SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH LỚP 9

DEMO NĂM HỌC: 201…… - 201……

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)
(Đề thi gồm có 08 trang) Ngày thi: 28/02/……………..

SECTION I: LISTENING (3.0 POINTS) (You will hear twice for each part)
Part 1: Questions from 1 to 9. (1.8 point - 0.2/ each)
You will hear someone talking on the radio about a Language Study Fair and fill in the missing
information in the numbered space.

The Language Study Fair

Dates: 17th to 19th (1) ……………………………….
Place: National Education Centre
Fair includes: - stands with textbooks
- (2) ……………………………….by educational speakers.
- exhibition of (3) ……………………………….
- demonstrations of latest computer (4) ……………………………….
Opening hours: 9.30 a.m – (5) ………………………………. p.m. Thursday and Friday
9.30 a.m – 4.00 p.m (6) ……………………………….
Tickets: £5 or £3 for (7) ……………………………….
Tickets can be (8) ……………………………….by ringing the hotline on (9) ……………………………….

Part 2: Questions from 10 to 15. (1.2 points - 0.2/ each)

You will hear a radio interview with Jack Williams, who is talking about a town called Swanton and
choose the best answer.
10. Where is the town of Swanton located?
A. near the sea B. by a lake C. on a hill
11. What does jack like most about living in Swanton?
A. There is opportunities for climbing nearby.
B. There is plenty of activity in the town.
C. There is interesting wildlife near the town.
12. What does the Jack say about entertainment in Swanton?
A. A music festival takes place in the town.
B. Its football club has done well this year.
C. An arts centre has recently opend.
13. Jack is worried about the environment of Swanton because
A. the water in the river is dirty.
B. there are few wild birds around today.
C. pollution has destroyed the plants in one area.
14. What does the Jack say about the way Swanton has changed?
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 A. He preferred the town when it was smaller.
B. He thinks it is a more interesting place.
C. He is sorry that there are fewer jobs available.
15. Jack is positive about the future of Swanton because ________.
A. there is a successful new shopping centre.
B. there will soon be a new airport.
C. a new university is opening
SECTION II: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (7.0 POINTS)
Part 1: Questions from 16 to 36. (3.0 points - 0.15/ each)
Choose the best answer to each question.
16. When he finally _______, he couldn’t remember what had happened.
A. put off B. came round C. set up D. called off
17. By then I _______ my driving test. I hope.
A. pass                    B. will be passed       C. will have passed    D. have passed
18. Not only _______ more brittle than hard maples, but they are also less able to withstand high
winds.
A. soft maples are  B. they are soft maples C. are soft maples D. soft maples
19. _______ you, I’d think twice about that decision. I could be a bad move.
A. Were I B. Should I be C. If I am D. If I had been
20. The judge _______ the pedestrian for the accident.
A. accused B. charged C. caught D. blamed
21. She had to borrow her sister’s car because hers was _______.
A. out of work B. out of order C. on duty D. off work
22. The first village _______ was not far from the capital.
A. that I visited to B. where I visited C. to which I visited D. I visited
23. One’s fingerprints are _______ other person.
A. different from                        B. different from any
C. differ from any                     D. different from those of any
24. “When can you get it all done?”   -  “______________”
A. “How does next Monday sound?   B. Two hours ago
C.  I used to do it on Monday                         D. How much time do I need?
25. Anne: “Make yourself at home”. -John: “______________”
A. Yes, can I help you B. Not at all. Don’t mention it
C. Thanks! Same to you D. That’s very kind. Thank you
26. The book says that the revolution was _______ off by the assassination of the state
governor.
A. launched B. cropped C. triggered D. prompted
27. It is _______ knowledge in the village that Mr. and Mrs. Thomas quarrel violently several times a
week.
A. common B. important C. popular D. general
28. Once known as the "Golden State" because of its gold miner, _______.
A. North California today mines fewer metallic minerals
B. fewer metallic minerals are mined in North California today
C. there are fewer metallic minerals mined in North California
D. today in California fewer metallic minerals are mined
29. A part time job gives me the freedom to_______ my own interest.
A. pursue       B. chase             C. seek                     D. catch
30. We are going on a day_______ to the island tomorrow.
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 A. visit                   B. voyage           C. journey D. trip
31. It was a very _______ evening. Nothing really happened.
A. dull                B. fed up          C. bored          D. disinterested.
32. I don't think she will share her feelings with you. She's a _______ person.
A. talkative B. confident C. reserved D. sociable
33. Frank would be more popular in the office if he didn’t try so hard to _______ himself with
the boss.
A. regard B. sympathise C. congratulate D. ingratiate
34. _______ of the solar system began in the 19th century.
A. Explore B. Exploring  C. Exploratory D. Exploration
35. That's really an_______ man. He tells very good jokes.
A. amused B. amusing C. amusedly D. amusingly

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Part 2: Questions from 36 to 45. (2 points - 0.2/ each)

Use the correct form of the word in brackets to complete the following sentences.
36. The recent hurricane caused ……………………………….damaged. WIDE
37. I was annoyed at his ……………………………….to co-operate. REFUSE
38. He won the discuss event at the Olympic Games but was later ………………… QUALIFY
when a medical check proved that he had been taking drugs.
39. Heavy rain and excessive use have soil ……………………………….. POVERTY
40. The movie we have just watched is ……………………………….good. EXCEPTION
41. Burning gas in an ……………………………….way of heating a house. Coal is much ECONOMY
cheaper.
42. I'm afraid that your report is full of ………………………………. ACCURATE
43. Solar energy, wind power and water power are ………………………………. sources ALTERNATE
of energy.
44. Two ……………………………….from the group “Friends of the Earth" are talking to REPRESENT
the students.
45. You must learn to ……………………………between politeness and real kindness. DIFFERENT
Part 3: Questions from 46 to 50.(1 point - 0.2/ each)
Each of the following sentences has an error. Find the errors and correct them.
46. It’s essential that every examinee summarizes the important knowledge for the exam.
47. Jane looked sadly and worried this morning. I wonder what happened to her.
48. The house is not very big but there is a lot of furnitures.
49. She wishes we didn’t send her the candy yesterday because she’s on diet.
50. In the end of the party, Jane found herself doing the washing up again, as usual.
Part 4: Questions from 51 to 55.(1 point - 0.2/ each)
Fill in each of the sentences with correct prepositions.
51. The village has changed a lot thanks ……………… the knowledge the children brought home.
52. I turned ……………… the job because it was badly paid.
53. He is married ……………… my friend.
54. Love was totally absent ……………… his childhood.
55. I accidentally caught sight ……………Tim when I was crosssing a street downtown yesterday.
SECTION III: READING (6.0 POINTS)
Part 1. Questions 56 – 65 (2 points - 0.2/ each)
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Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question.
According to sociologists, there are several different ways in which a person become
recognized as the leader of a social group in the United States. In the family, traditional cultural
patterns confer leadership on one or both of the parents. In other cases, such as friendship
groups, one or more persons, may gradually emerge as leaders, although there is no formal
process of selection. In larger groups, leaders are usually chosen formally through election or
recruitment.
Although leaders are often thought to be people with unusual personal ability, decades
of research have failed to produce consistent evidence that there is any category of “natural
leaders’’. It seems that there is no set of personal qualities that all leaders have in common;
rather, virtually any person may be recognized as a leader if the person has qualities that meet
the needs of that particular group.
Furthermore, although it is commonly supposed that social groups have a single leader,
research suggests that there are typically two different leadership roles that are held by
different individuals. Instrumental leadership is leadership that emphasizes the completion of
tasks by a social group. Group members look to instrumental leaders to “get things done”.
“Expressive leadership”, on the other hand, is leadership that emphasizes the collective well-
being of social group’s members. Expressive leaders are less concerned with overall goals of the
groups than with providing emotional support to group members and attempting to minimize
tension and conflicts among them. Group members expect expressive leaders to maintain
stable relationships within the group and provide support to individual members.
Instrumental leaders are likely to have a rather secondary relationship to other group
members. They give orders and may discipline group members who inhibit attainment of the
group’s goals. Expressive leaders cultivate a more personal or primary relationship to others in
groups. They offer sympathy when someone experiences difficulties or is subjected to
discipline, are quickly to lighten a serious moment with humor, and try to resolve issues that
threaten to divide the group. As the differences in these two roles suggest, expressive leaders
generally receive more personal affection from group members; instrumental leaders, if they
are successful in promoting group goals, may enjoy a more distant respect.
56. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The problems faced by leaders
B. How leadership differs in small and large groups
C. How social groups determine who will lead them
D. The role of leaders in social groups
57. The passage mentions all of the following ways by which people can become leaders
EXCEPT__________.
A. recruitment B. formal election process
C. specific leadership training D. traditional cultural patterns
58. In mentioning “natural leaders” in paragraph 2, the author is making the point that
___________.
A. few people qualify as “natural leaders”
B. there is no proof that “natural leaders” exist
C. “natural leaders” are easily accepted by the members of a social group
D. “natural leaders” share a similar set of characteristics
59. Which of the following statement about leadership can be inferred from the passage 2?
A. A person who is an effective leader of a particular group may not be an effective leader
in another group.
B. Few people succeed in sharing a leadership role with another person.
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 C. A person can best learn how to be an effective leader by studying research on leadership.
D. Most people desire to be leaders, but can produce little evidence of their qualifications.
60. The passage indicates that instrumental leaders generally focus on _________.
A. ensuring harmonious relationships B. sharing responsibility with group members
C. identifying new leaders D. achieving a goal
61. The word “collective” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. necessary B. typical C. group D. particular
62. The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. expressive leaders B. goals of the group C. group members D. tension and conflict
63. A “secondary relationship” in paragraph 4 between a leader and the members of a group
could best be characterized as __________.
A. distant B. unreliable C. enthusiastic D. personal
64. The word “resolve” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. avoid repeating B. talk about C. avoid thinking about D. find a solution to
65. Paragraph 3 and 4 organize the discussion of leadership primarily in term of __________.
A. examples that illustrate a problem B. cause and effect analysis
C. narration of events D. comparison and contrast
Part 2. Questions 66 – 75 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question
Few people now question the reality of global warming and its effects on the world’s
climate. Many scientists (66) ___________ the blame for recent natural disasters on the
increase in the world's temperatures and are convinced that, more than (67) ___________
before, the earth is at (68)___________ from the forces of the wind, rain and sun. (69)
___________ to them, global warming is making extreme weather events, such as hurricanes
and droughts, even more (70) ___________ and causing sea levels all around the world to (71)
___________.
Environmental groups are putting (72) ___________ on governments to take action to
reduce the amount of carbon dioxide which is given (73) ___________ by factories and power
plants, thus attacking the problem at its source. They are in (74) ___________ of more money
being spent on research into solar, wind and wave energy devices, which could then replace
existing power (75) ___________ . Some scientists, however, believe that even if we stopped
releasing carbon dioxide and other gases into the atmosphere tomorrow, we would have to
wait several hundred years to notice the results. Global warming, it seems, is here to stay.
66. A. give B. put C. take D. have
67. A. yet B. never C. once D. ever
68. A. threat B. danger C. risk D. harm
69. A. Concerning B. Regarding C. Depending D. According
70. A. strict B. severe C. strong D. heavy
71. A. raise B. arise C. rise D. lift
72. A. force B. pressure C. persuasion D. encouragement
73. A. off B. away C. up D. over
74. A. belief B. request C. favor D. suggestion
75. A. factories B. generations C. houses D. stations
Part 3: Questions 76 – 85 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the text and fill in one word which best fits each gap.
One of the most amazing marathon races in the world is the Marathon of the Sands. It
takes (76) ……………………… every April in the Sahara Dessert in the south of Morocco, a part of the
world where temperatures can (77) ……………………… fifty degrees centigrade. The standard length
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of the marathon is 42.5 kilometers but this one is 240 kilometers (78) ……………………… and takes
seven days to complete. It began in 1986 and now attracts about two hundred runners, the
majority of (79) ……………………… ages range from seventeen to forty-seven. About half of them
come from France and the (80) ……………………… from all over the world. From Britain it costs
£2,500 to enter, including return air fares. The race is rapidly getting more and more popular
(81) ……………………… , or perhaps because of, the hard conditions that runners must endure. They
have to carry food and (82) ……………………… else they need for seven days in rucksack weighing no
more than twelve kilograms. In addition to (83) ……………………… , they are given a liter and a half of
water every ten kilometers.
Runners do (84) ……………………… terrible physical hardships. Sometimes they lose toenails
and skin peels on their feet. However, doctors are always (85) ……………………… hand to deal with
minor injuries and to make sure that runners do not push themselves too far.
SECTION IV. WRITING (4 POINTS)
Part 1: Questions from 86 to 90. (1 point- 0.2/ each)
Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it.
86. Children learn a lot about how to behave in a situation like this.
 Only...........................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
87. It was wrong of you to allow a three-year-old child to walk home alone.
 You should .......................................................................................................................................................................................................................
88. My sister finds commuting everyday annoying.
 It’s difficult for my sister to put..................................................................................................................................................................
89. People believed that they was left on an isolated island.
 They..........................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
90. Regarding payment, most major credit cards are acceptable..
 As far as................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
Part 2: Questions from 91 to 92. (0.5 point - 0.25/ each)
Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the
word given. Do not change the word given.
91. If Alice hadn’t been delayed in the traffic, she would be here by now. (prevented)
 The traffic _________________________________________________ on time.
92. I was strongly impressed by the performance of that young singer. (impression)
 The performance of that singer ____________________________________ me.
Part 3: Essay writing (2.5 points)
Some people think that the advantages of using mobile phones are much greater than its
disadvantages. Do you agree or disagree with this opinion?
Write an essay to give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your
own experience or knowledge. You should write at least 150 words to express your opinions.

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--THE END --
- Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu
- Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm

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