


2. It is a naturally occurring element found in low levels within all rock, soil, and
water.
3. Naturally, it is very rare to find in India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?


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(a) 1 and 2 only


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(b) 2 and 3 only


(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (a) 1 and 2 only

Learning Zone: Uranium is weakly radioactive and remains so because of its long
physical half-life (4.468 billion years for uranium-238).

The biological half-life (the average time it takes for the human body to eliminate
half the amount in the body) for uranium is about 15 days.

It is a naturally occurring element found in low levels within all rock, soil, and water.
This is the highest-numbered element to be found naturally in significant quantities
on earth.

It is considered to be more plentiful than antimony, beryllium, cadmium, gold,


mercury, silver, or tungsten. It is about as abundant as tin, arsenic or molybdenum.

Why is this question important? A report on Uranium Contamination in


groundwater was recently submitted in Parliament.

85. Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPR) facilities in India are established


at which among the following places?

1. Visakhapatnam
2. Kochi
3. Mangaluru
4. Padur

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 2, 3 and 4 only


(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
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Ans: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only


Learning Zone: Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserve Limited (ISPRL), a Government
of India Special Purpose Vehicle, has established Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPR)
facilities with a total capacity of 5.33 Million Metric Tonnes (MMT) (Under Phase-1)
at 3 locations, namely (i) Visakhapatnam, (ii) Mangaluru and (iii) Padur.

Why is this question important? Government has given ‘in principle’ approval for
establishing two additional SPR facilities with a total storage capacity of 6.5 MMT at
two locations namely (i) Chandikhol in Odisha (4 MMT) and (ii) Padur in Karnataka
(2.5 MMT)(Under Phase-2).

86. In the context of Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Bill,


2020, consider the following statements

1. It seeks to extend the upper limit for permitting abortions from 20 weeks to
24 under special circumstances.
2. The Bill proposes a requirement of the opinion of one registered medical
practitioner (RMP) for termination of pregnancy up to 20 weeks of gestation.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c) Both 1 and 2

Learning Zone: It seeks to extend the upper limit for permitting abortions from 20
weeks to 24 under special circumstances.

The “special categories of women” include rape survivors, victims of incest, the
differently-abled and minors.

The Bill proposes a requirement of the opinion of one registered medical practitioner
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(RMP) for termination of pregnancy up to 20 weeks of gestation.


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It also provides for the requirement of the opinion of two RMPs for termination of
pregnancy of 20 to 24 weeks.

Why is this question important? The Medical Termination of Pregnancy


(Amendment) Bill, 2020, which seeks to amend the MTP Act, 1971, was passed in
Lok Sabha recently.

87. ODF+, ODF++ and Water Plus, often seen in the news are related
with:

(a) Swachh Bharat Mission


(b) Ganga rejuvenation Plan
(c) National Rural Health Mission
(d) Ayushman Bharat

Ans: (a) Swachh Bharat Mission

Learning Zone: ODF+ and ODF++ were launched in August 2018 to further scale
up and sustain the work undertaken by the cities after achieving the ODF status
under Phase I of the Swachh Bharat Mission — Urban (SBM-Urban).

Cities that had been certified ODF at least once, on the basis of the ODF protocols,
are eligible to declare themselves as SBM-ODF+ & SBM-ODF++.

water plus is Announced in August 2019, Water Plus aims to sustain toilets by
treating and reuse of water. It contributes to the government’s focus on water
conversation and reuse under the Jal Shakti Abhiyan and is in alignment with United
Nations-mandated Sustainable Development Goal No 6 on clean water and
sanitation.

Why is this question important? Parliamentary Standing Committee on Urban


Development recently tabled its report on the performance of the Swachh Bharat
Mission (Urban) in Lok Sabha.

88. In the context of new guidelines for Payment aggregators by RBI,


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consider the following statements


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1. The capital requirements for payment aggregators has been reduced to Rs 15
crore at the time of application for the licence.
2. Only bank entities can offer payment aggregation (PA) services according to
new rules.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (a) 1 only

Learning Zone: Capital requirements for payment aggregators has been reduced to
Rs 15 crore at the time of application for the licence.

This needs to be increased to Rs 25 crore within three years of operations. Existing


non-bank entities offering payment aggregation (PA) services shall apply for
authorisation on or before June 30, 2021.

Pure-play payment gateway companies would be separated as an entity and would


be identified as technology service providers for banks and non-banks.

PAs have also been asked to adhere to strict security guidelines, adhere to all KYC
(Know Your Customer) and AML (Anti Money Laundering) rules.

The guidelines have also mandated that PAs need to check their merchant
customers are not involved in the selling of prohibited or fake items.

The central bank has also asked PAs to set up designated nodal offices to deal with
customer grievance.

The RBI has prohibited PAs from allowing online transactions to be done with ATM
pin as the second factor of authentication, which few payment gateway companies
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were offering as a service.


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Why is this question important? The new guidelines have been released
recently.

89. GEMINI device often seen in the news is used for:

1. Disaster warnings
2. Bomb detonation
3. Potential Fishing Zones (PFZ) information to fisherman
4. Online Learning
5. Ocean States Forecasts (OSF) to fishermen

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 4 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 3 and 5 only

Ans: (d) 1, 3 and 5 only

Learning Zone: For seamless and effective dissemination of emergency information


and communication on disaster warnings, Potential Fishing Zones (PFZ) and Ocean
States Forecasts (OSF) to fishermen, the Government today launched the Gagan
Enabled Mariner’s Instrument for Navigation and Information (GEMINI) device.

The GEMINI device receives and transfers the data received from GAGAN satellite/s
to a mobile through Bluetooth communication. A mobile application developed by
INCOIS decodes and displays the information in nine regional languages.

Why is this question important? The Indian National Centre for Ocean
Information Services (INCOIS) has reported that Oceansat Satellite data are used to
prepare the Potential Fishing Zone (PFZ) advisories on the potential rich fishing
areas and provide to the seafaring fishermen in all states.
77

90. Safe Hands Challenge, recently seen the news is launched by:
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(a) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(b) WHO
(c) UNDP
(d) Govt. of Kerala

Ans: (b) WHO

Learning Zone: It is a campaign launched by the World Health Organization in the


wake of 2019-20 coronavirus pandemic.

The campaign urges everyone to wash their hands regularly for 40 seconds to keep
themselves safe and prevent the transmission of disease.

Why is this question important? It is a recent initiative by WHO

91. Danube-Oder-Elbe Canal. Often seen in the news connects

(a) Black Sea - Caspian Sea


(b) Black sea - Adriatic Sea - Mediterranian Sea
(c) Black sea - Baltic sea - North Sea
(d) Adriatic - Aegean sea

Ans: (c) Black sea - Baltic sea - North Sea

Learning Zone: It intends to connect the Danube, Oder and Elbe rivers and thus
provide another navigable link from the Black Sea to the North and Baltic Seas.

Why is this question important? Environmental organisations from across central


and eastern Europe are criticising this project. They say, the project, if constructed,
would destroy the region’s river landscapes, in violation of EU environmental laws

92. With reference to the Technology Development Board, consider the


following statements

1. It is a statutory body.
78

2. It encourages enterprises to take up technology-oriented products.


Page
3. It provides equity capital or loans to industrial concerns and financial
assistance to research and development institutions.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 2 and 3 only


(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Learning Zone: It is a statutory body established by the Technology Development


Board Act, 1995.

Objective: To promote development and commercialization of indigenous technology


and adaptation of imported technology for much wider application.

Roles and functions of the board: Encourage enterprises to take up technology-


oriented products. Provide equity capital or loans to industrial concerns and financial
assistance to research and development institutions.

Why is this question important? Technology Development Board under DST


invites technology proposals for fighting COVID 19.

The proposal may include technologically innovative solutions like low-cost masks,
cost-effective scanning devices, technologies for sanitization of large areas as well as
for contactless entry, rapid diagnostic kits and oxygenators, and ventilators

93. In the context of Article 142 who among the following has the power
to do “complete justice” between the parties where at times law or
statute may not provide a remedy?

(a) The Supreme Court of India


(b) The President of India
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(c) The High Court of the state


Page

(d) Both (a) and (b) together


Ans: (a) The Supreme Court of India

Learning Zone: Article 142 “provide(s) a unique power to the Supreme Court, to
do “complete justice” between the parties, i.e., where at times law or statute may
not provide a remedy, the Court can extend itself to put a quietus to a dispute in a
manner which would befit the facts of the case.

Why is this question important? In an extraordinary display of its constitutional


powers under Article 142 of the Indian Constitution, the Supreme Court has stripped
Manipur Cabinet Minister T. Shyamkumar, who is facing disqualification proceedings
for defection, of his office and banned him from entering the Assembly with
immediate effect.

94. Consider the following statements

1. India has the fifth-largest coal reserves in the world.


2. The Damodar-Koel valley and Son valley In India are prospective areas for
Coal Bed Methane development.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c) Both 1 and 2

Learning Zone: India has the fifth-largest coal reserves in the world, and CBM has
been looked at as a clean alternative fuel with significant prospects.

India’s CBM resources are estimated at around 92 trillion cubic feet (TCF), or 2,600
billion cubic metres (BCM).
80

The country’s coal and CBM reserves are found in 12 states of India, with the
Page

Gondwana sediments of eastern India holding the bulk.


The Damodar-Koel valley and Son valley are prospective areas for CBM
development.

Why is this question important? News related to Coal Bed Methane is often seen
in the news.

95. With reference to ‘Consumers International (CI)’, recently seen in the


news, consider the following statements

1. It is the membership organisation for consumer groups initiated by the World


Economic Forum.
2. The World Consumer Rights Day is organised by Consumers International.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (b) 2 only

Learning Zone: Consumers International is the membership organisation for


consumer groups around the world. Founded on 1 April 1960, it has over 220
member organisations in 115 countries around the world. Its head office is based in
London, England, with regional offices in Latin America, Asia Pacific, Middle East and
Africa.

WCRD was first observed on 15 March 1983 and has since become an important
occasion for mobilising citizen action.

Consumers International (CI), which was founded in 1960 organises WCRD. It is the
only independent and authoritative global voice for consumers.
81

Why is this question important? This year’s World Consumer Rights Day was
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observed recently.
96. Country-by-Country (CbC) Report recently seen in the news, is related
to:

(a) World Bank


(b) IMF
(c) World Economic Forum
(d) OECD

Ans: (d) OECD

Learning Zone: The Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development


(OECD) has developed an Action Plan called “Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (BEPS)
Action Plan 13” to ensure that a multinational enterprise would report its profit
correctly where it is earned

The Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (BEPS) Action 13 report (Transfer Pricing
Documentation and Country-by-Country Reporting) provides a template for
multinational enterprises (MNEs) to report annually and for each tax jurisdiction in
which they do business the information set out therein. This report is called the
Country-by-Country (CbC) Report.

Why is this question important? With Central Board of Direct Taxes(CBDT)


notifying rules for furnishing “Country-by-Country Report” (CbC) specifying
information pertaining to all large multinational enterprises (MNEs), the Finance
Ministry has said that Joint Director of Income-tax (Risk Assessment)-1 has been
designated as the Income-tax Authority before whom particulars of the parent entity
and alternate reporting entity would be notified.

97. With reference to ‘Tech For Tribals’ initiative, consider the following
statements

1. It is launched by ‘TRIFED’.
2. It is an initiative to provide access to the Internet in tribal areas.
3. It aims to transform 5 crores, tribal entrepreneurs.
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Which of the above statements is/are correct?


(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b) 1 and 3 only

Learning Zone: TRIFED Launches transformational “Tech For Tribals” program in


partnership with Institutes of National Importance (INIs) to develop Tribal
entrepreneurship.

It aims to transform 5 crores, Tribal Entrepreneurs. It is supported by the Ministry of


MSME. It also aims at capacity building and imparting entrepreneurship skills to
tribal forest produce gatherers enrolled under the Pradhan Mantri VanDhan Yojana
(PMVDY).

Why is this question important? It is a recent initiative.

98. With regard to Huntingtin Disease, recently seen in the news, consider
the following statements

1. It is a genetic disorder.
2. It affects the brain that causes uncontrolled movements.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c) Both 1 and 2

Learning Zone: It is a progressive genetic disorder.


83
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It affects the brain that causes uncontrolled movements, impaired coordination of
balance and movement, a decline in cognitive abilities, difficulty in concentrating and
memory lapses, mood swings and personality changes.

Why is this question important? Scientists have recently found that the
pathogenic protein called the Huntingtin Protein causes a decrease in overall protein
production.

99. World Happiness Report, is released by which among the following?

(a) Ministry of Happiness, UAE govt.


(b) Sustainable Development Solutions Network
(c) UNDP
(d) Oxfam International

Ans: (b) Sustainable Development Solutions Network

Learning Zone: It is released by the Sustainable Development Solutions Network


for the United Nations by the UN General Assembly.

It is a landmark survey of the state of global happiness that ranks 156 countries by
how happy their citizens perceive themselves to be.

Why is this question important? This year’s World Happiness Report has been
released recently.

100. Which among the following is the reason for Russia’s expulsion from
G8 grouping?

(a) Russia was not adhering to the climate change tackling initiative of G8.
(b) The increasing proliferation of nuclear weapons by Russia.
(c) Alleged terror financing by Russia
(d) Conquering of Crimea by Russia

Ans: (d) Conquering of Crimea by Russia


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Learning Zone: Russia was formally inducted as a member of the group in 1998,
which led G7 to become G8.

However, Russian President Vladimir Putin’s condemnable act of moving Russian


troops into eastern Ukraine and conquering Crimea in 2014 drew heavy criticism
from the other G8 nations.

The other nations of the group decided to suspend Russia from the G8 as a
consequence of its actions and the group became G7 again in 2014.

Why is this question important? President Donald Trump is scrapping this year’s
G7 summit at Camp David near Washington due to the COVID_19 crisis and will
instead hold the event by videoconference.

85
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