An English test for gifted students - Grade 9, 2018-2019

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO THÁI NGUYÊN MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 9
KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH Ngày thi: 28/ 3/ 2019
NĂM HỌC 2018 - 2019 Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

ĐẤP ÁN ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

(Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi theo hướng dẫn dưới mỗi câu)

Điểm Giám khảo số 1 Giám khảo số 2 Số phách

(họ tên, chữ ký) (họ tên, chữ ký) (do chủ tịch HĐ ghi)
Bằng số Bằng chữ

Đề thi này gồm 8 trang được đánh số từ 1- 8. Thí sinh kiểm tra số trang trước khi làm bài.
SECTION I. LISTENING
Questions 1-8. Complete the notes. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS or A NUMBER for
each answer.
You are going to hear a man who is interested in protecting the environment talking to a travel
agent about eco-holidays.

ECOECO-HOLIDAYS
Customer’s name: IGOR PETROV
Length of holiday: (1) ______
Will pay up to £ (2______
Told him about (3______ for advance payments
Requires (4) ______ on plane
Must check if he needs a (5) ______

Type of holiday Accommodation Advantage

Dumbarton Tablelands Watching animals house in a (6) ______ close to nature
Bago Nature Reserve Live with a (7)______ village house learn about way of
life
San Luis Island working in a family hostel holiday location
without (8) ______

1. two/ 2 weeks 2. 1,750 3. discount

4. vegetarian meals 5. visa 6. tree
7. school 8. cars

SECTION II. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR

I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase A, B, C or D to complete each sentence.
9. _____ the library was about to close, I found a useful book for my essay, so I rushed to the counter
immediately.
A. Before B. By the time C. Ever since D. Just as
10. Andrew _____ greater responsibilities when he was promoted.
A. went over B. put up C. took on D. got over
11. That book is written by a famous anthropologist. It’s about the people in Samoa _____ for two
years.
A. that she lived B. that she lived among them
C. among whom she lived D. where she lived among them.

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 An English test for gifted students - Grade 9, 2018-2019
12. “Do you mind my taking this seat?”
– “_____”
A. Yes, take it please. B. No, of course not.
C. Yes, sit down please. D. No, you can’t take it.
13. You’d better save some money for a rainy day. You can’t count on _____ by your parents every
time you get into financial difficulty.
A. rescuing B. being rescued C. to rescue D. to be rescued
14. Initially I was opposed to the idea, but after I had seen the research, I _____ that the project was a
good one.
A. must have agreed B. would have agreed
C. ought to agree D. had to agree
15. Dean is always _____ his new things as if he is better than me, but all it means is that his family is
richer than mine.
A. owning up B. keeping at C. calling on D. showing off
16. He went to Australia hoping to find a teaching _____ without too much difficulty.
A. work B. occupation C. employment D. post
17. Learners of English as a foreign language often fail to ____ between unfamiliar sounds in that
language.
A. separate B. differ C. distinguish D. solve
18. Mary is very _____ to criticism so be careful what you say.
A. sensitive B. sensible C. sensational D. emotional
19. She wondered _____ her father looked like now, after so many years away.
A. how B. which C. that D. what
20. The _____ of this new drug is not known yet, as it’s still in the trial process.
A. result B. consequence C. effect D. affect
21. The situation was a little embarrassing when Alice served roast beef for dinner. I wish I _____ her
that Greg was a vegetarian.
A. would tell B. had told C. better told D. told
22. - Tom: “Which is more important, luck or effort?”
- Mary: “Luck is _____ effort.”
A. on the same importance as B. of the same importance as
C. the same importance as D. as the same importance as

9. D 10. C 11. C 12. B 13. B

14. D 15. D 16. D 17. C 18. A
19. D 20. C 21. B 22. B
II. Use the word given in capitals at the end of each sentence to form a word that fits in the gap
in the same sentence.
23. When you take the FCE Speaking paper you will be given marks for your _____ and also on how
fluent you are. (ACCURATE)
24. Although our teacher is very strict in class, she is _____ than you would expect. (FRIEND)
25. He told her that he (had) _____ with her problem but couldn’t do anything to help.
(SYMPATHY)
26. He told her that he was _____ in love with her. (TRUE)
27. In order for the medicine to work _____ you must take the correct amount. (EFFECT)
28. It was really _____ of you to take that money without asking. (HONESTY)
29. My belt feels a bit tight after that huge lunch. I think I’ll have to _____ it a little. (LOOSE)
30. The recipe says you only need to add two _____ of salt. (SPOON)

23. accuracy 24. friendlier 25. sympathized

26. truly 27. effectively 28. dishonest
29. loosen 30. spoonfuls

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 An English test for gifted students - Grade 9, 2018-2019
III. Read the text below and look carefully at each line. If a line is correct, put a tick (√). If a
line has a word which should not be there, write the word. There are two examples, (0) and
(00).
HEALTH AND FITNESS
0. It is important in today’s society to keep as fit and healthy __√___
00. as possible. People who do work in offices have to be __do__
31. especially sure that they take over some forms of exercise ______
32. at least twice a week if they want to live for a long and ______
33. happy life. But what is it the best way to keep fit? It really ______
34. depends on your personality. If you are a competitive kind ______
35. of person, then you would have probably like to play ______
36. with some kind of sport. The kind of sport would, again, ______
37. depend on you. A sociable type would prefer to team sports, ______
38. whereas a ‘loner’ would be attracted to individual sports like ______
39. tennis, squash or badminton. For those who they do not want ______
40. to compete, there are many of alternatives to sport. Walking, ______
41. cycling and running are all the cheap and enjoyable forms of ______
42. exercise. There are also many gymnasiums and health clubs to ______
43. join up, which provide weight training facilities, and sometimes ______
44. offer a personal training to suit your individual needs. ______
SECTION III. READING COMPREHENSION
I.Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to complete each of the
numbered blanks.
NEW OPPORTUNITIES WITH AN OPEN UNIVERSITY DEGREE
Like any other university, the Open University can give you a degree. However, you don’t
have to (45)______ working to study. It can also open up a whole variety (46) ______ interests. If
you have (47) ______ studied before, you will enjoy the special, new pleasure of (48) ______ your
knowledge. You will make friends of (49) ______ kinds. You may also (50) ______ that your
qualification provides new career opportunities.
You don’t actually (51) ______ to the Open University for lectures, but study at home, using
television, radio and computer software. You can (52)_____ one class a month if you wish at an Open
University centre. Of course, there are exams to take, as in (53) ______ university. If you (54)
______ like to know more, all you have to do is complete the form below. It could be the start of a
wonderful new period in your life.
45. A. stop B. end C. break D. leave
46. A. from B. of C. in D. for
47. A. ever B. never C. often D. always
48. A. growing B. changing C. adding D. increasing
49. A. all B. each C. both D. every
50. A. suggest B. find C. wish D. want
51. A. join B. enter C. arrive D. go
52. A. give B. attend C. learn D. study
53. A. any B. some C. many D. most
54. A. did B. will C. would D. can

45. A 46. B 47. B 48. D 49. A

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 An English test for gifted students - Grade 9, 2018-2019
50. B 51. D 52. B 53. A 54. C

II. Fill in each of the numbered blank spaces in the following passage with only ONE suitable
word.
We were watching TV when we heard a lot of barking from our kitchen. We (55)______ went
to investigate and found our dog, Jasper, throwing a furry bundle round the room. The furry bundle
turned (56) ______ to be Flopsie, the pet rabbit belonging to the children who lived next door. We
had already (57) ______ in trouble with our neighbours, the Greenaways because of Jasper who had
always managed to make a hole in the fence and dig up half of their garden. Jasper had obviously
broken (58) ______ the rabbit’s hutch and killed it.
We knew that they were out for the day and that we (59) ______ to act quickly. I rushed
upstairs with Flopsie and gave it a soapy bath and cleaned all the mud off its fur. My wife dried and
brushed its coat so it looked as good as new. (60) ______ the coat was clear I climbed (61) ______
the fence and placed Flopsie lovingly in its hutch.
Ten minutes (62) ______ we heard the Greenaways’ car come in. All of a sudden, there was a
loud scream from the next-door garden. Naturally we could not help it and went to the garden (63)
______ a look of concern on our faces. Mrs. Greenaway stood white-faced by the fence with Flopsie
in her arm. “What’s the matter?” I asked, “Is (64) ______ wrong with Flopsie?” “Flopsie’s dead,” she
cried.

55. immediately 56. out 57. been

58. into 59. had 60. Seeing
61. over 62. later 63. with
64. something
III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions.

(1) The fact that most Americans live in urban areas does not mean that they reside in the
center of large cities. In fact, more Americans live in the suburbs of large metropolitan
areas than in the cities themselves.
The Bureau of Census regards any area with more than 2,500 people as an urban area,
(5) and does not consider boundaries of cities and suburbs. According to the Bureau, the
political boundaries are less significant than the social and economic relationships and the
transportation and communication systems that integrate a local. The term used by the
Bureau for an integrated metropolis is an MSA, which stands for Metropolitan Statistical
Area. In general, an MSA is any area that contains a city and its surrounding suburbs and
(10) has a total population of 50,000 or more. At the present time, the Bureau reports more than
280 MSAs, which together account for 75 percent of the U.S. population. In addition, the
Bureau recognizes eighteen megapolises, that is, continuous adjacent metropolitan areas.
One of the most obvious megapolises includes a chain of hundreds of cities and suburbs
across ten states on the East Coast from Massachusetts to Virginia, including Boston, New
(15) York, and Washington D.C. In the Eastern Corridor, as it is called, a population of 45
million inhabitants is concentrated – Another megapolis that is growing rapidly is the
California coast from San Francisco through Los Angeles to San Diego.

65. Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?
A. Metropolitan Statistical Areas B. Type of Population Census
C. The Bureau of Census D. Megapolises
66. Where do most Americans live?
A. In the center of cities. B. In the suburbs surrounding large cities
C. In rural areas D. In small towns
67. Which of the following is not considered important to defining an urban area?

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 An English test for gifted students - Grade 9, 2018-2019
A. Political boundaries B. Transportation networks
C. Social relationships D. Economic systems
68. According to the Bureau of Census. What is an MSA?
A. The center of a city with a population of 50,000 people to the boundaries of the surrounding
suburbs.
B. A city and its suburbs with a total population of at least 50,000 people.
C. The surrounding suburbs of a city with a total population of 50,000 people.
D. Any area with a total population of 50,000 people.
69. Where in the passage does the author suggest that three quarters of the U.S. population now
resides in MSAs?
A. Lines 4-5 B. Lines 8-9 C. Lines 11-12 D. Lines 15-17

65. B 66. B 67. A 68. B 69. C

IV. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions.
ETIQUETTE
Every code of etiquette has contained three elements: basic moral duties; practical rules which
promote efficiency; and artificial, optional graces such as formal compliments to women on their
beauty or superiors on their generosity and importance. In the first category are consideration for the
weak and respect for age. Among the ancient Egyptians the young always stood in the presence of
older people. Among the Mponguwe of Tanzania, the young men bow as they pass the huts of the
elders.
In England, until about a century ago, young children did not sit in their parents’ presence
without asking permission. Practical rules are helpful in such ordinary occurrences of social life as
making proper introductions at parties or other functions so that people can be brought to know each
other. Before the invention of the fork, etiquette directed that the fingers should be kept as clean as
possible; before the handkerchief came into common use, etiquette suggested that, after spitting, a
person should rub the spit inconspicuously under foot.
Extremely refined behaviour, however, cultivated as an art of gracious living, has been
characteristic only of societies with wealth and leisure, which admitted women as the social equals of
men. After the fall of Rome, the first European society to regulate behaviour in private life in
accordance with a complicated code of etiquette was 12th-century Provence, in France.
Provence had become wealthy. The lords had returned to their castles, and there the ideals of
chivalry grew up, which emphasised the virtue and gentleness of women and demanded that a knight
should profess a pure and dedicated love to a lady who would be his inspiration, and to whom he
would dedicate his valiant deeds, though he would never come physically close to her. This was the
introduction of the concept of romantic love, which was to influence literature for many hundreds of
years.
In Renaissance Italy too, in the 14th and 15th centuries, a wealthy and leisured society
developed an extremely complex code of manners, but the rules of behaviour of fashionable society
had little influence on the daily life of the lower classes. Indeed many of the rules, such as how to
enter a banquet room, or how to use a sword or handkerchief for ceremonial purposes, were irrelevant
to the way of life of the average working man, who spent most of his life outdoors or in his own poor
hut and most probably did not have a handkerchief, certainly not a sword, to his name.
Yet the essential basis of all good manners does not vary. Consideration for the old and weak
and the avoidance of harming or giving unnecessary offence to others is a feature of all societies
everywhere and at all levels from the highest to the lowest.
70. Three elements contained in every code of etiquette are _____.
A. practical rules, optional moral duties and formal compliments
B. formal compliments, basic moral duties and practical rules
C. optional moral duties, optional practical rules and artificial graces
D. rules, regulations and requirements

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 An English test for gifted students - Grade 9, 2018-2019
71. The custom of young men bowing to show respect when passing the dwellings of their elders was
cited as a characteristic of _____.
A. the ancient Egyptians B. parts of Tanzania
C. England, about a century ago D. all societies
72. The practical rules of etiquette, for example those governing table manners _____.
A. are the same all over the world
B. sometimes vary according to time and circumstance
C. became unnecessary with the invention of the knife and fork
D. are not liable to change
73. The word “admitted” in paragraph 3 can best be replaced by _____.
A. accepted B. contributed C. confessed D. agreed
74. Etiquette cultivated as an art of gracious living _____.
A. has been typical of rich and leisured societies
B. advocated that women are the same as men
C. began in nineteenth-century Provence
D. looks down on extremely refined behaviour
75. The ideals of chivalry demanded that _____.
A. a knight should never have physical relationships with women
B. a knight should inspire his lady to valiant deeds
C. a knight should dedicate his valiant deeds to a woman
D. romantic people should influence literature
76. The rules of etiquette in Renaissance Italy _____.
A. were chiefly concerned with the correct use of one’s sword or handkerchief
B. were practised by the majority of society
C. did not apply to a large section of society
D. were fairly simple to follow
77. The phrase “irrelevant to” in the passage 5 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. insulting to B. not applicable to C. hostile to D. related to
78. The average working man in 15th-century Italy _____.
A. spent all his life outdoors
B. spent his life in his own poor hut
C. had better social manners than workers today
D. was unlikely to have possessed a sword
79. Consideration for the old and weak and the avoidance of giving unnecessary offence to others are
_____.
A. the essential basis of all systems of good manners
B. not a universal feature of etiquette
C. taught to the lower classes by the upper classes
D. often neglected by polite society

70. B 71. B 72. B 73. A 74. A

75. C 76. C 77. B 78. D 79. A

SECTION IV. WRITING

I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the
word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between TWO and FIVE words,
including the word given.
80. I still find it strange to wear glasses. USED
I still haven’t __got/ been used to wearing glasses_____
81. He never asks when he borrows my things! ALWAYS
He __is always borrowing my things_______ without asking!
82. If you work harder now, you won’t have to do so much. LESS
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 An English test for gifted students - Grade 9, 2018-2019
The harder _you work now, the less_____ you have to do later.
83. They say that the computer is an important part in modern life. ROLE
The computer is said to _play/be playing an important role__ in modern life.
84. Helen is not usually so pessimistic. LIKE
It is _not like/unlike Helen to be_____ so pessimistic.
85. His last letter to me was written three years ago. HEARD
It is three years __since I last heard______ about him.
86. I saw the film although I strongly dislike thrillers. SPITE
I saw the film __in spite of my strong__ dislike of thrillers.
87. I don’t mind if you leave now. OBJECTION
I have _no objection to your leaving___ now.
no objection if you leave
88. Amanda has improved a lot this term. PROGRESS
Amanda _has made much/ good/great progress__ this term.

II. Write an essay on the following topic. (89 - 100)

“Many parts of the world are losing important natural resources, such as forests,
animals, or clean water”.
Choose one resource that is disappearing and explain why it needs to be saved.
Use specific reasons and examples to support your opinion.

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 An English test for gifted students - Grade 9, 2018-2019
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Total mark: 100:5 = 20

The end

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 An English test for gifted students - Grade 9, 2018-2019
Content: accounts for 50% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 50% for the content, the
candidate should provide all main ideas and details as appropriate.

Language: accounts for 30% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 30 % for language, the
candidate should use variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language
gifted upper-secondary school students.

Presentation: accounts for 20% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 20% for presentation,
the candidate should write with coherence, cohesion and can use appropriate style and linking devices
appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.
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01. D 02. A 03. A 04. A 05. B

06. A 07. C 08. C 09. D 10. D