NGUYỄN ĐÌNH LUYỆN THCS BÙ NHO – PHÚ RIỀNG – BÌNH PHƯỚC

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PHÒNG GD VÀ ĐT KỲ THI CHỌN HSG CẤP HUYỆN LỚP 9 NĂM 2018
THỊ XÃ PHƯỚC LONG MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Ngày thi: 10/01/2018
(Đề thi gồm có 08 trang)
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SECTION I: LISTENING (3.0 POINTS) (You will hear twice for each part)
Part 1: Questions from 1 to 10. (2.0 points -0.2/ each)
Listen to the recording twice then fill in the numbered space with no more than one word or a
number.
SUGGESTIONS
* The teacher wants the students to make notes as she is (1) talking.
* The teacher suggests eating (2) food giving the students energy.
* The teacher suggests finding a place with plenty of (3) light to study.
* If students feel anxious, they should have a (4) break.
* Students are advised to choose the most (5) important things to learn.
* The teacher advises the students to learn the main (6) ideas first.
* The teacher says that there are a lot of past exam papers in the (7) library.
* The teacher recommends that students should take a rest of five minutes every (8) half hour.
* The teacher is sure that her students will do their (9) best.
Part 2: Questions from 11 to 15. (1.0 point - 0.2/ each)
Part 2. Listen to a conversation between Mark and Clare. Then, choose the best answer (A, B
or C) You will listen twice.
10. Which of the following subjects is Clare good at?
A. History B. Information Technologs C. Geography
11. How is Clarer’s notes?
A. too long B. too short C. too big
12. What does Mark advise Clare to do?
A. Write a full text B. write the extra bits C. draw pictures
13. What is the crown for?
A. Henry B. heart C. King
14. How many times did king Henry the Eighth marry?
A. three B. six C. twelve
15. How many pages does Mark advise Clare to have?
A. six pages B. one page C. three pages
SECTION II: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (7.0 POINTS)
Part 1: Questions from 16 to 35. (3.0 points - 0.15/ each)
Choose the best answer to each question.
16. I am sorry I _______ your party. I was away at that time.
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A. lost B. failed C. told D. missed
17. From now on, we won’t be able to go out as much as we ________.
A. were B. had C. used to D. will
18. He’s always telling _________ lies.
A. Φ B. a little C. a few D. the
19. Sorry, I’m late, but I had a lot of ________ to do.
A. job B. work C. task D. labour
20. John came to the party ________ he hadn’t been invited.
A. although B. despite C. in case D. even
21. Let’s go for a walk, ________ we?
A. will B. do C. shall D. must
22. They would ________ go by air than spend a week travelling by train.
A. always B. rather C. prefer D. better
23. ________ weather! We can’t go out for a walk now.
A. How terrible B. What terrible C. How a terrible D. What a terrible
24. ________ call the police.
A. Either you leave at once or I B. Leave at once or I’ll
C. You either leave at once or I will D. Or you leave at once, or I will
25. Bob: “You make a lot of noise last night.” Jane: “________.”
A. Really B. Oh! I’m really sorry
C. What a pity! D. It’s kind of you to say so
26. Jack’s father bought him a(n) _______ bike as a birthday gift.
A. blue Japanese expensive B. expensive Japanese blue
C. expensive blue Japanese D. Japanese expensive blue
27. Ray: “I wouldn’t do that if I were you.” John: “________.”
A. Wouldn’t you? Why? B. Would you? really?
C. I’d rather you didn’t. D. It’s out of question.
28. He was only nine, but he ate ________ his father did.
A. much than B. more than that C. as much as D. as much than
29. It was ________ hot day that we decided to leave work early.
A. so B. such C. a so D. such a
30. It is getting cold. You’d better not ________ without a coat.
A. go out B. to go out C. going out D. have gone out
31. The manager ________ welcomed us to the hotel.
A. themselves B. oneself C. himself D. itself
32. I’ve been looking for this book for months and ________ I found it.
A. at last B. in time C. at the end D. at present
33. The teacher with ________ we studied last year no longer teaches in our school.

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A. who B. whom C. whose D. that
34. I was just ________ to go out when you telephoned.
A. around B. about C. thinking D. planned
35. Mr. Dun said he ________ 35 the following week.
A. was B. is C. will be D. would be
Part 2: Questions from 36 to 45. Use the correct form of the word in brackets to complete each
sentence. (2 points - 0.2/ each)
36. We are very impressed by the friendliness of your town’s people. FRIEND
37. There are more and more people concerning about environmental pollution. ENVIRONMENT
38. I try to speak clearly when I meet a foreigner. FOREIGN
39. I feel so sleepy that I am going to bed. SLEEP
40. Many pupils at secondary school have already chosen a career. SECOND
41. Every week, there are two flights from Hanoi to Nha Trang. FLY
42. The song has officially been selected for the Sea Games 22nd, Vietnam. OFFICE
43. There wasn’t any electricity in our village two years ago. ELECTRIC
44. Thousands of people have been made homeless by the war. HOME
45. We don’t enjoy being used as cheap labour. JOY
Part 3: Questions from 46 to 50. Each of the following sentences has an error. Find the errors
and correct them. (1 points - 0.2/ each)
46. I like to sit among you and Tim.  between
47. Although my sister was tired, but she helped me with my homework.  bỏ but
48. There’s new Oriental restaurant in town, isn’t it?  there
49. I wish it would to rain tomorrow.  rain
50. Water is too hot for us to drink it.  bỏ it
Part 4: Questions from 51 to 55. Fill in each blank with a suitable preposition (1 point - 0.2/
each)
51. PO box stands for “Post Office” box.
52. Young generation is fond of wearing jeans.
53. You are different from your brother.
54. You will not pass the exam without working harder.
55. Let’s look these new words up in a dictionary.
SECTION III: READING (6.0 POINTS)
Part 1. Questions 56 to 65 (2 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question.
Every year about two million people visit Mount Rushmore where the faces of four US
presidents were carved in granite by sculptor Gutzon Borglum and his son the late Lincoln
Borglum. The creation of the Mount Rushmore monument took 14 years - from 1927 to 1941 - and
nearly a million dollars. These were times when money was difficult to come by and many people

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were jobless. To move more than 400,000 tons of rock, Borglum hired laid-off workers from the
closed-down mines in the Black Hills area. He taught these men to dynamite, drill, carve, and finish
the granite as they were hanging in mid-air in his specially devised chairs, which had many safety
features. Borglum was proud of the fact that no workers were killed or several injured during the
years of blasting and carving.
During the carving, many changes in the original design had to be made to keep the carved
heads free of large fissures that were uncovered. However, not all the cracks could be avoided, so
Borglum concocted a mixture of granite dust, white lead, and linseed oil to fill them.
Every winter, water from melting snows gets into the fissures and expand as it freezes,
making the fissures bigger. Consequently, every autumn maintenance work is done to refill the
cracks. The repairers swing out in space over a 500-foot drop and fix the monument with the same
mixture that Borglum used to preserve this national monument for future generations.
56. There are approximately ________ visitors to Mount Rushmore.
A. 2.000.000 B. 2.000 C. 20.000 D. 200.000
57. According to the passage Borglum's son ________.
A. is dead B. was a president
C. did maintenance work D. spent a million dollars
58. The word ‘these' in paragraph 1 refers to ________.
A. faces B. dollars C. times D. workers
59. Which of the following didn’t Borglum teach the workers?
A. dynamite B. carve C. drill D. design
60. Why was Borglum proud?
A. He taught his worker well B. No workers were killed
C. He hired workers who didn’t need money D. Workers were very strong
61. In line 10, The word “fissures" refer to ______
A. designs B. heads C. cracks D. carvings
62. The men who Borglum hired were ________.
A. trained sculptors B. laid-off stone masons
C. Black Hills volunteers D. unemployed miners
63. It can be inferred from the passage that______
A. the heads are not as originally planned B. the workers made mistakes when blasting
C. the cracks caused serious injuries D. the designs had large fissures in them
64. Borglum's mixture for filling cracks was ______
A. very expensive B. bought at the Black Hills mines
C. invented by the sculpter himself D. uncovered during carving
65. Today, Mount Rushmore needs to be ______
A. protected from air pollution B. polished for tourists
C. restored during the winter D. repaired periodically

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Part 2. Questions 66 – 75 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question
Jeans are very popular with young people all (66) ______ the world. Some people say that jeans
are the "uniform" of (67) ______. But they haven't always been popular. The story of jeans started
(68) ______ 200 years ago. People in Genoa, Italy made pants. The cloth (69) ______ in Genoa was
called "jeans". The pants were called "jeans". In 1850, a sale man (70) _____ California began
selling pants made of canvas. His name was Levi Strauss. (71) _____ they were so strong, "Levi's
pants" beacome (72) ______ with gold miners; farmers and cowboys. 6 years (73) ______; Levis
began making his pants with blue cotton (74) ______ called denim. Soon after, factory workers in
the United States and Europe began (75) ______ jeans. Young people usually didn't wear them.
66. A. in B. on C. over D. above
67. A. youth B. young C. younger D. youngest
68. A. lots B. much C. most D. almost
69. A. make B. makes C. making D. made
70. A. in B. on C. at D. with
71. A. although B. but C. because D. so
72. A. famous B. popular C. good D. wonderful
73. A. late B. later C. latset D. last
74. A. cloth B. clothing C. cloths D. clothes
75. A. wear B. wearing C. wore D. worn
Part 3: Questions 76 – 85.
Read the text and think of the word which best fits each gap. (2.0 points- 0.2/ each).
If you live in a city, you probably see many people, hear the (76) noise of traffic, and smell
the pollution (77) from cars and factories. We are entering a new time in (78) the history of the
world. Before this, most (79) people were farmers. They lived in the country. Now many people are
(80) leaving their farms and moving into the cities. They are looking for better jobs. The cities are
growing very quickly. Most cities are very crowded. People are driving more cars, burning more
fuel, (81) using more water, eating more food, making more garbage, and producing more things in
factories than (82) ever before. Life is becoming difficult. Some governments are trying to plan for
the future. They are building new roads, putting (83) up new houses, looking for more water, and
limiting growth in certain areas. Still, city planners are getting worried. People are crowding into the
cities (84) faster than cities can take them. The cities are running out (85) of room. What is the
answer to this problem?
SECTION IV. WRITITNG (4 POINTS)
Part 1: Questions 86 – 90.
Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it. (1 point- 0.2/ each)
86. It was my first visit to North America.

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 I haven’t visited / been to North America before.
87. Let’s go abroad for our holiday this year.
@ Why don’t we go abroad for our holiday this year.
88. People think that the owner of that house is abroad.
@ The owner of that house is thought to be abroad.
89. Who wrote this story?
@ By whom was this story written?
90. I think you should tell the police about the accident.
@ If I were you, I would / should tell the police about the accident.
Part 2: Questions 91 – 92. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the
first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. (0.5 point - 0.25/ each)
91. Your hair is long. You’d better have it cut. need
@ You need to have your hair cut. (Because it is long.)
92. She can’t have more children because of her age. too
@ She is too old to have more children.
Part 3: Essay writing ( 2.5 points)
Write a paragraph about 150 words with the topic. “Do you think television can replace
books nowadays? Why and Why not?”
Give reason for your answer and include any relavant examples from your own
experience or knowledge.