PCol | Anesth c.

Active transport of K into

d. Diffusion of Na along the concentration gradient into
1. extent of the greater palatine nerve block anesthesia
a. Bone on the anterior hard palate adjacent to the 10. allergic reactions to local anesthetics are caused by
anterior teeth a. Rapid absorption
b. Soft tissue of the anterior hard palate adjacent to the b. Antigen-antibody reaction
anterior teeth c. Fast administration
c. Soft tissue and bone of the hard palate on one d. Improper technique
side of the midline up to canine
d. Pulps of the upper molar teeth 11. amide-type local anesthetics are metabolized in the
a. Liver
2. which of the following factors contributes to the short b. Kidney
duration of anesthetic action of a single dose of thiopental c. Plasma
a. Rapid biotransformation d. Spleen
b. High lipid solubility of the undisassociated form
c. Ability to enter and leave brain tissue very rapidly 12. epinephrine is added to local anesthetics because it
d. Rapid accumulation in the body fat a. increases the rate of destruction of local anesthetics
b. prevents the rapid deterioration of the local anesthetic
3. xerostomia is a complication of mandibular blocking which solution
occurs due to the association of lingual nerve to which of the c. decreases the rate of absorption of the local
following anesthetic at the injection site
a. IAN d. potentiates the action of all local anesthetics
b. Glossopharyngeal
c. Buccal nerve 13. in the absence of MSAN, bicuspids can have innervation
d. Chorda tympani from what nerve
a. ASAN
4. the ff are the indications of intraligamentary injections except b. Pterygoid plexus
a. Single tooth procedure c. Greater palatine
b. Treatment of children d. PSAN
c. RCT
d. Long rooted teeth 14. which form of the local anesthetic can readily penetrate
tissue membranes?
5. general anesthesia with halothane is commonly preceded by a. Nonionized free base form
administration of atropine to b. Ionized form
a. Induce muscular relaxation by blocking cholinergic c. Lipid soluble
receptors d. Both ionized and nonionized free base forms
b. Reduce salivation and bronchial secretions
caused by halothane 15. area of bone resistance upon needle insertion in IAN block
c. Inhibit vagal overactivity commonly caused by a. Retromolar triangle
halothane b. Coronoid notch
d. Block the cardiovascular effects produced by the c. Internal oblique ridge
injection of a sympathomimetic drug d. External oblique ridge

6. this local anesthetic can produce methemoglobinemia and is 16. in GA, the LAST part of CNS to be depressed is the
contraindicated and used with precaution in patients with a. Cerebrum
hypoxic conditions and hepatic disease b. Midbrain
a. Pontocaine c. Medulla
b. Propoxycaine d. Cerebellum
c. Prilocaine
d. Procaine 17. this technique of mandibular anesthesia is useful for
patients suffering from trismus, fractured mandible and
7. which of the ff is a major reason for adding vasoconstrictors mentally-handicapped children
to local anesthetic conditions a. Vazirani-Akinosi technique
a. To prolong the duration of anesthesia b. IAN block
b. To decrease bleeding c. Gow Gates technique
c. To enhance the onset of action d. Mandibular block
d. To reduce systemic toxicity
18. a successful infraorbital nerve block will produce
8. which of the ff nerves exits the skull through foramen ovale anesthesia of what part
a. Mandibular nerve a. Max ant teeth, their labial gingivae and the upper
b. Ophthalmic nerve lip
c. Maxillary nerve b. Maxillary anterior teeth and their labial gingivae
d. Facial nerve c. Maxillary anterior teeth
d. Max ant teeth, their labial gingivae, the upper lip and
9. initial repolarization of the nerve after stimulation is due anterior hard palate
PRIMARILY to ___ the cell
a. Diffusion of K along the concentration gradient 19. which of the ff nerve innervates the buccal gingiva of the
out of max 2nd premolar
b. Active transport of Na out of a. MSAN
 b. ASAN findings are the most likely to be associated with the diffusion
c. PSAN of the anesthetic solution into which of the ff
d. Posterior palatine a. Motor branches of the mandi nerve supplying the
masticatory muscles
20. the most frequent cause of inadequate local anesthesia is b. Capsule of the parotid gland
a. Anatomic variations c. Ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve
b. Apprehension d. Otic ganglion
c. Use of unstable solutions e. Auriculotemporal nerve
d. Use of improper techniques
e. Local variations of tissue pH 30. anesthesia performed with general anesthesia occurs in 4
stages which may or may not be observable because they can
21. Bell’s palsy can best be prevented occur very rapidly. Which stage is the one which skeletal
a. Fast injection muscles relax, and the patient’s breathing becomes regular.
b. Use short needle a. Analgesia
c. Aspiration b. Excitement
d. Use of long needle c. Medullary
d. Surgical
22. greater palatine foramen is most frequently located
a. Mesial to the apex of maxillary molar 31. following a satisfactory IAN block injection, also
b. Distal to the apex of the maxillary molar anesthesizing the lingual nerve, which teeth may be extracted
c. Canine without pain?
d. Distal to the apex of maxillary second molar a. All mandibular teeth on the right side
e. Mesial to the apex of maxillary second molar b. All mandibular teeth on the right side except the
central incisor
23. the most probable cause for a serious toxic reaction to local c. None with this injection alone
anesthetic d. The right lateral and lateral incisors (beh verbatim)
a. Hypersensitivity to local anesthetic
b. Excessive blood level of local anesthetic 32. useful for dental procedure that will anesthesize the
c. Hypersensitivity to the vasoconstrictor anterior portion of the hard palate from the mesial of the right
d. Deterioration of the anesthetic agent first premolar to the mesial of the left first premolar targeting
the incisive foramen beneath the incisive papilla
24. which of the ff is contraindication or precaution to the use of a. Greater palatine nerve block
Prilocaine? b. Incisive nerve block
a. Hepatic disease c. Infraorbital nerve block
b. Biliary tract disease d. Nasopalatine nerve block
c. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. Type II diabetes 33. a sedative hypnotic agent used in the pre operative
management of anxious pediatric dental patient. Which is true
25. the anterior palatine nerve supplies sensory innervation to regarding this non barbiturate sedative hypnotic?
mucosa of the a. Secobarbital relieves anxiety before surgery and is
a. Anterior 1/3 of the palate used to treat insomnia
b. Uvula b. Phenobartbital controls tonic clonic seizures for dental
c. Buccal mucosa opposite the maxillary molars patients
d. Posterior 2/3 of the palate c. Meperidine is a safe and effective sedation regimen
for uncooperative dental patient
26. the most serious consequence of systemic local anesthetic d. Chloral hydrate does not relieve pain and when
toxicity is given enters a period of excitement and irritability
a. Respiratory stimulation
b. Lethal anaphylaxis 34. in which of the following ways can a patient be protected
c. Respiratory depression best from the toxic aspects of local anesthetic?
d. CNS depression a. Take a thorough medical history
e. Psychogenic reactions b. Have oxygen available
c. Use an aspirating technique
27. node to node jumping of impulse d. Use the lowest possible concentration of local
a. Depolarization anesthetic
b. Synapse e. Use a solution with an epinephrine concentration of
c. Repolarization 1:50,000 to delay absorption
d. Saltatory conduction
35. you are considering your choice of local analgesia for a
28. node to node jumping of impulse surgical procedure which you anticipate will be ‘difficult’. Which
a. Neurotransmission one of the following agents provides the most prolonged
b. Nodes of Ranvier analgesia?
c. Salutatory conduction a. Mepivacaine
d. Synapse b. Bupivacaine
c. Articaine
29. before extracting a patient’s premolar, the dentist d. Lidocaine
administers an IAN block. 3 mins after receiving this block, the
pt develops paralysis of forehead muscles, his eyelids, and of 36. a contraindication for local infiltration technique
the upper and lower lips on the same side of his face. These a. Hypertension
 b. Pregnancy
c. Infection in the arch 45. a dentist administers 1.8ml of 2% solution of lidocaine. How
d. Kidney problem many mg of lidocaine did the patient receive?
a. 18mg
37. this local anesthetic group should be avoided in patients b. 3.6mg
with severe liver disease because they can build up in the c. 36mg
bloodstream and produce systemic toxicity d. 9mg
a. Ester group
b. Both groups produce systemic toxicity 46. the most likely cause of trismus after block anesthesia for
c. Local anesthetic would have no systemic effect surgery in the mandibular molar area is
d. Amide group a. Submandibular cellulitis
b. Stretching of the pterygomandibular raphe
38. in PSAN block, the needle approximates, except c. Excessive edema
a. Posterior to posterior surface of maxilla d. Damage to the medial pterygoid muscle on injection
b. Anterior to external pterygoid m e. Myositis of lateral pterygoid muscle
c. Anterior to pterygoid plexus of veins
d. Posterior to external pterygoid 47. infraorbital nerve block, the needle approximates except
a. Above origin of caninus muscle
39. the maximum recommended adult dose of Lidocaine is b. Below head quadrates labii superioris
300mg. how many millilitres of 2% lidocaine need to be given c. Beneath angular head of quadratus labii superioris
to reach this level d. None
a. 20ml
b. 10ml 48. initial repolarization of the nerve after stimulation is due
c. 15ml primarily to __ the cell
d. 7.5ml a. Active transport of Na out of
b. Diffusion of Na and K outside
40. local anesthetic agents act PRIMARILY c. Diffusion of Na along the concentration gradient into
a. At a cortisol level to decrease the patients awareness d. Diffusion of K along the concentration gradient
of pain impulses out of
b. On the axon membrane to prevent depolarizing e. Active transport of K into
potentials
c. At the myoneural junction to decrease frequency of 49. infiltration anesthesia where the anesthetic solution is
pain impulses reaching the CNS deposited between the periosteum and the cortical plate
d. At ganglionic sites to decrease central pain input a. Submucosa
b. Subperiosteal
41. method of controlling pain by the use of local anesthesia c. Intraosseous
a. Psychosomatic methods d. Interseptal
b. Raising pain threshold e. Supraperiosteal
c. Pain prevention by cortical depression
d. Block painful impulse 50. injection technique that is more prone to hematoma
e. Removal of cause a. Akinosi
b. Gow gates
42. what additional anesthesia procedure should be c. PSAN block
administered if the classic signs of anesthesia are present after d. MSAN block
a standard injection, but the patient still has a sharp pain when e. Mandibular block
the bur enters the dentin
a. Repeat the initial injection 51. a fear reaction activates the sympathetic division of the
b. Repeat the injection using a differen type of autonomic nervous system to result in
anesthetic solution a. Hypertension
c. Use a supplemental injection technique for second b. Increased salivation
injection c. Bradykardia
d. Wait an additional 15 mins and attempt access again d. Miosis

43. a patient develops the typical bell’s palsy facial expression 52. adrenaline stimulates
within ten minutes after an attempted IAN block on the same a. B1 and B2 receptors
side. The most logical explanation is that the injection was into b. A1 and A2 receptors
the c. All mentioned
a. Masseter d. A1 and B1
b. Parotid gland e. A2 and B2
c. Max artery
d. Pterygoid plexus of veins 53. displacement of a drug from protein binding sites is
expected to increase the
44. best alternative technique after mandibular block for still a. Activity of medullary centers
painful #36 for access in RCT b. Duration of drug effect
a. Gow gates c. Dose required for a given effect
b. Intrapulpal d. Drug effect observed
c. Intraseptal
d. Intraligamentary 54. the primary effect produced by digitalis at therapeutic dose
e. Intraosseous levels is to
 a. Decrease cardiac enlargement 64. developed hyporeactivity to a drug is
b. Decrease the venous pressure a. Antagonism
c. Slow the cardiac rate b. Dehydration
d. Increase the force myocardial contraction c. Desensitization
d. Tolerance
55. the single most useful agent in resuscitation is e. Detoxification
a. Aromatic spirits of ammonia
b. Oxygen 65. which of the ff combination represents acceptable agonist
c. An endotracheal tube antagonist pairs in antidotal therapy
d. 1:1000 epinephrine for injection a. Morphine – naloxone
b. Carbon monoxide – carbon dioxide
56. alpha adrenergic receptors are located in the ff except c. Dicumarol – protamine
a. Postganglionic nerve terminals d. Warfarin – phenylbutazone
b. Presynaptic nerve terminals
c. Blood platelets 66. which of the ff drugs and adverse effects is incorrectly
d. Vascular smooth muscle paired?
a. Phenylbutazone – gastric bleeding
57. death of the affected fungal cell by polyene antibiotics are b. Streptomycin – 8th Cranial nerve damage
due to the ff except c. Clindamycin – pseudomembranous colitis
a. Increase membrane permeability and permits leakage d. Pen G – blood dyscrasia
of intracellular contents e. Halothane
b. Suppress local candida infection
c. Works on the growing cells that contain peptidoglycan 67. Mu, Kappa, and Delta receptors are associated with which
in their cell wall group of drugs
d. Drugs bind to sterols in the fungal cell membrane a. Barbiturates
b. Antihistamines
58. during visit to the dentist, a patient develops a severe,acute c. Opioid analgesics
asthmatic attack. He should immediately receive d. NSAIDs
a. Epinephrine
b. Cortisone 68. heparin inhibits intrinsic pathway of blood clotting thus used
c. Diphenhydramine when anticoagulation is needed immediately. Which among the
d. 90% oxygen, 10% CO2 following is not an action of heparin?
a. Crosses the placental barrier and cannot be used in
59. red urine, sweat, saliva, and other bodily fluids is common pregnancy
side effect of this drug b. Neutralized tissue thromboplastin
a. Ketoconazole c. Blocks thromboplastin generation
b. Rifampicin d. Can enhance removal of fat particles from the blood
c. Ethambutol after a fatty meal
d. Isoniazid
e. Pyrazinamide 69. characteristics of COX1 except
a. Induces arterial constriction
60. adrenal steroids are used successfully to treat all of the b. Elevates PGs during inflammation
following conditions except c. Involved in the formation of mucous protective barrier
a. Addison disease in the stomach
b. Lupus erythematosus d. A component of healthy tissue
c. Rheumatoid arthritis e. Induces platelet aggregation
d. Aphthous stomatitis
e. Gastric ulcers 70. all of the following are H1 receptor blockers, except
a. Loratadine (clantin)
61. which antibiotic is used cautiously due to its side effects b. Diphenhydramine HCL (Benadryl)
such as Pseudomembranous colitis and severe GI upset? c. Chlorpheniramine maleate
a. Clindamycin d. Cimetidine (Tagamet)
b. Azithromycin
c. PenV 71. B1 adrenergic blocking agents will antagonize which of the
d. Cephalexin following actions of epinephrine
a. Cardiac acceleration
62. beta receptors are located in the ff except b. Vasoconstriction of the gastrointestinal vasculature
a. Bronchial smooth muscles c. Vasodilation of skeletal muscle vasculature
b. Heart d. Glycogenolysis
c. Vascular smooth muscle
d. Blood vessels of the kidney 72. which of the following drugs is useful in treating
dermatologic manifestations of an allergic response
63. pseudomembranous colitis is a common adverse effect of a. Cimetidine
which particular drug b. Chlorpheniramine
a. Clindamycin c. Diazepam
b. Cephalexin d. Atropine
c. Vancomycin e. Chlorhexidine
d. Tetracycline
73. the adrenergic receptor predominantly seen in heart is the
 a. Alpha 1 a. Ability of a drug to produce desired therapeutic effect
b. Beta 1 regardless of dosage
c. Both beta 1 and beta 2 b. Affinity of a drug to bind on the receptor site
d. Alpha 2 c. Relative concentration of two or more drugs that
e. Beta 2 produce the same drug effect
d. Dosage of drug that will kill a patient
74. of the following, which is clinically significant adverse e. Specificity of a drug
reaction due to Metaprolol
a. Hallucination 84. penicillase resistant drugs are active against gram positive
b. Drowsiness aerobe and reserved for treating
c. Arthralgia a. Staphylococcal infections
d. Dry mouth b. Streptococcal i
c. Candida i
75. a sedative often used in the management of anxious d. Meningococcal i
pediatric dental patient is
a. Chloral hydrate 85. w/c of the ff antiepileptic drugs causes hyperplasia of the
b. Secobarbital gingiva
c. Meperidine a. Valproic acid
d. Pentobarbital b. Phenytoin
c. Ethosuximide
76. alpha receptors effects include the following except d. Carbamazepine
a. Vasodilation and relaxation of respiratory muscles
b. Reduction of motility and tone of the GI smooth 86. an excess of which of the ff hormones may be associated
muscle with increased sensitivity to epinephrine
c. Vasoconstriction and contraction of the uterus and a. Insulin
spleen b. Thyroid
d. Mydriasis c. Testosterone
d. Parathyroid
77. which drug is the current drug of choice for the treatment of
the manic phase of bipolar disorder (or manic depressive 87. ano daw drug nagccause ng drymouth Ans: Diazepam
syndrome)
a. Phenobarbital 88. The antiviral drug Acyclovir is for the treatment of
b. Lithium a. Heap b and c
c. Imipramine b. Respiratory syncytial virus
d. Haloperidol c. HIV
d. Varicella zoster and herpes simplex virus
78. phenobarbital, an adult anticonvulsant and drug sedative e. Cytomegalovirus
effective in all seizure. Which among the following will not
develop during drug therapy? 89. the medical uses of a drug having adrenergic agonists
a. Drowsiness actions would include which of the ff
b. Severe depression a. Prevent angina pectoris
c. Irritability b. Reduce anxiety
d. Nausea c. Treat HTN
e. Anxiety d. Reverse an anaphylactic reaction
f. ----
90. salicylates can cause gastric bleeding in the stomach
79. the antiviral agent pencyclovir is active against which virus because of
a. Herpes simplex type 1 a. Dec prostaglandin level
b. Papilloma virus b. Inc movement of the intestine
c. Herpes zoster c. Dec movement of the intestine
d. Genital herpes d. Inc prostaglandin level

80. aspirin has analgesic, antipyretic, and anti-inflammatory 91. more widely used penicillin as it is more acid stable
property at therapeutic doses. Which among these is not true because it does not breakdown in the GI tract
regarding aspirins? a. V-cillin K
a. Inc risk of developing Reye’s syndrome b. Ampicillin
b. Inhibits platelet aggregation c. Pen g
c. Inhibits central prostaglandin synthesis d. Pen v
d. Reduces thromboxane production
e. Inhibits peripheral prostaglandin synthesis 92. mechanism of action of tranexamic acid
a. Activates platelets during hemostasis
81. ano daw inaachieve na stage sa induction of GA? Ans: b. Delays fibrinolysis by binding to lysine receptor
Surgical anesthesia sites on plasminogen
c. Increases tensile strength of fibrin which holds blood
82. I forgot pero odd man out ng examples ng indirect-acting clot
adrenergic drugs ( nasa notes ni doc mics nakalimutan ko lang d. Activates blood clotting proteins by catalysing y-
choices huhuh) carboxyglutanyl reductase
e. Promotes platelet aggregation in response to
83. the intrinsic ability of a drug refers to the prostaglandin synthesis
93. quinidine is used to treat
a. Ventricular fibrillation
b. Atrial fibrillation
c. Angina pectoris
d. HTN

94. w/c of the ff drugs is used principally for its diuretic action
a. Meprobamate
b. Angiotensin
c. Vasopressin
d. Chlorothiazide

95. the most widely used tricyclic antidepressant drug is

a. Amitriptyline
b. Doxepin
c. Imipramine
d. Desipramine

96. w/c of the ff diseases states is a CI to the use of nitrous

oxide-oxygen sedation
a. Hypertension
b. Epilepsy
c. History of a recent myocardial infarction
d. Angina pectoris

97. phenothiazines are the most widely used antipsychotic

agents for the improvement of mood behaviour. This drug is
also used as an antiemetic agent. The anti emetic action is the
result from their inability to
a. Inhibition of COX synthesis in the brain
b. Blockage of alpha adrenergic receptor
c. Depress the chemoreceptor trigger zone
d. Blockage of dopamimergic sites in the brain

98. w/c of the ff is used to prevent laryngospasm

a. Diazepam
b. Atropine
c. Neostigmine
d. Epinephrine
e. Succinylcholine (anectine)

99. the prostaglandins produce all of the ff pharmacologic

actions except
a. Inc capillary permeability
b. Uterine contraction
c. Inc gastric secretion
d. Pyrexia

100. phenothiazine is used to

a. Suppress coughing
b. Alter psychotic behaviour
c. Produce analgesia
d. Produce muscle relaxation
e. Produce hypnosis