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Quiz Anatomy Part 3 of 3 PDF
Quiz Anatomy Part 3 of 3 PDF
d) CN VII
e) CN VIII
8) A “brain freeze” is a phenomenon that some people experience after consuming cold
beverages. As the cold beverage hits the roof of the mouth, the vasculature contracts to
conserve heat. As the arteries return to size (vasodilate) the nerves in this region sense
pain and transmit the sensation to the associated ganglia. This pain is referred pain to the
forehead, below the orbits, and some other surrounding regions. Which cranial nerve is
associated with this phenomenon?
a) CN VII
b) CN IX
c) CN V
d) CN XII
e) CN X
9) What cranial nerve innervates the palatoglossal muscle of the tongue?
a) CN V
b) CN VII
c) CN IX
d) CN X
e) CN XII
10) What cranial nerve provides parasympathetic innervation to the sublingual salivary
gland?
a) Oculomotor
b) Facial
c) Glossopharyngeal
d) Vagus
e) Hypoglossal
11) A patient presents with unilateral arm drive, unilateral facial droop, and mumbled
words. The physician asks a nurse to go into the break room for vanilla extract,
peppermint, or coffee grounds. What nerve does this physician plan to test?
a) CN VIII
b) CN VII
c) CN V
d) CN II
e) CN I
12) What cranial nerve provides parasympathetic innervation to the lacrimal gland?
a) CN XII
b) CN X
c) CN IX
d) CN VII
e) CN III
13) Where are the neurons situated that provide GSE innervation to the pharynx and
larynx muscles?
a) Brainstem
b) Superior ganglion of the vagus
c) Inferior ganglion of the vagus
d) Trigeminal ganglion
e) Jugular ganglion
14) What cranial nerve provides general sensory innervation to the anterior 2/3s of the
tongue?
a) V
b) VII
c) IX
d) X
e) XII
15) Suicide disease is a historical name for a cranial nerve neuralgia that causes episodes
of intense pain in the eyes, lips, nose, scalp, forehead, and jaw. Prior to effective
treatments for this neuralgia, a significant percentage of people took their own lives.
What cranial nerve is associated with suicide disease?
a) Optic
b) Trigeminal
c) Facial
d) Glossopharyngeal
e) Vagus
16) You are testing a patient’s corneal reflex by gently touching each cornea with a
cotton wisp and observing any asymmetries in the blink response. This tests the sensory
portion of which nerve:
a) CN II
b) CN IV
c) CN V
d) CN VI
e) CN VII
17) Corneal reflex testing tests the motor portion of which nerve:
a) CN III
b) CN IV
c) CN V
d) CN VI
e) CN VII
18) What cranial nerve has sensory components (proprioceptive) that do NOT go to a
ganglion but relay information directly to the brainstem?
a) CN I
b) CN II
c) CN V
d) CN VII
e) CN X
19) What cranial nerve innervates muscles of facial expression?
a) CN VII
b) CN V
c) CN IX
d) CN III
e) CN XII
20) A patient presents post-surgery for an examination. The clinician asks the patient to
turn their head away as the clinician resists the motion. The clinician then palpates the
prominent neck muscle, doing the same test on the other side and noting any deficits.
What cranial nerve is the clinician testing?
a) CN XII
b) CN XI
c) CN IX
d) CN VII
e) CN V
21) The facial cranial nerve has all of the following ganglion EXCEPT:
a) Geniculate
b) Submandibular
c) Ptergopalatine
d) Chorda tympani
22) Taste sensation from the posterior 1/3 of the tongue goes to what ganglion?
a) Otic
b) Trigeminal
c) Geniculate
d) Superior glossopharyngeal
e) Inferior glossopharyngeal
23) You are checking on a patient with metastatic squamous cell cancer of the head and
neck. While testing their cranial nerves, you notice their left eye is deviating inward
(esotropic). The patient complains of double vision that gets worse as they gaze to the left
(horizontal diplopia). The image below shows the patient trying to look to the left.
a) Olfactory
b) Auditory
c) Glossopharyngeal
d) Vagus
e) Hypoglossal
26) Sensory information from the dura mater of the posterior cranial fossa is associated
with what cranial nerve?
a) Olfactory
b) Auditory
c) Glossopharyngeal
d) Vagus
e) Hypoglossal
27) A patient is being shown a set of colored slides. What cranial nerve allows them to
see the different colors?
a) CN II
b) CN III
c) CN IV
d) CN VI
e) CN VII
28) Which of the following cranial nerves is necessary for depression of the eyeball?
a) CN III
b) CN IV
c) CN VI
d) CN V
e) None of the above
29) A patient presents after having a stroke. You ask them to open their mouth and say
“Ahh.” You notice that their uvula is deviated to their right side. The left side of their
palate is at a lower level than the right side. Which nerve do you suspect is injured?
a) Left CN X
b) Right CN X
c) Left CN IX
d) Right CN IX
e) CN VII
30) Which of the following cranial nerves is necessary for elevation of the eyeball?
a) CN III
b) CN IV
c) CN VI
d) CN V
e) None of the above
31) Which of the following is NOT a function of CN III?
a) Elevation of eyes
b) Constriction of pupil
c) Adduction of eyes
d) Dilatation of pupil
e) Changing the shape of the lens
b) CN IX only
c) CN IX, CN X
d) CN V, CN IX
e) CN V, CN IX, CN XI
40) Which of the following cranial nerves does NOT carry motor fibers to skeletal
muscle?
a) Optic
b) Facial
c) Hypoglossal
d) Vagus
e) Mandibular branch of trigeminal
41) The facial nerve contains all of the following types of fibers EXCEPT:
a) Motor
b) Parasympathetic preganglionic
c) Special sensory from taste buds
d) General sensory from the facial skin
e) General sensory from the mucous membranes
42) Parasympathetic fibers contained in the facial nerve are responsible for innervating
all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Lacrimal gland
b) Nasal and oral mucous glands
c) Submandibular salivary gland
d) Sublingual salivary gland
e) Parotid salivary gland
43) The glossopharyngeal nerve innervates:
a) Taste buds in the posterior third of the tongue
b) General sensory receptors in the posterior third of the tongue
c) Stylopharyngeus muscle
d) Baroreceptors in the carotid sinus
e) All of the above
44) You ask a patient to stick out their tongue. Upon doing so, you notice their tongue
deviates to the right side and has wasting (atrophy) of the right half. Which of the
following nerves would you expect NOT to be fully functional?
a) Left hypoglossal
b) Right hypoglossal
c) Left glossopharyngeal
d) Right glossopharyngeal
e) Vagus
c) Thyrohyoid ligament
d) Thyroid cartilage
e) Tracheal rings
2) A medical examiner is performing an autopsy and finds a fractured hyoid bone. What
is this finding a strong indicator of?
a) Drowning
b) Hangman’s fracture
c) Strangulation
d) Cervical spondylolisthesis
e) CPR being performed
3) The thyroid cartilage projects back to what cervical vertebral level(s)?
a) C3
b) C4
c) C3-C4
d) C5
e) C4-C5
4) The hyoid bone projects back to what cervical vertebral level(s)?
a) C3-C4
b) C4-C5
c) C5-C6
d) C2
e) C6
5) The cricoid cartilage projects back to what cervical vertebral level(s)?
a) C3-C4
b) C4-C5
c) C5-C6
d) C2
e) C6
6) What fascial layer of the neck contains lymph nodes and the platysma muscle?
a) Superficial cervical fascia
b) Deep investing fascia
c) Deep infrahyoid fascia
d) Deep cervical fascia
e) Deep prevertebral fascia
7) What fascial layer completely surrounds the neck and spans from the superior to
inferior border of the neck?
a) Superficial cervical fascia
b) Deep investing fascia
c) Deep infrahyoid fascia
d) Deep cervical fascia
e) Deep prevertebral fascia
8) What fascial layer attaches to the base of the skull and encloses the deep muscles?
a) Superficial cervical fascia
b) Deep investing fascia
c) Deep infrahyoid fascia
d) Deep cervical fascia
b) The sternum
c) The scapular spines
d) The pericardium
e) The diaphragm
16) What space is located posterior to the retropharyngeal visceral space, which is
bounded anteriorly by buccopharyngeal fascia?
a) Masticatory space
b) Pretracheal space
c) Danger space
d) Suprasternal space
e) Visceral space
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6) What two veins come together to form the external jugular vein?
a) Communicating vein and common facial vein
b) Common facial vein and facial vein
c) Facial vein and posterior auricular vein
d) Posterior auricular vein and retromandibular vein
e) Anterior jugular vein and communicating vein
7) A patient is being seen by a cardiologist to measure their right atrial pressure to
determine the effectiveness of a cardiac pacemaker during vagal stimulation. The patient
has carotid disease on their left side. Which vessel on the right side would be the best
option for catheterization to measure pressure?
a) Common carotid
b) Internal carotid
c) External carotid
d) Internal jugular
e) External jugular
8) What vein fuses with the facial vein to form the common facial vein?
a) Posterior auricular vein
b) Communicating vein
c) Retromandibular vein
d) Anterior jugular vein
e) Internal jugular vein
9) A male patient presents to the Emergency Department with a great deal of bleeding on
the lateral aspect of their neck after accidentally cutting themselves while shaving. What
vein was likely damaged and what pressure-related complication should considered?
a) External jugular; Air embolism
b) Internal jugular; Air embolism
c) External jugular; Pulmonary clot embolism
d) Internal jugular; Pulmonary clot embolism
e) External jugular; Pneumothorax
10) All of the following dermatome areas (nerves) meet at the nerve point of the neck
directly behind the sternocleidomastoid EXCEPT:
a) Greater auricular (C2-3)
b) Dorsal rami (C3-5)
c) Transverse cutaneuous (C2-3)
d) Lesser occipital (C2)
e) Supraclavicular (C3-4)
11) An anesthesiologist is prepping a patient for a superficial cervical plexus nerve block
for a carotid endarterectomy. Where should the physician inject the anesthesia?
a) Anterior to the sternocleidomastoid at the midpoint of the muscle
b) Anterior to the sternocleidomastoid at the lower border of the muscle
c) Anterior to the sternocleidomastoid at the upper border of the muscle
d) Posterior to the sternocleidomastoid at the midpoint of the muscle
e) Posterior to the sternocleidomastoid at the lower border of the muscle
12) What muscles do the trunks of the brachial plexus pass between?
a) Sternocleidomastoid and anterior scalene
b) Anterior scalene and middle scalene
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c) Accessory phrenic
d) Suprascauplar
e) Long thoracic
11) What muscle does the dorsal scapular nerve pierce through in the posterior triangle?
a) Sternocleidomastoid
b) Anterior scalene
c) Middle scalene
d) Posterior scalene
e) Trapezius
12) A volleyball player presents with difficulty moving her rotator cuff. She said the
problem was getting worse with each serve and eventually she stopped playing
completely. It has been over a month since she has last played. Upon examination, the
posterior scapular muscles show signs of wasting on the affected side. What nerve is
likely damaged?
a) Long thoracic
b) Median
c) Axillary
d) Suprascapular
e) Dorsal scapular
13) All of the following muscles elevate the hyoid bone EXCEPT:
a) Digastric
b) Sternohyoid
c) Stylohyoid
d) Mylohyoid
e) Geniohyoid
14) Which of the following muscles has the same function as the omohyoid muscle?
a) Stylohyoid
b) Plastisma
c) Digastric
d) Scalenus anterior
e) Thyrohyoid
15) The thyroid is an ____ shaped gland sitting on the front of the ____.
a) O; Trachea
b) H; Trachea
c) L; Trachea
d) O; Esophagus
e) H; Esophagus
16) The thyroid gland is supplied by ____ arteries and ____ veins.
a) 2; 2
b) 2; 3
c) 2; 4
d) 3; 2
e) 4; 2
17) What variable artery runs superiorly off the internal carotid artery to the thyroid?
a) Superior thyroid artery
b) Inferior thyroid artery
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d) C5
24) In the neck, what is the arterial supply to the esophagus?
a) Aortic esophageal branches
b) Superior thyroid artery
c) Deep cervical artery
d) Occipital artery
e) Inferior thyroid artery
25) During a tracheostomy procedure, the patient begins to bleed from the neck. The
blood is deep blue in color and flows constantly. What vessel was likely severed?
a) Superior thyroid artery
b) Superior thyroid vein
c) Inferior thyroid artery
d) Inferior thyroid vein
e) Thyroid ima
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c) Dorsal lingual
d) Ascending palatine
e) Tonsillar
6) Which of the following is NOT a branch of the facial artery?
a) Tonsillar
b) Sublingual
c) Glandular
d) Muscular
e) Submental
7) What branch of the occipital artery provides an anastamoses with the cervical artery as
well as the vertebral artery?
a) Meningeal
b) Auricular
c) Descending
d) Mastoid
e) Muscular
8) What nerve runs over the top of the occipital artery?
a) Trigeminal
b) Facial
c) Glossopharyngeal
d) Vagus
e) Hypoglossal
9) The carotid sinus (baroreceptor) is a dilation at the ____ end of the internal carotid
where the tunica intima is ____ and adventitia is ____. The tunica adventitia includes
nerve endings (mainly CN IX).
a) Lower; Thinner; Thicker
b) Upper; Thinner; Thicker
c) Lower; Thicker; Thinner
d) Upper; Thicker; Thinner
e) Lower; Thinner; Thinner
10) The carotid body (chemoreceptor) is located at the ____ and is innervated by CN IX,
CN X, and pre-ganglionic sympathetics.
a) Carotid sinus
b) Carotid crotch (bifurcation)
c) Mid-common carotid
d) Mid-internal carotid
e) Mid-external carotid
11) A patient presents with a knife wound to the neck. The subclavian artery has been
severed proximal to the thyrocervical trunk. The patient feels tingling in his arm, but
there is still adequate perfusion for the limb to survive. What vessel is providing
collateral circulation to the upper limb?
a) Occipital branch of posterior auricular artery
b) Auricular branch of occipital artery
c) Descending branch of occipital artery
d) Superior thyroid artery from non-damaged side
e) Facial artery from non-damaged side
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12) A patient presents with an industrial machine injury to the neck and face. A piece of
hot metal shrapnel has penetrated the patient’s neck, severed the right external carotid
artery proximal to the bifurcation, and seared the vessel shut. Which of the following is
the most likely anastamose for the right side of the head?
a) Occipital branch of posterior auricular artery
b) Auricular branch of occipital artery
c) Descending branch of occipital artery
d) Superior thyroid artery from non-damaged side
e) Facial artery from non-damaged side
13) A patient is undergoing a carotid endarterectomy (CEA) to relieve atherosclerotic
obstruction. Although all of the following cranial nerves could possibly be damaged
during the procedure, which one is the most likely to be damaged?
a) CN X
b) CN XII
c) CN IX
d) CN XI
14) You are viewing a left common carotid arteriograph (lateral view) for a patient with
possible arterial occlusion. You see a branch coming off of the external carotid taking a
tortuous, transverse path. What is it?
a) Lingual
b) Occipital
c) Ascending palatine
d) Facial
e) Superior thyroid
15) What vessel begins at the jugular foramen?
a) Brachicephalic vein
b) External jugular vein
c) Internal jugular vein
d) External carotid artery
e) Internal carotid artery
16) The internal jugular vein receives all of the following tributaries EXCEPT:
a) Inferior thyroid vein
b) Middle thyroid vein
c) Lingual vein
d) Pharangeal veins
e) Facial vein
17) After an internal jugular vein puncture procedure, the patient is having difficulty
tasting when they drink from a straw. They say they can taste normally when sipping
juice, but when they use a straw the taste is diminished. What nerve may have been
damaged during the procedure?
a) Trigeminal
b) Facial
c) Hypoglossal
d) Vagus
e) Ansa cervicalis
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18) What nerve innervates the cricothyroid muscle and is closely associated with the
superior thyroid artery?
a) Vagus
b) Internal laryngeal (from superior)
c) External laryngeal (from superior)
d) Inferior laryngeal
e) Recurrent laryangeal
19) What nerve provides sensory innervation to the larynx?
a) Vagus
b) Internal laryngeal (from superior)
c) External laryngeal (from superior)
d) Inferior laryngeal
e) Recurrent laryangeal
20) After an internal carotid artery puncture procedure, the patient is having difficulty
talking and cannot depress their hyoid bone. What nerve was likely damaged?
a) Trigeminal
b) Facial
c) Hypoglossal
d) Vagus
e) Ansa cervicalis
21) What nerve lies on top of the carotid sheath and passes into the mandibular region
towards the tongue?
a) Trigeminal
b) Facial
c) Hypoglossal
d) Vagus
e) Ansa cervicalis
22) The first cervical nerve “hitches a ride” with what cranial nerve before innervating
the thyrohyoid and geniohyoid muscles?
a) Trigeminal
b) Facial
c) Glossopharyngeal
d) Vagus
e) Hypoglossal
23) What lymph nodes running along the internal jugular vein would be enlarged with an
infection to the face, scalp, tongue, mouth, tonsils, or pharynx?
a) Deep cervical
b) Retropharyngeal
c) Submandibular
d) Tracheal
e) Parotid
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c) Body of C7
d) Manubrium
e) Sternum
2) Which of the following muscles is the most superficial?
a) Longus capitus
b) Longus colli
c) Rectus capitus anterior
d) Rectus capitus lateralis
e) Splenius capitis
3) Which of the following muscles can rotate the vertebra to the same side with its
superior fibers and the opposite side with its inferior fibers?
a) Rotatores
b) Rectus capitus lateralis
c) Rectus capitus anterior
d) Longus colli
e) Longus capitus
4) What veins do the inferior thyroid veins drain into?
a) Brachiocephalic
b) Subclavian
c) Axillary
d) Internal jugular
e) External jugular
5) Which of the following is NOT true regarding a subclavian venipuncture?
a) The suprapleural fascia is very close to the puncture site
b) Subclavian arteriopuncture is not a direct risk
c) The vein runs over the first rib
d) The vein runs under the clavicle
e) The insertion site is just below the clavical
6) The three parts of the subclavian artery are named based on their anatomical relation to
what muscle?
a) Sternocleidomastoid
b) Anterior scalene
c) Middle scalene
d) Posterior scalene
e) Levator scapulae
7) The internal thoracic artery and thyrocervical trunk are branches off of the:
a) Aorta
b) First part of subclavian artery
c) Second part of subclavian artery
d) Third part of subclavian artery
e) Axillary artery
8) What artery runs backwards behind the anterior scalene over the dome of the pleura?
a) Descending scapular artery
b) Vertebral artery
c) Costocervical trunk
d) Deep cervical artery
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e) Suprascapular artery
9) Preglanglionic sympathetic fibers destined for viscera in the head arise from:
a) C1-C4
b) C4-C7
c) T1-T4
d) T4-T7
e) T1-L2
10) All sympathetic fibers going to the head are ____ and synapse in the ____.
a) Postganglionic; Cervical sympathetic chain
b) Postganglionic; IML
c) Preganglionic; Cervical sympathetic chain
d) Preganglionic; IML
11) Which of the following cervical sympathetic chain levels is NOT correct?
a) Superior cervical C1-C4
b) Middle cervical C4
c) Inferior cervical C7-C8
d) Stellate C8-T1
12) The small deep petrosal nerve (caroticotympanic) has sympathetic nerve branches
coming from around what vessel?
a) Common carotid artery
b) Internal carotid artery
c) External carotid artery
d) Internal jugular vein
e) External jugular vein
13) The pterygopalatine ganglion (PPG) is an autonomic motor ganglia associated with
what cranial nerve?
a) Trigeminal
b) Facial
c) Glossopharyngeal
d) Vagus
e) Hypoglossal
14) A pancoast tumor could interrupt the thoracic chain at the inlet, leading to Horner’s
syndrome. All of the following are signs of a disruptions of the cervical sympathetic
trunk EXCEPT:
a) Constricted pupil (miosis)
b) Drooping eyelid (ptosis)
c) Increased vagus nerve activity
d) Red/flushed face
e) No sweating of the face (anhydrosis)
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d) Nasal
e) Vomer
2) What is the name of the craniometric point formed by the left and right parietal bones
with the occipital bone?
a) Pterion
b) Nasation
c) Glabella
d) Bregma
e) Lambda
3) What is the name of the suture formed by the parietal bone and temporal bone?
a) Coronal
b) Lambdoidal
c) Saggital
d) Squamosal
4) A patient arrives in the Emergency Department with trauma to the lateral side of their
head near the temple. The physician determines that the pterion has been damaged and
bleeding is taking place inside of the head. What artery is the most likely to have been
damaged in this area?
a) Superficial temporal artery
b) Middle meningeal artery
c) Inferior alveolar artery
d) Anterior deep temporal artery
e) Posterior deep temporal artery
5) Which part of the sphenoid bone can be seen in an anterior view of the skull through
the orbit?
a) Greater wing
b) Lesser wing
c) Body
d) Sphenoidal conchae
e) Vaginal process
6) How many bones articulate to form the orbit?
a) 3
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
e) 8
7) Which of the following foramen does NOT contain an artery, vein, and nerve with the
same name?
a) Mental foramen
b) Infraorbital foramen
c) Mandibular foramen
d) Zygomaticotemporal foramen
e) Posterior ethmoidal foramen
8) Which of the following contains the second branch of the trigeminal nerve?
a) Optical canal
b) Supraorbital foramen
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b) Venous blood
c) Lymph
d) Cerebral spinal fluid
e) Nervous tissue
16) Where does the falx cerebri attach anteriorly?
a) Crista galli
b) Sella turcica
c) Lesser wing of sphenoid
d) Greater wing of sphenoid
e) Diploe
17) The dural venous sinus, between the two dural layers, drains all of the following
EXCEPT:
a) Diploe
b) Vertebral column
c) Face, orbit, nasal cavity
d) Meninges
e) Internal jugular vein
18) Most of the arachnoid granulations are located in the:
a) Tentorium cerebelli
b) Superior sagittal sinus
c) Sigmoid sinus
d) Intercavernous sinus
e) Basilar plexus
19) Which of the following is located at the posterior inferior border of the falx cerebri?
a) Internal jugular vein
b) Sphenoparietal sinus
c) Confluens of sinuses
d) Superior petrosal sinus
e) Inferior petrosal sinus
20) A patient presents with an infection that has traveled from his scalp into the dura.
What veins have communications that allow for this to happen?
a) Cerebral veins
b) Meningeal veins
c) Diploe veins
d) Emissary veins
e) Parietal veins
21) A patient presents with a traumatic head injury after a motor vehicle crash. The
attending physician is concerned about swelling and mentions the sharp tentorial notch
within the brain. What structure is at risk from being severed by this notch as the brain
swells?
a) Circle of Willis
b) Brain stem
c) Facial nerve
d) Trigeminal nerve
e) Optic nerve
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22) All of the following are within the cavernous sinus. Which of the following is NOT
in the outer wall of the cavernous sinus?
a) CN III
b) CN IV
c) CN V1
d) CN V2
e) CN VI
23) Thrombophlebitis of a facial vein within the “Danger Triangle of the Face” can travel
intracranially via the ____ to the cavernous sinus. This could lead to thrombophlebitis of
the cavernous sinus which is fatal in more than 1/3 of cases.
a) Superior ophthalmic vein
b) Superior ophthalmic artery
c) Anterior ethmoidal vein
d) Anterior ethmoidal artery
e) Nasolacrimal vein
24) All of the supratentorial dura is supplied by:
a) Anterior meningeal arteries
b) Middle meningeal arteries
c) Accessory meningeal arteries
d) Posterior meningeal arteries
25) Because of the shape of the dura, ____ hematomas are crescent-shaped, usually
venous, and have a center of radius on the ____ side of the skull.
a) Epidural; Contralateral
b) Epidural; Ipsilateral
c) Subdural; Contralateral
d) Subdural; Ipsilateral
26) An infant presents in the Emergency Department with a babysitter who says the child
“isn’t crying or moving much anymore.” The child appears very listless and doesn’t track
objects well. Radiographic imaging shows a subdural hemotoma, which can occur with
shaken baby syndrome. What vessels were likely damaged to cause this problem?
a) Middle meningeal arteries
b) Middle meningeal veins
c) Cerebral arteries
d) Cerebral veins
e) Emissary veins
27) A patient presents in the Emergency Department (ED) with a headache. Records
show they were in the day before and received a spinal tap. Notation on the patient care
report does not show explanation of what to expect after they left the ED last night. You
explain to the patient that headaches can be expected and to get into the ____ position to
help relieve the pain.
a) Fowler position (sitting at 45 angle, semi-upright)
b) Trendelenburg position (lying with feet up)
c) Left lateral recumbent (recovery position)
d) Right lateral recumbent
e) Prone
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15) How many (paired) lymph nodes are there in the scalp?
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1
e) 0
16) Most of the motor innervation to the face (muscles of facial expression) arises from
branchial arch:
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 6
17) Which of the following muscles raises the eyebrows, as seen in disbelief or surprise?
a) Epicranius (occipitofrontalis)
b) Obicularis oris
c) Procerus
d) Zygomaticus major
e) Nasalis
18) Which of the following muscles puckers the lips, as in making a kissing face?
a) Epicranius (occipitofrontalis)
b) Obicularis oris
c) Procerus
d) Zygomaticus major
e) Nasalis
19) This variable muscle draws the corner of the mouth laterally when grinning, such as
during a weak or incencere smile that does not involve the skin around the eyes.
a) Mentalis
b) Frontalis
c) Risorius
d) Procerus
e) Nasalis
20) Which of the following is NOT a branch of the facial nerve?
a) Temporal
b) Zygomatic
c) Lingual
d) Mandibular
e) Cervical
21) At what point does the facial nerve bifurcate into its two major branches?
a) Temporal region
b) Superior to the parotid gland
c) In the parotid gland
d) Anterior to the parotid gland
e) Buccal region
22) What component of the facial nerve is motor to the muscles of facial expression?
a) SVA
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b) GVE
c) SVE
d) GSA
e) GVA
23) Which of the following would NOT occur with a CN VII lesion (Bell Palsy)?
a) Eyelid droop and inability to close eyelid
b) Atrophy of facial expression muscles
c) Food falls out of mouth due to orbicularis oris muscle
d) Chewing is inefficient due to buccinator muscle
e) Sounds may appear quieter due to stapedius muscle
24) Which of the following is the largest structure running transversely across the face?
a) Transverse facial artery
b) Transverse facial vein
c) Facial artery
d) Facial vein
e) Parotid duct
25) Which of the following is the least likely to be damaged during a paratoidectomy?
a) Facial artery and vein
b) Transverse facial artery and vein
c) CN VII
d) Retromandibular vein
e) External carotid artery
26) Parasympathetic innervation (GVE-P) to the parotid gland comes from:
a) CN V
b) CN VII
c) CN IX
d) CN X
e) CN XII
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a) Temporalis
b) Lateral pterygoid
c) Medial pterygoid
d) Masseter
e) Buccinator
5) The deep arteries that supply the temporalis muscle are branches from what artery?
a) Facial
b) Maxillary
c) Temporal
d) Lingual
e) Mandibular
6) What muscle is involved in protrusion of the mandible as well as side-to-side motion?
a) Temporalis
b) Pterygoids
c) Stylomandibular
d) Masseter
e) Buccinator
7) All of the following are involved in depression of the mandible EXCEPT:
a) Gravity
b) Digastric muscle
c) Geniohyoid muscle
d) Mylohyoid muscle
e) Lateral and medial pterygoid muscles
8) All of the following are at the roof of the infratemporal fossa EXCEPT:
a) Petrotympanic fissure
b) Greater wing of the sphenoid
c) Foramen rotundum
d) Foramen ovale
e) Foramen spinosum
9) The infratemporal fossa contains all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Chorda tympani (CN VII)
b) Mandibular nerve (V3)
c) Mandibular artery and its branches
d) Pterygoid venous plexus
e) Lesser petrosal nerve (CN IX)
10) The lower head of the lateral pterygoid muscle is ____ to the deep head of the medial
pterygoid muscle and ____ to the superficial head of the medial pterygoid muscle.
a) Deep; Deep
b) Deep; Superficial
c) Superficial; Superficial
d) Superficial; Deep
11) All of the following are branches off the first part of the maxillary artery EXCEPT:
a) Buccal artery
b) Middle meningeal artery
c) Inferior alveolar artery
d) Deep auricular artery
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a) Anterior 1/3
b) Anterior 2/3
c) Posterior 1/3
d) Posterior 2/3
e) Entire tongue
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7) A patient is having their palatine tonsils surgically removed. During the procedure the
patient begins to bleed profusely. The bleeding is rhythmic and bright red in color. What
vessel should the surgeon put pressure on to slow the bleeding?
a) Facial vein
b) Facial artery
c) Maxillary vein
d) Maxillary artery
e) Tonsillar vein
8) Waldeyer’s ring is a ring of ____ in the area of the ____.
a) Lymphatic tissue; Vertebral column (C1-C4)
b) Arteries; Oropharynx and laryngopharynx
c) Lymphatic tissue; Oropharynx and laryngopharynx
d) Arteries; Nasopharynx and oropharynx
e) Lymphatic tissue; Nasopharynx and oropharynx
9) During endotracheal intubation, an anesthesiologist uses a MacIntosh (curved) blade
on a laryngoscope to hold open and visualize the airway. The tip of the blade should
extend into the recess anterior to the laryngeal opening. What is this recess called?
a) Median glossoepiglotic fold
b) Lateral glossoepiglotic fold
c) Piriform recess
d) Epiglottis
e) Valleculae
10) A patient presents with severe pain in their neck. They say they were eating fish from
a recent fishing trip and felt as if a piece of bone got stuck on the way down. They are
able to breath, but with pain. The patient tries to drink fluid, but cannot keep it down and
starts to cough violently. Which of the following is the most likely obstructed area?
a) Median glossoepiglotic fold
b) Lateral glossoepiglotic fold
c) Piriform recess
d) Valleculae
e) Inside the trachea
11) The stylopharyngeus, stylohyoid ligament, and CN XI connect at the larynx:
a) Superior to the superior constrictor muscle
b) Between the superior and middle constrictor muscles
c) Between the middle and inferior constrictor muscles
d) Between the inferior constrictor muscle and the trachea
e) Inferior to the trachea
12) The internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve and the superior laryngeal artery
traverse the larynx:
a) Superior to the superior constrictor muscle
b) Between the superior and middle constrictor muscles
c) Between the middle and inferior constrictor muscles
d) Between the inferior constrictor muscle and the trachea
e) Inferior to the trachea
13) The recurrent laryngeal nerve and inferior laryngeal artery traverse the larynx:
a) Superior to the superior constrictor muscle
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a) Conus elasticus
b) Superior cricothyroid ligament
c) Inferior cricothyroid ligament
d) Aryepiglottic fold
e) Quadrangular membrane
5) What holds the epiglottis to the tongue?
a) Vocal ligament
b) Quadrangular membrane
c) Median glossoepiglotic fold
d) Rima vestibuli
e) Rima glottis
6) A laryngocele is a mucus-filled cysts that can arise from pathological blockage of the
larynx ventricle. Infection in this area can ascend the larynx and enter the surrounding
fascial space. Once in this space, how far can the infection descend inferiorly?
a) Sternum
b) Vertebral level C6
c) Diaphragm
d) Superior mediastinum
e) It cannot descend
7) What nerve innervates the infraglottic laryngeal mucosa?
a) External branch of the superior laryngeal nerve
b) Internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve
c) Recurrent laryngeal nerve
d) Inferior laryngeal nerve
e) Hypoglossal nerve
8) Where does lymph drainage from the supraglottic laryngeal mucosa go?
a) Upper deep cervical nodes
b) Lower deep cervical nodes
c) Upper superficial cervical nodes
d) Lower superficial cervical nodes
e) Facial nodes
9) What nerve innervates the cricothyroid muscle?
a) External branch of the superior laryngeal nerve
b) Internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve
c) Recurrent laryngeal nerve
d) Inferior laryngeal nerve
e) Hypoglossal nerve
10) Contraction of which of the following muscles would give your voice a high pitch?
a) Transverse arytenoid
b) Oblique arytenoid
c) Cricoarytenoid
d) Cricothyroid
e) Thyroarytenoid
11) The lateral arytenoids close the rima glottis when they contract.
a) True
b) False
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d) Glossopharyngeal nerve
e) Hypoglossal nerve
8) What nerve innervates the glands of the posterior 2/3s of the hard palate?
a) Nasopalatine nerve
b) Greater palatine nerve
c) Lesser palatine nerve
d) Glossopharyngeal nerve
e) Hypoglossal nerve
9) What type of fibers are carried by the petrosal nerves?
a) Preganglionic sympathetics
b) Postganglionic sympathetics
c) Preganglionic parasympathetics
d) Postganglionic parasympathetics
10) What artery gives a branch to the incisive canal for the nasal cavity?
a) Greater palatine branch of the descending palatine artery
b) Lesser palatine branch of the descending palatine artery
c) Palatine branch of the ascending palatine artery
d) Ascending palatine artery branches
e) Ascending pharyngeal artery
11) What artery loops over the top of the superior constrictor muscle?
a) Greater palatine branch of the descending palatine artery
b) Lesser palatine branch of the descending palatine artery
c) Palatine branch of the ascending palatine artery
d) Ascending palatine artery branches
e) Ascending pharyngeal artery
12) What makes up the medial wall of the spenopalatine fossa ?
a) Maxilla bone
b) Sphenoid bone
c) Palatine bone
d) Infratemporal fossa
e) Molars
13) Which of the following is situated before the entrance to the nasal cavity?
a) Sphenopaltine fossa
b) Infratemporal fossa
c) Sphenopaltine foramen
d) Pterygomaxillary fissure
e) Mandibular foramen
14) Which of the following is NOT contained within the sphenopalatine fossa?
a) Maxillary nerve
b) Sympathetic fibers from T1
c) Pterygoid nerve branches
d) Parasympathetic fibers form trigeminal nerve
e) Pterygoid venous plexus branches
15) Which of the following communicates with the nasopharynx?
a) Foramen rotundum
b) Pterygoid canal
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c) Palatovaginal canal
d) Palatine canal
e) Pterygomaxillary fissure
16) Which of the following communicates with the nasal cavity?
a) Foramen rotundum
b) Inferior orbital fissure
c) Palatine canal
d) Sphenopalatine foramen
e) Pterygomaxillary fissure
17) Which of the following communicates with the infratemporal fossa?
a) Foramen rotundum
b) Inferior orbital fissure
c) Palatine canal
d) Sphenopalatine foramen
e) Pterygomaxillary fissure
18) Which of the following communicate with the middle cranial fossa?
a) Foramen rotundum and pterygoid canal
b) Pterygoid canal and palatovaginal canal
c) Palatovaginal canal and sphenopalatine foramen
d) Sphenopalatine foramen and Palatine canal
e) Palatine canal and pterygomaxillary fissure
19) Maxillary nerve (V2) fibers in the sphenopalatine fossa are:
a) Preganglionic sympathetics
b) Postganglionic sympathetics
c) Preganglionic parasympathetics
d) Postganglionic parasympathetics
20) Maxillary nerve (V2) fibers in the sphenopalatine fossa going to salivary glands of
the nasal cavity, oral cavity, pharynx, and lacrimal glands are:
a) Preganglionic sympathetics
b) Postganglionic sympathetics
c) Preganglionic parasympathetics
d) Postganglionic parasympathetics
21) What branch of the maxillary nerve (V2) supplies the mucosa after entering the
nasopharynx?
a) Nasal nerve
b) Pharyngeal nerve
c) Zygomatic nerve
d) Infraorbital nerve
e) Posterior superior alveolar nerve
22) What branch of the maxillary nerve (V2) supplies the posterior upper teeth?
a) Nasal nerve
b) Pharyngeal nerve
c) Zygomatic nerve
d) Infraorbital nerve
e) Posterior superior alveolar nerve
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23) A patient presents with extremely dry eyes. They have been using eye drops
constantly over the past day. Upon examination, the clinician believes damage has
occurred in the pterygoid canal and is concerned as the patient could eventually lose their
vision. What type of fibers are the most likely affected?
a) Preganglionic sympathetic
b) Postganglionic sympathetic
c) Preganglionic parasympathetic
d) Postganglionic parasympathetic
24) The deep petrosal nerve fibers are:
a) Preganglionic sympathetic
b) Postganglionic sympathetic
c) Preganglionic parasympathetic
d) Postganglionic parasympathetic
25) What artery supplies the upper teeth through its branches?
a) Posterior superior alveolar artery
b) Infraorbital artery
c) Descending palatine artery
d) Sphenopalatine artery
e) Pharyngeal branch of the maxillary artery
26) What artery anastomoses with the terminal branch of the greater palatine artery?
a) Posterior superior alveolar artery
b) Infraorbital artery
c) Descending palatine artery
d) Sphenopalatine artery
e) Artery of the pterygoid canal
27) What artery supplies the posterior part of the nasal cavity?
a) Pharyngeal branch of the maxillary artery
b) Artery of the pterygoid canal
c) Descending palatine artery
d) Sphenopalatine artery
e) Posterior superior alveolar artery
28) What artery supplies the medial and lateral walls of the nasal cavity?
a) Pharyngeal branch of the maxillary artery
b) Posterior superior alveolar artery
c) Artery of the pterygoid canal
d) Descending palatine artery
e) Sphenopalatine artery
29) What artery, along with the greater petrosal nerve, pierces the cartilage of the
foramen lacerum?
a) Pharyngeal branch of the maxillary artery
b) Posterior superior alveolar artery
c) Artery of the pterygoid canal
d) Descending palatine artery
e) Sphenopalatine artery
30) What structure do the veins of the sphenopalatine fossa associate with before entering
the pterygoid plexus?
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a) Infratemporal fossa
b) Orbits of the eye
c) Pterygomaxillary fissure
d) Nasal cavity
e) Hard palate
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a) Hypoglossus
b) Genioglossus
c) Styloglossus
d) Geniohyoid
e) Mylohyoid
8) What artery supplies the tip of the tongue and anastmoses the left and right sides?
a) Superior alveolar artery
b) Inferior alveolar artery
c) Sublingual artery
d) Dorsal lingual artery
e) Deep lingual artery
9) Sublingual drug administration is a good option for drugs with a displeasing taste, such
as nitroglycerine. It is also a good option for drugs with a high first-pass metabolism. The
idea is that drugs can bypass what metabolic organ?
a) Spleen
b) Kidneys
c) Liver
d) Gallbladder
e) Pancreas
10) Where does lymph from the tip of the tongue initially drain?
a) Superior deep cervical nodes
b) Inferior deep cervical nodes
c) Submental nodes
d) Buccal nodes
e) Parotid nodes
11) Where does lymph from the posterior 1/3 of the tongue drain?
a) Superior deep cervical nodes
b) Inferior deep cervical nodes
c) Submental nodes
d) Buccal nodes
e) Parotid nodes
12) What makes up the floor (deep) of both the submandibular and submental triangles?
a) Anterior belly of the digastric muscle
b) Posterior belly of the digastric muscle
c) Inferior margin of the mandible
d) Cervical (investing) fascia
e) Mylohyoid muscle
13) Which of the following is NOT contained in the paralingual space?
a) Lingual nerve
b) Stylohyoid muscle
c) Submandibular duct
d) Sublingual gland
e) Hypoglossal nerve
14) What structure crosses the submandibular duct twice?
a) Mylohyoid muscle
b) Omyhyoid muscle
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c) Lingual nerve
d) Facial artery
e) Inferior alveolar nerve
15) Which branch of the facial artery to the sublingual gland ascends between the
styloglossus muscle and the stylopharyngeus muscle (also arches over superior
constrictor muscle)?
a) Ascending palatine
b) Tonsillar
c) Submental
d) Glandular
16) Secretions of the submandibular gland are decreased by ____, which are associated
with the ____ ganglion.
a) Sympathetics; Submandibular
b) Parasympathetics; Submandibular
c) Sympathetics; Superior cervical
d) Parasympathetics; Superior cervical
17) What cartilage forms the tip of the nose?
a) Lateral cartilage
b) Greater alar cartilage
c) Lesser alar cartilage
d) Quadrangular cartilage
e) Vomernasal cartilage
18) What three components make up the nasal septum?
a) Ethmoid bone, internal part of the cartilaginous nasal septum, perpendicular
plate of the vomer bone
b) Ethmoid bone, external part of the cartilaginous nasal septum, perpendicular
plate of the vomer bone
c) Vomer bone, internal part of the cartilaginous nasal septum, perpendicular plate
of the ethmoid bone
d) Vomer bone, external part of the cartilaginous nasal septum, perpendicular
plate of the ethmoid bone
e) Choanae, hard palate, paranasal sinuses
19) The superior and middle nasal conchae are part of which bone?
a) Vomer bone
b) Maxillary bone
c) Frontal bone
d) Zygomatic bone
e) Ethmoid bone
20) Which of the following does NOT open into the semilunar hiatus?
a) Frontal sinus
b) Ethmoidal cells
c) Maxillary sinus
d) Sphenoid sinus
21) A patient is undergoing an operation on their pituitary gland. To access the gland, the
surgeon will enter through the nose, break through a sinus, and break through the sella
tursica. What sinus is being pierced prior to the sella tursica?
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a) Orbital sinus
b) Ethmoid air cells
c) Maxillary sinus
d) Sphenoid sinus
e) Frontal sinus
22) A physician numbs the back of a patient’s throat for a posterior rhinoscopy. Which of
the following structures is least likely to be seen during the procedure from the posterior
view?
a) Nares
b) Nasal conchae (inferior, middle, superior)
c) Pharyngeal tonsils
d) Tensor veli palatini
e) Levator veli palatini
23) Which of the following is NOT part of the Kiesselbach plexus (arterial plexus on the
nasal septum)?
a) Greater palatine artery
b) Lesser palatine artery
c) Anterior ethmoidal artery
d) Superior labial artery
e) Sphenopalatine artery
24) Blood from the internal nose area closest to the nares would drain to the:
a) Cavernous sinus
b) Pterygoid plexus
c) Facial vein
d) Lesser palatine vein
e) Infratemporal fossa
25) A patient presents with a nosebleed where blood flows down into their throat. Which
of the following is the most likely artery involved?
a) Greater palatine artery
b) Lesser palatine artery
c) Anterior ethmoidal artery
d) Superior labial artery
e) Sphenopalatine artery
26) What GVE-P nerve branch provides preganglionic parasympathetic innervation to the
nasal mucosal glands?
a) Chorda tympani
b) Lesser petrosal
c) Greater petrosal
d) Vagus
e) Oculomotor
27) Lymph from the posterior nasal cavity would initially travel to what area?
a) Facial nodes
b) Submandibular nodes
c) Submucosal plexus
d) Jugulodigastric nodes
e) Superior deep cervical nodes
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c) CN IV right side
d) CN VI left side
e) CN IV right side
15) A patient presents with right-sided ptosis secondary to a cavernous sinus infection.
Upon lifting their eyelid, you notice the right eye is deviated laterally and dilated. What
do you suspect the problem is?
a) CN III right side
b) CN IV left side
c) CN IV right side
d) CN VI left side
e) CN IV right side
16) Parasympathetic fibers associated with CN III (intrinsic eye muscles) involve what
ganglion?
a) Ciliary
b) Otic
c) Ptergyopalatine
d) Submandibular
e) Sphenopalatine
17) The main sensory nerves within the orbit are from the ophthalmic branch of the
trigeminal nerve. Which of the following is NOT a sensory nerve in the orbit?
a) Nasociliary
b) Frontal
c) Lacrimal
d) Optic
e) CN III
18) A patient presents with difficulty seeing colors after a traumatic head injury. You
shine a light in the patient’s right eye and neither pupil constricts. You shine a light in the
left eye and both pupils constrict. What do you suspect the problem is?
a) CN II right side
b) CN II left side
c) CN III right side
d) CN III left side
e) Horner syndrome
19) A patient presents after a stroke for a neurological examination. You shine a light in
the patient’s right eye and the left eye constricts. You shine a light in the left eye and it
constricts but the right eye does not. What do you suspect the problem is?
a) CN II right side
b) CN II left side
c) CN III right side
d) CN III left side
e) Horner syndrome
20) What coat of the eye contains the sclera and cornea, where a contact lens would
touch?
a) Fibrous
b) Vascular
c) Nervous
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21) What is the likely result of blockage of the sclera venous sinus (aqueous humor
drainage)?
a) Cataract
b) Myopia
c) Nystagmus
d) Glaucoma
e) Papilledema
22) Creating a more disc-shaped (flattened) lens requires ____ of the zonular fibers and is
used to accommodate for ____ objects.
a) Tension; Near
b) Tension; Distant
c) Laxity; Near
d) Laxity; Distant
23) Which of the following is NOT associated with improved vision?
a) Macula lutea
b) Fovea centralis
c) Optic (nerve) disc
d) Increased number of cones
e) Increased number of photoreceptors
24) A patient presents with an occlusion of the central retinal vein. When looking into
their eye with an opthalmoscope, you see a donut-shaped mound around the fovea
centralis. What condition does this patient likely have?
a) Cataract
b) Myopia
c) Nystagmus
d) Glaucoma
e) Papilledema
25) What condition involves clouding of the lens?
a) Cataract
b) Myopia
c) Nystagmus
d) Glaucoma
e) Papilledema
26) Which of the following describes the accommodation reflex (near triad)?
a) Accommodation of the lens, divergence of the eyes, constriction of the pupil
b) Accommodation of the lens, divergence of the eyes, dilation of the pupil
c) Accommodation of the lens, convergence of the eyes, constriction of the pupil
d) Accommodation of the lens, convergence of the eyes, dilation of the pupil
27) A patient presents with ptosis of the right eye. Upon lifting the eyelid, you note that
the eye is constricted. What do you suspect the problem is?
a) CN II right side
b) CN II left side
c) CN III right side
d) CN III left side
e) Horner syndrome
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b) Incus
c) Stapes
8) What bone is NOT crossed by the chorda tympani nerve?
a) Malleus
b) Incus
c) Stapes
9) Originating near the area of the umbo on the tympanic membrane, the cone of light
seen through an otoscope will point anteriorly and:
a) Superiorly
b) Inferiorly
c) Laterally
d) Medially
10) Most of the external surface of the tympanic membrane is innervated by ____ and the
internal surface is innervated by ____.
a) CN V3; CN V3
b) CN IX; CN X
c) CN X; CN IX
d) CN IX; CN V3
e) CN V3; CN IX
11) The pyramidal eminence is:
a) The entryway to the mastoid process
b) Where the stapedius muscle sits
c) Where the malleus sits
d) Where the incus sits
e) Where the stapes sits
12) A child presents with a middle ear infection (otitis media) with inflamed auditory
tube. The infection just entered the aditus ad antrum. Where can the infection progress
into next?
a) Jugular foramen
b) Tympanic nerve foramen
c) Carotid canal
d) Mastoid cells
e) Stylomastoid foramen
13) What wall of the middle ear is pierced by chorda tympani and has openings for the
auditory tube and tensory tympani muscle?
a) Anterior
b) Posterior
c) Lateral
d) Medial
14) Which of the following is NOT true regarding the pharyngotympanic tube?
a) The tube connects the tympanic cavity and the nasopharynx
b) Innervation is by the tympanic plexus
c) Innervation is by pharyngeal branches from the PPG
d) The tube courses in an anteromedial direction
e) The bony parts starts from the posterior tympanic wall and is medial to the
carotid canal
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15) A SCUBA diver is descending from the surface to a shipwreck. The diver plugs their
nose and blows into it to help equalize air pressure as it changes. What structure is
involved in opening the pharyngotympanic tube to equalize pressure?
a) Tensor tympani
b) Levator veli palatini
c) Tensor veli palatini
d) Mastoid air cells
e) Mastoid antrum
16) A fracture of which of the following leads to a rupture of the tympanic membrane?
a) External meatus
b) Incus
c) Stapes
d) Middle fossa
e) Internal meatus
17) A fracture of which of the following results in bleeding from the ear and leakage of
cerebral spinal fluid (CSF)?
a) External meatus
b) Incus
c) Stapes
d) Middle fossa
e) Internal meatus
18) A child presents with an infection of the nasopharynx. The infection has spread to the
mastoid antrum and closed behind itself due to inflammation. Which of the following is
the only escape for the infection now?
a) Auditory tube
b) Tympanic membrane
c) Jugular foramen
d) Carotid canal
e) Stylomastoid foramen
19) There are two synovial joints associated with the ear ossicles (incudomallealar and
incudostapedial). There are also a number of ligaments that hold the ossicles in place
within the middle ear. Paralysis of these ligaments and muscles of the ossicles would lead
to what clinical presentation?
a) Difficulty hearing high frequencies
b) Difficulty hearing low frequencies
c) Hyperacusis
d) Hypoacusis
e) Deftness
20) The handle of the ____ ossicle attaches to the ____ muscle, which is innervated by
the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve.
a) Malleus; Tensor tympani
b) Incus; Tensor tympani
c) Stapes; Tensor tympani
d) Malleus; Tensor veli palatini
e) Stapes; Tensor veli palatini
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Gross Anatomy – Part 3 14Mar2009
21) The tympanic arterial branch, which supplies the middle ear, comes directly from
which artery?
a) Maxillary
b) Posterior auricular
c) Middle meningeal
d) Occipital
e) Internal carotid
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Gross Anatomy – Part 3 14Mar2009
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Gross Anatomy – Part 3 14Mar2009
5) If the facial nerve is damaged as it leaves the skull, which of the following would be
seen?
a) Dry mouth
b) Dry eyes
c) Expression diminished
d) Hyperacusis
e) Loss of sensation in the ear
6) A patient presents to the neurologist for a follow-up exam. A tumor in the patient’s
neck near the jugular foramen has grown large enough to affect other nerves in the area
(all of the following options are possible). The neurologist has the patient stick out their
tongue and say “Ah”, during which a tongue depressor is used to better visualize the oral
structures. When the clinician pushes the depressor into the back of the throat, no reflex
is seen. Which of the following is most likely damaged?
a) CN IX
b) CN X
c) CN XI
d) CN XII
e) Superior cervical ganglion
7) The tearing reflex involves ____ as the afferent limb and ____ as the efferent limb,
which is the same as the corneal reflex.
a) CN V1; CN VII
b) CN V2; CN VII
c) CN V3; CN VII
d) CN II; CN VII
e) CN III; CN VII
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Gross Anatomy – Part 3 14Mar2009
James Lamberg
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Gross Anatomy – Part 3 14Mar2009
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Gross Anatomy – Part 3 14Mar2009
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