QUIZ 1

1. The basic structural and functional unit of an organism, such as plant or animal, is the
a) organelle
b) organ system
c) tissue
d) CELL
e) organ

2. In studying physiology, it is important to recognize that structures within the body are
a) unchanging.
b) fixed.
c) static.
d) DYNAMIC AND MUTABLE.

3. A cavity containing the lungs, but not the heart is the ________ cavity.
a) pericardial
b) PLEURAL
c) pelvic
d) abdominal
e) thoracic

4. Positive-feedback mechanisms
a) ALL OF THE CHOICES ARE CORRECT.
b) are few in a normal healthy individual.
c) cause the deviation from normal to become even more pronounced.
d) are used to amplify the effect or response of a system.
e) sometimes can create a deviation from homeostasis that leads to death.

5. From the anatomical position, the scapula (shoulder blade) is always ________ to the
ribs.
a) dorsal
b) posterior
c) both dorsal and posterior
d) superficial
e) DORSAL, POSTERIOR, AND SUPERFICIAL

6. Which of the following pairs of terms are synonymous in bipedal animals such as humans
but not in quadrupeds (animals that walk on all four feet)?
a) ANTERIOR AND VENTRAL
b) Anterior and superficial
c) Proximal and superficial
d) Superior and anterior
 e) Dorsal and lateral

7. The region designated by the letter "H" is known as the ________ region.
a) hypochondriac
b) HYPOGASTRIC
c) lumbar
d) iliac
e) umbilical

8. The major goals of physiology include

a) understanding and predicting the body's response to stimuli.
b) knowing the location of the various organs of the body.
c) understanding how the body maintains homeostasis.
d) BOTH "UNDERSTANDING AND PREDICTING THE BODY'S
RESPONSE TO STIMULI" AND "UNDERSTANDING HOW THE BODY
MAINTAINS HOMEOSTASIS" ARE CORRECT.
e) describing the various components of the eleven organ systems of the body.

9. Which of the following is a cut through an organ at right angles to the long axis?
a) TRANSVERSE SECTION
b) Longitudinal section
c) Oblique section
d) Frontal section
e) Sagittal section

10. A cavity enclosed by the bones of the pelvis and containing the urinary bladder is the
________ cavity.
a) abdominal
b) pleural
c) pericardial
d) PELVIC
e) thoracic

11. When one atom loses an electron and another atom accepts that electron a(n) ________
bond between the two atoms results.
a) covalent d) explosive
b) IONIC e) radioactive
c) hydrogen

12. Ionic compounds

a) are not considered to be molecules.
b) are held together by the force of attraction between oppositely charged ions.
 c) do not have distinct units.
d) ALL OF THE CHOICES ARE CORRECT.
e) None of the choices are correct.
13. The unequal, asymmetric sharing of electrons that results in one end (pole) of the
molecule having a small electrical charge opposite the other end is called ________
bonding.
a) POLAR COVALENT
b) double covalent
c) hydrogen
d) nonpolar covalent
e) ionic

14. Atom Y has 11 protons, 11 electrons, and 12 neutrons. What is the atomic number of
Atom Y?
a) 24
b) 23
c) 22
d) 11
e) 12

15. A(n) ________ is formed when one atom loses an electron and another atom accepts that
electron.
a) hydrogen bond
b) covalent bond
c) atom
d) IONIC BOND
e) ion

16. Nonpolar molecules

a) have an asymmetrical electrical charge.
b) All of the choices are correct.
c) ARE CREATED WHEN THE BONDING ATOMS SHARE ELECTRONS
EQUALLY BETWEEN THEMSELVES.
d) result from polar covalent bonds.
e) are also considered ions.

17. Two atoms with the same number of protons and electrons, but different numbers of
neutrons, are called ________.
a) electrolytes
b) Both "ions" and "electrolytes" are correct.
c) ions
d) ISOTOPES
e) compounds
18. Atoms that have gained or lost electrons are called
a) covalents.
b) molecules.
c) neutrons.
d) nonpolars.
e) IONS.

19. The conversion between different states of energy (e.g., potential energy to kinetic
energy)
a) is not 100% efficient.
b) typically generates heat.
c) is 100% efficient.
d) is not possible, because energy cannot change its state.
e) BOTH "IS 100% EFFICIENT" AND "TYPICALLY GENERATES HEAT"
ARE CORRECT.

20. Which of the following analogies does NOT accurately illustrate the energy type it is
paired with?
a) The cocking back of the trigger on a starters pistol before a race—Potential
energy
b) The spring up you get when you jump on a pogo stick—Kinetic energy
c) Picking up speed while rolling down a snow-covered hill in winter—Kinetic
energy
d) Basketball players bending their knees before they do a layup—Mechanical
energy
e) THE STRETCHING OF A BUNGEE CHORD WITHOUT RELEASING
IT—MECHANICAL ENERGY
QUIZ 2

21. Which of the following organelles are NOT paired correctly with their location within the
cell?
a) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum—within the cytoplasm of the cell
b) Cilia—on the cell surface
c) GOLGI APPARATUS—ON THE CELL SURFACE
d) Microtubules—within the cytoplasm
e) Nucleolus—within the nucleus

22. Which of these molecules is correctly matched with its method of movement through the
cell membrane?
a) Lipid-soluble molecules — pass through membrane channels.
b) LARGE, WATER-SOLUBLE MOLECULES — TRANSPORTED BY
CARRIER-MEDIATED PROCESSES.
c) All of the choices are correctly paired.
d) Glucose and amino acid molecules — pass through membrane channels.
e) Small, water-soluble molecules (ions) — dissolve in double phospholipid layer.

23. Substances outside the cell membrane are called

a) All of the choices are correct.
b) intercellular substances.
c) extracellular substances.
d) intracellular substances.
e) BOTH "EXTRACELLULAR MATERIAL" AND "INTERCELLULAR
MATERIAL" ARE CORRECT.

24. All of the following are protein components of the cytoskeleton EXCEPT ________.
a) microfilaments
b) CENTROSOMES
c) intermediate filaments
d) All of the choices are correct.
e) microtubules

25. Phospholipid molecules

a) have a phosphate-containing end that is nonpolar.
b) All of the choices are correct.
c) are not found in the cell membrane.
d) ARE ARRANGED IN A DOUBLE LAYER IN THE CELL MEMBRANE.
e) have a fatty acid end that is polar.
26. Which of the following cell organelles is NOT correctly matched with its function?
a) Golgi apparatus—packages proteins in secretory vesicles
b) Smooth ER—site of lipid synthesis
c) Lysosome—contains digestive enzymes
d) Nucleus—contains genes that determine the structure and function of each cell
e) Mitochondria—site of protein synthesis

27. Cell membranes are said to be selectively permeable because they

a) ALLOW THE FREE PASSAGE OF SOME MATERIALS AND RESTRICT
THE PASSAGE OF OTHERS.
b) allow the passage of positively charged particles but not negatively charged
particles.
c) allow the passage of materials in one direction but not the other.
d) permit the passage of most materials but not of water.

28. In ________, molecules show a net movement from greater to lesser concentration due to
the random motion of the molecules.
a) facilitated diffusion
b) SIMPLE DIFFUSION
c) exocytosis
d) endocytosis
e) active transport

29. The force required to prevent the movement of water across a selectively permeable
membrane is ________ pressure.
a) diffusion
b) membrane
c) selective
d) OSMOTIC
e) hydrostatic

30. During the process of mitosis in humans,

a) All of the choices are correct.
b) centrioles are points of attachment between chromatids.
c) when centromeres separate, there are two identical sets of 23 chromosomes.
d) four daughter cells are produced from one original cell.
e) REPLICATION OF DNA DURING INTERPHASE PRODUCES
IDENTICAL CHROMATIDS.
QUIZ 3

31. In which of the following types of epithelial tissues would the movement of materials
into or out of the body be fastest?
a) Stratified columnar epithelial tissue
b) Simple columnar epithelial tissue
c) Transitional epithelial tissue
d) Stratified squamous epithelial tissue
e) SIMPLE SQUAMOUS EPITHELIAL TISSUE

32. Which of these comparisons between smooth muscle and skeletal muscle is NOT correct?
a) Smooth muscle cells are tapered at each end; skeletal muscle cells are long and
cylindrical.
b) SMOOTH MUSCLE CELLS ARE UNDER VOLUNTARY CONTROL;
SKELETAL MUSCLE CELLS ARE UNDER INVOLUNTARY CONTROL.
c) Smooth muscle cells have no striations; skeletal muscle cells have striations.
d) Smooth muscle cells have a single nucleus; skeletal muscle cells have many.
e) Smooth muscle forms the walls of hollow organs except the heart; skeletal muscle
attaches to the skeleton.

33. Which of the following characteristics of tissues and cells would aid in diffusion or the
movement of materials into and out of the body through the epithelium?
a) Multiple layers of cuboidal cells
b) Multiple layers of relatively flat, thin cells
c) A SINGLE LAYER OF RELATIVELY FLAT, THIN CELLS
d) Multiple layers of columnar cells
e) A single layer of cuboidal cells

34. Following an injury, chemicals are released or activated in the injured tissues. These
chemicals, called chemical mediators, include
a) neutrophils
b) BOTH "HISTAMINE" AND "PROSTAGLANDINS" ARE CORRECT.
c) histamine
d) prostaglandins.
e) pus.

35. A gland with branching ducts that expand into saclike structures is a
a) COMPOUND ACINAR EXOCRINE GLAND.
b) simple tubular endocrine gland.
c) compound tubular exocrine gland.
d) simple acinar exocrine gland.
e) compound tubular endocrine gland.
 36. In regeneration,
a) a new type of tissue develops, causing the loss of some function.
b) new cells of a different tissue type develop, and normal function is restored.
c) viable cells are replaced by dead cells.
d) NEW CELLS OF THE SAME TYPE ARE CREATED, AND NORMAL
FUNCTION IS USUALLY RESTORED.
e) the damaged cells repair themselves perfectly, restoring function.

37. You would normally expect to find ________ epithelium in the outer layer of skin.
a) simple cuboidal
b) transitional
c) simple columnar
d) simple squamous
e) STRATIFIED SQUAMOUS

38. Which of the following fiber types is NOT correctly paired with its function?
a) Reticular—forms a supporting network between cells.
b) All of the choices are correct.
c) Elastic—allows for consistent stretch and recoil.
d) Collagen—flexible, resists stretching.
e) Collagen—gives tissue its strength.

39. When new, viable cells replace dead cells, the process is called
a) fibrosis.
b) regeneration.
c) remuneration.
d) BOTH "FIBROSIS" AND "REGENERATION" ARE CORRECT.
e) reunification.

QUIZ 4
40. Epithelial cells
a) usually have a free surface that is not in contact with other cells.
b) can be somewhat far away from any blood vessel.
c) cover body surfaces or form glands.
d) ALL OF THE CHOICES ARE CORRECT.
e) have a basement membrane that attaches to underlying tissues.

41. One type of experimental contraceptive device is a skin patch that contains a chemical
absorbed through the skin. Which of the following substances would most likely be the
type of chemical involved?
a) A protein associated with a carbohydrate
 b) Substances dissolved in water
c) A protein
d) A STEROID
e) A carbohydrate

42. The type of glands that open into a hair follicle and produce sebum are
a) SEBACEOUS GLANDS.
b) both eccrine and apocrine sweat glands.
c) apocrine sweat glands.
d) eccrine sweat glands.
e) All of the choices are correct.

43. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of aging of the integumentary system?
a) Loss of pigment in hair
b) INCREASE IN ACTIVITY OF SWEAT AND SEBACEOUS GLANDS
c) Loss of elastic fibers in the skin
d) Skin becomes thinner and more transparent.
e) Decreased number of melanocytes

44. Fingerprints and footprints are produced by dermal projections into the epidermis called
________.
a) reticular lines
b) striae
c) subcutaneous tissue
d) cleavage lines
e) PAPILLAE

45. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a) The production of cells within the nail matrix results in the growth of the nail.
b) THE NAIL CONSISTS OF LAYERS OF LIVING CELLS FROM THE
STRATUM CORNEUM.
c) The cells of a nail are filled with a special hard type of keratin.
d) The nail matrix and nail bed have a stratum basale.
e) Nails grow continually and do not have a resting stage.

46. A hair is formed or made by cells within the

a) HAIR BULB.
b) hair shaft.
c) arrector pili.
 d) cuticle.
e) hair root.

47. Given that viruses are not affected by antibiotics, which of the following types of skin
infection might be successfully treated with an antibiotic?
a) ACNE
b) All of the choices are correct.
c) Warts
d) Cold sores
e) Chicken pox

48. Which of the following statements about glands of the skin is true?
a) Eccrine sweat glands produce a thick secretion rich in organic substances.
b) SEBACEOUS GLANDS PRODUCE AN OILY WHITE SUBSTANCE
RICH IN LIPIDS
c) Eccrine sweat glands become active at puberty because of the influence of sex
hormones.
d) All of the choices are correct.

49. The type of glands that open on surface of skin and have a watery secretion are
a) ECCRINE SWEAT GLANDS.
b) All of the choices are correct.
c) sebaceous glands.
d) both eccrine and apocrine sweat glands.
e) apocrine sweat glands.

50. Jaundice is caused by

a) decreased oxygen content of blood.
b) altered blood flow to the skin (overall or in small areas).
c) increased number of active melanocytes.
d) increased production of melanin by normal number of melanocytes.
e) COLLECTION OF ABNORMAL BILE PIGMENT IN THE SKIN.

51. When exposed to the cold, the ears and nose may appear red. This is because
a) cyanosis occurs when blood flow slows down.
b) cold causes an inflammatory reaction in the nose and ears.
c) the nose and ears have a thicker, more keratinized stratum corneum than the rest
of the face.
 d) BLOOD VESSELS DILATE TO PREVENT TISSUE DAMAGE FROM
THE COLD.
e) blood vessels in the nose and ears have constricted to conserve heat.

52. Paul is on the newest diet craze. After a couple of weeks of eating only carrots and carrot-
based products, he begins to notice that his skin has a decidedly yellowish tint. This is
because
a) excess melanin from his diet has accumulated in the lipids of the dermis.
b) liver damage has occurred, and bile pigments are building up.
c) he has recently been exposed to a lot of ultraviolet light.
d) his change in diet has nothing to due with the yellowish tint. It is just a natural
change due to aging.
e) EXCESS CAROTENE FROM HIS DIET HAS ACCUMULATED IN THE
LIPIDS OF THE STRATUM CORNEUM.

QUIZ 5

53. After suffering multiple cervical fractures, Myron was given a choice of which vertebrae
to fuse together—that is, he could leave only one articulation unfused. He decided to
choose the fusion that would still allow him to shake his head "no." His choice was to
leave the ________ unfused.
a) articulation between C2 and C3
b) ATLAS TO AXIS JOINT
c) articulation between C6 and C7
d) atlas to occipital condyles articulation

54. Large points of muscle attachment near the proximal end of the femur are called
________.
a) THE TROCHANTERS
b) the patellas
c) the acetabulum
d) epicondyles
e) a malleolus

55. Which of these statements about bone remodeling and repair is correct?
a) Bone is the major storage site for calcium in the body.
b) BOTH "BONE IS THE MAJOR STORAGE SITE FOR CALCIUM IN THE
BODY" AND "THE ZONE OF TISSUE REPAIR BETWEEN TWO BONE
FRAGMENTS IS CALLED A CALLUS" ARE CORRECT."
c) The zone of tissue repair between two bone fragments is called a callus.
d) Bone remodeling involves removal of old bone by osteoblasts.
 e) As a long bone increases in diameter, the size of the marrow cavity decreases.

56. The pectoral girdle

a) CONSISTS OF THE CLAVICLE AND SCAPULA.
b) is attached to the body only where the clavicle attaches to the vertebrae.
c) attaches the lower limb to the body.
d) All of the choices are correct.
e) is part of the axial skeleton.

57. The two bones of the skull in which teeth are located are the
a) MAXILLA AND MANDIBLE.
b) maxilla and zygomatic.
c) maxilla and frontal.
d) frontal and mandible
e) zygomatic and mandible.

58. Corey's A&P teacher used the analogy of managing a checking account to illustrate the
concept of calcium homeostasis. She said that certain aspects are like "earning money,"
"spending money," and "saving money." Which role does the skeletal system play in this
analogy?
a) THE SKELETAL SYSTEM IS LIKE THE PROCESS OF SAVING
MONEY, BECAUSE IT IS THE AREA WHERE EXISTING CALCIUM
IONS CAN BE STORED OR REMOVED WHEN NEEDED.
b) The skeletal system is like the process of spending money, because it is the area
where calcium ions are removed from the body.
c) The skeletal system is like the process of earning money, because it is the source
of new calcium to the body.

59. Which of these bones or bone parts of the skull is/are correctly matched with their
function?
a) Nasal conchae—Increase surface area in the nasal cavity
b) Paranasal sinuses—Decrease weight and act as resonating chambers
c) ALL OF THE CHOICES ARE CORRECT.
d) Sella turcica—Contains pituitary gland
e) Hyoid bone—Serves as point of attachment for neck and tongue muscles

60. Which of the following structures is NOT part of the nasal septum?
a) Perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone
b) Vomer
c) Cartilage forming the anterior part
d) NASAL CONCHAE

61. The periosteum

 a) ALL OF THE CHOICES ARE CORRECT
b) contains osteoblasts.
c) covers the outer surface of bones.
d) is composed of dense connective tissue.
e) contains blood vessels and nerves.

62. A blow to the shoulder often breaks the clavicle, but very seldom breaks the scapula.
Why?
a) The clavicle provides the only bony attachment of the pectoral girdle to the body.
b) The scapula is more protected by muscle.
c) When the body is moving forward, the clavicle is more likely to be struck than the
scapula.
d) ALL OF THE CHOICES ARE CORRECT.
e) The scapula is larger than the clavicle.

63. Which of these statements concerning the appendicular styloid processes is TRUE?
a) THE STYLOID PROCESSES ARE LOCATED ON THE RADIUS AND
ULNA WHERE THEY ARTICULATE WITH THE WRIST.
b) All of the choices are correct.
c) A styloid process is located on the proximal end of the ulna.
d) The styloid processes serve as points of attachment for forearm muscles.

64. During the process of bone repair, immobilization of the bone is most useful during
a) THE FIRST 4 TO 6 WEEKS, UNTIL SPONGY BONE HAS CLOSED THE
BREAK.
b) the entire 2 to 3 months that it takes for compact bone to replace the compact
bone that was originally lost.
c) the last 2 weeks, as bone remodeling occurs.
d) the first 4 to 6 hours, until the blood clot forms.
e) the first 2 weeks, until the callus has formed.

QUIZ 6

65. Smooth muscle

a) contracts more slowly than skeletal muscle.
b) may be autorhythmic.
c) does not develop an oxygen deficit.
d) ALL OF THE CHOICES ARE CORRECT.
e) has no distinct sarcomeres.

66. The primary muscle(s) responsible for elevating the ribs during inspiration is/are
 a) the diaphragm
b) THE EXTERNAL INTERCOSTALS.
c) the internal intercostals.
d) the erector spinae.
e) the rectus abdominis.

67. If someone winks at you, they are using their

a) occipitofrontalis muscle.
b) ORBICULARIS OCULI.
c) depressor anguli oris.
d) orbicularis oris.
e) zygomaticus muscles.

68. Pull-ups are easier to do with the hands supinated than with the hands pronated. An
explanation for this is
a) the biceps brachii supinates the forearm.
b) ALL OF THE CHOICES ARE CORRECT.
c) if the forearm is pronated, the biceps brachii is ineffective in flexing the forearm.
d) the biceps brachii is attached to the radial tuberosity.
e) the brachialis is a much smaller muscle than the biceps brachii.

69. The hip muscle commonly used as a site for injection is the ________.
a) hamstring muscle
b) gluteus maximus
c) iliopsoas
d) GLUTEUS MEDIUS
e) tensor fascia latae

QUIZ 7

70. Actin myofilaments

a) All the choices are correct.
b) form the epimysium.
c) resemble bundles of minute golf clubs.
d) form the I band where actin overlaps with myosin myofilaments.
e) ARE ATTACHED TO Z LINES AT ONE END OF THE SARCOMERE.

71. Arrange the following events in the correct order that they occur during skeletal muscle
contraction.
1) Calcium ions move along their concentration gradient.
2) Action potential occurs in cell membrane.
3) Ion channels open in sarcoplasmic reticulum.
4) Action potential moves along T tubules.
5) Actin to myosin cross-bridges form.
a) 2, 4, 3, 1, 5
b) 5, 3, 4, 2, 1
c) 2, 1, 5, 3, 4
d) 1, 5, 4, 3, 2
e) 1, 2, 5, 3, 4

72. The ________ is the smooth ER of a muscle fiber and stores calcium ions.
a) sarcoplasm
b) sarcolemma
c) T tubules
d) sarcomere
e) SARCOPLASMIC RETICULUM

73. The specific molecules that provide calcium-binding sites on actin are ________
molecules.
a) TROPONIN
b) tropomyosin
c) titin
d) myosin

74. The ________ is the functional unit of skeletal muscle because it is the smallest portion
of the skeletal muscle capable of ________.
a) muscle fiber; receiving a stimulus
b) SARCOMERE; CONTRACTING
c) muscle fiber; contracting
d) myofibril; contracting
e) sarcomere; receiving a stimulus

75. In a resting cell, K+ ions have a higher concentration ________ the cell, which results in
the net movement of K+ ________ of the cell.
a) inside; into
b) INSIDE; OUT
 c) outside; into
d) outside; out

76. For any given movement, the ________ is a muscle in a group that plays a major role in
the desired movement.
a) origin
b) insertion
c) PRIME MOVER
d) antagonist
e) agonist

QUIZ 8

77. The cerebellum

a) acts as an agonist as one of its major functions.
b) IS INVOLVED IN BALANCE, MAINTENANCE OF MUSCLE TONE,
AND COORDINATION OF FINE MOTOR MOVEMENT.
c) is stimulated by alcohol.
d) Both "acts as an agonist as one of its major functions" and "is involved in balance,
maintenance of muscle tone, and coordination of fine motor movement" are
correct.
e) has no gyri or sulci.

78. Sophia is taking her Anatomy and Physiology test. An EEG of her brain would most
likely show a higher frequency of which of the following wave types?
a) BETA WAVES
b) Theta waves
c) Gamma waves
d) Alpha waves
e) Delta waves

79. Afferent fibers carrying general sensory input synapse in the ________, from where the
information is relayed to the general sensory area.
a) premotor area
b) THALAMUS
c) prefrontal area
d) primary sensory areas
e) association areas

80. The limbic system

a) influences long-term declarative memory.
b) influences visceral responses to emotions.
c) ALL OF THE CHOICES ARE CORRECT.
 d) receives sensory input from the olfactory nerves.
e) influences motivation and mood.

81. The coccygeal plexus

a) supplies motor innervation to the muscles of the pelvic floor and supplies sensory
cutaneous innervation to the skin over the coccyx.
b) supplies sensory cutaneous innervation to the skin over the coccyx.
c) supplies sensory cutaneous innervation to the lower leg and ankle.
d) All of the choices are correct.
e) supplies motor innervation to the muscles of the pelvic floor.

82. A group of nuclei scattered throughout the brainstem that play a role in arousing and
maintaining consciousness are collectively called the ________.
a) pyramids
b) colliculi
c) RETICULAR FORMATION
d) pons
e) midbrain

83. Jess and Charles both have been diagnosed with epilepsy. When Jess experiences a
seizure he also experiences convulsions (involuntary muscle contractions). Charles does
not experience convulsions with his seizures. Which of the following statements best
explains the differences between their experiences?
a) Jess is probably older than Charles.
b) Jess's seizures affect autonomic areas of the brain, but Charles's seizures do not.
c) None of the choices are correct.
d) JESS'S SEIZURES AFFECT SOMATIC MOTOR AREAS OF THE
BRAIN, BUT CHARLES'S SEIZURES DO NOT.
e) Charles has likely been misdiagnosed.

84. The peripheral nervous system (PNS) consists of

a) the white matter and the ganglia.
b) the brain.
c) ALL THE NERVES AND GANGLIA OUTSIDE OF THE BRAIN AND
SPINAL CORD.
d) the white and grey matter and the spinal cord.
e) the spinal cord.

85. The part of the epithalamus that is an endocrine gland, is located posterior to the
thalamus, and may influence puberty, is the ________.
a) reticular formation
b) mammillary bodies
c) infundibulum
 d) midbrain
e) PINEAL GLAND

86. Which of the following brain-wave patterns is observed primarily in deep sleep, infants,
and patients with severe brain disorders?
a) Alpha waves
b) DELTA WAVES
c) Theta waves
d) Beta waves
e) Gamma waves

87. Continuous conduction of the action potential

a) Both "occurs in myelinated axons" and "is a function of the nodes of Ranvier" are
correct.
b) is quicker than saltatory conduction.
c) occurs in myelinated axons.
d) occurs primarily in unmyelinated axons.
e) OCCURS PRIMARILY IN UNMYELINATED AXONS.
f) is a function of the nodes of Ranvier.

88. The glial cells that form a myelin sheath around axons are
a) the ependymal cells.
b) the Schwann cells.
c) BOTH "THE SCHWANN CELLS" AND "THE OLIGODENDROCYTES"
ARE CORRECT.
d) the oligodendrocytes.
e) the microglia.

QUIZ 9

89. The spiral organ

a) CONTAINS SPECIALIZED SENSORY CELLS WITH HAIRLIKE
PROJECTIONS.
b) has sensory neurons with their cell bodies in the spiral lamina.
c) has afferent nerve fibers that form the tectorial nerve.
d) has hair cells with their tips embedded in the basilar membrane.
e) is located in the scala tympani.

90. During training for night combat, soldiers are trained to look slightly to one side of
objects they detect. This is because
a) the fovea has very few rod cells, which are necessary for vision in dim light.
b) color vision is better if you look slightly to one side of an object.
c) looking directly at an object places the image on the fovea centralis.
 d) BOTH "LOOKING DIRECTLY AT AN OBJECT PLACES THE IMAGE
ON THE FOVEA CENTRALIS" AND "THE FOVEA HAS VERY FEW
ROD CELLS, WHICH ARE NECESSARY FOR VISION IN DIM LIGHT"
ARE CORRECT.
e) looking directly at an object places the image on the optic disk.

91. You are walking down the street when a strange dog begins to chase you. You manage to
duck into a store and notice in a nearby hanging mirror that your pupils are very dilated.
Which of the following most likely accounts for this?
a) The parasympathetic nervous system was stimulated by the scare, and it, in turn,
stimulated the radial smooth muscles of the iris to contract.
b) THE SYMPATHETIC NERVOUS SYSTEM WAS STIMULATED BY THE
SCARE, AND IT, IN TURN, STIMULATED THE RADIAL SMOOTH
MUSCLES OF THE IRIS TO CONTRACT.
c) The parasympathetic nervous system was stimulated by the scare, and it, in turn,
stimulated the circular smooth muscles of the iris to contract.
d) The sympathetic nervous system was stimulated by the scare, and it, in turn,
stimulated the circular smooth muscles of the iris to contract.

92. ________ respond to fine, discriminative touch and are found just deep to the epidermis.
a) MEISSNER CORPUSCLES
b) Merkel disks
c) Pacinian corpuscles
d) Ruffini corpuscles
e) Free nerve endings

93. Which of the following accurately describes a sensation?

a) A child recognizes the taste of her favorite fruit juice.
b) None of the choices are correct.
c) A receptor is inhibited by the application of a pain relief cream.
d) AN ACTION POTENTIAL IS GENERATED WHEN TOUCH
RECEPTORS ARE STIMULATED.
e) A person describes the color of a shirt that is on display.

94. The choroid of the eye

a) appears white in color.
b) is part of the nervous tunic.
c) is part of the fibrous tunic.
d) CONSISTS OF A VASCULAR NETWORK AND LARGE NUMBERS OF
MELANIN-CONTAINING CELLS.
 e) anteriorly, is continuous with the sclera.

95. Axons from olfactory neurons

a) form cranial nerve I.
b) eventually relay information to the brain through the olfactory tracts.
c) pass through the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone.
d) enter the olfactory bulbs and synapse with interneurons.
e) ALL OF THE CHOICES ARE CORRECT.

96. The middle layer of the eye that, consists of the choroid, ciliary body, and iris is the
________.
a) nervous tunic
b) conjunctiva
c) fibrous tunic
d) VASCULAR TUNIC
e) crystalline lens

97. The iris

a) is stimulated to contract by parasympathetic stimulation.
b) surrounds an opening called the pupil.
c) controls the diameter of the pupil.
d) is the colored portion of the eye.
e) ALL OF THE CHOICES ARE CORRECT.

98. The fleshy part of the external ear on the outside of the head is the ________.
a) ceruminous gland
b) tympanic membrane
c) external auditory canal
d) middle ear
e) AURICLE

99. The gelatinous mass inside of the eye is called the ________.
a) mucoid body
b) lacrimal secretion
c) VITREOUS HUMOR
d) scleroid humor
e) hyaloid mass
 100. The sensory retina
a) keeps light from being reflected back into the eye.
b) All of the choices are correct.
c) is the outer portion of the retina.
d) contains pigment.
e) CONTAINS ROD AND CONE CELLS.

2nd Attempt
QUIZ 1

1. The study of the body's organization by areas (the approach used in most medical
schools) is called ________.
a) REGIONAL ANATOMY
b) anatomic imaging
c) surface anatomy
d) physiology
e) systemic anatomy

2. If you make a Jell-O mold that has strawberries suspended in it and whipped cream on
top, the strawberries are ________ while the whipped cream is ________.
a) DEEP; SUPERFICIAL
b) All of the choices are correct.
c) superficial; deep
d) prone; deep
e) anterior; deep

3. The region designated by the letter "H" is known as the ________ region.
a) lumbar
b) hypochondriac
c) iliac
d) umbilical
e) hypogastric

4. In studying physiology, it is important to recognize that structures within the body are
a) unchanging.
b) static.
c) DYNAMIC AND MUTABLE.
d) fixed.

5. A cavity containing the lungs, but not the heart is the ________ cavity.
a) pelvic
b) abdominal
c) thoracic
 d) pericardial
e) PLEURAL

6. The basic structural and functional unit of an organism, such as plant or animal, is the
a) organelle
b) organ system
c) cell
d) tissue
e) organ

7. If a person is standing erect, facing forward and has her hands on her hips, what
movements must she make to assume the anatomical position?
a) She needs to raise her upper limbs so that they are at right angles to her body.
b) SHE NEEDS TO LOWER HER UPPER LIMBS TO HER SIDE WITH
HER PALMS FACING ANTERIORLY.
c) She needs to bend her knees slightly and raise her upper limbs so they are above
her head.
d) She does not need to make any movements because she is already in the
anatomical position.
e) She needs to lower her upper limbs to her side with her palms facing posteriorly.

8. Which of the following is NOT the correct name of an organ system?

a) Integumentary
b) Muscular
c) HORMONAL
d) Lymphatic
e) Cardiovascular

9. Positive-feedback mechanisms
a) are used to amplify the effect or response of a system.
b) ALL OF THE CHOICES ARE CORRECT.
c) sometimes can create a deviation from homeostasis that leads to death.
d) are few in a normal healthy individual.
e) cause the deviation from normal to become even more pronounced.

10. Which statement below describes a physiological process?

a) The pancreas is considered part of the digestive and endocrine systems.
b) The thoracic cavity contains several organs including the heart and lungs.
c) A cell contains cytosol and organelles.
d) The skin is composed of two major tissue layers, the epidermis and dermis.
e) THE BLOOD TRANSPORTS NUTRIENTS AND OXYGEN TO THE
CELLS OF THE BODY.
QUIZ 2

11. The conversion between different states of energy (e.g., potential energy to kinetic
energy)
a) is not possible, because energy can not change its state.
b) is not 100% efficient.
c) BOTH "IS 100% EFFICIENT" AND "TYPICALLY GENERATES HEAT"
ARE CORRECT.
d) typically generates heat.
e) is 100% efficient.

12. When one atom loses an electron and another atom accepts that electron a(n) ________
bond between the two atoms results.
a) explosive
b) hydrogen
c) covalent
d) radioactive
e) IONIC

13. Two atoms with the same number of protons and electrons, but different numbers of
neutrons, are called ________.
a) compounds
b) electrolytes
c) ions
d) Both "ions" and "electrolytes" are correct.
e) ISOTOPES

14. Which of the following is/are responsible for most of the mass of an atom?
a) Proton
b) Neutron
c) BOTH NEUTRON AND PROTON
d) Both electron and neutron
e) Electron

15. The chemical notation for magnesium ions is Mg+2. The designation +2 indicates that
a) two protons have been gained.
b) TWO ELECTRONS HAVE BEEN LOST.
c) the ion is negatively charged.
d) the atomic number is two.
e) the number of electrons equals the number of protons.
16. Which of the following is considered a compound but not a molecule?
a) SODIUM CHLORIDE (NACL)
b) Calcium (Ca2+)
c) All of the choices are correct.
d) Water (H20)
e) Glucose (C6H12O6)

17. Which of the following analogies does NOT accurately illustrate the energy type it is
paired with?
a) The cocking back of the trigger on a starters pistol before a race—Potential
energy
b) Picking up speed while rolling down a snow-covered hill in winter—Kinetic
energy
c) The spring up you get when you jump on a pogo stick—Kinetic energy
d) Basketball players bending their knees before they do a layup—Mechanical
energy
e) THE STRETCHING OF A BUNGEE CHORD WITHOUT RELEASING
IT—MECHANICAL ENERGY

18. A(n) ________ is formed when one atom loses an electron and another atom accepts that
electron.
a) hydrogen bond
b) covalent bond
c) ion
d) Ionic Bond
e) atom

19. ________ energy is a form of potential energy resulting from positions and interactions
among subatomic particles.
a) Radiant
b) Mechanical
c) Heat
d) Electric
e) Chemical

20. Subatomic particles located in the nucleus of an atom are called ________.
a) neutrons
b) protons
c) BOTH "PROTONS" AND "NEUTRONS" ARE CORRECT.
d) electrons
e) orbitals
QUIZ 3

21. The usual process for moving very large molecules, such as whole proteins, across the
cell membrane is by ________.
a) simple diffusion
b) ENDOCYTOSIS
c) active transport
d) facilitated diffusion
e) passive transport

22. Which of the following would occur if no cell membranes in your body were selectively
permeable?
a) Cells would be isotonic to their environment.
b) ALL OF THE CHOICES ARE PLAUSIBLE.
c) Action potentials would not be generated.
d) You would be subject to a higher rate of illness and disease.
e) Cells would not be able to get and keep enough glucose to function.

23. In ________, molecules show a net movement from greater to lesser concentration due to
the random motion of the molecules.
a) active transport
b) endocytosis
c) exocytosis
d) facilitated diffusion
e) SIMPLE DIFFUSION

24. Cell membranes are said to be selectively permeable because they

a) allow the passage of positively charged particles but not negatively charged
particles.
b) permit the passage of most materials but not of water.
c) ALLOW THE FREE PASSAGE OF SOME MATERIALS AND RESTRICT
THE PASSAGE OF OTHERS.
d) allow the passage of materials in one direction but not the other.

25. Which of the following organelles are NOT paired correctly with their location within the
cell?
a) GOLGI APPARATUS—ON THE CELL SURFACE
b) Nucleolus—within the nucleus
c) Microtubules—within the cytoplasm
d) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum—within the cytoplasm of the cell
e) Cilia—on the cell surface
 26. If all of the peroxisomes in a cell were suddenly removed, how would this affect the cell's
immediate activity and function?
a) The cell would be unable to produce proteins.
b) The cell would no longer be able to break down proteins and nucleic acids.
c) The cell would be unable to perform transcription.
d) The cell would no longer be able to break down glucose.
e) THE CELL WOULD NO LONGER BE ABLE TO BREAK DOWN FATTY
ACIDS, HYDROGEN PEROXIDE, AND AMINO ACIDS.

27. Moveable projections from the surface of cells found in abundance in the respiratory tract
are ________.
a) flagella
b) nucleoli
c) centrioles
d) microvilli
e) CILIA

28. If a red blood cell were placed in distilled water, we would expect the cell to
a) SWELL AND LYSE.
b) shrink and lyse.
c) swell and crenate.
d) shrink and crenate.

29. Transcription
a) occurs when double strands of DNA separate, and RNA nucleotides pair with
DNA nucleotides.
b) determines the sequence of codons on a particular mRNA molecule.
c) takes place in the nucleus of the cell.
d) produces mRNA.
e) ALL OF THE CHOICES ARE CORRECT.

30. Membrane channels that allow ions to constantly pass through are called ________.
a) Both "leak channels" and "gated channels" are correct.
b) LEAK CHANNELS
c) endocytosis
d) gated channels
e) exocytosis

QUIZ 4
31. Connective tissue cells whose names contain the suffix -cyte
 a) produce matrix.
b) MAINTAIN THE MATRIX.
c) break down the matrix for remodeling.
d) are non-motile cells that release histamines and other chemicals to promote
inflammation.
e) ingest foreign substances through phagocytosis.

32. Which of these comparisons between smooth muscle and skeletal muscle is NOT correct?
a) Smooth muscle cells are tapered at each end; skeletal muscle cells are long and
cylindrical.
b) Smooth muscle forms the walls of hollow organs except the heart; skeletal muscle
attaches to the skeleton.
c) Smooth muscle cells have no striations; skeletal muscle cells have striations.
d) Smooth muscle cells have a single nucleus; skeletal muscle cells have many.
e) SMOOTH MUSCLE CELLS ARE UNDER VOLUNTARY CONTROL;
SKELETAL MUSCLE CELLS ARE UNDER INVOLUNTARY CONTROL.

33. You would normally expect to find ________ epithelium in the kidney tubules.
a) simple columnar
b) transitional
c) SIMPLE CUBOIDAL
d) stratified squamous
e) simple squamous

34. Which of these is NOT a characteristic of cardiac muscle?

a) Striated
b) MANY NUCLEI PER CELL
c) Branching fibers
d) Intercalated disks present.
e) Under involuntary (unconscious) control

35. Which of the following is NOT a true statement about epithelial tissue?
a) Epithelial tissue provides physical protection for organs.
b) EPITHELIAL TISSUE IS VASCULAR.
c) Epithelial tissue controls the permeability into and out of an area or organ.
d) Epithelial tissue consists almost entirely of cells, with very little extracellular
material between them, thereby forming a barrier against entry into the body.
e) Epithelial tissue functions in absorption and secretion.

36. ________ are small channels that allow materials to pass from one epithelial cell to
another.
a) Hemidesmosomes
 b) Desmosomes
c) GAP JUNCTIONS
d) Tight junctions

37. Which kind of connective tissue cells is NOT correctly matched with its function?
a) Mast cells—release chemicals promoting inflammation.
b) -BLAST CELLS—MAKE HOLES IN EXTRACELLULAR MATRIX.
c) Macrophages—move about and ingest foreign substances.
d) -clast cells—break down the extracellular matrix.
e) -cyte cells—maintain the extracellular matrix.

38. Epithelial cells

a) cover body surfaces or form glands.
b) usually have a free surface that is not in contact with other cells.
c) can be somewhat far away from any blood vessel.
d) have a basement membrane that attaches to underlying tissues.
e) ALL OF THE CHOICES ARE CORRECT.

39. Which of these does NOT occur because of increased permeability of blood vessels
during the inflammatory process?
a) Increased fluid in the tissues causes increased tissue pressure, which causes pain.
b) Edema, or swelling, of the tissues occurs.
c) Fibrin diffuses into tissues and forms a fibrous network in the extracellular space.
d) Neutrophils move into the injured tissue.
e) PUS LEAKS OUT OF BLOOD VESSELS.

40. Which of these epithelial types is correctly matched with its major function?
a) Stratified squamous epithelium—protection from abrasion
b) All the choices are correct.
c) Simple columnar epithelium—secretion or absorption
d) Simple cuboidal epithelium—active transport, facilitated diffusion, or secretion
e) Simple squamous epithelium—diffusion or filtration

QUIZ 5

41. The stratum corneum of the epidermis

a) consists of continuously dividing cells.
b) CAN BECOME THICKENED AND FORM A STRUCTURE CALLED A
CALLUS OR CORN
c) All of the choices are correct.
d) has cells that synthesize melanin.
 e) has cells that are continuously moving toward the stratum basale.

42. A burn is an injury to a tissue caused by

a) exposure to excess heat.
b) exposure to chemicals.
c) ALL OF THE CHOICES ARE CORRECT.
d) friction.
e) exposure to excess cold.

43. Sandra has been working very long hours the past three months and has had very little
time to relax. She works as a medical transcriptionist and spends most of her time at her
desk. The results of her recent annual physical indicated that her calcium levels were on
the lower end of the acceptable values. Her physician suggests that she adjust her diet to
include more calcium-rich foods and to spend some time relaxing outdoors. Why would
her physician suggest she spend time outdoors to improve her calcium levels?
a) If Sandra is outdoors, she is less likely to eat snack foods that are not calcium-
rich.
b) Relaxing outdoors would provide fresh air, which helps with calcium absorption.
c) Sun exposure enables the production of calcium in the body.
d) SUN EXPOSURE ENABLES THE PRODUCTION OF VITAMIN D IN
THE BODY, WHICH IS NECESSARY FOR CALCIUM ABSORPTION AT
THE SMALL INTESTINE.

44. A hair is formed or made by cells within the

a) arrector pili.
b) HAIR BULB.
c) hair shaft.
d) hair root.
e) cuticle.

45. Redness of the skin can result from all of the following except
a) anger or blushing.
b) All of the choices are correct.
c) the inflammatory response.
d) MILDLY COOL TEMPERATURES.
e) exposure to heat.

46. The lunula is part of the

a) nail root.
b) NAIL MATRIX.
c) eponychium.
d) stratum corneum.
 e) nail body.

47. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of aging of the integumentary system?
a) Skin becomes thinner and more transparent.
b) Loss of pigment in hair
c) Decreased number of melanocytes
d) INCREASE IN ACTIVITY OF SWEAT AND SEBACEOUS GLANDS
e) Loss of elastic fibers in the skin

48. The type of glands that open on surface of skin and have a watery secretion are
a) ECCRINE SWEAT GLANDS.
b) All of the choices are correct.
c) apocrine sweat glands.
d) sebaceous glands.
e) both eccrine and apocrine sweat glands.

49. Most babies have more adipose tissue in the subcutaneous tissue compared to adults.
Which of the following statements gives a valid explanation for the difference?
a) As we age, adipose tissue steadily decreases.
b) All of the choices are correct.
c) Babies have more adipose tissue because they do not exercise enough.
d) BABIES LOSE BODY HEAT MORE EASILY THAN ADULTS, DUE TO
THEIR SIZE, AND THE EXTRA ADIPOSE TISSUE HELPS REGULATE
BODY TEMPERATURE BY PROVIDING INSULATION.

50. Melanin
a) is a pigment produced by cells in the stratum corneum.
b) is responsible for cyanosis.
c) is responsible for birthmarks.
d) IS PRODUCED BY MELANOCYTES.
e) All of the choices are correct.
51. The nail grows from the
a) nail body.
b) NAIL MATRIX.
c) stratum corneum.
d) lunula.
e) eponychium.
QUIZ 6

52. Chef Brandi suffered a burn on her arm when a kettle of spaghetti sauce exploded. The
doctor, using a forceps, pulls on a hair within the area that is burned. The hair easily pulls
out. What degree of burn did the patient have?
a) Second-degree burn
 b) THIRD-DEGREE BURN
c) First-degree burn

53. During growth of a long bone, the site of growth in length is the
a) marrow.
b) endosteum.
c) periosteum.
d) EPIPHYSEAL PLATE.
e) medullary cavity.

54. Which of these bones is a part of the appendicular skeleton?

a) CLAVICLE
b) Ribs
c) Skull
d) Hyoid
e) Sternum

55. Which of these bones or bone parts of the skull is/are correctly matched with their
function?
a) ALL OF THE CHOICES ARE CORRECT.
b) Hyoid bone—Serves as point of attachment for neck and tongue muscles
c) Paranasal sinuses—Decrease weight and act as resonating chambers
d) Nasal conchae—Increase surface area in the nasal cavity
e) Sella turcica—Contains pituitary gland

56. In adults, which of the following represents a set of fused bones?

a) Femur
b) SACRAL BONE
c) Temporal bone
d) Radius
e) Tibia

57. Which of the following structures is NOT part of the nasal septum?
a) Vomer
b) NASAL CONCHAE
c) Cartilage forming the anterior part
d) Perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone
58. The two bones of the skull in which teeth are located are the
a) maxilla and zygomatic.
b) MAXILLA AND MANDIBLE.
c) maxilla and frontal.
d) frontal and mandible
 e) zygomatic and mandible.

59. The functions of the skeletal system include all of the following EXCEPT
a) support and protection.
b) movement and leverage.
c) blood cell production.
d) storage of minerals.
e) TRANSPORT OF MATERIALS VIA ITS FLUID MATRIX.

60. A long bone

a) has an epiphysis at each end.
b) has red marrow and yellow marrow in its cavities.
c) ALL OF THE CHOICES ARE CORRECT.
d) has a medullary cavity in the diaphysis.
e) has endosteum lining the medullary cavity.

61. During the process of bone repair, immobilization of the bone is most useful during
a) the first 2 weeks, until the callus has formed.
b) THE FIRST 4 TO 6 WEEKS, UNTIL SPONGY BONE HAS CLOSED THE
BREAK.
c) the last 2 weeks, as bone remodeling occurs.
d) the entire 2 to 3 months that it takes for compact bone to replace the compact
bone that was originally lost.
e) the first 4 to 6 hours, until the blood clot forms.

62. Corey's A&P teacher used the analogy of managing a checking account to illustrate the
concept of calcium homeostasis. She said that certain aspects are like "earning money,"
"spending money," and "saving money." Which role does the skeletal system play in this
analogy?
a) The skeletal system is like the process of earning money, because it is the source
of new calcium to the body.
b) THE SKELETAL SYSTEM IS LIKE THE PROCESS OF SAVING
MONEY, BECAUSE IT IS THE AREA WHERE EXISTING CALCIUM
IONS CAN BE STORED OR REMOVED WHEN NEEDED.
c) The skeletal system is like the process of spending money, because it is the area
where calcium ions are removed from the body.

63. After suffering multiple cervical fractures, Myron was given a choice of which vertebrae
to fuse together—that is, he could leave only one articulation unfused. He decided to
choose the fusion that would still allow him to shake his head "no." His choice was to
leave the ________ unfused.
a) articulation between C6 and C7
 b) atlas to occipital condyles articulation
c) ATLAS TO AXIS JOINT
d) articulation between C2 and C3

64. Which of these statements about synovial joints is correct?

a) Synovial joints contain synovial fluid.
b) ALL OF THE CHOICES ARE CORRECT.
c) The joint cavity is enclosed by a joint capsule.
d) The synovial membrane may extend as a pocket or sac, called a bursa.
e) Articular cartilage covers articular surfaces of bones
f)
QUIZ 7

65. Smooth muscle

a) has no distinct sarcomeres.
b) contracts more slowly than skeletal muscle.
c) may be autorhythmic.
d) does not develop an oxygen deficit.
e) ALL OF THE CHOICES ARE CORRECT.

66. Muscle fibers

a) contain large numbers of mitochondria.
b) depend upon large amounts of O2.
c) have a relatively high metabolic rate.
d) preferentially use aerobic respiration.
e) ALL OF THE CHOICES ARE CORRECT.

67. ATP
a) provides energy for the movement of the cross-bridges.
b) ALL OF THE CHOICES ARE CORRECT.
c) attaches to the myosin myofilaments.
d) releases part of its energy as heat.
e) is required for muscle relaxation.

68. Creatine phosphate

a) causes the build up of lactic acid.
b) is produced by the process of anaerobic respiration.
c) is formed only during strenuous exercise.
d) can replace ATP in binding myosin molecules during contraction.
e) ACTS AS AN ENERGY RESERVE IN MUSCLE TISSUE.

69. The characteristic that allows muscles to have a slow, smooth, sustained contraction is
a) anaerobic respiration
 b) RECRUITMENT OF MOTOR UNITS.
c) the all-or-none response.
d) rigor mortis.
e) temporal summation.

70. The primary muscle(s) responsible for elevating the ribs during inspiration is/are
a) the internal intercostals.
b) the erector spinae.
c) the rectus abdominis.
d) the diaphragm
e) THE EXTERNAL INTERCOSTALS.
71. A single motor neuron and all the skeletal muscle fibers it innervates is called a
________.
a) presynaptic terminal
b) neuromuscular junction
c) MOTOR UNIT
d) synaptic cleft
e) synapse

72. The ________ is the end of a muscle attached to a bone undergoing the greatest
movement.
a) agonist
b) antagonist
c) prime mover
d) origin
e) INSERTION

73. The myosin myofilaments are anchored in the center of the sarcomere by the ________.
a) M line
b) H zone
c) A band
d) I band
e) Z disks

74. Arrange the following events in the correct order that they occur during skeletal muscle
contraction.
1) Calcium ions move along their concentration gradient.
2) Action potential occurs in cell membrane.
3) Ion channels open in sarcoplasmic reticulum.
4) Action potential moves along T tubules.
 5) Actin to myosin cross-bridges form.
a) 1, 5, 4, 3, 2
b) 5, 3, 4, 2, 1
c) 2, 1, 5, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 5, 3, 4
e) 2, 4, 3, 1, 5

75. Muscles are named according to their:

a) ALL OF THE CHOICES ARE CORRECT.
b) size or shape.
c) location or number of heads.
d) function or action.
e) origin or insertion point.

76. What are the relative concentrations of Na+, K+ and dissolved proteins in the
intracellular solution (i.e., cytosol) as opposed to concentrations in the extracellular fluid?
a) ↓ Na+, ↓ K+, and ↓ dissolved proteins inside the cell
b) Correct!
c) ↓ NA+, ↑ K+, AND ↑ DISSOLVED PROTEINS INSIDE THE CELL
d) ↑ Na+, ↓ K+, and ↑ dissolved proteins inside the cell
e) ↑ Na+, ↑ K+, and ↑ dissolved proteins inside the cell

QUIZ 8

77. The nodes of Ranvier

a) allow action potentials to develop.
b) allow the current to flow easily between the extracellular fluid and the axon.
c) ALL OF THE CHOICES ARE CORRECT.
d) increase the conduction velocity of an action potential.
e) allow for saltatory conduction of the action potential.

78. The limbic system

a) receives sensory input from the olfactory nerves.
b) influences visceral responses to emotions.
c) influences long-term declarative memory.
d) ALL OF THE CHOICES ARE CORRECT.
 e) influences motivation and mood.

79. Basal nuclei

a) contain the corpus striatum.
b) Correct Answer
c) ALL OF THE CHOICES ARE CORRECT.
d) are important in planning, organizing, and coordinating motor movements.
e) contain the substantia nigra.
f) are linked with the thalamus and cerebral cortex.

80. Roger Romeo, always the confident and self-assured man-about-campus, is dismayed to
find that every time he smells the perfume his first girlfriend wore, he gets tears in his
eyes and a lump in his throat. What is the most likely physiological explanation for this
involuntary response?
a) THE MAMMILLARY BODIES IN THE HYPOTHALAMUS PRODUCE
STRONG REFLEXIVE PHYSICAL AND EMOTIONAL RESPONSES TO
ODORS AND MEMORIES.
b) The substantia nigra secretes dopamine, which inhibits his corpus striatum and
causes emotional responses (i.e., acting like a "dope").
c) The frontal lobe controls motor activity, which is inhibited by smell.
d) The temporal lobe evaluates auditory and olfactory input.
e) The comparator function of the cerebellum compares old and new smells.

81. Spinal nerves

a) mostly exit between adjacent vertebrae.
b) ALL OF THE CHOICES ARE CORRECT.
c) contain both afferent and efferent fibers.
d) are organized into plexuses, except for T2 to T11.
e) have both autonomic and somatomotor efferent fibers.
82. Sophia is taking her Anatomy and Physiology test. An EEG of her brain would most
likely show a higher frequency of which of the following wave types?
a) Gamma waves
b) Alpha waves
c) BETA WAVES
d) Delta waves
e) Theta waves

83. The type of memory that is involved with the development of motor skills such as riding
a bike is called ________ memory.
a) explicit
b) PROCEDURAL
c) working
d) short-term
 e) declarative

84. A reflex
a) ALL OF THE CHOICES ARE CORRECT.
b) is an involuntary reaction in response to a stimulus.
c) is a form of negative feedback response.
d) allows a person to react to stimuli more quickly.
e) conducts signals from the periphery to the spinal cord and then back to the
periphery.

85. Continuous conduction of the action potential

a) OCCURS PRIMARILY IN UNMYELINATED AXONS.
b) is quicker than saltatory conduction.
c) Both "occurs in myelinated axons" and "is a function of the nodes of Ranvier" are
correct.
d) occurs in myelinated axons.
e) is a function of the nodes of Ranvier.
f) occurs primarily in unmyelinated axons.

86. To understand a word that one hears, action potentials from the ear reach the auditory
cortex, travel to the auditory association cortex, and are comprehended as meaningful
words by
a) Broca area (motor speech area).
b) aphasic area
c) prefrontal area.
d) primary somatic sensory cortex
e) WERNICKE (SENSORY SPEECH) AREA

87. Clusters of neuron cell bodies located in the PNS are called ________.
a) nuclei
b) GANGLIA
c) nerves
d) nodes of Ranvier
e) nerve tracts

88. The coccygeal plexus

a) All of the choices are correct.
b) supplies sensory cutaneous innervation to the skin over the coccyx.
c) supplies sensory cutaneous innervation to the lower leg and ankle.
d) SUPPLIES MOTOR INNERVATION TO THE MUSCLES OF THE
PELVIC FLOOR AND SUPPLIES SENSORY CUTANEOUS
INNERVATION TO THE SKIN OVER THE COCCYX.
 e) supplies motor innervation to the muscles of the pelvic floor.

QUIZ 9

89. The middle layer of the eye that, consists of the choroid, ciliary body, and iris is the
________.
a) nervous tunic
b) conjunctiva
c) fibrous tunic
d) crystalline lens
e) VASCULAR TUNIC

90. In the cochlea, the space that extends from the oval window to the apex of the cochlear
spiral is the ________.
a) SCALA VESTIBULI
b) cochlear duct
c) scala tympani
d) spiral lamina
e) tectorial membrane

91. When you have a cold, the mucus secretions in your respiratory tract increase and are
usually thicker than normal. How would this affect your sense of smell?
a) The increased mucus includes substances that inhibit the olfactory receptor cells.
b) The virus that caused the cold has damaged the olfactory organ.
c) The inflammation of the nasal cavity blocks most of the action potentials
generated at the olfactory organ.
d) THE INCREASED AMOUNT OF MUCUS REDUCES THE NUMBER OF
ODORANTS THAT CAN REACH AND BIND TO OLFACTORY
RECEPTOR CELLS.
e) None of the choices are correct.

92. You are walking down the street when a strange dog begins to chase you. You manage to
duck into a store and notice in a nearby hanging mirror that your pupils are very dilated.
Which of the following most likely accounts for this?
a) The sympathetic nervous system was stimulated by the scare, and it, in turn,
stimulated the circular smooth muscles of the iris to contract.
b) The parasympathetic nervous system was stimulated by the scare, and it, in turn,
stimulated the circular smooth muscles of the iris to contract.
c) THE SYMPATHETIC NERVOUS SYSTEM WAS STIMULATED BY THE
SCARE, AND IT, IN TURN, STIMULATED THE RADIAL SMOOTH
MUSCLES OF THE IRIS TO CONTRACT.
 d) The parasympathetic nervous system was stimulated by the scare, and it, in turn,
stimulated the radial smooth muscles of the iris to contract.

93. During training for night combat, soldiers are trained to look slightly to one side of
objects they detect. This is because
a) color vision is better if you look slightly to one side of an object.
b) looking directly at an object places the image on the fovea centralis.
c) looking directly at an object places the image on the optic disk.
d) the fovea has very few rod cells, which are necessary for vision in dim light.
e) BOTH "LOOKING DIRECTLY AT AN OBJECT PLACES THE IMAGE
ON THE FOVEA CENTRALIS" AND "THE FOVEA HAS VERY FEW
ROD CELLS, WHICH ARE NECESSARY FOR VISION IN DIM LIGHT"
ARE CORRECT.

94. Which of these statements about taste is NOT true?

a) Taste cells contain hairlike processes called taste hairs.
b) Taste buds are oval structures located on the surface of certain papillae on the
tongue.
c) A TASTE BUD IS ABLE TO DETECT ONLY ONE TASTE SENSATION.
d) Each taste bud has about 40 taste cells.
e) Many taste sensations are strongly influenced by olfactory sensations.

95. The iris

a) ALL OF THE CHOICES ARE CORRECT.
b) controls the diameter of the pupil.
c) is stimulated to contract by parasympathetic stimulation.
d) surrounds an opening called the pupil.
e) is the colored portion of the eye.

96. The hair cells and tectorial membrane are found in the
a) COCHLEA
b) semicircular canals.
c) saccule and utricle.
d) tympanum

97. Which of the following accurately describes a sensation?

a) A person describes the color of a shirt that is on display.
b) A child recognizes the taste of her favorite fruit juice.
c) AN ACTION POTENTIAL IS GENERATED WHEN TOUCH
RECEPTORS ARE STIMULATED.
d) None of the choices are correct.
e) A receptor is inhibited by the application of a pain relief cream.
98. The vestibule
a) ALL OF THE CHOICES ARE CORRECT.
b) contains maculae, which have hair cells embedded into a gelatinous mass.
c) is associated with static equilibrium.
d) has chambers with patches of specialized epithelium called maculae.
e) can be divided into the utricle and saccule.

99. Retinal
a) releases energy when opsin attaches.
b) combines with rhodopsin to produce opsin.
c) All of the choices are correct.
d) retains its shape when struck by light.
e) SYNTHESIS IN ROD CELLS REQUIRES VITAMIN A.

100. The choroid of the eye

a) is part of the nervous tunic.
b) anteriorly, is continuous with the sclera.
c) appears white in color.
d) is part of the fibrous tunic.
e) CONSISTS OF A VASCULAR NETWORK AND LARGE
NUMBERS OF MELANIN-CONTAINING CELLS.