02668b7a80fa8-Mock CLAT 10 Questions GK 10-Combined

SECTION-B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Directions (Q.31–Q.65): Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.
Passage (Q.31-Q.35): In yet another recognition of India’s commitment to protect and conserve the pristine
coastal and marine ecosystems through holistic management of the resources the globally recognized and the
coveted International eco-label "Blue Flag”, has accorded the Blue Flag Certification for 2 new beaches this
year.
[1] in Denmark which accords the globally recognized eco-label - Blue Flag certification, has also given re-
certification for some nominated beaches Shivrajpur-Gujarat, Ghoghla-Diu, Kasarkod and Padubidri-Karnataka,
Kappad-Kerala etc.
The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change in its pursuit of “Sustainable Development” of the
coastal regions of India embarked upon a highly acclaimed & flagship program BEAMS which is one of the
initiatives under ICZM approach that the MoEF&CC has undertaken for the sustainable development of
coastal regions of India, with a prime objective to protect and conserve the pristine coastal and marine
ecosystems through holistic management of the resources.
The objective of BEAMS program is to abate pollution in coastal waters, promote sustainable development of
beach facilities, protect & conserve coastal ecosystems & natural resources, and seriously challenge local
authorities & stakeholders to strive and maintain high standards of cleanliness, hygiene & safety for beachgoers
in accordance with coastal environment & regulations. In the last 3 years or so, our Ministry have achieved
commendable results in environmental management of these [2] beaches.
31. Which of the following is the Full form of the abbreviation BEAMS?
(a) Beach enhancement and articulation management scheme
(b) Beach Environment & Aesthetics Management Services
(c) Beach and entropy & artistic monitoring service
(d) Beach & environment and marine sanitation
32. Which of the following will replace [1] in the above passage?
(a) Foundation for Environment Education
(b) Foundation of Environment Elements
(c) Foundation of Environmental Elevation
(d) Firm of Elemental Environment Education
33. Who is the minister of Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change ministry?
(a) Shri Sarbanada Sonowal (b) Shri Bhupender Yadav
(c) Dr. Virendra Yadav (d) Mansukh Mandaviya
34. Which two new beaches have been accorded the Blue Flag certification
(a) Aksa beach Mumbai and Anjuna beach North Goa
(b) Rushikonda and Ammapalappam beach Andhra Pradesh
(c) Mandarmani beach West Bengal & Tharangambadi beach in Tamil Nadu.
(d) Kovalam in Tamil Nadu and Eden in Puducherry.
35. How many beaches in India have Blue Flag certification?

(a) 13 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 22
Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 9 of 36
Passage (Q.36-Q.40): Swachh Survekshan, conducted by MoHUA since [1], is the world’s largest urban
sanitation and cleanliness survey. It has been instrumental in fostering a spirit of healthy competition among
towns and cities to improve their service delivery to citizens and towards creating cleaner cities.
The primary goal of Swachh Survekshans is to encourage large scale citizen participation and create awareness
amongst all sections of society about the importance of working together towards making towns and cities better
places to reside in.
The Swachh Survekshan Grameen 2021 or rural cleanliness survey 2021 is set to be launched in villages under
the [2], according to the Jal Shakti Ministry. The Survekshan is a survey that assesses the state of hygiene,
cleanliness and sanitation in rural India as a part of the Centre’s initiative to award ODF Plus status to villages.
As part of the 2021 rural cleanliness survey, as many as 17,475 villages spanning across 698 districts in India
would be covered, and the surveyors would be looking at about 87,250 public places like anganwadi centres,
markets, religious places, schools, and public health centres. Not only that but nearly 1.75 lakh households would
also be interviewed to receive feedback on issues related to the Swachh Bharat Mission. Citizens would be urged
to take to the internet to provide feedback on issues related to sanitation online.
36. Which of the following will replace [1] in the above passage ?
(a) 2015 (b) 2014 (c) 2016 (d) 2017
37. Which of the following is the main aim of the SSG?

(a) Create awareness about separating waste in rural areas
(b) Providing women with sanitation and hygiene products
(c) Prevent open defecation in areas where it is still practiced, i.e. major rural areas
(d) none of the above
(a) Clean India Green India
(b) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan
(c) Swachh Banega Bharat Abhiyan
(d) Mahatma Gandhi Swachh Bharat Mission
39. Which of the following is the fund sharing pattern between the Centre and States for the completion of the
project?
(a) 80:20 (b) 70:30 (c) 60:40 (d) 50:50
40. Which is the India’s cleanest city under the Swachh Survekshan Awards 2021 ?
(a) Vijaywada (b) Indore (c) Chandigarh (d) Surat
Passage (Q.41-Q.45): Pakistan has been on the FATF's grey list for deficiencies in its counter-terror financing
and anti-money laundering regimes since June 2018. This greylisting has adversely impacted its imports, exports,
remittances, and limited access to international lending.
"Since June 2021, Pakistan has taken swift steps towards improving its AML/CFT regime and completed 6 of
the 7 action items ahead of any relevant deadlines expiring, including by demonstrating that it is enhancing the
impact of sanctions by nominating individuals and entities for UN designation and restraining and confiscating
proceeds of crime in line with Pakistan's risk profile," the FATF said in a statement.
"Pakistan should continue to work to address the one remaining item in its 2021 action plan by demonstrating a
positive and sustained trend of pursuing complex ML investigations and prosecutions," it added.
Meanwhile, the global financial watchdog also added the United Arab Emirates (UAE) to its "grey" watchlist.
"In February 2022, the UAE made a high-level political commitment to work with the FATF and MENAFATF
to strengthen the effectiveness of its AML/CFT regime," the FATF statement read.
The FATF Plenary took place under the German Presidency of [1] which saw the participation of over 200
members from the Global Network and observer organisations, including the International Monetary Fund, the
United Nations and the Egmont Group of Financial Intelligence Units.
41. How many countries are on the grey list?[as on March 2022]
(a) 23 (b) 11 (c) 7 (d) 17
42. Who among the following will replace [1] in the above passage?
(a) Mr. Alexander Grottas Liu (b) Dr. Marcus Pleyer
(c) Mr. Xiangmin Liu (d) Lt. Gen Chen Nyugen
43. Which of following is the another list under which FATF can put the nations?
(a) Red list (b) Green List (c) Black list (d) Blue Notice
44. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about Financial Action Task Force?
(a) It is an inter-governmental body established in 1989.
(b) It was established during G20 summit.
(c) India is a member of the FATF.
(d) It has 39 members.
45. FATF headquarter is located in which city?

(a) Hong Kong (b) Seoul (c) New Delhi (d) Paris
Passage (Q.46-Q.50): One Sun One World One Grid" will be the first international network of global
interconnected solar power grid which will combine large-scale solar power stations, wind farms and grids with
rooftop solar and community grids to ensure a reliable, resilient and affordable supply of clean energy for all.
The project is being spearheaded by the governments of India and the UK in partnership with the [1] and the World
Bank Group and will bring together a global coalition of national governments, international financial and technical
organisations, legislators, power system operators and knowledge leaders to accelerate the construction of the new
infrastructure needed for a world powered by clean energy.
The concept of a single global grid for solar was first outlined at the First Assembly of the [1] in late 2018 by
Prime Minister Narendra Modi. OSOWOG envisions building and scaling inter-regional energy grids to share
solar energy across the globe, leveraging the differences of time zones, seasons, resources, and prices between
countries and regions.
It will also help decarbonise energy production, which is today the largest source of global greenhouse gas
emissions. Aiming to synergize its efforts and actions with other similar initiatives globally, OSOWOG had
joined hands with [2] to form a unified [2]-OSOWOG initiative.
46. OSOWOG initiative was jointly released by PM Modi and __?

(a) Joe Biden (b) Vladimir Putin (c) Justin Trudeau (d) Boris Johnson
(a) International Atomic Energy Assembly
(b) International Renewable Energy Expansion Committee.
(c) International Solar Alliance
(d) National Solar Alliance
(a) Global Green Initiative (b) Growing Greener Initiative
(c) Green & Greener Initiative. (d) Green Grids Initiative
49. COP was held in which of the following places?

(a) London (b) Mumbai (c) New Delhi (d) Glasgow
50. OSOWOG is divided Into how many phases ?

(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 3
Passage (Q.51-Q.55): The Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has proposed several
amendments to the [1], which may enable infrastructure projects to come up in the forest areas more easily.
The amendments were reportedly shared with the Union Cabinet in March 2021 but were not made public. They
propose to “grant exemptions to railways, roads, tree plantations, oil exploration, wildlife tourism and ‘strategic’
projects in forests,” according to the documents in possession with the authors.
The proposal also aims to empower state governments to lease forest land to private individuals and corporations.
If the proposed amendments come into force, they would dilute the provisions of the landmark 1996 decision of
the Supreme Court in Godavarman case (TN Godavarman Thirumulkpad vs Union Of India & Ors).
The case had started off as a petition to stop illegal felling of timber in the Nilgiri hills, but ended up expanding
the coverage of the Act.
The Act is a brief legislation with only five sections. Section 1 defines the extent of coverage of the law, Section
2 restrictions of activities in forest areas, and the rest deals with the creation of advisory committees, powers of
rule-making and penalties.
The proposed amendments seek to make additions and changes to Section 1 and 2.
(a) Forest Conversion act 1990
(b) India Forest Act 1900
(c) Forest Conservation Act 1980
(d) All of the above.
52. What is India’s rank in the world in total land area under forest coverage?
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 10
53. Which state in India has highest land under forest coverage?
(a) Maharashtra (b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Odisha
54. Which of the following is INCORRECT with regards to the suggestions made under amendment?
(a) The realistic and sufficient punishments under the former Act should not be amended.
(b) It would further improve the connectivity infrastructure of the country insofar as roadways and highways are
concerned, which would in turn result in the country’s prosperity in one form or another.
(c) The genuine concerns of the armed forces and border defence intelligence agencies would be streamlined to
ensure adherence with necessary timelines.
(d) None of the above
55. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the Indian State of Forest Report?
(a) Indian State of Forest Report is a biennial publication of Forest Survey of India.
(b) It comes under the Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change.
(c) The ISFR assesses the forest and tree cover, bamboo resources, carbon stock and forest fires.
(d) The first edition of ISFR was published in 2017
Passage (Q.56-Q.60): Adoption of the National Multidimensional Poverty Index as a monitoring tool is part of
the central government’s larger mandate of leveraging the global indices, to drive reforms and growth to enhance
ease of living and thereby improve the country’s position in the global ranking on these indices.
The idea of multi-dimensional poverty and its implementation is not new to India. The multidimensional aspects
of poverty and the importance of multiple-deprivation methods in identifying the poor were first articulated in
the 11th Five Year Plan of India. Poverty assessments also double up as analytical tools that help understand the
linkage between the policy environment and the intended development outcomes.
This exercise provides insights on and roadmaps for welfare policy design and implementation. Identification of
below poverty line households through this method had also the objectives to effectively target services,
government programs and subsidies to the poor households.
The National Multidimensional Poverty Index provides evidence-based policy directions at both the national and
sub-national levels. The index can be potentially used to foster competitive federalism, by comparing progress
on development outcomes at the subnational level.
56. What is India’s rank in the Global Multidimensional Poverty Index?

(a) 100 (b) 33 (c) 8 (d) 66
57. Which of the following options is not a dimension of the National Multi-dimensional Poverty Index?
(a) Wealth, i.e. gross income (b) Health
(c) Education (d) Standard Of Living.
58. The baseline report of the National Multi-dimensional Poverty Index is based on which survey?
(a) Gross wealth and health survey
(b) National Poverty Biannual Survey
(c) National Family Health Survey
59. Which of the following is not in the category of a prosperous state?

(a) Kerala (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Sikkim
60. Global Multidimensional Poverty Index was done for the first time in the year?
(a) 2015 (b) 2010 (c) 2017 (d) 2020
Passage (Q.61-Q.65): President Ram Nath Kovind gave his assent to the Farm Laws Repeal Act 2021 that was
passed by both houses of Parliament by voice vote.
First, the Lok Sabha and then the Rajya Sabha passed The Farm Laws Repeal Bill 2021 by voice vote sans a
debate amid heavy sloganeering by the opposition that wanted a discussion on the issue. In both the houses, the
Bill was passed within minutes of introduction by the government.
The journey of three farm laws began on June 5, 2020 when the President of India promulgated three ordinances-
– [1]. These ordinances were later replaced with proper legislation in September 2020. However, the
implementation of three farm laws was stayed by the Supreme Court on January 12, 2021. So, these laws were
in effect for only 221 days.
Farmers across the country under the [2] banner had been agitating since last one year demanding repeal of the
three farm laws and legalising minimum support price (MSP) among other issues.
61. Which of the following is NOT one of the act as included in [1]?
(a) Farmers Produce Trade and Commerce (Promotion and Facilitation) Act, 2020.
(b) Farmers (Empowerment and Protection) Agreement on Price Assurance and Farm Services Act, 2020
(c) Essential Commodities (Amendment) Act, 2020:
(d) None of the above.
62. The farmers are asking for the MSP under which commission’s recommendation?
(a) Swaminathan Commission
(b) Sechalu Mandal Commision
(c) Dr. Trichirapalli Ganesh Commission
(d) Ambedkar Commission
(a) All India Kisan Sabha (b) Kisan - majdoor Ekta Manch
(c) Samyukt Kisan Morcha (d) Kisaan Ekta Sangh
64. How many sections does the Farm Laws repeal Act has?
(a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 3
65. Which of the following does NOT have the right to repeal enact or amend any law?
(a) Lok Sabha (b) Rajya Sabha (c) Prime minister (d) President
Passage(Q.31-Q.35): Independent research institute [1] Institute has also released its latest Democracy Report
2022, in which India continues to be categories as an ‘electoral autocracy’, a status to which it had been
downgraded for the first time in last year’s Democracy Report. Last year’s report, however, had expressly stated
that India could belong to the higher category of ‘electoral democracy’, by designating it as ‘EA+’. However, in
this year’s report, it has been designated ‘EA’, indicating that there is no uncertainty about its status. In previous
years’ reports, India had been classified as an electoral democracy.
The report states on multiple occasions that India is among the countries where autocratization is being driven
by an “anti-pluralist” political party. It also warns that ever since India descended to the status of an electoral
autocracy, the statistical likelihood of an armed conflict with Pakistan has become three times higher than it was
ten years ago.
India’s rating in these reports too has been declining each year, ever since [1] started publishing them annually
in [2]. However, interestingly, India’s rank and score in all of [2] indices has actually improved in relation to last
year.
https://theleaflet.in/india-still-described-as-partly-free-in-freedom-of-the-world-2022-report-electoral-
autocracy-in-democracy-report-2022/
(a) Freedom House (b) V-Dem
(c) Economist Intelligence Unit (d) Heritage Foundation
32. Note India’s rank in various categories in the report and choose the INCORRECT option?
(a) India has been ranked 103 in the ‘Liberal Democracy Index’.
(b) India has been ranked 100 in the ‘Electoral Democracy Index’.
(c) India has been ranked 69 in the ‘Liberal Component Index’.
(d) India has been ranked 114 in the ‘Egalitarian Component Index’.
33. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the report?

(a) The level of democracy enjoyed by the average global citizen in 2021 is down to 1989 levels.
(b) The study states that more than twice as many countries are undergoing autocratisation as are witnessing
democratisation.
(c) India is one of the top ten ‘electoral democracies’ in the world.
(d) The report classifies countries into four regime types based on their score in the Liberal Democratic Index.
34. Which of the following is TRUE about the findings of the report?
(a) Electoral democracies remains the most common regime type, accounting for 60 countries and 44% of the
world population or 3.4 billion people.
(b) Electoral autocracy were the second most common regime, accounting for 55 countries and 16% of the world
population.
(c) The world today has 89 democracies and 90 autocracies.
(d) All of the above
(a) 2014 (b) 2015 (c) 2017 (d) 2020
Passage(Q.36-Q.40): [1]-- a made-in-India Petascale supercomputer has been deployed at the Indian Institute
of Technology, Roorkee, according to an ANI report.
Installed by B.V.R. Mohan Reddy, Chairman, Board of Governors, IIT Roorkee, the supercomputer is capable
of supercomputing at 1.66 PFLOPS (Peta Floating-Point Operations Per Second).
The supercomputer has been developed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing under the
guidance of the National Supercomputing Mission.
IIT Roorkee had signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the CDAC earlier to establish state-of-
the-art supercomputing facilities involving critical components like motherboards for servers, direct contact
liquid cooling data centres in India.
Addressing the event, Reddy said, "IIT Roorkee will carry out advanced research and capacity building using
this supercomputing infrastructure developed under NSM. I am happy to see that the critical components of [1],
such as motherboards for compute nodes and direct contact liquid cooling data centres, are manufactured in India
as per the Government of India initiative of Atmanirbhar Bharat."
https://www.indiatimes.com/technology/news/iit-roorkee-param-ganga-supercomputer-563988.html
(a) PARAM Ganga (b) PARAM Pravega (c) PARAM Brahma (d) PARAM Yukti
37. Which of the following is TRUE about the Centre for Development of advance Computing?
(a) C-DAC is the premier Research & Development organization of the Ministry of Science and Technology.
(b) It was established in the year 1988.
(c) India's first supercomputer PARAM 8600 was indigenously built (in 1991)by the Centre for Development
of Advanced Computing.
38. Recently, Param Pravega, a supercomputer that is touted to be one of the most powerful in the country, has been
installed at which of the following Institutes?
(a) Indian Institute of Science, Delhi
(b) Indian Institute of Technology, Bombay
(c) Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru
(d) Indian Institute of Technology, Madras
39. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to the National Supercomputing Mission?
(a) National Supercomputing Mission was launched in 2015.
(b) Its aims is to enhance the research capacities and capabilities in the country by connecting them to form a
Supercomputing grid, with National Knowledge Network (NKN) as the backbone.
(c) The Mission plans to build and deploy 24 facilities with cumulative compute power of more than 64
Petaflops.
40. Which of the following regarding Supercomputers is INCORRECT?

(a) China has the maximum number of supercomputers in the world.
(b) PARAM Shivay, the India’s first supercomputer assembled indigenously, was installed in IIT (BHU).
(c) India’s PARAM Siddhi, achieved global ranking of 62nd in Top 500 most powerful supercomputer systems
in the world.
(d) SUMMIT (USA) is the fastest supercomputer in the world which can deliver upto 187,659.3 TFlop/s.
Passage(Q.41-Q.45): Diplomats from Iran and world powers reconvened in [1] on Monday to seek a deal
reviving Tehran’s 2015 nuclear accord, with pressure mounting for results soon.
Among them was Iran’s chief negotiator, Ali Bagheri Kani, who returned to [1] after consultations with his
government in Teheran over the weekend.
The other parties to the agreement are Britain, France, Germany, Russia and China. The United States has
participated indirectly in the talks because it withdrew from the accord in [2] under then President Donald Trump.
President Joe Biden has signaled that he wants to rejoin the deal.
The accord, formally known as the Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action, granted Iran sanctions relief in exchange
for curbs on its nuclear program.
Under Mr. Trump, the U.S. reimposed heavy sanctions on Iran. Tehran has responded by increasing the purity
and amounts of uranium it enriches and stockpiles, in breach of the accord.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/iran-nuclear-talks-diplomats-reconvene-in-
vienna/article65094851.ece
(a) Minsk (b) Vienna (c) Belgium (d) Doha
42. Which of the following is INCORRECT about circumstances under which the Joint Comprehension Plan of
Action 2015 came into being?
(a) Regime of President Ebrahim Raisi agreed to dismantle much of Iran’s nuclear programme, and open its
facilities to greater international monitoring under the deal.
(b) The world powers agreed to lift many of the sanctions imposed on the country, opening its economy to
billions of dollars of lost revenue.
(c) The world powers wanted to restrict Iran’s nuclear capabilities to the point that it would take Tehran at least
a year to build a weapon, giving them adequate time to prepare and respond.
(d) Before the agreement, analysts estimated that Iran had reached a point from where it could build a weapon
in approximately three months.
43. Which of the following is a potential challenge to the restoration of the deal?
(a) The regional cold war between Saudi Arabia and Iran is a major hurdle to the restoration.
(b) The US and Saudi Arabia have strengthened their relationship per US’s Middle East policy and to counter
Iran as well.
(c) Iran is currently in violation of several of its important commitments, such as the limits on stockpiles of
enriched uranium, and the farther it goes, the more challenging the deal becomes.
44. Which of the following is TRUE about Iran’s policy of Maximum Resistance?
(a) Beginning in May 2019, Iran began to move away from JCPOA’s constraints incrementally.
(b) In January 2020, following the drone strike on Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corps commander Gen. Qasem
Soleiman, Iran announced that it would no longer observe the JCPOA’s restraints.
(c) Iran is raising uranium enrichment levels from 3.67% to 4.5%.
(a) 2016 (b) 2017 (c) 2018 (d) 2019
Passage(Q.46-Q.50): The government on Saturday approved changes to India’s foreign direct investment (FDI)
policy to allow global investors to participate in the initial public offering of Life Insurance Corporation of India
(LIC) shares expected to be launched soon.
Foreign investors will now be able to invest up to [1] in LIC shares under the automatic approval route,
government sources said. FDI into insurance ventures is already allowed up to [2] under the automatic approval
rout, but the policy was silent on foreign equity investments into the country’s largest insurer LIC, a statutory
corporation set up under an Act of Parliament.
“As per the present FDI policy, the FDI ceiling for public sector banks is twenty per cent on government approval
route, so it has been decided to allow foreign investment up to [1] for LIC and such other bodies corporate,” an
official source said, adding that the approval has been made automatic for LIC investors in order to as to expedite
the capital raising plan.
https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/cabinet-allows-up-to-20-fdi-in-ipo-bound-lic-
sources/article65086934.ece
(a) 10% (b) 15% (c) 20% (d) 25%
47. Which of the following is INCORRECT about Foreign Direct Investment?

(a) FDI is the process whereby residents of one country acquire ownership of assets for the purpose of
controlling the production, distribution and other activities of a firm in another country.
(b) Flows of FDI comprise capital provided by a foreign direct investor to an enterprise.
(c) Under FDI foreign entity merely buys stocks and bonds of a company.
48. Which of the following NOT TRUE about the LIC?

(a) It was established in 1956
(b) The Government owns 100% of LIC.
(c) The Government is selling 25% of its stake through the IPO
(d) LIC has the biggest share in India’s insurance business.
49. Who among the following is the Chairperson of LIC?

(a) Mangalam Ramasubramanian Kumar
(b) Chanda Kochhar
(c) Ashneer Grover
(d) Bishnu Charan Patnaik
(a) 25% (b) 33% (c) 49% (d) 74%
Passage(Q.51-Q.55): There is much for the world to fear in Monday’s Intergovernmental Panel on Climate
Change (IPCC) report, which bluntly states that the Great Barrier Reef is in crisis and suffering grave impacts
from climate change, with frequent and severe coral bleaching caused by warming ocean temperatures. The
worst bleaching event, in [1], affected over 90% of the reef, and a punishing succession of bleaching incidents
has left the northern and middle portion of the reef system in a “highly degraded state,” the report said.
That bleaching will continue along the reef is a virtual certainty, according to the IPCC. Perhaps even more
ominously, the report suggests it may simply be too late to stop bleaching entirely. Even if the global community
achieves its goal of limiting future warming to [2] (2.7 degrees Fahrenheit) since pre-industrial times, that still
wouldn’t be sufficient to prevent more frequent mass bleaching events, though it may reduce their occurrence,
the IPCC found.
https://indianexpress.com/article/world/crisis-climate-panel-flags-great-barrier-reef-devastation-7796191/
(a) 2014 (b) 2015 (c) 2016 (d) 2017
52. Which of the following is TRUE about the Great Coral Reef?
(a) The Great Barrier Reef is the largest living structure on the planet.
(b) It stretches over 2,300 kilometres (1,400 miles).
(c) The reef is located in the Coral Sea (North-East Coast), off the coast of Queensland, Australia.
53. Which of the following Statements about the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change is INCORRECT?
(a) It is the international body for assessing the science related to climate change.
(b) It was set up in 1984 by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) and United Nations Environment
Programme (UNEP).
(c) The First IPCC report was release in the year 1990.
(d) Comprehensive scientific assessment reports are published every 6 to 7 years.
54. Which of the following is one of the findings of the current IPCC report?
(a) Warming ocean temperature is causing frequent and severe coral bleaching.
(b) The report identifies India as one of the vulnerable hotspots.
(c) The latest report warns that multiple disasters induced by climate change are likely to emerge in different
parts of the world in the next two decades.
(a) 0.5 degrees Celsius (b) 1.0 degrees Celsius
(c) 1.5 degrees Celsius (d) 2.0 degrees Celsius
Passage(Q.56-Q.60): The global money laundering and terrorist financing watchdog FATF has retained
Pakistan on its terrorism financing “grey list” and asked Islamabad to address at the earliest the remaining
deficiencies in its financial system, according to a media report on Saturday.
Pakistan has been on the grey list of the Paris-based Financial Action Task Force (FATF) since June [1] for
failing to check money laundering, leading to terror financing, and was given a plan of action to complete it by
October 2019.
Since then, the country continues to be on that list due to its failure to comply with the FATF mandates.
The plenary on Friday decided against exiting Pakistan from the category despite the country meeting [2] out of
34 action points, the Dawn newspaper reported.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/fatf-retains-pakistan-on-its-terror-funding-grey-
list/article65193389.ece
(a) 2015 (b) 2016 (c) 2018 (d) 2019
57. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to the FATF?
(a) The FATF is an inter-governmental body.
(b) It was established in 1989.
(c) The FATF has 39 members.
(d) FATF membership includes two regional organisations — the European Commission and the Organisation
for Economic Co-operation and Development.
58. Currently, who among the following is NOT on the FATF Black List?
(a) North Korea (b) Iran (c) Turkey (d) Both b and c
59. Which of the following is TRUE with respect to Pakistan on FATF Grey List?
(a) Pakistan was first put on the list in 2008, removed in 2009 and then again remained under increased
monitoring from 2012 to 2015.
(b) Pakistan has so far avoided being on the black list with the help of close allies like China, Turkey and
Malaysia.
(c) Pakistan had completed 26 of the 27 action items in its [1] action plan of the FATF and of the seven action
items of the 2021 action plan of the watchdog’s Asia Pacific Group on Money Laundering.
(a) 28 (b) 30 (c) 31 (d) 32
Passage(Q.61-Q.64): When Russian President Vladimir Putin launched a military invasion of Ukraine on
February 24, the purported reason behind this act of extraordinary territorial aggression was that the eastward
expansion of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) threatened at some undefined point in the future
to allow Ukraine to join the grouping as a treaty ally and thus bring a formidable transatlantic security coalition
within striking distance of Russia's western borders yet again. This justification offered by Russia as the reason
for undertaking a ground war, including the brutal targeting with ordnance of civilian infrastructure and the
expected devastation in terms of human casualty and property damage, has come under increasing scrutiny.
In this context, understanding the history of NATO's challenge to the security posture of Russia would help
identify the roots of this conflict. It might also provide a clearer picture of what institutional arrangements and
assurances the Kremlin could accept as sufficient to pull back its troops and weaponry and engage in dialogue
with the administration of Ukrainian President Volodymyr Zelensky.
https://epaper.thehindu.com/Home/ShareArticle?OrgId=GD79IL128.1&imageview=0
61. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about NATO?

(a) It is a military alliance established by the Washington Treaty.
(b) It was established in 1955.
(c) There are currently 30 member states.
(d) North Macedonia became the latest member to join the alliance in 2020.
62. Which of the following is NOT one of the self-declared missions of NATO at the time of its formation?
(a) Deterring Soviet expansionism.
(b) Forbidding the revival of nationalist militarism in Europe through a strong North American presence on the
continent.
(c) Encouraging European political integration.
(d) Expansion of the Democracy throughout the Europe.
63. Which of the following is was the result of the 2008 NATO’s Bucharest Conference?
(a) NATO Allies welcomed Ukraine’s and Georgia’s Euro-Atlantic aspirations for membership and agreed that
these countries will become members of NATO.
(b) Russia invaded Georgia in 2008 and took control of several of its territorial regions.
(c) In 2014, with Ukraine drifting closer towards an economic alliance with the European Union, Russia
marched into Ukraine and seized Crimea.
64. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about Ukraine?

(a) Ukraine is in the east of Europe, and is bound by Russia to its northeast, east, and southeast, and the Black
Sea in the south.
(b) It is the largest country in Europe after Russia itself.
(c) It Covers 8% of the European Continent.
65. Which strait connects the Sea of Azov to the Black sea?
(a) Kerch strait
(b) Palk strait
(c) Strait of Mallacca
Passage (Q.31-Q.35): The world faces unavoidable multiple climate hazards over the next two decades with
global warming of [1] and even temporarily exceeding this warming level would mean additional, severe
impacts, some of which will be irreversible, according to a report by the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate
Change (IPCC) that was made public on Monday.
The report, which was to have released last September but was delayed due to the pandemic, builds on previous
assessments by the IPCC by increasing the certainty of a plethora of climate-linked disasters.
“This report is a dire warning about the consequences of inaction,” said Hoesung Lee, Chair of the IPCC. “It
shows that climate change is a grave and mounting threat to our wellbeing and a healthy planet. Our actions
today will shape how people adapt and nature responds to increasing climate risks.”
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/ipcc-report-warns-of-unavoidable-multiple-climate-
hazards/article65092570.ece
31. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about IPCC?

(a) It was set up in 1988.
(b) It was established by the United Nations Framework Convention for Climate Change.
(c) IPCC assessments provide a scientific basis for governments at all levels to develop climate related policies.
(d) The Assessment Reports is made by three working groups of scientists.
32. The first IPCC assessment report was published in which of the following years?
(a) 1990 (b) 1995 (c) 2004 (d) 2008
33. Paris agreement was based on which of the following IPCC Report?
(a) 1st Assessment report (b) 2nd Assessment report
(c) 3rd Assessment report (d) 5th Assessment report
(a) 0.5°C (b) 1.0°C (c) 1.5°C (d) 2.0°C
35. Which of the following is one of the findings of the current IPCC report?
(a) Warming ocean temperature is causing frequent and severe coral bleaching.
(b) The report identifies India as one of the vulnerable hotspots.
(c) The latest report warns that multiple disasters induced by climate change are likely to emerge in different
parts of the world in the next two decades.
Passage (Q.36-Q.40): India has improved its overall IP score from 38.4 per cent to [1] per cent, and the country
is ranked [2] out of 55 countries on the International Intellectual Property Index, according to an annual report
compiled by the influential US Chambers of Commerce on Thursday.
India's overall score has increased from 38.40 percent in the ninth edition to [1] percent in the 10th edition. This
reflects a score increase on indicator 32, said the report Global Innovation Policy Center of the US Chambers of
Commerce.
In July 2021, the Parliamentary Standing Committee on Commerce released a Review of the Intellectual Property
Rights Regime in India. This review is a welcome development and offers a comprehensive and detailed study
of the strengths and weaknesses of India's national IP environment, the report said.
(a) 38.64 (b) 38.74 (c) 38.84 (d) 38.94
(a) 36 (b) 40 (c) 42 (d) 43
38. Which of the following is TRUE about the Global Innovation Policy Center of the US Chambers of Commerce?
(a) It is the world’s largest business federation.
(b) The group was founded in April 1912.
(c) It was formed at the urging of President William Howard Taft and his Secretary of Commerce and Labour
Charles Nagel.
39. Which State of India topped the NITI Aayog’s Innovation Index 2020?
(a) Maharashtra (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Karnataka (d) Kerala
40. Which of the following is India’s rank in the Global Innovation Index, 2021?
(a) 42nd (b) 43rd (c) 44th (d) 46th
Passage (Q.41-Q.45): [1] is set to implement an international convention on naval passage through two of its
strategic straits, which would allow them to limit the movement of Russian warships between the Mediterranean
Sea and the Black Sea.
Mevlut Cavusoglu, [1] foreign minister said on Sunday that the situation in Ukraine had become a war, a
declaration that authorises Ankara to activate the Montreux Convention and ban Russian war vessels from
entering the Black Sea through the Bosporus and Dardanelles straits.
“In the beginning, it was a Russian attack,” Cavusoglu said in an interview with broadcaster CNN [1].” Now it
has turned into a war.”
“[1] will implement all provisions of Montreux Convention in a transparent manner,” he added.
(a) Turkey (b) Egypt (c) Germany (d) France
42. When was Montreux Convention signed?

(a) 1936 (b) 1940 (c) 1971 (d) 1981
43. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about Montreux Agreement?
(a) The international agreement was signed by Australia, Bulgaria, France, Greece, Japan, Romania, Yugoslavia,
the United Kingdom, the Soviet Union and Turkey.
(b) In the event of a war, the pact gives [1] the right to regulate the transit of naval warships.
(c) Any country with coastline on the Black Sea – Romania, Bulgaria, Georgia, Russia or Ukraine – must notify
[1] eight days in advance of its intention to send vessels of war through the straits.
44. [1] in the above passage became a member of NATO in which of the following years?
(a) 1949 (b) 1952 (c) 1955 (d) 1960
45. The United Nations General Assembly resolution on Russia was discussed under which of the following rubric?
(a) Uniting for Peace (b) Peace for all
(c) Together for Peace (d) Peace Out
Passage (Q.46-Q.50): India has figured in the top 10 autocratising countries of the world along with El Salvador,
Turkey and Hungary, with projections ominously indicating that there will be a further decline in democracy in
the country, according to the latest report of the [1] on the state of democracy globally.
After being classified as ‘electoral autocracy’ in the last year’s report, India continues to hold on to its dubious
honour even in this year’s report. Consequently, India finds itself in the category of the bottom 40% to 50% of
countries. Much of the slide in India’s democratic credentials has occurred in the years following the rise and
consolidation of power by the BJP and Prime Minister Narendra Modi, after 2014.
Titled Democracy Report 2022: Autocratisation Changing Nature, the Swedish institute’s report notes that a new
wave of democratisation is being seen in 15 countries while 32 countries reel under autocrasation. The countries
are categorised based on V-Dem’s liberal democracy index (LDI), which captures both electoral and liberal
aspects of democracy and goes from the lowest (0) to the highest (1) levels of democracy.
(a) V-Dem Institute (b) Freedom House
(c) Reporters without Border (d) Amnesty International
47. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the report?
(a) The level of democracy enjoyed by the average global citizen in 2021 is down to 1989 levels.
(b) The study states that more than twice as many countries are undergoing autocratisation as are witnessing
democratisation.
(c) India is one of the top ten ‘electoral democracies’ in the world.
(d) The report classifies countries into four regime types based on their score in the Liberal Democratic Index.
48. Which of the following countries has topped the index?
(a) New Zealand (b) Sweden (c) Norway (d) Finland
49. What is India’s rank in the Liberal Democracy index?
(a) 84th (b) 93rd (c) 100th (d) 102nd
50. Which of the following is TRUE about the findings of the report?
(a) Electoral democracies remains the most common regime type, accounting for 60 countries and 44% of the
world population or 3.4 billion people.
(b) Electoral autocracy were the second most common regime, accounting for 55 countries and 16% of the world
population.
(c) The world today has 89 democracies and 90 autocracies.
Passage (Q.51-Q.55): India and Pakistan have discussed the exchange of hydrological and flood data at a
meeting of the Permanent Indus Commission during which the Indian side underscored that all its projects are
fully compliant with the provisions of the Indus Waters Treaty.
During the 117th meeting of the Permanent Indus Commission comprising Indus commissioners of India and
Pakistan, held from March 1-3 in Islamabad, both sides discussed the issue of the Fazilka drain, and Pakistan
assured that all necessary action will continue to be taken to ensure the free flow of Fazilka drain into the river
Sutlej, the Ministry of External Affairs said in a statement.
The Indian delegation was led by [1], the Indian Commissioner for Indus Waters. This was also the first that the
three women members were part of the Indian delegation.
(a) P.K. Saxena (b) N.M. Mishra (c) R.K Singh (d) P.K. Yadav
52. Indus Water Treaty was mediated by who among the following?
(a) World Bank (b) International Monetary Fund
(c) United Nations (d) United States
53. The Indus Water Treaty was Signed by who among the following from Pakistan?
(a) Mohammad Ayub Khan (b) Yahya Khan
(c) Muhammad Zia-ul-Haq (d) Wasim Sajjad
54. Water of which rivers are exclusively awarded to India under the Treaty?
(a) Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab (b) Ravi, Sutlej and Beas
(c) Indus, Ravi and Beas (d) Jhelum, Chenab and Ravi
55. India is allowed to use how much water of the western rivers for irrigation, power generation and transport
purposes?
(a) 12% (b) 18% (c) 20% (d) 22%
Passage (Q.56-Q.60): The Department of Biotechnology has launched a One Health consortium that envisages
carrying out surveillance of important bacterial, viral and parasitic infections of zoonotic as well as
transboundary pathogens in the country.
The project also looks into the use of existing diagnostic tests and the development of additional methodologies
for the surveillance and understanding the spread of emerging diseases, the DBT said in a statement.
Dr Renu Swarup, Secretary, Department of Biotechnology, launched the First ‘One Health’ project of the DBT
through video conferencing on Thursday.
The consortium envisages carrying out surveillance of important bacterial, viral and parasitic infections of
zoonotic as well as transboundary pathogens.
56. The Consortium mentioned in the above passage consists of how many organisations?
(a) 22 (b) 27 (c) 29 (d) 32
57. Department of Biotechnology comes under which Ministry?
(a) Ministry of Health and family welfare
(b) Ministry of Science and Technology
(c) Ministry of Earth Sciences
(d) Ministry of Women and Child Development
58. Which of the following is Correct about the concept of One Health?
(a) One Health is an approach that recognizes that the health of people is closely connected to the health of
animals and our shared environment.
(b) One Health’ vision derives its blueprint from the agreement between the tripartite- plus alliance comprising
the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO), the World Organisation for Animal
Health (OIE).
(c) Its purpose is to encourage collaborations in research and sharing of knowledge at multiple levels across
various disciplines.
59. Universal Health Coverage is mentioned under which of the following Sustainable Development Goals?
(a) SDG 2 (b) SDG 3 (c) SDG 4 (d) SDG 6
60. Who is the minister of State for Science and Technology?

(a) C. Subramaniyam (b) Y.S Chaudhry (c) Prithviraj Chavan (d) Jitendra Singh
Passage (Q.61-Q.65): Andhra Pradesh, which is performing well on most indicators considered for
Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) such as housing, electricity, cooking fuel, school attendance and bank
accounts, still lags behind in several key areas like access to drinking water, years of schooling, sanitation, child
adolescent mortality and nutrition.
The findings are part of the baseline report of MPI released by [1] in November 2021.
MPI is a measure which explores poverty beyond income deprivations and is a tool for policymakers working
for the Sustainable Development Goals, 2020 agenda. NITI Aayog released the baseline report of MPI and the
report presented the status of headcount ratios, intensity of poverty, and MPI value of India and all the States
and Union Territories (UTs).
(a) NITI Aayog (b) Ministry of Urban Planning
(c) Ministry of Finance (d) None of the above
62. According to the report which of the following State is Multidimensionally Poorest?
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Jharkhand (d) Bihar
63. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the Index?

(a) Kerala registered the lowest population poverty levels.
(b) The National Multidimensional Poverty Index has three equally weighted dimensions – health, education,
and standard of living.
(c) These three dimensions are represented by 12 indicators such as nutrition, school attendance, years of
schooling, drinking water, sanitation, housing, bank accounts among others.
(d) These indicators are in sharp contrast to the indicators used by the Global Multidimensional Poverty Index
2021.
64. Which of the following published the Global Multidimensional Poverty Index 2021?
(a) Oxford Poverty (b) Human Development Initiative
(c) United Nations Development Programme (d) All of the above
65. Which of the following is NOT true about the Global Multi-dimensional Poverty Index 2021?
(a) The Multidimensional Poverty Index was launched in the year 2014.
(b) According to Global MPI 2021, India's rank is 66 out of 109 countries.
(c) The study finds that on average, poverty levels will be set back 3 to 10 years due to Covid-19.
(d) The data of the index is based on the study of poverty trends in 75 countries.
Passage(Q.31-Q.35): According to Putin, modern Ukraine was “entirely and fully created by Russia, more
specifically the Bolshevik, communist Russia… This process began practically immediately after the [1]
revolution, and moreover Lenin and his associates did it in the sloppiest way in relation to Russia — by dividing,
tearing from her pieces of her own historical territory”.
Ukraine is in the east of Europe, and is bound by Russia to its northeast, east, and southeast, and the Black Sea
in the south. In the southwest, west, and north, Ukraine shares borders, in the clockwise direction, with Moldova,
Romania, Hungary, Slovakia, Poland, and Belarus.
It is the largest country in Europe after Russia itself, with an area of 603,550 sq km, or about 6% of the continent.
Ukraine is, of course, dwarfed by Russia, which sprawls over almost 4 million sq km and [2] of Europe.
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/russia-invasion-ukraine-history-creation-
explained-7791147/
31. In the above passage, [1] marks the year when Bolshevik revolution started. Which of the following is the correct
answer?
(a) 1907 (b) 1915 (c) 1917 (d) 1921
(a) 40% (b) 30% (c) 25% (d) 20%
33. Which of the following is TRUE about Ukraine?

(a) Ukraine is the poorest country in Europe in terms of gross domestic product and gross national income per
capita.
(b) It has deposits of iron ore and coal, and exports corn, sunflower oil, iron and iron products, and wheat.
(c) India is Ukraine’s largest export destination in the Asia Pacific region.
34. Which of the following is one of the cities which Russia has declared independent republic from Ukraine?
(a) Luhansk (b) Kyiv (c) Kharkiv (d) Lviv
35. Ukraine became the part of erstwhile USSR in which of the following years?
(a) 1917 (b) 1920 (c) 1922 (d) 1942
Passage(Q.36-Q.40): The Union cabinet on Tuesday approved the setting up of a G20 Secretariat and related
structures that will implement policy decisions and be responsible for arrangements for India’s forthcoming
presidency of the group in 2023.
India will hold the presidency of the G20 from December 1, 2022, to November 30, 2023, culminating with the
G20 Summit in India next year.
The decision on setting up the secretariat and other structures was made at a cabinet meeting chaired by Prime
Minister Narendra Modi.
The G20 Secretariat will handle work related to knowledge, content, technical, media, security and logistical
aspects of India’s presidency of the inter-governmental forum comprising 19 countries and the European Union
(EU).
The secretariat will be manned by officers and staff from the external affairs and finance ministries, and other
relevant line ministries and departments and domain knowledge experts. It will be functional till February 2024.
https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/india-preps-for-g20-presidency-from-1-dec-greenlights-setting-
up-a-secretariat-101644938503470.html
36. Who among the following is the President of G20 in 2022?
(a) Italy (b) Indonesia (c) Saudi Arabia (d) UK
37. Who among the following is the Indian G20 Sherpa?

(a) Nirmala Sitharaman (b) Prakash Javadekar
(c) Piyush Goyal (d) Ashwini Vaishnav
38. The permanent secretariat of G20 is located at which of the following cities?
(a) New York (b) Paris (c) Belarus (d) None of the above
39. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about G20?

(a) The G20 members represent more than 80 percent of world GDP
(b) It represents 75 percent of international trade
(c) It represents 60 percent of the world population.
(d) It represents 90 percent of the world’s nuclear weapon.
40. Which of the following is TRUE about G20?

(a) The G20 was formed in 1999.
(b) The first G20 summit was held in 2008.
(c) To prepare for the annual summit, the G20 Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors, together with
Sherpas meet several times a year.
Passage(Q.41-Q.45): The Indian Institute of Science (IISc.) has installed and commissioned [1], one of the most
powerful supercomputers in India, and the largest in an Indian academic institution, under the National
Supercomputing Mission (NSM). The system is expected to power diverse research and educational pursuits. It
has a total supercomputing capacity of 3.3 petaflops (1 petaflop equals a quadrillion, or 10^15 floating-point
operations per second).
It has been designed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC). A majority of the
components used to build this system have been manufactured and assembled within India, along with an
indigenous software stack developed by C-DAC, in line with the Make in India initiative. NSM is steered jointly
by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) and Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
(MeitY), and implemented by C-DAC and IISc.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/bangalore/iisc-commissions-one-of-indias-most-powerful-
supercomputers/article65012062.ece
(a) PARAM Brahma (b) PARAM Yukti
(c) Param Pravega (d) PARAM Sanganak
42. Which of the following is TRUE about National Computing Mission?

(a) The Mission has supported the deployment of 10 supercomputer systems so far.
(b) The National Supercomputing Mission in its three phases plans to increase India’s supercomputing capability
to 45 petaflops.
(c) Entering the third phase of the mission, design and development of indigenous server nodes, interconnect
switch, storage, and system software stack has been initiated with 85 per cent indigenous manufacturing.
43. Which of the following Countries has the fastest speed Supercomputer?
(a) USA (b) China (c) Japan (d) France
44. Which of the following is India’s first Supercomputer?
(a) PARAM 8000 (b) PARAM Shivay (c) PARAM Shakti (d) PARAM Brahma
45. Which of the following countries has the greatest number of Supercomputers?
(a) USA (b) Japan (c) France (d) China
Passage(Q.46-Q50): Preliminary findings from the fifth round of the National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5
2019-20) have suggested improvement in a host of welfare goals which translates to reduction in deprivation,
the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) said on Saturday.
This improvement will get reflected in the National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) when its next edition
will be brought out, the PMO said. The baseline national MPI was earlier prepared based on the fourth round of
the National Family Health Survey of 2015-16.
The PMO said preliminary observations from the summary data factsheets of the latest round of NFHS released
on 24 November are encouraging.
“They suggest improvement in access to clean cooking fuel, sanitation, and electricity which translates to
reduction in deprivation. Additionally, the state reports released for 22 States and union territories suggest
reduction in deprivation in school attendance, drinking water, bank accounts and housing. These improvements
indicate an overall direction of significant reduction in the incidence of multidimensional poverty in the
forthcoming index based on NFHS 5 (2019-20) household micro data," the PMO said.
https://www.livemint.com/news/india/multidimensional-poverty-index-to-show-improvement-on-ground-fy16-
20-pmo-11637998220556.html
46. According to Global Multidimensional Poverty Index, India has ranked at which of the following?
(a) 55th (b) 66th (c) 72nd (d) 88th
47. The National Multidimensional Poverty Index uses the methodology developed by which of the following?
(a) Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative
(b) United Nations Development Program
(c) NITI Aayog
(d) Both a and b
48. Which of the following is NOT one of the indicators used in the Global Multidimensional Poverty Index?
(a) Education (b) Health
(c) Per Capita Income (d) Standard of Life
49. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to the National Multidimensional Poverty Index?
(a) Bihar has the maximum percentage of population living in poverty among all the States and the Union
Territories.
(b) The National Multidimensional Poverty Index is released by NITI Aayog.
(c) The National Multidimensional Poverty Index was based on NFHS 4 Data.
50. Which of the following States has topped the National Multidimensional Poverty Index?
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Kerala (d) Mizoram
Passage(Q.51-Q.55): Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Monday launched the Indian Space Association (ISpA),
an industry body consisting of various stakeholders of the Indian space domain. The members of the organisation
include government bodies such as Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and private telecom companies
such as Bharti Airtel’s One Web, Tata Group’s Nelcom, L&T, MapMyIndia, and others.
Ever since the race to reach the space and then land on the Moon began between the US and the erstwhile USSR,
governments across the world have poured millions of dollars to push the envelope in term of exploring the
edges of the space. With time, governments and government agencies collaborated to explore newer planets and
galaxies in search of life forms that exist outside Earth.
In the recent past, private sector companies such as Elon Musk’s SpaceX, Richard Branson’s Virgin Galactic,
and Jeff Bezos’ Blue Origin have taken the lead in spaceflight, promising to start tourist flights to space.
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/indian-space-association-narendra-modi-7565248/
51. Who among the following is the chairperson of ISRO?
(a) K. Sivan (b) S. Somnath (c) K Radhakrishnan (d) G. Madhvan Nair
52. Which of the following is the work with which ISpA will deal?
(a) ISpA will also work towards building global linkages for the Indian space industry.
(b) ISpA will undertake Policy Advocacy and engage with all stakeholders in the Indian Space domain,
including the Government and its Agencies.
(c) One of the main goals of the ISpA is to supplement the government’s efforts towards making India a global
leader in commercial space-based excursions.
53. Who among the following is the Director-General of Indian Space Association?
(a) A.K. Bhatt (b) Jayant Patil (c) S. Somnath (d) K. Sivan
54. Which of the following is not one of the pillars of Governments approach to space reforms?
(a) freedom of innovation to the private sector.
(b) the role of the government as an enabler.
(c) preparing youth for the future.
(d) to lead the space race in the world.
55. Which among the following is the first satellite launched by ISRO?
(a) Aryabhata (b) Bhaskara Sega I (c) Rohini RS I (d) INSAT 1A
Passage(Q.56-Q.60): Two more beaches in India have been awarded “Blue Flag” certification, an international
eco-level tag, taking the total number of such beaches in the country to [1], the Environment Ministry said on
Tuesday.
The two beaches to receive the certification this year are [2] in Kerala and Eden in Puducherry, it said.
The Foundation for Environment Education (FEE), Denmark, which accords the Blue Flag certification, has also
given re-certification for eight nominated beaches - Shivrajpur-Gujarat, Ghoghla-Diu, Kasarkod and Padubidri-
Karnataka, Kappad-Kerala, Rushikonda- Andhra Pradesh, Golden-Odisha and Radhanagar- Andaman and
Nicobar, which were awarded the Blue Flag certificate last year, the ministry said.
https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/two-more-beaches-in-india-awarded-prestigious-blue-flag-tag-
details-here-101632270649443.html
(a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 15
(a) Kovalam (b) Varkala (c) Bekal (d) Munnar
58. Which of the following is TRUE about Blue Certification?
(a) Blue Flag beaches are considered the cleanest beaches of the world.
(b) Blue Flag certification is a globally recognised eco-label accorded on the basis of 33 stringent criteria.
(c) The recommendations are done by an independent national jury composed of eminent environmentalists and
scientists.
59. Which of the following countries tops the list of the Blue Flag Certification?
(a) France (b) Spain (c) U.K. (d) Bahamas
60. What is the Name of the India’s own Eco-Label?
(a) BEAMS (b) SEAMS (c) CLEANSEA (d) BEACHPLUS
Passage(Q.61-Q.65): A Haridwar court granted bail to Dasna Devi temple chief priest and Hindutva leader Yati
Narsinghanand on Tuesday in the controversial Haridwar Dharma Sansad hate speech case of December last
year.
Narsinghanand will, however, stay in jail in connection with another FIR registered against him for allegedly
making derogatory comments on women from a specific community.
Talking to The Indian Express, general secretary of Yati Narsinghanand Saraswati Foundation Trust, Udita Tyagi
said that while bail applications in both the hate speech cases and the objectionable comments case were denied
last month by the CJM court, Additional District and Sessions judge Bharat Bhushan Pandey granted bail to
Narsinghanand after a virtual hearing in the hate speech case on Monday.
On January 15, the Haridwar Police had arrested Narsinghanand from Sarvanand Ghat where he was sitting on
a hunger strike to protest against the arrest of Waseem Rizvi aka Jitendra Narayan Tyagi on January 13. Tyagi
too, was named in the hate speech case. Yati was arrested for making derogatory remarks against women of a
particular community and hate speech during a three-day “Dharam Sansad” held last month in Haridwar. A bail
application of Juna Akhara Mahamandleshwar and Yati Narsinghanand was denied by a CJM court in Haridwar.
https://indianexpress.com/article/india/yati-narsinghanand-bail-dharma-sansad-case-7762411/
61. Which of the following committees recommended inserting Sections 153 C (b) and Section 505 A in the IPC for
incitement to commit an offence on grounds of religion, race, caste or community, sex, gender identity, sexual
orientation, place of birth, residence, language, disability or tribe?
(a) Jeevan Reddy Committee (b) Viswanathan Committee
(c) Subramanian Committee (d) Mehra Committee
62. Which of the following articles of the Constitution of India provides Free Speech as a fundamental right?
(a) Article 19(1)(a) (b) Article 19(1)(b) (c) Article 19(1)(g) (d) Article 19(1)(f)
63. Section 66A of IT Act, was stuck down by the Supreme Court of India as Violative of Freedom of Speech and
Expression in which of the following landmark ruling?
(a) Shreya Singhal v. Union of India
(b) KB Abbas v. Union of India
(c) Ajay Goswami vs Union Of India & Ors
(d) D.P. Anand vs State Of Tamil Nadu and Another
64. Which section of Representation of People’s Act, 1951, prevents a person convicted of the illegal use of the
freedom of speech from contesting an election?
(a) Section 4 (b) Section 8 (c) Section 10 (d) Section 12
65. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable restriction to the Freedom of Speech under Indian Constitution?
(a) Public Order (b) Decency or Morality
(c) Contempt of Court (d) Health
Passage(Q.31-Q.35): The tension on the Russia-Ukraine border represents a major security crisis for the region,
with the potential to snowball into a broader conflict. Ukraine says that Russia has amassed around 90,000 troops
at the border, and US intelligence reports say that a Russian invasion of Ukraine is possible as early as next
month.
Russia has shown, as recently as 2014, that it is not averse to taking military action in Ukraine. In that year,
Russia seized [1] from Ukraine in what was the first time a European country annexed territory from another
country since World War Two.
Ukraine and Russia share hundreds of years of cultural, linguistic and familial links. As part of the Soviet Union,
Ukraine was the second-most powerful Soviet republic after Russia, and was crucial strategically, economically
and culturally. Ever since Ukraine split from the Soviet Union, both Russia and the West have vied for greater
influence in the country in order to keep the balance of power in the region in their favour.
(a) Georgia (b) Poland (c) Belarus (d) Crimea
32. Which of the following is the INCORRECT reason for the Russia-Ukraine Conflict?
(a) The Donbass region of eastern Ukraine has been facing a pro-Russian separatist movement since 2014.
(b) Russia seized Crimea from Ukraine in 2014.
(c) Ukraine has urged the Collective Security Treaty Organisation to speed up his country’s membership in the
alliance.
(d) Ever since Ukraine split from the Soviet Union, both Russia and the West have vied for greater influence in
the country.
33. ‘Minsk II’ peace agreement was signed by Russia and Ukraine in which of the following years?
(a) 2014 (b) 2015 (c) 2017 (d) 2020
34. Which of the following is true about NATO?

(a) North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) is a military alliance established by the North Atlantic Treaty.
(b) Republic of North Macedonia was the last member joining NATO.
(c) There are a total of 30 members in NATO.
35. Ukraine became an independent country in which of the following years?

(a) 1989 (b) 1991 (c) 1993 (d) 1996
Passage(Q.36-Q.40): The Prohibition of Child Marriage (Amendment) Bill, 2021, which was introduced in Lok
Sabha on December 21, seeks to increase the minimum age of marriage of females to [1] years from the current
18 years.
“It is imperative to tackle gender inequality and gender discrimination and to put in place adequate measures to
secure health, welfare and empowerment of our women and girls and to ensure status and opportunity for them
at par with men,” said the Bill, which has been referred to the Parliamentary Standing Committee.
It is no secret that women lag behind men on almost all parameters, and many continue to be married even before
they reach the age of 18. The pandemic has aggravated many of these problems.
The National Family Health Survey found that [2] per cent of women in the age group of 20 to 24 years were
married before they turned 18.
(a) 19 (b) 20 (c) 21 (d) 22
(a) 23.3 (b) 25.5 (c) 28.7 (d) 30.6
38. Which of the following statement is INCORRECT regarding marriage laws in India?
(a) In India, the minimum age of marriage was prescribed for the first time by the law known as the Sarda Act,
1929.
(b) Main reason given for raising the legal age of marriage for women by task force is to control the population.
(c) For Hindus, The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 sets 18 years as the minimum age for the bride and 21 years as
the minimum age for the groom.
(d) In Islam, the marriage of a minor who has attained puberty is considered valid.
39. Which of the following International Convention, applicable in India prohibits Child Marriage?
(a) Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Against Women
(b) International Convention on the Rights of Children
(c) Universal Declaration of Human Rights
(d) Declaration of the Laws of Customs and Treaties.
40. The Committee led by who among the following suggested to raise the age of marriage for girls?
(a) Smriti Irani (b) Jaya Jaitley (c) Jaya Bachchan (d) Uma Bharti
Passage(Q.41-Q.45): Calling for justice for the 26/11 terror attacks in Mumbai (2008) and the Pathankot airbase
attack (2016) for the first time since the group was formed, Foreign Ministers of the Australia-India-Japan said
that the Quad is already cooperating on sharing intelligence on threats in the Indo-Pacific region.
The group of ministers, who held their fourth Quad ministerial meeting in [1] on Friday also resolved to speed
up delivery of more than a billion Covid vaccines to be manufactured in India, to hold a special meet on climate
change this year, and step efforts to ensure maritime security in the region. They announced plans for a Quad
summit including PM Modi, U.S. President Biden and Australian PM Morrison to be hosted by Japan’s PM
Kishida in Tokyo in the “first half of 2022”.
(a) Melbourne (b) Tokyo (c) Washington (d) New Delhi
42. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about QUAD?

(a) The idea of Quad was first mooted by Japanese Prime Minister Shinzo Abe in 2007.
(b) In November 2017, India, Japan, the US and Australia gave shape to the long-pending proposal of setting up
the Quad.
(c) In 2020, the trilateral India-US-Japan naval exercises expanded to include Australia, marking the first official
grouping of the Quad since its resurgence in 2017.
43. China was one of the major topics of discussion in the First in-person QUAD leaders meet in September 2021.
Which of the following was discussed in the meet?
(a) The Line of Actual Control (LAC) was discussed by the QUAD leaders as one of several examples of
Chinese aggression.
(b) Issues related to Hong Kong, Xinjiang, Taiwan Strait and coercion of Australia, harassment around the
Senkaku, were also discussed.
(c) Concerns regarding Chinese cyberattacks on the USA targets (Microsoft Exchange and SolarWinds) and
also cybersecurity incidents in India, Japan and Australia were discussed.
44. All the QUAD countries participated in which of the following naval exercises in 2020?
(a) Malabar Exercise (b) Yudh Abhiyas
(c) Garuda Shakti (d) Nomadic Elephant
45. Two of the QUAD members, Australia and USA have announced a new grouping for Indo-Pacific, along with
which of the following countries?
(a) UK (b) France (c) Germany (d) Russia
Passage(Q.46-Q.50): Births in institutional facilities, such as a hospital, improved by nearly eight percentage
points but children who were either stunted or displayed signs of wasting only dropped by a maximum of three
percentage points, shows a comparison of National Family Health Survey-5 (NFHS-5) and NFHS-4.
The complete results of the NFHS-5 were made public on Wednesday. The NFHS-4 was released in 2014-15
and the latest, which captured population health indicators in [1] was delayed due to the pandemic.
India has also officially hit a total fertility rate (TFR) of [2] that indicates a decrease from the 2.2 in the NFHS-
4. According to the United Nations Population Division, a TFR of about 2.1 children per woman is called
replacement-level fertility. If replacement level fertility is sustained over a sufficiently long period, each
generation will exactly replace itself. The urban TFR is 1.6 and the rural TFR is 2.1.
(a) 2017-19 (b) 2016-18 (c) 2018-20 (d) 2019-21
(a) 1.9 (b) 2.0 (c) 2.1 (d) 2.3
48. Which of the following is TRUE about the National Family Health Survey?
(a) The First National Family Health Survey (NFHS-1) was conducted in 1992-93.
(b) It provides an indicator for tracking 30 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) that the country aims to
achieve by 2030.
(c) The funding for different rounds of NFHS has been provided by USAID, the Bill and Melinda Gates
Foundation, UNICEF, UNFPA, and Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India.
49. Who among the following is the Nodal Agency for the National Family Health Survey?
(a) International Institute for Population Sciences
(b) World Health Organisation
(c) Indian Organisation for Health Statistics
(d) National Statistical Organisation
50. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the National Family Health Survey 5?
(a) The most surprising reversals have happened in child stunting, which reflects chronic undernutrition.
(b) Infant Mortality Rate and Under 5 Mortality Rate data is mostly stagnant.
(c) There is an urban-rural gap as well as gender divide with respect to the use of the Internet in several states
and union territories.
(d) Child Wasting is reduced in all the states.
Passage(Q.51-Q.55): Manipur Chief Minister [1] on Sunday said the people of his state, including himself, want
the withdrawal of the AFSPA but only after mutual understanding with the Centre as national security is their
top priority.
"I believe AFSPA can be lifted gradually with the consent of the central government. But we must remember
there is no political stability in Myanmar and we share the border with that nation," the chief minister told PTI
in an interview here.
The first BJP chief minister of the poll-bound state also asserted that the elections will show a massive change
and his party will double the number of its seats.
The Bhartiya Janata Party managed to form a government in 2017 despite having just 21 seats compared to
Congress's 28 by joining hands with two local parties - NPP and NPF.
(a) N Biren Singh (b) Himanta Biswa Sarma
(c) Biplab Kumar Deb (d) Neiphiu Rio
52. Which of the following is TRUE about AFSPA?
(a) The British introduced such a legislation during Quit India Movement to Quell the protests.
(b) The present law effective in the Northeast was introduced in Parliament in 1958 by the then Home Minister,
G.B. Pant.
(c) The law first came into effect in 1958 to deal with the uprising in the Naga Hills, followed by the insurgency
in Assam.
53. Which of the following is the correct expansion of AFSPA?
(a) Army and Special Forces Powers Act
(b) Armed Forces Special Provisions Act
(c) Army and other Forces Special Provisions Act
(d) Armed Forces Special Powers Act
54. Which of the following committee has recommended to repeal the AFSPA?
(a) Justice Jeevan Reddy Committee (b) Santosh Hegde Committee
(c) Justice TSR Subramanyam Committee (d) Justice Dattu Committee
55. In which of the following years did the Supreme Court upheld the constitutionality of AFSPA?
(a) 1990 (b) 1998 (c) 1967 (d) 2002
Passage(Q.56-Q.60): Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman Tuesday presented the Union Budget 2022-23 in
Parliament. Here are the highlights from Sitharaman’s Budget speech, and an explanation and analysis of it.
In five big infrastructure projects, the government has proposed expanding highways in the country by 25,000
kilometres, allocating Rs 60,000 crore to the Nal se Jal scheme, five river link projects across various states, an
additional Rs 48,000 crore in the PM housing scheme, and boosting infrastructure development in the North
East.
The finance minister also announced the auction of 5G spectrum in 2022; proposed setting up 75 digital banking
units in 75 districts; announced a national programme for mental health, worsened by the Covid-19 pandemic;
and brought virtual currencies like cryptocurrency and non-fungible tokens under the tax net.
56. Digital Currency announced in the Budget FY 2022-23 will be managed by which of the following?
(a) Reserve Bank of India (b) State Bank of India
(c) Ministry of Finance (d) All public sector banks can issue the Digital Currency
57. The digital currency proposed in the Budget 2022-23 will be taxed at the rate of which of the following?
(a) 15% (b) 20% (c) 25% (d) 30%
58. The FY Budget 2022-23 saw an increase in the Capital expenditure for the year 2022-23 by how much per cent?
(a) 25% (b) 28% (c) 32% (d) 35%
59. According to the Budget FY 2022-23, India’s economic growth has been estimated at which of the following?
(a) 7.5% (b) 8.9% (c) 9.2% (d) 9.8%
60. According to the Budget 2022-23, how many new generation Vande Bharat Trains to be manufactured during
the next three years?
(a) 200 (b) 250 (c) 300 (d) 400
Passage(Q.61-Q.65): The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) has
picked up [1] among 49 cities as part of the creative city network under the Crafts and Folk Arts category.
“It is a proud moment for all of us. The process of nomination of [1] under the UNESCO ‘Creative City Network’
was undertaken and funded under the World Bank-funded Jhelum Tawi Flood Recovery Project. This is the
recognition of the historical crafts and arts of the city,” said Chief Executive Officer, Jhelum Tawi Flood
Recovery Project (JTFRP), Abid Rashid Shah.
The inclusion is likely to pave way for the city to represent its handicrafts on the global stage through UNESCO.
(a) Srinagar (b) Prayagraj (c) Varanasi (d) New Delhi
62. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about UNESCO?

(a) UNESCO is a specialized agency of the United Nations.
(b) UNESCO’s Headquarters are located in Geneva.
(c) It has 193 Members and 11 Associate Members.
(d) Three UNESCO member states are not UN members: Cook Islands, Niue, and Palestine.
63. Which of the following is TRUE about the UNESCO Creative Cities?
(a) It was created in 2004.
(b) The United Nations General Assembly has designated the 31st of October as World Cities Day.
(c) After the inclusion of this year, the total number of cities are 295.
64. Which of the following Indian Cities already has a title of Creative City in field of Crafts and Folk Art?
(a) Varanasi (b) Mumbai (c) Jaipur (d) Hyderabad
65. Which of the following Indian cities has a title of creative city in the field of gastronomy category?
(a) Chennai (b) Hyderabad (c) Mumbai (d) New Delhi
Passage (Q.31-Q.35): Western diplomats have set a deadline of later this month to revive the 2015 Iran nuclear
deal, signed under President [1], and dismantled in [2] by President Donald Trump.
American officials are concerned about Iran’s rapid nuclear escalation after the US abandoned the deal, and
President Joe Biden has said that the US will rejoin the agreement if Iran complies with the terms of the original
deal, and if it addresses other issues related to alleged ballistic missile stockpiles and the proxy conflicts that it
backs across the region.
Iran has rejected any deadline imposed by the West, and President Ebrahim Raisi, who is considered a hardliner,
has said that “regional and missile issues are non-negotiable”.
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/revival-of-iran-nuclear-deal-to-be-geopolitical-considerations-
7755981/
(a) Barack Obama (b) George Bush (c) Bill Clinton (d) Ronald Regan
32. Which of the following is TRUE about the Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action?
(a) The deal is a landmark accord signed between Iran and a coalition of world powers collectively known as
P5+1.
(b) Under the deal, Iran agreed to curb its nuclear activity in return for the lifting of sanctions and access to
global trade.
(c) The agreement allowed Iran to accumulate small amounts of uranium for research but it banned the
enrichment of uranium, which is used to make reactor fuel and nuclear weapons.
33. Iran’s atomic agency recently, stated that they have enriched 210 kgs of Uranium upto how much percent?
(a) 10% (b) 20% (c) 30% (d) 40%
34. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about International Atomic Energy Agency?
(a) The agency was established by representatives of more than 80 countries in October 1956.
(b) The IAEA’s statute officially came into force on July 29, 1957.
(c) The IAEA and its director general, Mohamed ElBaradei, won the Nobel Prize for Peace in 2015.
(d) It is headquartered in Vienna.
(a) 2016 (b) 2017 (c) 2018 (d) 2020
Passage (Q.36-Q.40): Pakistan on Friday signed a new agreement with China to begin the second phase of the
USD 60 billion China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC) as Prime Minister Imran Khan showered praise on
the controversial projects, saying it has strategic significance for both the countries and delivering tangible
benefits to the people.
Khan, who arrived in China on Thursday on a four-day visit to attend the opening ceremony of the 2020 Beijing
Winter Olympics and meet the top Chinese leadership, held a virtual meeting with He Lifeng, the Chairman of
China’s apex planning body — the National Development and Reform Commission (NDRC) on Friday to
discuss the expansion of Chinese investments in Pakistan.
Pakistan’s State Minister and Chairman of Board of Investment Muhammad Azfar Ahsan and He signed the
Framework Agreement on Industrial Cooperation which aims to attract Foreign Direct Investment (FDI),
promote industrialisation and development of economic zones, and initiate, plan, execute and monitor projects,
both in public as well as private sector, Pakistan’s state-run Associated Press of Pakistan news agency reported.
https://indianexpress.com/article/world/pakistan-signs-new-pact-with-china-to-kick-off-second-phase-of-cpec-
7757306/
36. In which of the following years did the China-Pakistan Economic Corridor launched?
(a) 2012 (b) 2015 (c) 2017 (d) 2019
37. China has proposed construction of which of the following as an extension of CPEC in
Afghanistan?
(a) Khyber Pass motorway (b) Khunjerab Pass
(c) Peshawar-Herat Motorway (d) Peshawar-Kabul motorway
38. Which of the following is not one of the objections raised by India against CPEC?
(a) China’s insistence on establishing the CPEC project through PoK is seen by India as infringing its
sovereignty.
(b) CPEC can decrease tension between Pakistan and India on Kashmir dispute.
(c) China’s increasing footprints in the South Asian region is detrimental to India’s strategic hold.
(d) China is building roads and infrastructure in the disputed territory of Gilgit-Balistan, which is under
Pakistan’s control but which India claims as a part of Jammu and Kashmir.
39. Which of the following is TRUE about the Belt and Road Initiative?
(a) President Xi Jinping launched BRI in 2015.
(b) The initiative was incorporated into the Constitution of China in 2017.
(c) The Chinese government calls the initiative “a bid to enhance regional connectivity and embrace a brighter
future.”
(d) The project has a target completion date of 2049, which will coincide with the centennial anniversary of the
People’s Republic of China (PRC)’s founding.
40. In which year did Pakistan bought Gwadar Port from Oman?
(a) 1951 (b) 1958 (c) 1961 (d) 1966
Passage (Q.41-Q.45): Two new Ramsar sites — Khijadiya wildlife sanctuary in Gujarat and [1] in Uttar Pradesh
— were announced on the occasion of World Wetlands Day at Sultanpur national park in Gurgaon Wednesday.
Forest and Wildlife Department officials said India has a network of [2] such sites, the highest in South Asia,
covering 10,93,636 hectares.
The Union Environment Ministry had notified the Sultanpur National Park and Bhindawas wildlife sanctuary in
Jhajjar as Ramsar sites — the first two such sites in Haryana — in August 2021. Ramsar sites are wetlands of
international importance as per UNESCO’s 1971 Convention on Wetlands held in Ramsar, Iran. Officials said
the certification brings visibility to ecologically sensitive wetlands and helps in conservation.
https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/delhi/two-more-ramsar-sites-announced-on-world-wetlands-day-
7753955/
(a) Haiderpur Wetland
(b) Bakhira wildlife sanctuary
(c) Parvati Aranga Wildlife Sanctuary
(d) Nawabganj Bird Sanctuary
42. Which of the following is TRUE about Wetland?
(a) Wetlands are ecosystems saturated with water, either seasonally or permanently.
(b) They cover around 6% of the Earth’s land surface.
(c) 40% of all plant and animal species live or breed in wetlands.
(a) 46 (b) 47 (c) 48 (d) 49
44. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about Ramsar Sites?

(a) The Convention on Wetlands (Ramsar Convention) is the intergovernmental treaty that provides the
framework for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources.
(b) It came into force in 1975
(c) India enforced the Ramsar convention in 1975
(d) In 1981, Chilika Lake was designated the first Indian wetland of international importance under the Ramsar
Convention.
45. Which is the largest Ramsar Site in India?

(a) Renuka Wetlands in Himachal Pradesh
(b) Chilika Lake in Odisha
(c) Sundarban Wetland
(d) Asan Conservation Reserve in Uttarakhand
Passage (Q.46-Q.50): The government does not subscribe to [1] views, its rankings and disagrees with the
conclusions it has drawn by ranking India [2] on its World Press Freedom Index, minister of state for home
affairs Nityanand Rai told Parliament on Tuesday.
In response to Congress member Manish Tewari’s query in the Lok Sabha about the latest ranking, Rai said
India’s disapproval is based on “very low sample size, little or no weightage to fundamentals of democracy,
adoption of a methodology which is questionable and non-transparent, lack of clear definition of press freedom
etc.”
With reference to Tewari’s question on the closure of Kashmir Press Club on January 18, Rai said there is no
registered body by that name. He added there is no elected managing body of the club since it, as a registered
body, has ceased to exist and failed to register itself under the Societies Registration Act, 1860.
https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/world-press-freedom-index-govt-rejects-india-s-ranking-
questions-methodology-101644382461067.html
(a) Reporters Without Borders
(b) Amnesty International
(c) Oxfam International
(d) Reports for Investigative journalism
47. The India Press Freedom Report, 2021 was recently released by who among the following recently?
(a) Report and Risk Analysis Group
(b) Rights and Risk Analysis Group
(c) Risk Assessment and Analysis Group
(d) Reporters Rights And Analysis Group
48. Which of the following States tops the list of journalists/media organisations targeted as per the 2021 Indian
Press Freedom Report?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Bihar
(a) 139 (b) 140 (c) 142 (d) 145
50. Freedom of press is a part and parcel of which of the following fundamental rights?
(a) Article 14 (b) Article 19(1)(a)
(c) Article 21A (d) Article 25(1)(b)
Passage (Q.51-Q.55): The Supreme Court on Thursday permitted the Central government to implement [1]
economically weaker sections (EWS) reservation in All India Quota seats in NEET undergraduate and
postgraduate seats for the academic year 2021-2022, pending a detailed hearing.
A bench of Justices D.Y. Chandrachud and A.S. Bopanna said: "We deem it necessary to allow the counselling
session to begin with the existing criteria for the identification of the EWS category. Judicial propriety would
not permit us to pass an interim order staying the criteria for determination of the EWS category."
It, however, said that meaning of EWS - the identification of the poor or the poorest, would have to be examined
through detailed hearing.
https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2022/jan/21/has-societal-implications-on-equality-supreme-court-
to-examine-ews-quota-criteria-in-march-2409532.html
51. Which of the following is NOT one of the criteria for reservation of EWS category?
(a) Family has gross annual income below Rs 8 lakh rupees are to be identified as EWSs for benefit of
reservation.
(b) 15 acres of agricultural land and above;
(c) Residential area of 1000 sq ft. and above;
(d) Residential plot of 100 sq. yards and above in notified municipalities;
(a) 08 per cent (b) 10 per cent (c) 12 per cent (d) 15 per cent
53. The amendment to added the EWS category to the Constitution of India added which of the following
articles to the Constitution of India?
(a) Article 15(5) (b) Article 15(6) (c) Article 16(6) (d) Both b and c
54. The Mandal Commission to "identify the socially or educationally backward classes" of India was formed in
which of the following years?
(a) 1975 (b) 1978 (c) 1979 (d) 1992
55. Which of the following cases in India proposed the threshold of 50% to the reservation in India?
(a) Indra Sawhney & Others vs Union of India
(b) Minerva Mills vs. the union of India
(c) Keshvanand Bharti vs. the State of Kerala
(d) Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India
Passage (Q.56-Q.60): The government has notified new rules under which the upper limit for termination of a
pregnancy has been increased from [1] to 24 weeks for certain categories of women.
According to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Rules, 2021, these categories include
survivors of sexual assault or rape or incest, minors and women whose marital status changes during an ongoing
pregnancy (widowhood and divorce) and women with physical disabilities.
The new rules also cover mentally ill women, cases of foetal malformation that has a substantial risk of being
incompatible with life or if the child is born it may suffer from such physical or mental abnormalities to be
seriously handicapped and women with pregnancy in humanitarian settings or disaster or emergency situations
as may be declared by the government.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/new-rules-allow-abortion-till-24-weeks-of-pregnancy-for-certain-
categories-of-women/article36982316.ece
56. In which of the following cases, abortion is allowed even after the prescribe limit in the act?
(a) Women with physical disability
(b) Marital status change during pregnancy
(c) Foetal malformation
(d) Rape
57. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the MTP Rules?
(a) Only doctors with specialisation in gynaecology/obstetrics can perform abortions.
(b) According to the Bill, the “name and other particulars of a woman whose pregnancy has been terminated
shall not be revealed”, except to a person authorised by law.
(c) The Bill permits abortion to be allowed up to 20 weeks on the opinion of just one medical practitioner.
(d) To terminate pregnancies between after 24 weeks, the opinion of two doctors are required.
(a) 16 (b) 18 (c) 20 (d) 22
59. Which of the following is false about MTP Act, 1971?

(a) The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971 allowed for aborting the pregnancy by medical doctors
(with specified specialisation) on certain grounds.
(b) Termination is allowed at any point during the pregnancy if there is an immediate necessity to save the
woman’s life.
(c) Termination is permitted only when continuance of the pregnancy would involve a risk to the life of the
pregnant woman, cause grave injury to her mental or physical health or in the case of foetal abnormalities.
(d) Unmarried women are covered under the act.
60. IN which of the following landmark judgement of United States Supreme Court allowed abortion?
(a) Marbury v. Madison
(b) McCulloch v. Maryland
(c) Gibbons v. Ogden
(d) Roe v. Wade
Passage (Q.61-Q.65): The One Sun One World One Grid Declaration (OSOWOG) was jointly released by Prime
Minister Narendra Modi and UK Prime Minister Boris Johnson at the COP26 Climate Meet in [1].
Realising the vision of OSOWOG through interconnected green grids can be transformational, enabling all
nations to meet the targets of the Paris Agreement to prevent dangerous climate change, the declaration said.
These efforts can stimulate green investments and create millions of good jobs. By sharing the sun's energy, one
can help to build a more peaceful and prosperous world, the declaration added.
One of the big challenges for implementation will be maintaining a stable grid over a large geographical area.
Electricity Grid is vulnerable to accidents, weather, and cyber-attacks that are prone to increase and disrupt the
electricity supply on mass scale. The mechanism of cost-sharing will also be challenging as participating
countries are both rich and poor nations.
https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/blexplainer/bl-explainer-all-about-the-one-sun-one-world-one-grid-
initiative/article37486937.ece#:~:text=OSOWOG%20is%20the%20solution%20to,where%20it%20is%20day
%20time).
(a) Belgium (b) Geneva (c) Rome (d) Glasgow
62. Which of the following is one of the objectives of the One Sun One World One Grid Declaration?
(a) Its objective is to aid in developing a worldwide grid through which clean energy can be transmitted
anywhere, anytime.
(b) It also aims to help in reducing storage needs and enhancing the viability of solar projects.
(c) Its ultimate goal is to reduce carbon footprints and energy costs.
63. The idea of One Sun One World One Grid initiative was first floated at which of the following platforms?
(a) COP 21
(b) First Assembly of International Solar Alliance
(c) Third Assembly of International Solar Alliance
(d) G20 Summit 2019
64. The OSOWOG initiative is also known as which of the following in the UK?
(a) Green Grids (b) Solar Grids (c) Clean Grid (d) 24*7 Grid
65. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about International Solar Alliance?
(a) The ISA is an inter-governmental organisation formed by India and France.
(b) It comprising 101 members, to accelerate the global adoption of solar power.
(c) The ISA and the World Bank are also helping in executing the OSOWOG initiative.
(d) The United Nations General Assembly has rejected the request of International Solar Alliance to join them
as Observer member.
Passage (Q.31-Q.35): India’s passport power has improved this quarter compared to 2021. It now ranks at [1]
position in the Henley Passport Index, climbing seven places from 90th rank last year. However, in 2020, its
rank stood at 84 while in 2016, India was ranked 85th along with Mali and Uzbekistan.
Since [2], Henley Passport Index ranks world’s passports according to the number of destinations their holders
can access without prior visa. A statement by Henley and Partners said that in 2006 an individual could, on
average, visit 57 countries visa-free. “Today, that number has risen to 107, but this overall increase marks a
growing disparity between countries in the global north and those in the global south, with nationals from
countries such as Sweden and the US able to visit more than 180 destinations visa-free, while passport holders
from Angola, Cameroon, and Laos can only enter about 50,” the statement said .
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/indias-passport-rank-improves-to-83-from-90/article38241133.ece
(a) 81st (b) 83rd (c) 85th (d) 87th
32. Which of the following is TRUE about the Henley Passport Index?
(a) It is originally created by by Dr. Christian H. Kaelin (chairman of Henley & Partners).
(b) The index is based on exclusive data from the International Air Transport Association (IATA)
(c) With 57 founding members in 1945, IATA now represents some 290 airlines in 120 countries.
33. Which of the following has topped the ranking?

(a) Singapore (b) Germany (c) South Korea (d) Italy
34. which of the following will replace [2] in the above passage?
(a) 2001 (b) 2003 (c) 2005 (d) 2007
35. Which of the following is NOT TRUE?

(a) India now has visa-free access to 60 destinations worldwide with Oman and Armenia being the latest
additions.
(b) India has added 35 more destinations since 2006.
(c) India shares the position with Sao Tome and Principe in Central Africa, behind Rwanda and Uganda in 2022.
Passage (Q.36-Q.40): Former Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Governor [1] will take charge as the Vice President
for Investment Operations for South Asia, the Pacific Islands and South East Asia of Asian Infrastructure
Investment Bank (AIIB) on February 1, 2022.
Patel will succeed [2] as Vice President. As the Vice President, he used to oversee all sovereign and non-
sovereign lending in South Asia, the Pacific Islands and South East Asia.
"AIIB’s Board of Directors has appointed [1] to the position of Vice President for Investment Operations Region
1—South Asia, the Pacific Islands and South East Asia— succeeding [2]," said the AIIB statement.
https://www.livemint.com/companies/news/urjit-patel-to-take-charge-as-aiib-vice-president-on-feb-1-
11641916075164.html
(a) Raghuram Rajan (b) Shaktikanta Das
(c) Urjit Patel (d) Dr. D. Subbarao
37. Which of the following is TRUE about AIIB?

(a) The AIIB, launched in Beijing in 2015, has approved more loans for India than any other member of the
bank.
(b) China is its biggest shareholder and India is the second-largest.
(c) The U.S. and Japan are not among its 104 members.
38. Who among the following is the President of AIIB?

(a) Dr. Martin L. Kimmig (b) Alberto Ninio
(c) Jin Liqun (d) Ludger Schuknecht
(a) D.J. Pandian (b) Jin Liqun
(c) Konstantin Limitovskiy (d) Dr. Luky Eko Wuryanto
40. AIIB got the Permanent Observer status to the to the United Nations General Assembly in which of the following
year?
(a) 2016 (b) 2017 (c) 2018 (d) 2020
Passage (Q.41-Q.45): Early on January 6, Russian paratroopers and Belarusian special forces were boarding
planes for [1], one of the largest metropolises of Kazakhstan. The oil-rich country of 19 million people has seen
mass unrest in the opening days of the new year over the government’s decision to end subsidies on liquefied
petroleum gas.
Although the decision was taken three years ago, on January 1, fuel prices became fully market-based. The cost
of LPG, which many Kazakhs use instead of petrol or diesel to run their cars, soon shot up, doubling in some
places from 60 tenge ($0.14) a litre at the end of last year to 120 tenge by January 2. Protests immediately broke
out in Zhanaozen and it did not take long for them to spread around the vast country, snowballing from a specific
grievance about fuel prices into broader demands for regime change.
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-csto-kazakhstan-protests-7712534/
(a) Almaty (b) Nur-Sultan (c) Turkistan (d) Shymkent
42. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the Collective Security Treaty Organisation?
(a) When the Cold War drew to a close in 1991, the Warsaw Pact, an alliance of eight socialist states, and the
Soviet Union’s answer to NATO, dissolved.
(b) Less than a year later, Russia and five of its allies in the Commonwealth of Independent States, signed a new
Collective Security Treaty, which came into force in 1994.
(c) In 2005, as Central Asia loomed larger in geopolitics, it declared itself the Collective Security Treaty
Organisation, a full-blown military alliance.
43. Which of the following is NOT a member of CTSO?

(a) Armenia (b) Belarus (c) Kyrgyzstan (d) Uzbekistan
44. The Collective Security Treaty is also known as which of the following?
(a) Moscow Pact (b) St. Petersburg Pact
(c) Tashkent Pact (d) Samara Pact
45. Which of the following is TRUE about Kazakhstan?

(a) Kazakhstan broke away from the Soviet Union to become an independent republic in 1991.
(b) Nursultan Nazarbayev, the country’s powerful leader, stepped down as President in 2019, but retained an
outsize influence over the government of his cherry-picked successor, Kassym-Jomart Tokayev.
(c) The capital city was named after Mr. Nazarbayev as Nur-Sultan and his statues erected across the country.
Passage (Q.46-Q.50): India is likely to overtake [1] as Asia’s second-largest economy by 2030 when its GDP
is also projected to surpass that of Germany and the UK to rank as world’s No.3, IHS Markit said in a report on
Friday.
“India’s nominal GDP measured in USD terms is forecast to rise from USD 2.7 trillion in 2021 to USD 8.4
trillion by 2030,” IHS Markit Ltd said. “This rapid pace of economic expansion would result in the size of Indian
GDP exceeding [1] GDP by 2030, making India the second-largest economy in the Asia-Pacific region.” By
2030, the Indian economy would also be larger in size than the largest Western European economies of Germany,
France and the UK.
“Overall, India is expected to continue to be one of the world’s fastest-growing economies over the next decade,”
it said.
https://indianexpress.com/article/business/economy/india-to-overtake-japan-as-asias-second-largest-economy-
by-2030-ihs-markit-report-7711460/
(a) China (b) Japan (c) South Korea (d) Singapore
47. With respect to the report released by the IHS Markit Ltd., which of the following is NOT TRUE?
(a) An important positive factor for India is its large and fast-growing middle class, which is helping to drive
consumer spending.
(b) It has forecasted that the country’s consumption expenditure will double from USD 1.5 trillion in 2020 to
USD 3 trillion by 2030.
(c) India’s real GDP growth rate is projected to be 8.2 per cent, rebounding from the severe contraction of 7.3
per cent year-on-year in 2020-21, IHS Markit said.
(d) The Indian economy is forecast to continue growing strongly in the 2022-23 fiscal year, at a pace of 7.6 per
cent.
48. Currently, India ranks at what position with respect to the largest economies by GDP in the world?
(a) 4th (b) 5th (c) 6th (d) 8th
49. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about GDP?

(a) GDP is the monetary value of all the finished goods and services produced within a country's borders in a
specific time period.
(b) It includes anything produced within its borders by the country's citizens and foreigners.
(c) It is primarily used to assess the health of a country's economy.
(d) According to the International Monetary Fund, in 2019, China is the world's largest economy, followed by
USA and India.
50. India’s gross domestic product (GDP) is projected to grow at what percentage in the current financial year or
2021-22, according to the first advance estimates released by the National Statistical Office?
(a) 7.6% (b) 8.3% (c) 9.2% (d) 9.8%
Passage (Q.51-Q.55): Transgender inmates will soon get a separate enclosure/ward in prisons to ensure their
right to privacy and dignity. While providing exclusive space for transmen and transwomen in correctional
facilities, prison officials will ensure that they are not completely isolated from others.
In an advisory sent to the Heads of Prisons in the States and the Union Territories on Monday, the Union Ministry
of Home Affairs said a person recognised as a transgender had the right to the self-perceived gender identity
under the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, [1].
While respecting the self-identity at all times in admission procedures, medical examination, search, lodging,
clothing, treatment and care, the jail officials should facilitate their access to the identity certificate by helping
them apply/register on the national portal for them.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/transgender-persons-to-get-separate-jail-wards-
facilities/article38238322.ece
(a) 2014 (b) 2016 (c) 2018 (d) 2019
52. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the search procedure laid down in the rules by the ministry?
(a) It will be carried out by a person of their preferred gender.
(b) It will be carried by a trained medical professional or a paramedic trained in conducting searches.
(c) At the stage where the search procedure requires stripping, it must be done in a private room or in a
partitioned place.
53. IN which of the following years did the Supreme Court of India declared transgender people to be a 'third
gender'?
(a) 2013 (b) 2014 (c) 2016 (d) 2019
54. According to National Crime Records Bureau, how many third gender inmates were there in prison in 2020?
(a) 50 (b) 60 (c) 70 (d) 100
55. Right to Privacy and dignity are provided under which article of the Constitution of India?
(a) Article 21 (b) Article 22 (c) Article 23 (d) Article 25
Passage (Q.56-Q.60): Both Justices D.Y. Chandrachud and A.S. Bopanna of the Supreme Court on January 10
recused from hearing a dispute among the neighbouring States on the allocation of Krishna river water.
Explaining, Justice Chandrachud said both he and Justice Bopanna had had a word with each other earlier in the
day and decided to withdraw from hearing the case. Justice Chandrachud is from Maharashtra and Justice
Bopanna hails from Karnataka.
Justice Chandrachud explained to the lawyers present that they had noticed that judges similarly placed like them
— hailing from the States in dispute — had recused from the case.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/krishna-water-dispute-justices-chandrachud-bopanna-recuse-from-
case/article38213656.ece
56. The Krishna river dispute is between which of the following States?
(a) Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka
(b) Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh and Kerala
(c) Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Kerala
(d) Telangana, Karnataka, Kerala and Maharashtra
57. The First Krishna Water Disputes Tribunal was established in which of the following years?
(a) 1956 (b) 1966 (c) 1969 (d) 1973
58. Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the inter-state water disputes?
59. Which of the following is the source of origin of Krishna River?

(a) Mahabaleshwar (b) Nashik (c) Janapav (d) Ahirgawan
60. Which of the following is a tributary of Krishna River?

(a) Ghataprabha (b) Malaprabha (c) Tungabhadra (d) All of the above
Passage (Q.61-Q.65): Union Minister for Environment, Forests and Climate Change, [1] on Wednesday
launched the ‘Action Plan for Introduction of Cheetah in India’, as efforts are under way to bring the world’s
fastest cat back to the country after 70 years.
“The cheetah that became extinct in independent India, is all set to return,’’ [1] said while launching the Action
Plan at the 19th meeting of the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA).
The cheetah is the only large carnivore to have gone extinct in India in the 1950s due to hunting and loss of
habitat.
Now, with help from the Wildlife Institute of India and the Wildlife Trust of India, the ministry will be
translocating around 8-12 cheetahs from South Africa, Namibia and Botswana – which have the world’s largest
populations of the animal. The big cats will live at Kuno Palpur National Park in [2].
https://indianexpress.com/article/india/action-plan-cheetah-set-to-return-bhupender-yadav-7708894/
(a) Bhupender Yadav (b) Prakash Javadekar
(c) Piyush Goyal (d) Dharmendra Pradhan
62. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the reintroduction of Cheetah in India?
(a) Cheetah became extinct in 1952 in India.
(b) The Action plan targets to introduce 50 Cheetahs in India in the next 5 years.
(c) A cohort of around 10-12 young cheetahs that are ideal for reintroduction shall be imported from Namibia
or South Africa as a founder stock during the first year.
(d) The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) lists the Asiatic Cheetah to be in vulnerable
category.
63. National Tiger Conservation Authority was established in which of the following years?
(a) 1952 (b) 1956 (c) 1968 (d) 1972
(a) Maharashtra (b) Karnataka (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Chhattisgarh
65. The Asiatic Cheetah’s are now known to occur with certainty in which of the following regions?
(a) Iraq (b) Afghanistan (c) Israel (d) Iran
Passage (Q.31-Q.35): A government committee report in the Supreme Court has said that “income” is a “feasible
criterion” for defining the “Economical Weaker Sections” (EWS) in society and the annual family income of [1]
is a “reasonable” threshold to determine EWS in order to extend reservation in admissions and jobs.
“A feasible criterion for defining EWS can be based on income [family income]. A threshold of [1] of annual
family income, in the current situation, seems reasonable for determining EWS,” the committee report submitted
as part of a government affidavit concluded.
The committee did not agree with the notion that the Centre had “mechanically adopted” [1] as a number because
it was also used for the OBC creamy layer cut-off. It said the income criterion for EWS was “more stringent”
than the one for the OBC creamy layer.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/8-lakh-criterion-to-determine-ews-is-reasonable-govt-panels-report-
in-sc/article38091357.ece
(a) 5 Lakhs (b) 6 Lakhs (c) 3 Lakhs (d) 8 Lakhs
32. In which of the following constitutional amendment was the 10% EWS Quota introduced?
(a) 100th (b) 103rd (c) 95th (d) 110th
33. In Indra Sawhney case, the Supreme Court capped overall reservation at which of the following?
(a) 55% (b) 50% (c) 60% (d) 47%
34. Which of the following is not true about Mandal Commission?

(a) It recommended reservations for Other Backward Classes (OBCs) in government jobs.
(b) The Indian government to open reservation for OBCs was led by then Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru.
(c) The Mandal Commission was set up on January 1, 1979.
(d) The Mandal Commission had also recommended land redistribution and change in relations of production.
35. Which of the following is the eligibility criteria for EWS certificate?
(a) You should be a ‘general’ candidate.
(b) Your family should not own agricultural land of size 5 acres or more.
(c) Your family should not own a residential flat of area 1000 square feet or more.
Passage (Q.36-Q.40): The United Nation Security Council got five new members on Tuesday as Albania, Brazil,
Gabon, Ghana and [1] formally took up the posts they won in an election in June.
Ambassadors made brief remarks and installed their countries’ flags alongside those of other members outside
the council chambers, and posed for a group photo – wearing face masks and standing apart in an
acknowledgment of the ongoing coronavirus pandemic.
The flag ceremony is a tradition that [2] started when it was on the council in 2018. Other members are elected
by the 193-member General Assembly for staggered, two-year terms that are allocated by global regions.
Countries often campaign for seats for years. Winning gives them a say on peacekeeping missions and the
council’s other approaches to conflict hotspots, plus a strong voice on overarching issues of international peace
and security.
https://indianexpress.com/article/world/albania-brazil-gabon-ghana-uae-join-security-council-7707250/
36. Which of the following is replaced by [1] in the passage?

(a) Saudi Arabia (b) UAE (c) Yemen (d) Iraq
37. Which of the following is true?

(a) Gabon and Ghana each have been on the council three times before.
(b) Brazil is taking an 11th turn at UNSC.
(c) Albania is joining UNSC for the first time.
38. UNSC is headquartered in which of the following cities?

(a) New York City (b) Geneva (c) Paris (d) London

(a) Kazakhstan (b) Tajikistan (c) Israel (d) Jordan
40. Which of the following is true about UNSC?

(a) It was formed in 1950.
(b) It is a 20-member council.
(c) Germany, France, Russia, the United Kingdom and the United States are its permanent members with veto
power.
(d) More than 50 of the UN’s 193 member countries have never been elected to the council since its formation.
Passage (Q.41-Q.45): Gandhi Sagar Dam on [1] River in Madhya Pradesh is in need of immediate repair, warned
a new report. It is one of the five water reservoirs of national importance.
Absence of regular checks, non-functional instruments and choked drains are the major problems plaguing the
dam for years, the report by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) released December 23, 2021.
Gandhi Sagar Dam was constructed in [2] to provide drinking water to several districts of Rajasthan and generate
115 megawatts of electricity. It has been breached several times in recent years, causing flooding in downstream
areas, showed reports.
Three districts in the state — Sheopur, Morena and Bhind, with an approximate collective population of 4.35
million (as per the 2011 Census) — lie downstream the dam. Gandhi Sagar was put in Category II of the dam
inspection report.
Dams with major deficiencies, which may lead to complete failure / partial failure and need attention at once,
fall under Category I. Those with minor to medium deficiencies, which are rectifiable but need immediate
attention fall under Category II.
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/natural-disasters/india-s-old-dams-gandhi-sagar-in-mp-needs-
immediate-repair-says-cag-report-80941

(a) Chambal (b) Narmada (c) Tapti (d) Betwa
42. According to the National Dam Safety Bill, 2021, the National Committee on Dam Safety will be chaired by
which of the following?
(a) Chairperson, Central Water Commission
(b) Minister of Jal Shakti
(c) Minister of State for Jal Shakti
(d) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
43. Which of the following states opposed the Dam Safety Act 2021?
(a) Telangana (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Maharashtra

(a) 1960 (b) 1989 (c) 1999 (d) 1945
45. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the Central Water Commission?
(a) CWC was earlier known as Central Waterways, Irrigation and Navigation Commissioni.e. CWINC.
(b) It was established in 1945 by the Government on the advice of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, Member(Labour) in
Viceroy’s Executive Council.
(c) The CWC is headed by a chairman, with the status of Ex-Officio Secretary to the Government of India.
(d) The organization currently functions as an office attached to the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate
Change
Passage (Q.46-Q.50): Konyak Naga organisations have termed the extension of the Armed Forces (Special
Powers) Act (AFSPA) in Nagaland less than a month after the [1] as “adding salt to wound”.
Soldiers of an elite Army unit on December 4 gunned down 13 civilians in [1] district’s Oting village during a
botched operation purportedly against extremists. The district is dominated by the Konyaks, one of the largest
Naga tribes.
The Ministry of Home Affairs had issued a notification extending the contentious AFSPA for six months from
December 30, 2021, by saying the whole of Nagaland was in a “disturbed and dangerous condition” requiring
the use of armed forces in the aid of civilians.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/konyak-groups-slam-extension-of-afspa-in-nagaland-less-than-a-
month-after-mon-killings/article38085543.ece
(a) Mon massacre (b) Kiphiremassacre
(c) Dimapur massacre (d) Noklakmassacre
47. Which of the following is NOT TRUE with regards to AFSPA?

(a) The Act in its original form was promulgated by the British in response to the Quit India movement in 1942.
(b) After Independence, it was first brought in as an ordnance and then notified as an Act in 1992.
(c) Punjab was the first state from where it was repealed, followed by Tripura and Meghalaya.
(d) It remains in force in Nagaland, Manipur, Assam, J&K, and parts of Arunachal Pradesh.
48. Who among the following cannot declare an area as disturbed area under the Act?
(a) Governor of the State (b) Administrator of Union Territory
(c) Chief Minister of the State (d) Central Government
49. Which of the following Committees recommended to repeal AFPSA?

(a) Ranbir Singh Committee (b) Malimath Committee
(c) BP Jeevan Reddy Committee (d) Padmanabhaiah Committee
50. Who among the following is the Chairman of the high-level committee to examine the possibility of withdrawing
the Armed Forces in Nagaland?
(a) Vivek Joshi (b) Pramod Kumar Mishra
(c) Nripendra Mishra (d) Ajay Kumar Bhalla
Passage (Q.51-Q.55): The Prohibition of Child Marriage (Amendment) Bill, 2021, which seeks to raise the age
of legal marriage for women from 18 to 21, will apply to all communities in the country and, once enacted, will
supersede existing marriage and personal laws.
Introduced in Lok Sabha Tuesday by [1], Union Minister for Women and Child Development, the Bill which
proposes amendments to the [2] law was sent to a Parliamentary Standing Committee for further discussion.
Irani said the proposed legislation was secular. “All women from all faiths, under Hindu Marriage Act or the
Muslim Personal Law, should get equal rights to marry,” she said.
Members of the Congress and other Opposition parties opposed the Bill and questioned the “haste” with which
it had been brought to the House.
https://indianexpress.com/article/india/bill-to-increase-marriage-age-of-women-to-21-yrs-to-be-sent-to-house-
panel-smriti-irani-7684161/
(a) Maneka Gandhi (b) Smiriti Irani
(c) Pragya Thakur (d) Meenakshi Lekhi
52. Which of the following is TRUE?

(a) An individual attains the age of majority at 18 as per the Indian Majority Act, 1875.
(b) In Islam, the marriage of a minor who has attained puberty is considered valid.
(c) For Hindus, The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, sets 18 years as the minimum age for the bride and 21 years as
the minimum age for the groom.
(a) 1990 (b) 1996
(c) 2002 (d) 2006
54. Who among the following led the task force committee appointed by the ministry for child and women
empowerment?
(a) Smriti Irani
(b) Jaya Jaitly
(c) Mohini Parihar
(d) Ranjan Singh
55. When did the UN general assembly adopted the convention of the elimination of all forms of discrimination
against women?
(a) 1979 (b) 1993
(c) 1960 (d) 1998
Passage (Q.56-Q.60): China’s new law on land borders, passed on October 23, came into effect on January
1.This has happened at a time when the border standoff in eastern Ladakh remains unresolved, when China has
renamed several places in [1] as part of its claim on the Indian state, and when the Chinese Embassy in Delhi
has written to Indian MPs, including a minister, who had attended a dinner reception hosted by the Tibetan
Parliament-in-exile.
The Standing Committee of China’s National People’s Congress passed the law for the “protection and
exploitation of the country’s land border areas”.
State media Xinhua reported that under the law, “the sovereignty and territorial integrity of… China are sacred
and inviolable”, and the state needs to “take measures to safeguard territorial integrity and land boundaries and
guard against and combat any act that undermines [these]”.
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-chinas-border-law-india-7702803/
56. Which of the following is not true about China’s border disputes?
(a) China has a 22,100-kilometer land border with 14 countries.
(b) It has resolved the boundary disputes with 12 neighbours.
(c) India and Nepal are the two countries with which China is yet to finalisethe border agreements.
57. Which of the following Indian States does not share boundary with China?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Uttarakhand (d) Manipur
(a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Manipur
(c) Sikkim (d) Arunachal Pradesh
59. When did India and China signed the landmark Border Peace and Tranquillity Agreement?
(a) 1962 (b) 1978 (c) 1985 (d) 1993
60. Which of the following is demarcation that separates Indian-controlledterritory from Chinese-controlled
territory?
(a) Line of Control (b) Line of Actual Control
(c) McMohan Line (d) Durand Line
Passage (Q.61-Q.65): Chief Minister [1] on Sunday expressed confidence that the Centre would grant Statehood
for the Union Territory of Puducherry.
Addressing the inauguration of the Puducherry Print and Television Journalists' Association, [1], who heads the
AINRC-BJP coalition government in Puducherry, said Statehood status had been a long-standing demand of the
Union Territory.
"We have been making a plea for full Statehood to Puducherry. I am confident that the Centre under Prime
Minister Narendra Modi will accede to the demand."
The Chief Minister said the government was implementing several schemes for the betterment of journalists and
promised to consider the proposals submitted by the office-bearers of the Association.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/puducherry/centre-will-grant-statehood-for-the-union-territory-of-
puducherry-says-cm/article38044175.ece
(a) N. Rangasamy (b) V. Narayanasamy
(c) N Adikesavan (d) Kiran Bedi
62. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the Union Territories in India?
(a) Currently India has a total of 8 Union Territories.
(b) Recently, the Dadar and Nagar Haweli is merged with Daman and Diu.
(c) Two Union Territories have their own Legislative assemblies.
63. Which of the following was the First Union Territory of India?
(a) Chandigarh (b) Daman and Diu
(c) Andaman and Nicobar (d) Lakshadweep
64. Which of the following is TRUE about Puducherry?

(a) It was formed in 1962 out of the four former colonies of French India.
(b) The French East India Company established a settlement in 1674 at Pondicherry.
(c) The territory formally took the name Puducherry in 2006.
65. When was the Concept of Union Territories Started in India?

(a) 1956 (b) 1958 (c) 1962 (d) 1969
Passage (Q.31-Q.35): The most obvious aspect of the functioning of the collegium system of judicial
appointments and transfers is its opaqueness. Decisions that have no explanation, or can only be explained in
terms of one’s own perception about the functioning of the judge affected by it, have become quite common. In
the latest instance, Chief Justice of the Madras High Court Sanjib Banerjee has been abruptly transferred to head
the Meghalaya High Court, the second such instance of the head of a court with a sanctioned complement of 75
judges being asked to take over a court with a strength of four.
In September 2019, Justice Vijaya K. Tahilramani resigned after being shifted from Madras to the Meghalaya
High Court at a time when she was the country’s senior-most Chief Justice. That one High Court is as important
and prestigious as another is not in dispute. And equally acceptable is the premise that the Chief Justice of India
is justly empowered to transfer the head of any High Court in the interest of the “better administration of justice”.
31. The Collegium System for the appointment of Judges in the Higher Courts was introduced in which of the
following year?
(a) 1973
(b) 1981
(c) 1990
(d) 1993
32. The National Judicial Appointment commission Act was stuck by the Supreme Court in which of the following
years?
(a) 2014
(b) 2015
(c) 2018
(d) 2020
33. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India establishes the Supreme Court of India?
(a) Article 121
(b) Article 124
(c) Article 217
(d) Article 224
34. Recently, the parliament proposed to amend High Court Judges (Salaries and Conditions of Service) Act, of
which of the following years?
(a) 1954
(b) 1958
(c) 1961
(d) 1970
35. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment did the government tried to replace the Collegium System?
(a) 99th
(b) 100th
(c) 102nd
(d) 104th
Passage (Q.36-Q.40): Prime Minister [1] became the first Israeli leader to formally visit the UAE. While cabinet
members have visited the Emirates, [1] move makes him the first official head of state to make the journey. The
visit is a sign of deepening ties between Israel and parts of the Arab world, a process that began in [2] when
Israel normalised relations with four Arab countries after signing of the Abraham Accords. While Israel has
publicised the move, Emirati officials declined to organise a news conference.
According to Hussain Ibish, a Senior Resident Scholar at the Arab Gulf States Institute in Washington who spoke
with indianexpress.com, the move signals deeper ties between Israel and its Arab neighbours, going as far as to
describe the UAE as the “first truly warm relationship Israel has developed with any Arab country since its
founding.”
However, the progress of Israel’s standing in the Middle East will be contingent on a number of factors, most
notably, its relationship with Saudi Arabia and its posture towards one of the region’s strongest powers, Iran.
(a) Benjamin Netanyahu
(b) Naftali Bennett
(c) Yair Lapid
(d) Issac Harzog
37. Which of the following was the first Arab Country to normalise relations and sign peace agreement with Israel?
(a) Egypt
(b) Iran
(c) Jordan
(d) UAE
38. Which of the following Counties has played the role of mediator in the Abraham Accord?
(a) Russia
(b) USA
(c) India
(d) Iran
39. Which of the following Countries has not Signed any peace deal with Israel?
(a) Bahrain
(b) Morocco
(c) Sudan
(d) Oman
(a) 2018
(b) 2019
(c) 2020
(d) 2021
Passage (Q.41-Q.45): The central government has formed a committee to review criteria for determining
Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) category, secretary, [1], ministry of social justice and empowerment
announced on social media. “Government today appointed the committee for revisiting the criteria for
Economically Weaker Section reservations,” [1] said in a tweet.
On November 25, Centre told the Supreme Court that it has decided to review [2] criteria for determining
Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) category in National Eligibility Entrance Test (NEET) All India Quota
(AIQ) and will come up with a fresh decision within four weeks, as per a LiveLaw report. Justice DY
Chandrachud had said, “we don't want to push them in a situation where they do something in an improper way”
and agreed with Centre’s decision to take four weeks for the process.
41. Which of the following replaces [1] in the passage?
(a) R Subrahmanyam
(b) Tarika Roy
(c) Virendra Kumar
(d) Mukhtar Abbas Naqvi
42. Candidates belonging to which of the following categories are eligible for EWS reservation?
(a) General
(b) Other Backward Classes
(c) Scheduled Tribe
(d) Scheduled Caste
43. Which of the following replaces [2] in the passage?

(a) Rs 3 Lakhs
(b) Rs 8 Lakhs
(c) Rs 10 Lakhs
(d) Rs 5 Lakhs
44. In which of the following cases reservation was capped at 50% by the Supreme Court?
(a) Indra Sawhney vs Union of India
(b) Aruna Shaunbaug vs Union of India
(c) Minerva Mills vs Union of India
(d) Gian Kaur vs State of Punjab
45. Which of the following states has the highest per capita income in India?
(a) Goa
(b) Karnataka
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Punjab
Passage (Q.46-Q.50): India has designated the Haiderpur wetland, which is about 10 km from Bijnor, as the
country's [1] Ramsar site and 2,463rd Ramsar site internationally. The Union ministry of Environment, forest
and climate change posted the information on Twitter on Thursday
Haiderpur Wetland covers an area of 6,908 hectares and is situated on the Muzaffarnagar-Bijnor border in Uttar
Pradesh. It was formed in [2] by the construction of Madhya Ganga Barrage at the confluence of Solani and
Ganga rivers and is a part of Hastinapur Wildlife Sanctuary.
A source of freshwater and groundwater recharge, Haiderpur Wetland supports a variety of plant species, and is
home to numerous animals, including swamp deer. otters, gharial and fishing cat. It plays host to more than 300
species of birds, many of which come for wintering.
(a) 44th
(b) 45th
(c) 46th
(d) 47th
47. The Ramsar Convention is established by which of the following bodies?

(a) UNICEF
(b) World Meteorological Organization
(c) UNESCO
(d) World Tourism Organisation
48. Which of the following is the World’s first Ramsar Site?
(a) Cobourg Peninsula
(b) Rio Negro
(c) Vembanad Kol
(d) Renuka Wetland
49. Ramsar Convention came into force in India in which of the following year?
(a) 1971
(b) 1975
(c) 1982
(d) 1998
(a) 1971
(b) 1982
(c) 1984
(d) 1990
Passage (Q.51-Q.55): The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) on October 21 retained Pakistan in the ‘greylist’
yet again, observing that it needed to further demonstrate that investigations and prosecutions were being pursued
against the senior leadership of U.N.-designated terror groups, which include Lashkar-e-Taiba, Jaish-e-
Mohammed, al-Qaeda and the Taliban.
At a press conference, FATF president [1] said Pakistan remained under increased monitoring.
“The Pakistan Government has two concurrent action plans with a total of 34 action plan items. It has addressed
or largely addressed 30 of the items. Its most recent action plan from June this year, which largely focussed on
money laundering deficiencies, was issued after the FATF’s regional partner APG, that is Asia Pacific Group,
identified a number of serious issues,” said [1].
(a) Marcus Pleyer
(b) Gianni Infantino
(c) Carter Roberts
(d) Marcos Troyjo
52. The Plenary body of FATF meets how many times in a year?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
53. How many Countries are currently in the FATF Grey List?
(a) 15
(b) 17
(c) 22
(d) 23
54. How many regional organisations are members of FATF?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
55. Which of the following Country was recently removed from the FATF grey List?
(a) Turkey
(b) Myanmar
(c) Mauritius
(d) Russia
Passage (Q.56-Q.60): The Norwegian Nobel Committee has decided to award the Nobel Peace Prize for 2021
to [1] and ]2] for their efforts to safeguard freedom of expression, which is a precondition for democracy and
lasting peace. [1] and [2] are receiving the Peace Prize for their courageous fight for freedom of expression in
the Philippines and Russia. At the same time, they are representatives of all journalists who stand up for this
ideal in a world in which democracy and freedom of the press face increasingly adverse conditions.
[1] uses freedom of expression to expose abuse of power, use of violence and growing authoritarianism in her
native country, the Philippines. In 2012, she co-founded Rappler, a digital media company for investigative
journalism, which she still heads. As a journalist and the Rappler’s CEO, Ressa has shown herself to be a fearless
defender of freedom of expression. Rappler has focused critical attention on the Duterte regime’s controversial,
murderous anti-drug campaign. The number of deaths is so high that the campaign resembles a war waged against
the country’s own population. [2] and Rappler have also documented how social media is being used to spread
fake news, harass opponents and manipulate public discourse.
56. Which of the following can best be replaced by [1] and [2] in the above passage?
(a) Maria Ressa and Dmitry Muratov
(b) David Julius and David W.C. MacMillan
(c) David Julius and Maria Ressa
(d) David W.C. MacMillan and Dmitry Muratov
57. Manabe and Hasselmann and received nobel prize in physics for which of the following?
(a) Work in Black Hole
(b) Physical modelling of Earth’s climate
(c) discovery of a supermassive compact object at the centre of our galaxy.
(d) Understanding of the evolution of the universe
58. David Julius and Ardem Patapoutian won the Nobel prize for which of the following category?
(a) Chemistry
(b) Peace
(c) Physiology
(d) Literature
59. Which of the following scientist in history has won two Nobel prize in different field of science?
(a) Albert Einstein
(b) Madam Curie
(c) Sigmund Freud
(d) Niels Bohr
60. Nobel Prize is presented in six different fields. Which of the following is not one of them?
(a) Physics
(b) Chemistry
(c) Literature
(d) Mathematics
Passage (Q.61-Q.65): On Thursday, the Supreme Court directed that the maximum water level in Mullaperiyar
dam should be 139.50 ft until November 10. The dam is at the centre of a decades-old dispute: for Kerala, where
it is situated, the dam presents a threat to lakhs living downstream; and for [1], which controls the dam, the water
it provides is the lifeline of people in five districts.
The dam is located in the upper reaches of the river Periyar, which flows into Kerala after originating in [1]. The
reservoir is within the Periyar Tiger Reserve. The water diverted from the reservoir is first used for power
generation in lower Periyar before flowing into the Suruliyar, a tributary of Vaigai river, and then for irrigating
nearly 2.08 lakh hectares in Theni and four other districts farther away.

(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Karnataka
(c) Goa
(d) Andhra Pradesh
62. Which of the following is not one of the tributaries of the Periyar river?
(a) Muthirapuzha River
(b) Mullayar River
(c) Malaprabha River
(d) Cheruthoni River
63. Mullaperiyar dam can be categorized as which of the following types of dam?
(a) Gravity dam
(b) Detention dam
(c) Rock fill dam
(d) Embankment dam
64. The excess water from Mullaperiyar dam flows downstream to which of the following reservoirs which can lead
to flooding in Kerala?
(a) Neyyar
(b) Thenmala
(c) Idamalayar
(d) Idukki
65. Who among the following constructed Mullaperiyar dam?

(a) Sir Arthur Cotton
(b) John Pennycuick
(c) Lord Wenlock
(d) Robert Napier
Passage(Q.31-Q.35): Adding to its list of achievements, India became the [1] country in the world to have its
independent regional navigation satellite system developed by ISRO. The Indian Regional Navigation Satellite
System (IRNSS) with its operational name of [2] has been recognised by the International Maritime Organization
(IMO) as a part of the World Wide Radio Navigation System (WWRNS) for operation in the Indian Ocean
Region.
During its 102nd session held virtually (4 to 11 November 2020), the Maritime Safety Committee (MSC) of
IMO approved IRNSS as a World Wide Radio Navigation System (WWRNS). The process of getting the said
recognition took two years.
This is a significant achievement for Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways (MoPSW), Directorate General
of Shipping (DGS) and Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) towards Prime Minister Modi's
'Atmanirbhar Bharat' vision.
(a) Tenth (b) Second (c) Sixth (d) Fourth
32. Who among the following is known as the founding father of Indian Space Programme?
(a) APJ Abdul Kalam (b) Homi Bhabha
(c) C.V. Raman (d) Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
33. Which of the following is not true about IRNSS?
(a) The life span of GEOs is 9.5 years while GSOs have a life span of 11 years.
(b) IRNSS is a regional navigation system and not a global one.
(c) In 2008, the project was approved by the Government of India and was expected to be completed and
implemented by 2016.
(d) The constellations' first satellite (IRNSS-1A) was launched on 1 July 2013 and the seventh and final satellite
(IRNSS-1G) was launched on 28 April 2016.

(a) Navigation with Indian Constellation (b) Indian Maritime Satellite System
(c) Atmanirbhar Bharat Navigation System (d) Indian Navigation Constellation
35. Which of the following is incorrect?

(a) The Quasi-Zenith Satellite System (QZSS) is a regional satellite system covering Japan and the Asia-Oceania
region with a total of 4 satellites and 7 are planned.
(b) Europe's Galileo is a Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) which became operational in 2016 and has
a constellation of 30 satellites.
(c) The BeiDou Navigation Satellite System (BDS) provides regional coverage of the Asia- Pacific region, plans
to provide global coverage by 2020 with a total of 35 satellites.
(d) Russia's GLONASS is the world's most used navigation system and is a constellation of 32 satellites.
Passage(Q.36-Q.40): Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Saturday (December 11) paid tribute to Chief of
Defence Staff (CDS) General Bipin Rawat and 12 others who recently died in the military chopper crash in
Tamil Nadu.
Addressing a rally in Uttar Pradesh's Balrampur, Modi paid condolences on the death of CDS Rawat, his wife
Madhulika Rawat and 11 defence personnel who lost their lives in the Mi-17VH chopper crash in Coonoor. The
PM, as quoted by ANI, said, “I express my condolences to all brave warriors who died in the helicopter crash on
Dec 8. The demise of India's first CDS Gen Bipin Rawat, is a loss to every patriot. He was brave and worked
hard to make the country's armed forces self-reliant, the nation is a witness to that.”
36. In which of the following year was the position of Chief of Defence Staff of the Indian Armed Forces formed?
(a) 2016 (b) 2015 (c) 2019 (d) 2020
37. Indian Defence Ministry bought the Mi-17VH helicopters from which of the following countries?
(a) Russia (b) USA (c) France (d) Germany
38. Establishment of CDS of the Indian armed forces was first recommended by which of the following?
(a) Naresh Chandra committee (b) Kargil review committee
(c) National Security Council (d) JJ Irani Committee
39. Along with the appointment of CDS, which of the following was the fifth departments to be created under the
Ministry of Defence?
(a) Department of Defence Production
(b) Department of Ex-Servicemen Welfare
(c) Department of Defence Research and Development
(d) Department of Military Affairs
40. Which of the following is not true about CDS Bipin Rawat?
(a) He was a four-star general of the Indian Army.
(b) He served as the 57th and last Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee.
(c) He served as 26th Chief of Army Staff of the Indian Army.
(d) He fought in the 1962 Sino-Indian war.
Passage(Q.41-Q.45): India will launch its much-awaited human spaceflight mission in 2023, Union Science and
Technology Minister [1] said. Named Gaganyaan, the first human space mission to launch from Indian soil was
initially set for August 2022, to mark 75 years of India's independence but the coronavirus-induced pandemic
forced a delay in its timeline. Singh acknowledged the delay but added that preparations are going full throttle
to achieve the 2023 target. He added that a successful Gaganyaan mission will make India the fourth country in
the world to launch a manned space flight.
The Union minister told Rajya Sabha Thursday that all the major test missions, including the validation of the
crew escape system, will be completed by 2022. The first uncrewed mission will launch at the beginning of the
second half of next year and a second uncrewed mission is scheduled for the end 2022. The second mission will
carry [2], a humanoid robot developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).

(a) Jaipal Reddy (b) Vayalar Ravi (c) Harsh Vardhan (d) Jitendra Singh
42. Which of the following is the orbital range in which the gaganyaan spacecraft will be placed?
(a) 600-700 km (b) 100-200 km (c) 300-400 km (d) 800-1000 km
43. In Gaganyaan Mission, which of the following countries is helping India to train the astronauts?
(a) USA (b) Russia (c) China (d) South Korea

(a) Vyommitra (b) Manav (c) Yamana (d) Daksh
45. Which of the following is true about ISRO?
(a) ISRO was created prior to the establishment of Department of Space under the Indian Government.
(b) India’s first satellite built by ISRO was launched from Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh.
(c) India’s first satellite was named as “Kalpana-1”.
(d) ISRO was formed in the year 1965.
Passage(Q.46-Q.50): With the United Nations granting Observer status to International Solar Alliance, India’s
power and renewable energy minister [1] said in a tweet that the historic decision is going to be a stepping
stone in furtherance of the Prime Minister’s vision of ‘One Sun One World One Grid’.
This comes in the backdrop of the global grid declaration adopted at COP26 in Glasgow, with the Green Grids
Initiative (GGI)—OSOWOG launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi at the World Leaders Summit that
aims to connect [2] countries to round-the-clock solar power.
“[1] tweeted on the occasion and said that this will provide a big boost to the initiative to bring about just and
equitable energy solutions through the deployment of solar energy," the ministry of new and renewable energy
said in a statement.

(a) Raj Kumar Singh (b) Dharmendra Pradhan
(c) Piyush Goyal (d) Kiren Rijiju
47. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the Green Grid Launched at the COP26?
(a) It is an initiative by India and France to tap solar energy and have it travel seamlessly across borders.
(b) It includes a group of governments called the Green Grids Initiative (GGI) - One Sun One World One Grid
group.
(c) According to the ISA’s concept note on OSOWOG, the global solar grid will be implemented in three phases.
(d) International Solar Alliance is the nodal agency for implementing One Sun One World One Grid
(OSOWOG).
48. Which of the following Country became the 101 st member of ISA, recently?
(a) Germany (b) Italy (c) USA (d) Russia

(a) 120 (b) 140 (c) 135 (d) 145
50. Which of the following is INCORRECT about United Nations?

(a) UN Charter was signed on 26 June 1945.
(b) The Norwegian Foreign Minister, Trygve Lie, was elected as the first UN Secretary-General.
(c) UNESCO is one of the six principal organs of the UN.
(d) One of the four major UN Office sites is in Nairobi, Kenya.
Passage(Q.51-Q.55): On the occasion of World Water Day on [1], a memorandum of agreement was signed
between Union Minister of Jal Shakti and the chief ministers of Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh to implement
the Ken-Betwa Link Project (KBLP) on Monday. The agreement was signed through a video conference in the
presence of Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
The Ken-Betwa Link Project is the first project under the National Perspective Plan for interlinking of rivers.
Under this project, water from the Ken river will be transferred to the Betwa river. Both these rivers are tributaries
of river [2].
The Ken-Betwa Link Project has two phases. Under Phase-I, one of the components — Daudhan dam complex
and its appurtenances like Low Level Tunnel, High Level Tunnel, Ken-Betwa link canal and Power houses —
will be complete(d) While in the Phase-II, three components — Lower Orr dam, Bina complex project and Kotha
barrage — will be constructed.

(a) September 21 (b) March 22 (c) June 5 (d) July 16
52. Which of the following is true about Ken-Betwa River interlinking project?
(a) The Ken-Betwa Link Project lies in Bundelkhand, a drought-prone region.
(b) The project is expected to provide annual irrigation of 10.62 lakh hectares.
(c) The project is expected to generate 103 MW of hydropower.

(a) Ganga (b) Narmada (c) Yamuna (d) Chambal
54. Which of the following is INCORRECT about the Ken and Betwa Rivers?
(a) Rajghat, Paricha and Matatila dams are built over Betwa river.
(b) Ken River passes through Panna tiger reserve.
(c) Both Ken and Betwa Rivers originate in Madhya Pradesh.
(d) The Indian navy named one of its frigates INS Ken in honour of the river.
55. How many peninsular components are there Under the National Perspective Plan (NPP)?
(a) 12 (b) 14 (c) 16 (d) 18
Passage(Q.56-Q.60): Amid protests by Opposition MPs, Rajya Sabha Deputy Chairman Harivansh Narayan
Singh on Friday reserved his decision to allow the introduction of a private member’s Bill to amend the Preamble
to the Constitution. BJP Member [1] moved the motion to introduce the Constitution (Amendment) Bill, 2021
in the Upper House that would amend the Preamble. While the Deputy Chairman initially allowed the
introduction, RJD Member Manoj Jha opposed the move and other MPs joined the protest. “Amendment to the
Preamble is an attack on the very edifice of the Constitution,” Jha said.
The Bill seeks to change the words in the Preamble “EQUALITY of status and of opportunity” to “EQUALITY
of status and of opportunity to be born, to be fed, to be educated, to get a job and to be treated with dignity”.

(a) V. Muraleedharan (b) K.J. Alphons
(c) V.T. Rema (d) V.K. Sajivan
57. How many words constitute the Preamble to the Indian Constitution after the 42 nd ammendment?
(a) 83 (b) 85 (c) 92 (d) 73
58. Which of the following is not true regarding the 42nd amendment of the constitution?
(a) It was enacted during The Emergency by the Indian National Congress government headed by Indira Gandhi.
(b) The terms- Terms- Socialist, Secular and Integrity were added to the Preamble.
(c) It is also known as the ‘Mini Constitution’.
(d) Right to Property was removed from the fundamental rights in the 42nd amendment.
59. In which of the following years the 42nd amendment of the Constitution was enacted?
(a) 1966 (b) 1978 (c) 1976 (d) 1983
60. Which of the following is incorrect about the Preamble to the Indian Constitution?
(a) The concept of Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity in our Preamble was adopted from the French Motto of the
French Revolution.
(b) The ideals behind the Preamble to India’s Constitution were laid down by B.R. Ambedkar’s Objectives
Resolution, adopted by the Constituent Assembly on January 22, 1947.
(c) The date is mentioned in the preamble when it was adopted i.e. November 26, 1949.
(d) The preamble-page, along with other pages of the original Constitution of India, was designed and decorated
by Beohar Rammanohar Sinha of Jabalpur.
Passage(Q.61-Q.65): Lawyer and activist Sudha Bharadwaj, arrested in the [1] case in August 2018, was
released from Byculla women’s jail on Thursday afternoon after spending over three years in jail.
The 60-year-old was released at 12.40 pm, a day after the special court in Mumbai set conditions for her release
and issued a release order. Her lawyers received the release order late on Wednesday evening. Bharadwaj was
received outside the Mumbai prison by her daughter Maaysha and her friends.
The court has barred Bharadwaj from making any statement about the proceedings of the case to electronic, print
or on social media. She has also been directed not to leave the jurisdiction of the Mumbai court without its
permission. Her lawyers had requested that she should be allowed to travel between Mumbai, Haryana, where
she resides, and Chhattisgarh, where she was a practicing lawyer before her arrest.
61. Which of the above will replace [1] in the above passage?
(a) Elgaar Parishad (b) 2016 Terrorist Attacks
(c) Delhi Roits (d) 2015 Naxal Attacks
62. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India provides for Protection from Arrest?
63. Which of the following is TRUE about a default Bail?

(a) This is a right to bail that accrues when the police fail to complete investigation within a specified period in
respect of a person in judicial custody.
(b) It is also known as statutory bail.
(c) This is enshrined in Section 167(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure.
64. The Concept of default bail takes inspiration from which of the following fundamental rights in the Indian
Constitution?
65. Where the offence attracts death sentence or life imprisonment, or a jail term of not less than 10 years, the period
available for the police to complete investigation is which of the following?
(a) 60 Days (b) 90 Days (c) 120 Days (d) 150 Days

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SECTION-B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

35. How many beaches in India have Blue Flag certification?

37. Which of the following is the main aim of the SSG?

45. FATF headquarter is located in which city?

46. OSOWOG initiative was jointly released by PM Modi and __?

49. COP was held in which of the following places?

50. OSOWOG is divided Into how many phases ?

56. What is India’s rank in the Global Multidimensional Poverty Index?

59. Which of the following is not in the category of a prosperous state?

33. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the report?

40. Which of the following regarding Supercomputers is INCORRECT?

47. Which of the following is INCORRECT about Foreign Direct Investment?

48. Which of the following NOT TRUE about the LIC?

49. Who among the following is the Chairperson of LIC?

61. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about NATO?

64. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about Ukraine?

31. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about IPCC?

42. When was Montreux Convention signed?

60. Who is the minister of State for Science and Technology?

63. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the Index?

33. Which of the following is TRUE about Ukraine?

37. Who among the following is the Indian G20 Sherpa?

39. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about G20?

40. Which of the following is TRUE about G20?

42. Which of the following is TRUE about National Computing Mission?

34. Which of the following is true about NATO?

35. Ukraine became an independent country in which of the following years?

42. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about QUAD?

62. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about UNESCO?

44. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about Ramsar Sites?

45. Which is the largest Ramsar Site in India?

59. Which of the following is false about MTP Act, 1971?

33. Which of the following has topped the ranking?

35. Which of the following is NOT TRUE?

37. Which of the following is TRUE about AIIB?

38. Who among the following is the President of AIIB?

43. Which of the following is NOT a member of CTSO?

45. Which of the following is TRUE about Kazakhstan?

49. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about GDP?

59. Which of the following is the source of origin of Krishna River?

60. Which of the following is a tributary of Krishna River?

34. Which of the following is not true about Mandal Commission?

36. Which of the following is replaced by [1] in the passage?

37. Which of the following is true?

38. UNSC is headquartered in which of the following cities?

39. Which of the following is replaced by [2] in the passage?

40. Which of the following is true about UNSC?

41. Which of the following is replaced by [1] in the passage?

44. Which of the following is replaced by [2] in the passage?

47. Which of the following is NOT TRUE with regards to AFSPA?

49. Which of the following Committees recommended to repeal AFPSA?

52. Which of the following is TRUE?

64. Which of the following is TRUE about Puducherry?

65. When was the Concept of Union Territories Started in India?

43. Which of the following replaces [2] in the passage?

47. The Ramsar Convention is established by which of the following bodies?

61. Which of the following is replaced by [1] in the passage?

65. Who among the following constructed Mullaperiyar dam?

34. Which of the following is replaced by [2] in the passage?

35. Which of the following is incorrect?

41. Which of the following is replaced by [1] in the passage?

44. Which of the following is replaced by [2] in the passage?

46. Which of the following is replaced by [1] in the passage?