Sample Paper Class 7 PDF

1
FIITJEE COMMON TEST

Class – VII (1618 A LOT Batches)
PHASE – I
NSEJS Paper Code
SET-A
Time: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 180
A. Question Paper Format
1. The question paper consists of 4 parts (Physics -Section-I, Chemistry - Section-II, Mathematics- Section-III
and Biology- IV) and each part consists of four sections.
2. Each Section contains 15 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which only one is correct.
B. Marking scheme:
1. For each question in Section I, II, & III, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1)
mark will be awarded.
Enrolment No. :
Name : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Batch : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Date:. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
FIITJEE Ltd., B – 4, Sec – 16, Noida (U.P), 201301, Ph : 0120 – 4754800/804/811/814 www.fiitjeenoida.com
FIITJEE Towers, C – 56 A/26 Institutional Area, Sec – 62, Noida (U.P), 201307, Ph : 9871113448
2
SECTION – I (PHYSICS)
1. Which of the following substances have greatest specific heat?
(A) Iron (B) Water (C) Copper (D) Mercury
2. A temperature difference of 27°C on Kelvin scale is

(A) 27 K (B) 300 K (C) –246 K (D) Zero
3. „M‟ gm of ice at 0°C is to be converted to water at 0°C. If L is the latent heat of fusion of ice, the
quantity of heat required for the above operation would be
(A) ML cal (B) M/L (C) M/L cal (D) None of these
4. When air is saturated, it cannot hold

(A) more water vapour (B) more air
(C) more carbon dioxide (D) more oxygen
5. If a substance contracts on heating, its coefficient of linear expansion is

(A) +ve (B) –ve (C) zero (D) infinity
6. Maximum density of water is

(A) 0°C (B) –273°C (C) 4°C (D) 100°C
7. If we decrease the pressure of the surroundings the water will boil at

(A) 100°C (B) above 100°C (C) below 100°C (D) None of these
8. Find the Fahrenheit reading for 10°C

(A) 50°F (B) 45°F (C) 33.8°F (D) 44.8°F
9. On a hot day, beach sand is hotter than the ocean water because of difference in
(A) texture (B) conductivity (C) colour (D) specific heat
10. The normal temperature of human body is

(A) 37°C (B) 38°C (C) 36.8°C (D) None of these
11. 5 g of ice at 0°C and 20 g of water at 45°C are mixed. The temperature of the mixture will be (latent
heat of ice = 80 cal/gm)
(A) 10°C (B) 20°C (C) 28°C (D) 40°C
12. In summer the clock

(A) become slow (B) become fast (C) gives correct time (D) lose time
13. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 2000 g of water from 10°C to 50°C is
(A) 80 cal (B) 80,000 cal (C) 8000 cal (D) none of these
14. Water in a container is heated from 0°C to 10°C. Its volume

(A) increases for the full given range (from 0°C to 10°C)
(B) decreases upto 4°C, then increases
(C) increases upto 4°C, then decreases
(D) decreases for the full range (from 0°C to 10°C)
15. At what temperature do the Fahrenheit and Celsius scales give the same reading?
(A) –40°C (B) 0° (C) 574.25° (D) 273°
Space for rough work
3
SECTION – II (CHEMISTRY)
1. Which of the following is acidic in nature?
(A) apple juice (B) Soap solution (C) slaked like (D) None of these
2. Which of the following acids is present in sour milk?

(A) Lactic acid (B) Glycolic acid (C) Citrus acid (D) Tartaric acid
3. Virgin wool is obtained from

(A) lamb (B) dead sheep (C) camel (D) adult sheep
4. Natural fibre which is called as “queen of fibres” is :

(A) wool (B) jute (C) silk (D) nylon
5. Which of the following bacteria causes sorter‟s disease in sorters ?

(A) Anthrax (B) Rhizobium (C) Coliform (D) Clostridium
6. The process of removal of greases and dirt from wool by washing it with water containing alkali
called
(A) Oiling (B) Scouring (C) Carding (D) None of these
7. What is the percentage of Carbon in wool?

(A) 80 % (B) 40% (C) 50% (D) 20%
8. Which is the only natural fibre which has Sulphur in its composition?
(A) Tussar (B) Wool (C) Muga (D) Eri
9. The property of wool fibres to interlock and contract when exposed to heat is
(A) Felting (B) Crimp (C) Unshrinkable wool (D) Both (A) and (B)
10. Tussore silk is obtained from are ____________ feeding moth.

(A) Mulberry (B) Castor leaves (C) Oak (D) None of these
11. Japanese and Italian silk are ____________ and _________ in colour respectively
(A) White, Yellow (B) Yellow, White (C) White, Pink (D) Pink, White
12. Fine merino wool has _________ crimps per inch

(A) 20 (B) 25 (C) 30 (D) 35
13. The extra gum from silk fibre is removed by treating it with
(A) Hydrogen peroxide (B) Sulphur dioxide (C) Water (D) Both (A) and (B)
14. NaOH is a
(A) acid (B) base (C) salt (d) none of these
15. NaCl is
(A) acid (B) base (C) salt (d) none of these
4
SECTION – III (MATHEMATICS)

2y
1. The solution of the equation  7  15 is
3
(A) 12 (B) 0 (C) 15 (D) 8
Direction (2 – 3): There are two positive integers x and y . When x is divided by 237, the remainder is
192. When y is divided by 117, the quotient is same but the remainder is 108.
2. The remainder when the sum of x and y is divided by 118 is

(A) 16 (B) 32 (C) 64 (D) 72
3. The remainder when the difference of x and y is divided by 15 is

(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 12
Direction (4 – 6): A bag contains 6 white, 5 red and 4 black balls.
4. If one ball is drawn randomly, find the probability that the bal is white
(A) 2/5 (B) 3/5 (C) 1/15 (D) 4/15
5. If one ball is drawn randomly, find the probability ball is red?

(A) 1/2 (B) 1/15 (C) 1/3 (D) 1/5
6. If one ball is chosen, find the probability that it is not a black ball.
11 4 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
15 5 3 5
Direction (7 – 8): A man has some hens and cows. If the number of heads are 40 and number of legs are
128, then
7. Determine number of cows in the group.

(A) 16 (B) 20 (C) 22 (D) 24
8. If man purchased 5 more hens, then how many hens does he has now?
(A) 20 (B) 15 (C) 21 (D) none of these
9. The mean of 31 results is 60. If the mean of first 16 results is 58 and that of last 16 results is 62.
th
Find the 16 result.
10. The ages of 10 persons (in years) are 34, 24, 28, 31, 30, 26, 27, 25, 29, 30. The median age is
(A) 28 yrs (B) 29 yrs (C) 28.5 yrs (D) 32.5 yrs
5
11. Find the quotient when 2.66 divided by 100.
(A) 266 (B) 0.266 (C) 0.0266 (D) none of these
12. Closure property does not hold good in integers for

(A) addition (B) subtraction (C) multiplication (D) division
13. Which property is reflected in the following

7×5=5×7
(A) Closure (B) Commutative (C) Associate (D) Distributive
14. A data can have _______ mode.

(A) One (B) Zero (C) More than one (D) All of these
15. Write an expression:

Raju‟s father age is 5 years more than 3 times Raju‟s age. If Raju‟s age is x years, then father‟s age
is
(A) 3x  5 (B) 5  3x (C) 3x  5 (D) 15x
6
SECTION – IV (BIOLOGY)
1. Cud-chewing animals are called:
(A) Ruminants (B) Cannibals (C) Frugivous (D) Sanguivores
2. Green plants are

(A) Herbivores (B) Autotrophs (C) Heterotrphs (D) Saprotrophs
3. Leguminous plants can obtain nitrogen from the soil in the presence of Rhizobium. This is an
example of
(A) Parasitism (B) Saprotrophism (C) Symbiosis (D) Commensalism
4. In which portion of chloroplast does light reaction takes place:

(A) Thylakoid membrane (B) Thylakoid lumen
(C) Stroma (D) All of these
5. The inner walls of small intestine have millions of small finger like projection called
(A) Villi (B) Junctions (C) Appendix (D) Mucus
6. An Amoeba ingests food with the help of

(A) Cilia (B) Tentacles (C) Pseudopodia (D) Flagella
7. Amylase enzyme is present in

(A) Bile juice (B) Saliva (C) Gastric juice (D) Intestinal juice
8. Grass is rich in ________ which can only be digested by some animals.

(A) Glucose (B) Cellulose (C) Sucrose (D) Starch
9. During light reaction in photosynthesis the following are formed:

(A) ATP and sugar (B) ATP and O2
(C) ATP and hydrogen (D) Hydrogen and O2
10. Dark reaction is called so because

(A) It can occur in dark only
(B) It does not depend on light energy directly
(C) It cannot occur during light
(D) It occurs rapidly at night
11. Which of the following is not required for photosynthesis?

(A) Chlorophyll (B) Water (C) Sunlight (D) Oxygen
12. The largest gland in human body is

(A) Pancreas (B) Stomach (C) Liver (D) Salivary gland
13. Pepsin acts in

(A) Acidic medium (B) Basic medium (C) Neutral medium (D) In all media
14. Iodine turns ___________ in colour, in presence of ___________

(A) red, acid (B) green, sugar (C) black, protein (D) blue-black, starch
15. Dark reaction occurs in:

(A) Cytoplasm (B) Stroma (C) Grana (D) Thylakoid
7
FIITJEE COMMON TEST

PHASE – I
NSEJS Paper Code
SET-A
ANSWERS
1. B 2. A 3. A 4. A
5. B 6. C 7. C 8. A
9. D 10. A 11. B 12. A
13. B 14. B 15. A
1. A 2. A 3. A 4. C
5. A 6 B 7 C 8. B
9. A 10. C 11. A 12. C
13. D 14. B 15. C

1. A 2. C 3. C 4. A
5. C 6. A 7. D 8. C
9. A 10. C 11. C 12. D
13. B 14. D 15. A
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. A
5. A 6. C 7. B 8. B
9. B 10. B 11. D 12. C
13. A 14. D 15. B
8
FIITJEE COMMON
TEST
for
PHASE – I
SET-A
Time : 1 ½ hours Maximum Marks :
90
Scholastic Aptitude Test

INSTRUCTIONS
 The question paper consists of 90 multiple choice questions divided into four sections.
Section – I contains 45 questions of Mathematics.
Section – II contains 15 questions of Physics.
Section – III contains 15 questions of Chemistry.
Section – IV contains 15 questions of Biology.
 Each question carries +1 marks.
 There is No negative marking.
 Attempt All questions.
 Use of Calculator is NOT PERMITTED.
 All symbols have their usual meanings, if not mentioned in the question.
 The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough work.
No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
 This booklet also contains OMR answer sheet.
Name of the Candidate : ……………….…………………………………..
Enrollment Number :…………………………………………………….
9
SECTION – I (MATHEMATICS)
1. A telephone number has a form ABC–DEF–GHIJ where each letter represents different digit. The
digit in each part of the number are in descending order, further more D, E and F are consecutive
even digits. G, H, I, J are consecutive odd digits and A + B + C = 9. Find A
(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9
2. 186 × 186 + 159 × 159 – 2 × 186 × 159

(A) 119025 (B) 729 (C) 1369 (D) 218645
ab
3. If a 2  b2  180 and ab  72 , then value of is
a b
(A) 18 (B) 6 (C) 3 (D) None of these
4. If there are 25% girls in the class and there are 45 boys in the class, then find the number of
students in the class.
(A) 60 (B) 45 (C) 100 (D) 50
5. Value of (largest 3-digit integer) – (smallest 3 digit integer) + [–(largest 2-digit integer which is
multiple of 2)]
(A) 1998 (B) 801 (C) –98 (D) 98
6.
  
Evaluate 2  254 / 18 / 51   16   3 

(A) –4 (B) 4 (C) +2 (D) –2
7. What least value must be assigned to * so that the number 63576*2 is divisible by 9?
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 8 (D) 7
8. The difference between numbers is 1510. If larger number is divided by smaller one, the quotient is
7 and remainder is 58. Then the smaller number is ?
(A) 58 (B) 1752 (C) 1452 (D) 242
10
9. Find the next integer in the given sequence
125, 64, 27, 8, ____, ?
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) –1 (D) can‟t be determined
   a  b3  and ab  0 , then find the value of  3a 2  3b2  2ab 

3 2
10. If a 2  b2 3
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 4
a b
11. From question 10, find the value of   
b a
3 2 1 4
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 3 3 3
12. Tony requires 4 pieces of wood, each of which are 68 cm long. If wood is sold in 2m or 3 m length.
Find the length of wood he must buy.
(A) 32 (B) 16 (C) 8 (D) 4
3
13. If 3  x  , then find value of x.
2
1
1
2
3
(A) 1 (B) 18/13 (C) 13/18 (D) 13/36
1 1 1
14. Simplify 20  30  15  _________
2 3 6
2 1 3
(A) 35 (B) 35 (C) 35 (D) 66
3 6 2
1 1
15. Making maggi requires 7 cups of boiling water. Your measuring cup holds 1 of water. How
2 4
many times you need to fill the cup?
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 10
11
2 3 1
Direction (16–18): A man spends of his salary on house rent, of his salary on food and of his
5 10 8
salary on conveyance. If he saves Rs.2800 per month, then
16. Find his monthly salary

(A) Rs.16000 (B) Rs.12000 (C) Rs.15000 (D) Rs.24000
17. How much he spend on food?

(A) Rs.4800 (B) Rs.1600 (C) Rs. 4000 (D) None of these
18. His expenditure of conveyance is how much percent of his house rent?
(A) 32% (B) 35% (C) 40% (D) None of these
19. Monty brought 3 kg 300 gm mangoes that cost him Rs.110. Mona bought 4 kg 400 gms of mangoes
at Rs.130. Who bought mangoes at cheaper rate?
(A) Monty (B) Mona
(C) Both bought at equal price (D) Can‟t be determined
20. Find the median of 38, 34, 36, 32, 37, 31, 33, 35
(A) 34 (B) 36 (C) 34.5 (D) 35.5
21. If mean = 30 and median = 25, its mode is

(A) 27.5 (B) 50 (C) 30 (D) 15
22. If the mean of frequency of distribution is 50. Find the value of P.
Variable 10 30 50 70 90
Frequency 17 P 32 24 19
12
Direction (23–25): Sale of books (in thousand numbers) from five branches B1, B2, B3, B4 and B5 of
publishing company in 2014 and 2015
Sales 
Branches 
23. Total sales of branches B1, B3, B5 together for both the years (in thousand number) is
(A) 250 (B) 310 (C) 435 (D) 560
24. What is the percentage increase in sales of B from 2014 to 2015 ?

(A) 32% (B) 31.25% (C) 35% (D) 39%
25. What is the average sale of all the branches (in thousand) for year 2014?
(A) 80 (B) 78°C (C) 82 (D) none
26. The average of 50 numbers is 32. If two numbers 22 and 18 are discarded, then find the average of
remaining numbers?
(A) 32.5 (B) 40 (C) 60.5 (D) can‟t be determined
27. A student was asked to find the average of 12, 19, 16, 15, 32, 8, x.
He finds the average 18. What would be the value of x.
(A) 24 (B) 26 (C) 30 (D) 20
28. A labour got engaged for 20 days on the condition that he will receive Rs.60 for each day‟s work
and he will be fined Rs.5 for each day, he is absent. If he receives Rs.745 in all, for how many days
he remained absent?
13
Direction (29 – 31):One mango, one orange and one banana will together cost Rs.55. One banana and
one orange together cost Rs.40. Rohit buys a mango on Monday, one banana and one orange on Tuesday,
one banana each on Thursday and Friday, one orange each one Wednesday and Saturday. On Sunday, he
buys all three items.
29. What is the cost of one mango?

(A) Rs.12 (B) Rs.10 (C) Rs.15 (D) can‟t say
30. What is the cost of one banana?

(A) Rs.18 (B) Rs. 8 (C) Rs.9 (D) cant‟say
31. What does Rohit pay for his entire week‟s purchases?
(A) Rs.285 (B) Rs.190 (C) Rs.95 (D) Can‟t say
32. Out of 5 brands of chocolates in a shop, a boy has to purchase the brand which is most liked by
children. What measure of central tendency would be most appropriate if the data is provided to
him?
(A) mean (B) mode (C) median (D) any of the three
33. Which one of the following is improper fraction?

(A) 2/3 (B) 5/7 (C) 7/4 (D) 1/2
Direction (34 – 38): Read the bar graph which shows number of computers sold by a store during five
consecutive years.
700
600
500
400
300
200
100
1989 1990 1991 1992 1993
34. How many computers were sold in 1989?

(A) 100 (B) 200 (C) 300 (D) 600
35. In which year were 400 computers sold?

(A) 1990 (B) 1991 (C) 1993 (D) 1989
36. In which year were fewer than 200 computers sold?

(A) 1989 (B) 1991 (C) 1993 (D) 1992
37. What will be the difference of number of computers sold in 1993 and 1990?
(A) 600 (B) 200 (C) 400 (D) 100
38. How many computers were sold from 1991 to 1993?

(A) 1300 (B) 1000 (C) 900 (D) 800
14
39. A dice is thrown once. What will be the probability of getting prime number?
(A) 1/2 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) 1/6
40. Which of the following has same mean, median and mode?
(A) 6, 2, 5, 4, 3, 4, 1 (B) 4, 2, 2, 1, 3, 2, 3
(C) 2, 3, 7, 3, 8, 3, 2 (D) 4, 3, 4, 3, 4, 6, 4
41. Which of the following can be formed starting with x  0 ?

x
(A) 2 x  1  1 (B) 57 (C) 3x  1  1 (D) 3x  1  1
2
2 6 13
42. The ascending arrangement of , , is
3 7 21
6 2 13 13 2 6 6 13 2 2 6 13
(A) , , (B) , , (C) , , (D) , ,
7 3 21 21 3 7 7 21 3 3 7 21
1 2
43. One packet of biscuit requires 2 cups of flour and 1 cups of sugar. Estimated total quantity of
2 3
both ingredients used in 10 such packets of biscuits will be
(A) less than 30 cups (B) between 30 cups and 40 cups
(C) between 40 cups to 50 cups (D) above 50 cups
44. Simplify:
1 2 3 4
888  888  888  888  ______
5 5 5 5
1
6
45. The average of A, B and C is 10. If the average of A and B is 11 and that of B and C is 14. Find the
value of B?
15
SECTION – II (PHYSICS)
1. Two bodies are said to be in thermal or equilibrium if

(A) there is a heat flow between them
(B) both of them lose equal amounts of heat to the atmosphere
(C) there is no heat flow between them
(D) none of these
2. The unit of specific heat is

(A) cal °C (B) cal / g°C (C) cal / g (D) °C
3. Fahrenheit scale divides two fixed points into

(A) 180 parts (B) 212 parts (C) 100 parts (D) 273 parts
4. The movement of water being heated in a pot on a stove is an example of

(A) conduction (B) convection (C) radiation (D) condensation
5. Water evaporates under atmospheric pressure without changing the temperature, the same water is
placed under partial vacuum. The rate of evaporation will
(A) increase (B) drop to zero (C) decrease (D) remains unaffected.
6. A thermometer is used to measure

(A) heat (B) thermal capacity (C) water equivalent (D) temperature
7. Absolute zero temperature corresponds to

(A) –273 K (B) 273 K (C) 0 K (D) –100°C
8. Steam at 100°C causes more severe burns than water at the same temperature because
(A) Steam is a gas (B) Steam cannot do work
(C) Steam can provide more neat (D) steam is highly combustible
9. –40°F on absolute scale is equal to

(A) 0 K (B) 233 K (C) 273 K (D) 313 K
10. When the temperature of water rises, the rate of evaporation

(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) remains the same (D) first decreases the increases
11. A piece of ice at 0°C is added to a vessel containing water at 0°C, then
(A) all the ice will melt (B) some ice will melt
(C) no ice will melt (D) the temperature will decrease further
12. When we cool a gas below is condensation point, the KE of its molecules
(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) remains the same (D) first increases then decreases
13. In hot water bottles, water is used because

(A) its specific heat is low (B) its specific heat is high
(C) it is cheap (D) it is easily available
14. The temperature of water at the bottom of a large waterfall is higher than that of the water at the
top, because
(A) the falling water absorbs heat from sun.
(B) the KE of the falling water is converted into heat.
(C) the water at the bottom has greater PE.
(D) rocks on the bed of the river give out heat.
15. The unit of thermal capacity is

(A) cal/°C (B) cal /g (C) cal/g/°C (D) none of these
16
SECTION – III (CHEMISTRY)
1. Which of the following type of medicine is used for treating indigestion?

(A) antibiotic (B) analgesic (C) antacid (D) antiseptic
2. Which of the following is not an organic acid?

(A) acetic acid (B) sulphuric acid (C) formic acid (D) citric acid
3. The substance can turn blue litmus to red is

(A) milk of magnesia (B) baking soda solution
(C) lemon juice (D) calamine solution
4. Wool is obtained from the animals that grow long lustrous hairs like:
(A) Angora goat (B) Angora rabbit (C) Cashmere goat (D) all of them
5. The wool of Merion sheep belongs to

(A) medium wool (B) long wool (C) carpet wool (D) fine wool
6. The process of removing the vegetable matter like seeds and burrs form wool is known as
(A) carding (B) roving (C) crimp (D) carbonizing
7. The composition of wool fibre has elements

(A) C, N, O and H (B) C, N, O, H and S (C) C, N, S and O (D) C, N, O and S
8. The acid present in tea is

(A) lactic (B) tannic (C) tartaric (D) citric
9. Find the odd one out

(A) Wool (B) Polyester (C) Silk (D) Cotton
10. Cocoons are prepared from silk worms at which of the following stage of its life cycle?
(A) Larva (B) Pupa (C) Nymph (D) Adult
11. The pH of an orange juice is

(A) Between 0-7 (B) Equal to 7 (C) More than 7 (D) None of these
12. The egg of silk worm are stored in

(A) Wooden box (B) Metal box (C) Strips of cloth (D) Plastic box
13. Which of the following parts swing side to side in the form of during the formation of cocoon around
the caterpillar?
(A) Head moves (B) Neck moves (C) Abdomen moves (D) Thorax moves
14. On body of sheep the hair part of fleece is called

(A) Kemp (B) Camp (C) Fibre part (D) None of these
15. Which type of wool is common in Tibet and Ladhak?

(A) Yak wool (B) Angora wool (C) Sheep wool (D) Pashmina wool
17
1. Acidic medium of stomach is maintained by

(A) sulphuric acid (B) oxalic acid (C) citric acid (D) hydrochloric acid
2. Thylakoids occur in
(A) Mitochondria (B) Chloroplasts
(C) Golgi appratus (D) ER
3. Human saliva contain ptyalin which digest:-

(A) lipids (B) glycerol
(C) lactose (D) starch
4. The walls of large intestine absorb:

(A) Water (B) Proteins (C) Roughage (D) None of these
5. Which cycle in plants reduces CO2 to form sugar?

(A) Kreb cycle (B) Urea cycle (C) Calvin cycle (D) Citric acid cycle
6. Water is transported from roots to leaves through:

(A) Xylem (B) Phloem (C) Cortex (D) Epidermis
7. The hardest constituent of tooth is:

(A) Bone (B) Dentine (C) Enamel (D) Pulp
8. The gastric juice contains protein splitting enzymes namely:

(A) Pepsin and Trypsin (B) Pepsin and Amylase
(C) Pepsin and Rennin (D) Trypsin and Amylase
9. The tiny pores present in the leaves of the plants for exchange of gases are called:
(A) Stomata (B) Trachea (C) Chloroplast (D) Spiracles
10. Amarbel (Cuscuta) is an example of

(A) Autotroph (B) Parasite (C) Saprotroph (D) Host
11. The pointed teeth which are required for tearing are called:
(A) Incisors (B) Canines (C) Premolars (D) Molars
12. Which of the following is incorrect?

(A) Saprotrophic organisms depend on dead and decaying organisms.
(B) Mushroom is saprotrophic
(C) Saprotrops generally do not contain chlorophyll
(D) Saprotrophic nutrition involves intracellular digestion
13. Which of the following is not a part of nutrition?

(A) Digestion (B) Excretion (C) Assimilation (D) Absorption
14. Enzymes required for starch digestion in humans are secreted by

(A) Mouth and pancrease (B) Mouth and stomach
(C) Mouth and liver (D) Mouth and intestine
15. Which of the following is an insectivorous plant?

(A) Venus fly trap (B) Parkinsonia
(C) Wolffia (D) Epipogium
18
FIITJEE COMMON
TEST
for
PHASE – I
SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE Test
QP CODE: XXXX.0
SET – A
ANSWERS
1. C 2. B 3. C 4. A
5. B 6. A 7. D 8. D
9. B 10. A 11. B 12. C
13. B 14. A 15. B 16. A
17. A 18. D 19. B 20. C
21. D 22. A 23. D 24. B
25. C 26. A 27. A 28. C
29. C 30. D 31. B 32. B
33. C 34. A 35. C 36. A
37. B 38. A 39. A 40. D
41. C 42. B 43. C 44. C
45. B
1. C 2. B 3. A 4. B
5. A 6. D 7. C 8. C
9. B 10. A 11. C 12. B
13. B 14. B 15. A

1. C 2. B 3. C 4. D
5. D 6. D 7. B 8. B
9. B 10. A 11. A 12. A
13. A 14. A 15. B
1. D 2. B 3. A 4. A
5. C 6. A 7. C 8. C
9. A 10. B 11. B 12. D
13. B 14. A 15. A
19
FIITJEE COMMON
TEST
for
PHASE – I
Mental Ability Test (MAT)
QP CODE: XXXX.0
SET - A
Time: 90 Minutes Maximum Marks: 90
Please read the instructions carefully.
INSTRUCTIONS
A: General :
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball point
pen.
2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer
Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
3. Darken the appropriate bubbles with HB Pencil only.
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed.
5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS) is provided separately.
6. Do not Tamper/mutilate the ORS or this booklet.
7. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work
8. On completion of this test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on
duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test
Booklet with them.
B: Questions paper format and Marking Scheme :
1. The question paper consists of 90 questions.
Enrollment
2. ForNo. : question you will be awarded 1 marks if you darken
each Batch : the bubble corresponding to the
Name :
correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles is darkened. No Negative Mark will be awarded.
Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature:
Directions (1-20): Find the missing number in the series given below:
1. 1, 3, 7, 13, 21, 31, 43, ?

(A) 55 (B) 57 (C) 59 (D) 61
20
2. 10, 33, 102, 309, ?
(A) 1030 (B) 1050 (C) 928 (D) 930
3. 3, 11, 23, 39, ?

(A) 58 (B) 59 (C) 60 (D) 61
4. 0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21, ?
(A) 34 (B) 35 (C) 33 (D) 36
5. 17, 43, 81, 131, ?

(A) 375 (B) 468 (C) 300 (D) 193
6. 6, 42, ?, 1260 , 5040, 15120, 30240

(A) 546 (B) 424 (C) 252 (D) 328
7. 15, 17, 20, 22, 27, 29, ?, ?

(A) 31, 28 (B) 36, 38 (C) 36, 43 (D) 38, 45
8. 4, 18, ?, 100, 180, 294

(A) 32 (B) 36 (C) 48 (D) 40
9. 3, 5, 7, ?, 13, 17, 19, 23

(A) 9 (B) 11 (C) 8 (D) 10
10. 4, 9, 20, 43, ?

(A) 90 (B) 84 (C) 96 (D) 95
11. 20, 29, 38, 47, ?

(A) 59 (B) 56 (C) 52 (D) 58
21
12. DF, GJ, KM, NP, RT, ?
(A) UW (B) YZ (C) XZ (D) UW
13. PMT, OOS, NQR, MSQ, ?

(A) LUP (B) LVP (C) LVR (D) LWP
14. ABD, DGK, HMS, MTB, SBL, ?

(A) XKW (B) ZAB (C) ZKU (D) ZKW
15. NOA, PQB, RSC, ?

(A) TUD (B) DTU (C) ENO (D) FNQ
16. DFI, KMP, ?, YAD

(A) QSV (B) RTW (C) SUX (D) RTU
17. CFL, EIK, GLJ, IOI, ?

(A) KRH (B) KRJ (C) IRU (D) KOV
18. EDBA, KJHG, QPNM, ?

(A) ZXUV (B) WVTS (C) KIGS (D) QOMK
19. AYBZC, DWEXF, GUHVI, JSKTL, ?

(A) MQORN (B) MQNRO (C) NQMOR (D) QMONR
20. ABCDEFZYXWVUABCDEZYXWVUABCDZYXWV?
(A) U (B) A (C) B (D) Z
22
Directions (21-30): In each of the following questions, continuous pattern series is given. Some of the
letter of the series is given. Some of the letter of the series are missing. Find the missing term.
21. adb_ac_da_cddcb_dbc_cbda
(A) bccba (B) cbbaa (C) ccbba (D) bbcad
22. b_acbda_bd_cb_a_
(A) baadc (B) dcadc (C) cbdca (D) cdacb
23. ab_d_bc_a_c_ab_d
(A) cadbdc (B) cabbcd (C) abbcdd (D) caddbc
24. a_a_abab_ba_
(A) abab (B) baab (C) abba (D) bbab
25. a_cdaab_cc_daa_bbb_ccddd
(A) bdbda (B) bddca (C) abdcb (D) bbdac
26. _A_A_ _BAB_B_BABA

(A) BBABAA (B) BBBAAA (C) ABABBA (D) BBAABB
27. abc_ea_ _dd_bcc_ _

(A) bbbbb (B) abbbb (C) dcbbb (D) None of these
28. ab_d_ _b_dm_ _x

(A) abmdx (B) xmaxab (C) axdbm (D) abxmd
29. xyzu_yz_v_ _uv_ _

(A) uvxyzu (B) vuxzxy (C) vuvzyx (D) zvuxyz
30. r_ttp_ s_tp_s_ _

(A) rstqp (B) tsrqp (C) rstpq (D) none of these
23
Directions (31 to 40): In each series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.
31. 87, 54, 28, 13, 5, 2, 2

(A) 28 (B) 54 (C) 13 (D) 2
32. 22, 37, 52, 67, 84, 97

(A) 52 (B) 84 (C) 97 (D) 67
33. 10, 41, 94, 1624, 2516, 3625

(A) 1624 (B) 2516 (C) 3625 (D) 4936
34. 258, 130, 66, 34, 18, 8, 6
(A) 130 (B) 66 (C) 34 (D) 8
35. 2, 5, 11, 27, 58, 121, 248

(A) 5 (B) 11 (C) 27 (D) 58
36. 1, 2, 6, 21, 86, 445, 2676

(A) 2 (B) 6 (C) 21 (D) 86
37. 864, 420, 200, 96, 40, 16, 6

(A) 420 (B) 200 (C) 96 (D) 40
38. 6072, 1008, 200, 48, 14, 5, 3
(A) 1008 (B) 200 (C) 48 (D) 14
39. 2, 6, 12, 27, 58, 121, 248

(A) 12 (B) 27 (C) 6 (D) 2
40. 7, 10, 12, 14, 17, 19, 22, 22

(A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 14 (D) 19
24
Directions (41 – 43): Read the following statements and find the answer of the question that follows.
A  B means „A is the father of B‟.
A * B means „A is the sister of B‟.
A + B means „A is the brother of B‟.
A – B means „A is the mother of B‟.
A  B means „A is the son of B‟.
A = B means „A is the daughter of B‟.
41. Which of the following means X is the grandfather of Y?

(A) X  Z  Y (B) Y  Z  X (C) Z  X  Y (D) X  Y  Z
42. Which of the following means Y is the mother of X and Z?

(A) X  Y  Z (B) Y  X  Z (C) Y  X  Z (D) Y  X  Z
43. Which of the following means Z is the grandson of Y?

(A) Z  X  Y (B) Z  X  Y (C) Y  X  Z (D) Z  X  Y
44. 6  6  6  .... is equal to

(A) 2 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 3
45. Of three numbers, the second is thrice the first and the third number is three-fourth of the first. If the
average of the three numbers is 114, the largest number is
(A) 72 (B) 216 (C) 354 (D) 726
46. Pointing to a photograph of a boy Suresh said, "He is the son of the only son of my mother." How is
Suresh related to that boy?
(A) Brother (B) Uncle (C) Cousin (D) Father
47. If A + B means A is the mother of B; A - B means A is the brother B; A % B means A is the father of
B and A x B means A is the sister of B, which of the following shows that P is the maternal uncle of
Q?
(A) Q - N + M x P (B) P + S x N – Q (C) P - M + N x Q (D) Q - S % P
48. If A is the brother of B; B is the sister of C; and C is the father of D, how D is related to A?
(A) Brother (B) Sister (C) Nephew (D) Cannot be determined
49. If A + B means A is the brother of B; A - B means A is the sister of B and A x B means A is the
father of B Which of the following means that C is the son of M?
(A) M - N x C + F (B) F - C + N x M (C) N + M - F x C (D) M x N - C + F
25
50. Introducing a boy, a girl said, "He is the son of the daughter of the father of my uncle." How is the
boy related to the girl?
(A) Brother (B) Nephew (C) Uncle (D) Son-in-law
51. Pointing to a photograph Lata says, "He is the son of the only son of my grandfather." How is the
man in the photograph related to Lata?
(A) Brother (B) Uncle (C) Cousin (D) Data is inadequate
52. If A + B means A is the brother of B; A x B means A is the son of B; and A % B means B is the
daughter of A then which of the following means M is the maternal uncle of N?
(A) M + O x N (B) M % O x N + P (C) M + O % N (D) None of these
53. If D is the brother of B, how B is related to C? To answer this question which of the statements
is/are necessary?
1. The son of D is the grandson of C.
2. B is the sister of D.
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2
(C) Either 1 or 2 (D) 1 and 2 both are required
Directions (54 – 57) : A is son of B; C, B‟s sister has a son D and a daughter E; F is the maternal uncle of
D.
54. How is A related to D?

(A) Nephew (B) Cousin (C) Uncle (D) Brother
55. How is F related to E?

(A) Brother (B) Maternal uncle (C) Nephew (D) Paternal uncle
56. How many nephews does F have?

(A) Nil (B) Two (C) Three (D) One
57. How is E related to F?

(A) Sister (B) Daughter (C) Wife (D) Niece
26
Directions (58 – 61) : A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight members of a family. B is the only son of A. D
has two children and is the wife of B. The siblings are of different sex. G is the husband of F. B‟s son is
married and has a son H.
58. How is B related to G?

(A) Father (B) Father-in-law (C) Mother (D) Son-in-law
59. Who is the son of B and D?

(A) E (B) C (C) F (D) Cannot be determined
60. How is D related to A?

(A) Daughter (B) Granddaughter (C) Daughter-in-law (D) Grandson
61. How is D related to H?

(A) Grandmother (B) Grandfather (C) Mother (D) Daughter-in-law
62. If A means „×‟ B means „‟ C means „–‟ and D means „+‟, then
4 D 16 A 5 B 8 C 5 = ?
(A) 9 (B) 16 (C) 13 (D) 7.5
63. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace * signs and to balance the following
equation:
8*8*1*7=8
(A) ×  + (B) +  × (C)  × + (D) + × 
64. If 4 – 4 = 12, 6 – 6 =30, 2 – 2 =2, then 8 – 8 =?
(A) 8 (B) 38 (C) 56 (D) 16
65. 4 × 6 × 2 = 351, 3 × 4 × 8 = 237, 9 × 5 × 6 = ?

(A) 270 (B) 845 (C) 546 (D) 659
66. 9 * 7 = 32, 13 * 7 = 120, 17 * 9 = 208, 19*11 = ?

(A) 64 (B) 160 (C) 240 (D) 210
27
67. 16(27)43, 29(?)56, 36(12)48

(A) 23 (B) 33 (C) 27 (D) 37
68. If 73 + 82 = 14, 91 + 21 = 11, then 86 + 24 = ?

(A) 9 (B) 62 (C) 8 (D) 6
69. If 264 * 2 = 6, 870 * 3 = 11, then 735 * 5 = ?

(A) 05 (B) 12 (C) 16 (D) 03
70. If 2463 = 36 and 5552 = 30 then 6732 = ?

(A) 32 (B) 36 (C) 34 (D) 39
Directions:- Q. No. (71 -80). Find the missing number.
71. 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, _______

(A) 12 (B) 13 (C) 14 (D) 15
72. 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, _______, 49

(A) 28 (B) 30 (C) 34 (D) 36
73. 4, 9, 14, 19, _____, 29

(A) 23 (B) 24 (C) 25 (D) 26
74. 1, 8, 27, _____, 125

(A) 40 (B) 44 (C) 64 (D) 72
75. 12, 24, 36, 48, ______, 72

(A) 58 (B) 60 (C) 62 (D) 64
76. 6, 8, 18, 16, 24, ?, 30

(A) 20 (B) 22 (C) 24 (D) 25
3 8 18 33
77. ?
4 10 22 40
25 35 45 53
(A) (B) (C) (D)
24 48 58 64
1 1 2 2
78. 11 12 14 16 ?
9 2 7 3
1 1
(A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 20 (D) 10
3 2
79. Which of the following choices is not the number of the series :
1 8 27 64 125 ?
(A) 256 (B) 512 (C) 729 (D) 1000
80. 2 43 9 ? 16
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 12
Directions:- Q. No. (81). the terms have been arranged in some order. One term is missing find the
missing term out of the given five alternatives?
81. cx, fu, ir, ?, ol, ri

(A) lo (B) mn (C) no (D) cp
28
29
Directions (82 – 85): A family has six persons A, B, C, D, E and F. There are four males and two females
in the family. A has two sons and is married to C. One of the sons of A is married and has a son F. B is the
mother of F. C is the mother of E.
82. How if F related to A?

(A) Father (B) Son (C) Grandson (C) can‟t say
83. Which two persons are siblings?

(A) D and E (B) D and B (C) E and B (D) A and B
84. How is B related to A?

(A) Daughter (B) Niece (C) Daughter –in-law (D) Can‟t say
85. How if F related to D?

(A) Son (B) Nephew (C) Niece (D) Can‟t say
86. If 5 * 3 = 16, 9 * 8 = 73 and 6 * 7 = 43, then 7 * 8 = ?

(A) 72 (B) 58 (C) 85 (D) 57
87. If  = 12,  = 15, O = 3 and = 6 then    O =?

(A) O (B)  (C)  (D)
88. If 2 = 6, 4 = 12 and 8 = 24 then 10 = ?

(A) 30 (B) 20 (C) 15 (D) 27
89. If 4 – 4 = 17, 6 – 6 = 37, 2 – 2 = 5, 5 – 5 = ?

(A) 27 (B) 26 (C) 20 (D) 24
90. 10(150)15, 14(224)16, 13(?)15

(A) 205 (B) 195 (C) 178 (D) 197
30
FIITJEE COMMON
TEST
for
PHASE – I
QP CODE: XXXX.0
SET - A
ANSWERS
1. B 2. D 3. B 4. A
5. D 6. C 7. B 8. C
9. B 10. A 11. B 12. D
13. A 14. D 15. A 16. B
17. A 18. B 19. B 20. A
21. B 22. B 23. A 24. D
25. D 26. B 27. D 28. B
29. B 30. D 31. B 32. B
33. A 34. D 35. B 36. D
37. C 38. A 39. C 40. D
41. A 42. C 43. D 44. D
45. A 46. D 47 C 48. D
49. D 50. A 51. A 52. D
53. D 54. A 55. D 56. B
57. D 58. B 59. D 60. C
61. A 62. A 63. C 64. C
65. B 66. C 67. C 68. C
69. B 70. A 71. D 72. A
73. B 74. D 75. B 76. B
77. B 78. A 79. C 80. D
81. A 82. C 83. A 84. C
85. D 86. D 87. D 88. A
89. B 90. B
31
FIITJEE COMMON TEST

for
Class –VII (UTYCRP 1618 A LOT Batches)
NSEJS Paper Code
SET – A
(PHASE – II)
Time: 1.30 Hours Maximum Marks: 180
B. Marking scheme:
Enrolment No. :
Name : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Batch : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Date:. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
32
Useful Data Chemistry:

Gas Constant = 8.314 J K1 mol1
R
= 0.0821 Lit atm K1 mol1
= 1.987  2 Cal K1 mol1
Na = 6.023  10
23
Avogadro's Number
–34
Planck‟s Constant h = 6.626  10 Js
-27
= 6.25 x 10 erg.s
1 Faraday = 96500 Coulomb
1 calorie = 4.2 Joule
-27
1 amu = 1.66 x 10 kg
-19
1 eV = 1.6 x 10 J
Atomic No : H=1, D=1, Li=3, Na=11, K=19, Rb=37, Cs=55, F=9, Ca=20, He=2,
O=8,
Au=79.
Atomic Masses: He=4, Mg=24, C=12, O=16, N=14, P=31, Br=80, Cu=63.5, Fe=56,
Mn=55,
Pb=207,
Au=197, Ag=108, F=19, H=2, Cl=35.5, Sn=118.6
Useful Data Physics:
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m / s2
33
SSEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– II :: PPH
HYYSSIIC
CSS
1. Region BC & DE represents
Temperature
F
o D
100 C
E
o B
0 C
C
o
-5 C Heat
A
(A) melting & evaporation (B) fusion & temperature rise
(C) evaporation & temperature rise (D) all of these
2. Condensation is reverse process of
(A) vaporisation (B) fusion (C) freeze (D) all of these
-1 o -1
3. Specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J kg C . The same in CGS system will be
-1 o -1 -1 o -1 -1 o -1
(A) 2 cal g C (B) 3 cal g C (C) 3 cal g C (D) none of these
4. One degree interval on centigrade scale is equivalent to
9 9 9 9o
(A) o F & 1K (B) 1o F & K (C) 1o F & o K (D) F& 1o K
5 5 5 5
o o
5. Normal temperature of human body is 37 C. Find this temperature in F & K.
o o o o o
(A) 98 F & 300 K (B) 98.6 F & 310 K (C) 310 F & 98 K (D) all of these
6. Out of excitement a cricketer throws a ball in air up & reaches it after 4 sec. Its initial speed was
-1 -1 -1
(A) 9.8 ms (B) 19.8 ms (C) 19.6 ms (D) none of these
-1 -1
7. A student goes school with 40 kmh in 1 hr stay there for 6 hrs. Then he came back with 40 kmh in 1
hr. Find his average speed & average velocity.
-1 -1 -1 -1 -1 -1 -1 -1
(A) 10 kmh , 0 kmh (B) 0 kmh , 10 kmh (C) 10 kmh , 10 kmh (D) 0 kmh , 0 kmh
Space for rough

work
34
8. What will be its corresponding displacement time graph.
v
t
(A) s (B) s
t
t
(C) s (D) s
t t
-1 -2
9. A driver is moving his car with constant speed of 45 kmh . The brakes produce retardation of 1 ms .
What will be his stopping distance (approximately)?
(A) 80 m . (B) 70 m (C) 78 m (D) 60 m
10. 1 man walks 30 km North, 40 km East & then 60 km South. Find his displacement & distance
(A) 130 km, 50 km (B) 50 km, 130 km (C) 80 km, 130 km (D) 100 km, 90 km
-1
11. Speed of weak Tordano in (kmh ) is
(A) 60 (B) 300 (C) 700 (D) 1100
12. In India which coastal area is more vulnerable to cyclone.

(A) East (B) West (C) North (D) South
13. Heavy rain falls during

(A) earthquake (B) lighting (C) cyclone (D) tsunami
14. Barometer, thermometer, speedometer & odometer are used to measure these quantities respectively.
(A) pressure, temperature, speed, distance (B) pressure, speed, distance, temperature
(C) distance, temperature, speed, pressure (D) all of these
15. Tsunami is a tidal wave came from which language

(A) Hindi (B) English (C) Urdu (D) Japanese
Space for rough

work
35
SSEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– IIII :: C
CHHEEM
MIISSTTRRYY
(Single Correct Answer Type)
This section contains 15 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Among the following which one change the colour of Turmeric powder
(A) Lemon Juice (B) Milk of Magnesia (C) Vinegar (D) Sugar Syrup
2. An acid is a substance___________
(A) Sour in taste (B) Gives proton in aqueous solution
(C) May react with active metal to give hydrogen (D) All of these
3. About neutralization reaction which one is essentially true:-

(A) Evolution of gas (B) Evolution of Heat (C) Formation of water (D) change in colour
4. Among the following which one is not an example of base

(A) Milk of magnesia (B) Lunar caustic (C) Aniline (D) Alum
5. Which of the following is not an example of Neutralization reaction.

(A) Calcium oxide + Nitric acid (B) Calcium oxide + Hydrochloric acid
(C) Sodium Hydroxide + Sulphuric Acid (D) Sodium chloride + Silver Nitrate
6.
Substance Acid Present
A Tamarind P Oxalic
B Curd Q Lactic
C Spinach R Formic
D Amla S Tartaric
E Ant sting T Ascorbic
The correct match base on above table.
(A) A – P, B – Q, C – R, D – S, E – T (B) A – S, B – Q, C – S, D – T, E - Q
(C) A – S, B – Q, C – P, D – T, E – R (D) A – R, B – Q, C – T, D – P, E – S
Space for rough

work
36
7. Which of the following is chemical change
(A) Melting (B) Sublimation (C) Evaporation (D) Neutralization
8. Chemical change can be best defined by.

(A) Evolution of heat during change
(B) Change in colour
(C) Consumption of any substance to produce another substance
(D) Change of state
9. Which of the following activity is expected as chemical change.

(A) Quenching of quick lime
(B) Iron Nail in copper sulphate solution
0
(C) Heating of blue vitriol at 100 C for some time
(D) Copper metal dipped in dilute hydrochloric acid
10. Which of the following physical change is not reversible

(A) Melting of Ice (B) Torning of paper
(C) Dehydration of Blue vitriol (D) Sublimation of Iodine
11. Which one is considered as chemical property of the substance involving chemical change.
(A) Testing sugar (B) Sublimation (C) Melting Ice (D) None of these
12. Evolution of Heat account for the following

(A) Only Physical change (B) Only Chemical Change
(C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these
13. The process involve both physical and chemical change.

(A) Dissolution of sugar in water (B) Burning of Coal
(C) Burning of candle (D) None of these
14. Which of the following is chemical change

(A) Twinkling of Stars (B) Cooking of vegetable
(C) Boiling of Water (D) Cutting of fruits
15. Some process is given

(i) Photo synthesis (ii) Making sugar syrup
(iii) Burning of coal (iv) Melting of wax
(v) Beating aluminium sheet to make foil (vi) Digestion of food
Now the correct combination for chemical change is.
(A) I, II, III, IV (B) I, III, VI (C) II, III, V, VI (D) I, III, V, VI
Space for rough

work
37
SSEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– IIIIII :: M
MAATTH
HEEM
MAATTIIC
CSS
1. From the given figure find the value of x if y = 2x
o
80
x y
100 25 32
(A) (B) (C) (D) none of these
3 3 3
2. The bisectors of any pair of corresponding angles are ….. when a pair of parallel lines are intersected
by a transversal in two distinct points.
(A) parallel (B) intersecting (C) non-parallel (D) none of these
3. Which of the following is incorrect for the given figure.

p
2 1
l
3 4
6 5
m
7 8
(A) 1 + 2 = 180 (B) 2 + 3 = 1 + 4 = 6 + 7

o
(C) 3 + 8 = 180 (D) 1 = 8

o
Space for rough

work
38
4. Three persons A, B and C are sitting on the circumference of the circle at equal distances forming a
triangle inside the circle. Find the angle subtend by side BC at the centre of the circle.
5. In the given figure, the arrangement of sides in ascending order is

A
x
c b
x + 10 70
B C
a
(A) c > b > a (B) b > c > a (C) a > c > b (D) none of these
6. In the given figure 1: 2  4 : 5 . Find 2  4  6  8  1  3  5  7

p
2 1
l
3 4
6 5
m
7 8
7. In the given figure CO and BO are the bisectors of exterior angles and interior angles ABC. The
measure of angle BOC is
A O
o
80
o
120
B
C D
o o o
Space for rough

work
39
8. For a triangle ABC, 5A = 3B and B = 5C, find the value of 3 times the largest angle.
o o o o
(A) 75 (B) 150 (C) 250 (D) 300
xy yx
x y
9. If x = 2 and y = 4, then   is
y x
(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 12 (D) 2
5n  125 , then 5 
n
64
10. If
1 1
(A) 25 (B) (C) 625 (D)
125 5
o o
11. The temperature at 12 noon was 10 C above zero. If it decreases at the rate of 2 C per hour until
o
midnight at what time would the temperature be 8 C below zero?
(A) 9 pm (B) 10 pm (C) 11 pm (D) none of these
1 2
12. A rectangular sheet of paper is 12 cm long and 10 cm wide. Its area in square m is
2 3
1 2 1 2 1 2
(A) m (B) m (C) m (D) none of these
75 90 105
13. If x1, x2, x3, x4, …. xn are the n different observations of data and N, a positive real number is subtracted
from each observations, the new mean will differ by
N
(A) (B) N (C) N – 2 (D) none of these
2
14. Fill in the blank place.

Mode = ….. Median − 2 Mean
15. If ,  are the possible solutions of the equation 2x  5  10 then  +  =

Space for rough

work
40
SSEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– IIV
V :: BBIIO
OLLO
OGGYY
1. Trachea of man is made up of

(A) Bone (B) Cartilage (C) Muscles (D) Phospholipid
2. During anaerobic respiration done by yeast how many ATP is formed from one molecule of
glucose.
(A) 38 (B) 42 (C) 2 (D) None
3. During night oxygen enters in mature plant through

(A) Stomata (B) Lenticel (C) Both (D) None
4. The swollen part of trachea in man which you can see from outside is
(A) Pharynx (B) Adams apple (C) Oesophagus (D) None
5. Aerobic respiration takes place in two phases. Its first phase which occurs in cytoplasm is called as
(A) Glycolysis (B) Krebs cycle (C) Calvin cycle (D) Meiosis
6. Anaerobic respiration done by lower plants are also called as

(A) Pasteurisation (B) Fermentation
(C) Artificial Insemination (D) Cryopreservation
7. Which of the following is a respiratory disease

(A) Emphysema (B) Asthama (C) Bronchitis (D) All of above
8. Which organism has longer intestine

(A) Herbivorous (B) Carnivorous (C) Parasites (D) All of the above
9. Haemoglobin contains which element in abundance

(A) Iron (B) Mg (C) Ca (D) Cu
41
10. Which part of the Gut secrets HCl
(A) Oesophagus (B) Stomach (C) Small Intestine (D) Colon
11. Photolysis of water takes place in

(A) Light reaction (B) Dark reaction
(C) Glycolysis (D) None
12. Which of the following is not an element of weather?

(A) Humidity (B) Temperature (C) Soil (D) Rain
13. Which of the following is an adaptation for cold climates?

(A) Thick fur (B) Long ear (C) Sweating gland (D) Light bones
14. The special features and habits of an animal survive in its environment are known as
(A) Evolution (B) Adaptation (C) Polymorphism (D) Hibernation
15. Long inactivity and metabolic depression of animals during winter is called.
(A) Aestivation (B) Hibernation
(C) Migration (D) Evolution
42
FIITJEE COMMON
TEST
UTYCRP (1618) A LOT Batches
PHASE – II Paper Code
NSEJS
SET – A
ANSWERS KEY
Physics [SECTION-I]
1. A 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. C
7. A 8. B 9. C 10. B 11. A 12. A
13. C 14. A 15. D
Chemistry [SECTION-II]
1. B 2. D 3. B 4. D 5. D 6. C
7. D 8. C 9. B 10. B 11. A 12. C
13. C 14. B 15. B
Mathematics [SECTION-III]
1. A 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. A 6. C
7. D 8. D 9. B 10. A 11. A 12. A
13. B 14. A 15. A
Biology [SECTION-IV]
1. B 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. B
7. B 8. C 9. B 10. B 11. A 12. B
13. D 14. B 15. A
43
FIITJEE COMMON TEST

UTYCRP 1618 A LOT Batches
NSEJS
PHASE –II
SET – A
SOLUTION
Physics [SECTION-I]
C  0 F  32 K  273
4.  
100 180 100
C F K
 
5 9 5
C F 1 F 9
    F  o F
5 9 5 9 5
C K

5 5
 K  1
C  0 F  32 37 F  32
5.     F  98.6F
100 180 5 9
K  C  273  37  273  310K
2U
6. Tflight  4 
g
 U  2g  19.6ms1
80
7. (A) average speed =  10kmh1
8
0
(B) average velocity =  0
8
5
9. u  45   12.5ms1
18
v=0
a=−1
u2 12.5  12.5
s   78.125m
2a 2
10.
44
A 40 km
B
N
30 km
60 km
W E
Origin
C
 distance = OA + AB + BC = 130 km
 displacement = shortest distance between final & initial point
 displacement = 302  402  50 km
45
Mathematics [SECTION-III]
1. Vertically opposite angles and angle sum property of a triangle.
2.
4.
A
o
60
O
o
120
B C
o o o
5. x + x + 10 + 70 = 180
 2x  180o  80
x  50o
C  B  A
c ba
6. 4x + 5x = 180 (Linear pair)

 9x  180
180
x   20o
9
1
7. BOC = BAC
2
8. A : B : C  3 : 5 : 1
 3x  5x  x  180o
 9x  180o  x  20o
2 4 4 2
2 4
9. 5  
  2
2
 1
    22
2
2  22  8
2
n
10. 5 2  125  n  6
46
o o
11. temperature difference = 10 C – (−8 C)
o
= 18 C
2 1
12. 1 cm = m2
100  100
13. If each observation is deviated by a certain number, the mean to gets deviated by the same.
14. Mode = 3 median – 2 mean
15
15.   2x  5  10   
2
5
  2x  5  10  2x  5  x  
2
15 5 10
    5
2 2 2
FIITJEE COMMON
TEST
for
PHASE TEST – II
QP CODE:
90

SET – A
INSTRUCTIONS
47
48
Section – I
Mathematics
1. In the given figure „l‟ and „m‟ are two lines intersecting each other. The bisectors of 1 and 3 are OL
and OM respectively. Which of them is a true statement?
l m
2
3 1
4O
(A) L, O, M collinear (B) L, M, O non-collinear

(C) LO and MO perpendicular (D) none of these
 
2. Ray OC stands on a line AB such that adjacent-angles are one third and half of a constant „K‟. Find
the value of K.
C
A O B
o o o
5
3. The complement and supplement of an angle are such that the complement is times its
14
supplement. The angle is
o o o
4. Three sides of a triangle are produced in order. The exterior angles so formed is each equal to one-
another. What kind of triangle is formed?
(A) isosceles triangle (B) scalene triangle (C) equilateral triangle (D) none of these
5. The angle formed by the bisectors of a linear pair of angles is

(A) right-angle (B) acute angle (C) obtuse angle (D) reflex angle
Space for rough

work
49
6. Which of the following is a correct statement about a triangle
(A) a triangle has two right angles (B) a triangle has two obtuse angles
o
(C) a triangle has two supplementary angles (D) sum of one third of each-angle is 60
1
7. From the given figure. Find the value of  y  z
3
P
m
y/3 y
o o o
8. The quadrilateral formed by joining the bisectors of interior-angles when two parallel lines are
intersected by a transversal is
(A) square (B) rectangle (C) rhombus (D) any quadrilateral
9. For an equilateral triangle 4  (Nos of medians) + 3 (nos of sides) = x times nos of vertices. Find the
value of x
(A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 10
2
10. In a triangle ABC, AD is the median such that area of triangle ABD is 40 cm then area of triangle ABC
is
2 2 2
(A) 40 cm (B) 80 cm (C) 120 cm (D) none of these
11. The altitudes of a triangle are concurrent. The point of concurrence is known as
(A) orthocenter (B) circumcenter (C) centroid (D) incentre
12. Name the triangle in which orthocentre, circumcentre, centroid and incentre are the same
(A) right angled triangle (B) obtuse angled triangle
(C) acute angled triangle (D) a triangles in which all the angles are equal
Space for rough

work
50
13. From the given figure find the complement of „x‟
A
o
40 x
o o
70 120
B D
E C
o o o
14. In the given figure CO and BO are the bisectors of ACD and ABC and triangle ABC is an equilateral
triangle. Find the measure of BOC.
O
A
B C D
o o o
15. Which of the following statements is incorrect for a triangle given as

A
c b
B a C
(A) a + b > c (B) c + a > b
(C) 1/2 perimeter of triangle ABC > b (D) 1/2 perimeter of triangle ABC < b
16. In the given figure, find the measure of (x + z)

A
70
x
z
E B C D
o o o
Space for rough

work
51
17. For a triangle ABC, A = 2B = 3C, then name the type of triangle ABC is
(A) right-angled triangle (B) acute angled triangle
(C) obtuse angled triangle (D) none of these
18. The sides of a triangle are consecutive positive integers such that the sum of squares of the two is
equal to the square of the third. The area of the triangle is
(A) 12 sq. units (B) 8 sq. units (C) 6 sq. units (D) none of these
19. A rectangle of length 40 cm and of diagonal 41 cm is constructed. Find the area of the square
described on its breadth
(A) 100 (B) 41 (C) 81 (D) 121
20. Find the difference in magnitude of perimeter and area of a rhombus whose diagonals are 16 cm and
30 cm.
21. The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 4 : 5 : 9 and the sides are three consecutive integers. The
length of longest side is
22. In an isosceles right triangle the bisectors of acute angles meet in a particular point O. Find the angle
subtended by the longest side at the point.
o o o
23. Which of the following is not correct

(A) two lines segments of length 4 cm are always congruent
(B) a person and his image in plane mirror are congruent
(C) two equilateral triangle are always congruent
(D) two circles of the same radii are always congruent
24. In the given figure, ABC  DEF , find EG

B
E
3 4
A C D F
5 G
13 12 16
5 5 5
Space for rough

work
52
25. In an isosceles triangle ABC, D is the midpoint of BC and B = 70 then CAD = ?
o
o o o
26. Triangle ABC and triangle DEF are congruent to each other as shown in the given figure. Find a + b +
c.
A D
4 c 10
a
B C E b F
9
27. ABC is a right triangle right angled at B, side AB is produced to point E such that AB = BE. The sides of
the triangle ABC are least possible positive integers. The length of CE is
28. ABC is an isosceles triangle. BL ⊥ AC, CM ⊥ AB. What about the relation between  and .
A
M L
 
B C
(A)  >  (B)  <  (C)  =  (D)  =  + 2
o
29. Two circles are congruent such that two chord AB and PQ of the corresponding circles are equal. What
is the relation between the angles X and Y respectively of the circles subtended by the respective
chords at the centre
(A) X = Y (B) X > y (C) X < Y (D) none of these
Space for rough

work
53
30. In the given figures ABC  PQR. Find the value of (b + c – a).
A P
o a
60
o
b c 70
B C Q R
o o o
31. ABC is a right angle triangle in which B = 90 . The midpoint M of side AC is at a distance of 5 cm from
o
vertex A. The length of BM is

32. In a square ABCD diagonals intersect each other in point O. The area of triangle AOB is X. Find the
2
value of X if the area of the square is 400 cm
2 2 2
33. The sum of largest integer and smallest integer is

(A) 0 (B) −∞ (C) +∞ (D) none of these
34. Which of the following is correct

(A) integers are closed under multiplication (B) the integer 0 is the identity under multiplication
(C) division is associative for integers (D) subtraction is commutative for integers
35. A mad man moves forward a distance of 10 m and comes back 5 m every 3 minutes. How much time
he will take to travel a distance of 100 m.
(A) 1 hours (B) 80 minutes (C) 1.5 hours (D) none of these
36. The product of additive inverse of „−a‟ and multiplicative inverse of the same is
(A) 1 (B) −1 (C) a (D) 1/a
37. „a‟ and „b‟ are two different fractions reciprocal of each other. „c‟ and „d‟ are another pair of fractions
reciprocal of each other. Find the value of  a  b    c  d
1 1 1
38. Find the average of , and
0.5 0.05 0.005
(A) 44 (B) 54 (C) 64 (D) 74
Space for rough

work
54
39. The median for first 10 natural numbers are
(A) 5 (B) 5.5 (C) 6 (D) 6.5
40. The mean of first n natural numbers is

2 n 1
(A) n (B) n(n + 1) (C) (D) none of these
2
41. (Mode + Median) of the data: 13, 16, 12, 14, 19, 12, 14, 13, 14 is
42. Two coins are tossed simultaneously. Find the probability of getting the same faces
3 1 1
4 4 2
43. A teacher has 45 chocolates. After giving two chocolates to each student, teacher is left with 7
chocolates. How many students are there in the class?
44. For the given pair of equations find the value of x2  y2 ,
3x + 5y = 21, 2x + 3y = 13
(A) 11 (B) 9 (C) 7 (D) 5
45. The co-ordinates of the point of intersection of the equations x = 5 and y = 3 are
5 3  3
(A) (3, 5) (B) (5, 3) (C)  ,  (D)  5, 
2 2  2
Space for rough

work
55
Section – II
Physics
1. What is temperature of which Centigrade and Fahrenheit scale show same reading?
o o o o
(A) 40 (B) – 40 (C) 80 (D) 100
2. In which way heat is transferred from sun to earth?

(A) conduction (B) convection (C) radiation (D) none of these
3. Using the absolute temperature the temperature at which water has greatest density.
o o
(A) 273 K (B) 273 K (C) 277 K (D) 277 K
-1
4. Latent heat of fusion of ice is 80 cal g . What is heat required to melt 10 gram ice in Joules
(A) 800 joules (B) 8 joules (C) 3360 joules (D) 336 joules
5. Which element is used in thermos flask to avoid heat loss from radiation?
(A) mercury (B) silver (C) both (D) none of these
6. The numerical ratio of speed to the velocity is

(A) always less than one (B) always equal to one
(C) equal to or more than one (D) equal to or less than one
7. It is given that acceleration is constant then distance is directly proportional to which power of time.
o 1 2 1/2
(A) t (B) t (C) t (D) t
8. An elephant & a feather is dropped from same height which will fall earlier. (ignore air drag)
(A) elephant (B) feather (C) both at same time (D) none of these
Space for rough

work
56
9. A particle covers quarter of a circle then ratio of distance to the displacement is as
   2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2 2 2 
-1
10. Tom is a cat & Jerry is a mouse. When Tom saw Jerry, then Jerry started running with 10 ms . When
-1
separation between them was 90 m. Tom started chasing at 25 ms . In how much time Tom will catch
Jerry?
(A) 10 sec (B) 9 sec (C) 3.6 sec (D) 6 sec
11. Cyclones are formed due to

(A) pressure difference (B) temperature difference
(C) both (D) none of these
12. Amount of water vapour in a atmosphere is called

(A) cyclone (B) storms (C) humidity (D) tornado
13. In cyclone prone-areas government should do

(A) construction of cyclone shelter (B) transport arrangement to escape it
(C) medical and food storage in shelter (D) all of these
14. To escape from injury in thunder storm

(A) sit inside car (B) sit inside building
(C) stay away from metal sheds & water bodies (D) all of these
15. Nose bleeding occur at high altitude due to

(A) high pressure of air (B) low pressure of air (C) both (D) none of these
Space for rough

work
57
Section – III
Chemistry
1. Among the following which one has not „ Sour‟ taste.

(A) Grape (B) Lemon (C) Orange (D) Beat
2. Indicator indicates Acid/base property by

(A) Change in state (B) Evolution of heat
(C) Change in colour (D) Change in Texture
3. Which one has lowest pH [more acidic] character in following

(A) Saliva (B) Blood (C) Sweat (D) Gastric Juice
4. Which salt is known as acid salt.

(A) Washing soda (B) Baking Soda (C) Soda ash (D) Caustic Soda
5. Which of the following natural substance used to defect both acidic and basic character after some
modification.
(A) Turmeric (B) Litchen (C) Hibiscus (D) Phenolphthalein
6. Formation of copper sulphate crystal from copper with concentrated sulpluric acid is chemical change
followed by physical process like
(P) Leaching (Q) Crystallization (R) Evaporation (S) Centrifugal separation
The correct sequence of process is.
(A) P → Q → R → S (B) P → R → Q → S (C) R → Q → P → S (D) S → R → Q → P
7. Which of the following metal does not undergoes any chemical change when kept open in air.
(A) Copper (B) Iron (C) Gold (D) Silver
8. A concentrated sugar solution is obtained by dissolving sugar in hot water which on cooling gives
crystal of sugar. This indicate
(A) Physical change is irreversible (B) Chemical change is irreversible
(C) Physical change is reversible (D) Chemical change is reversible
Space for rough

work
58
9. LPG gas is used in kitchen as domestic fuel. Which one is not correct statement regarding burning of
the former in gas stove.
(A) Travel of L.P.G to gas stove is a physical
(B) Burning of LPG in burner is chemical change
(C) Heating of griddle on stove is chemical change
(D) Heating of griddle on stove is physical change
10. Galvanization of iron protect it from rusting. The true statement regarding galvanization is.
(A) It is physical change by diping iron in molten zinc
(B) It is chemical change by diping iron in molten zinc

(C) It is physical change by diping iron in molten Aluminium
(D) It is chemical change by diping iron in molten Aluminium
11. Among the following which combination followed by chemical change.

(A) Zinc + Aluminium sulphate (B) Iron + Magnesium sulphate
(C) Iron + sliver nitrate (D) Nitrogen + Oxygen at room temperature
12. In metallurgical operation „roasting‟ and calcination process involved frequently true statement is.
(A) Roasting is chemical change calcination is physical change
(B) Roasting is physical change calcination may be chemical change
(C) Roasting is chemical while calcination may either physical or chemical change
(D) Roasting may be physical or chemical change but calcination is a chemical change.
13. Which one is not a physical change

(A) Twinkling of star (B) Reflection of mirror
(C) Sparkle of crackers (D) None of the above
14. Dissolution of sugar in water is physical process can be reversed by following steps
(I) Evaporation (II) Crystallization
(III) Precipitable (IV) Coagulation
Now which combination of physical process is suitable in sequence
(A) I – III (B) II – III (C) I – IV (D) I – II
15. Among the following which one is a chemical change regarding only water
(A) Electrolysis of water (B) Softening of hard water
(C) Evaporation of water (D) Freezing of water
Space for rough

work
59
Section – IV
Biology
1. Which compound is CO2 acceptor/carrier in the process of photosynthesis

(A) NADP (B) ATP (C) ADP (D) RUBP
2. Respiratory organ of frog is

(A) Skin (B) Lung (C) Buccal cavity (D) All of these
3. Largest contributor of atmospheric oxygen is

(A) Mango tree (B) Bacteria (C) Fungi (D) Marine algae
4. Empty stomach for a long time may cause

(A) Gas (B) Peptic ulcer (C) Emphysema (D) Both (A) and (B)
5. Ethyle alcohol is the end product of anaerobic respiration in

(A) Higher mammals (B) Mouse (C) Mango tree (D) Yeast
6. For inspiration in man

(A) Suction pressure is created by lungs (B) Pull force is created by trachea
(C) Atmospheric pressure plays main roll (D) None of these
7. Digestion of fat starts in

(A) Mouth (B) Stomach (C) Duodenum (D) Ileum
8. Moist skin is a modification for

(A) Pulmonary respiration (B) Pharyngeal respiration
(C) Branchial respiration (D) Cutaneous respiration
9. Use of ice cream after the meal

(A) Delays the digestion process (B) Speeds up digestion
(C) Kills the germs of food (D) No effect
10. Tidal volume in man is

(A) 1000 ml (B) 2000 ml (C) 500 ml (D) 1500 ml
60
11. Asphyxia means
(A) O2 starvation (B) Gastritis (C) Ulcer (D) Pain in abdomen
12. Birds are adapted to fly because of

(A) Streamlined body (B) Light bones (C) Feathers and wings (D) All of these
13. Water vapour present in atmosphere is called

(A) Humidity (B) Precipitation (C) Climate (D) Rainfall
14. Camouflage shown in polar bears is due to

(A) Thick fur (B) Padded feet (C) White fur (D) Two layers of feet
15. In India, rain forests are found in which of the following state.
(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Assam (C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Kerala
61
FIITJEE COMMON
TEST
PHASE – I1- (SAT)
ANSWER KEYS
SET – A
Mathematics
1. A 2. C 3. A 4. C 5. A 6. D
7. B 8. B 9. A 10. B 11. A 12. D
13. B 14. B 15. D 16. B 17. C 18. C
19. C 20. C 21. B 22. A 23. C 24. B
25. A 26. C 27. A 28. C 29. A 30. A
31. A 32. B 33. D 34. A 35. A 36. B
37. D 38. D 39. B 40. C 41. A 42. C
43. B 44. D 45. B
Physics
1. B 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. B 6. C
7. C 8. C 9. C 10. D 11. A 12. C
13. D 14. D 15. B
Chemistry
1. D 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. B 6. B
7. C 8. C 9. C 10. A 11. C 12. C
13. C 14. D 15. A
Biology
62
1. D 2. D 3. D 4. D 5. D 6. A
7. C 8. D 9. A 10. C 11. A 12 D
13. A 14. C 15. B
63
FIITJEE COMMON
TEST
PHASE – I1- (SAT)
SET – A
Solution
Mathematics
LOM = 180
o
1.
 L, O, M are collinear points.
k k
2.   180o [linear pair axiom]
3 2
3. 90 – x =
5
14

180o  x 
4. 180o  x  180o  x  180o  x  180o
x
o
180 - x
o
180 - x 180 - x
o x
 540o  180o  3x
AOB + BOC = 180

o
5.
P B
A O C
1 1
 AOB  BOC  90o
2 2
6. A  B  C  180o
1 1 1
 A  B  C  60o
3 3 3
64
y
7. y  180o
3
3y  y
  180o  y  135o
3
1 1
  y  z    180  60o
3 3
8. LO || MN
& LM || ON
 LMNO is a parallelogram
O
M
Also LMN = 90
o
9. 43  33  x3

 12  9  3x  21  3x  x  7
10. A median divides a triangle into two triangles of equal area.

A
B C
D
11.
N M Orthocentre
12. In an equilateral triangle, all the points coincide.

o o o
13. 120 = 70 + 40 + x
o o
120 – 110 = x
 120 = 110 + x  10 = x
o o
14. A  B  C  60o
65
O
A
B C D
ACD  120 o
BCO  60o  60o  120o

1
OBC   60o  30o
2
15. a+c>b
 a + b + c > 2b
Perimeter of triangle ABC > 2b
1
 perimeter of triangle ABC > b
2
16.   
70o  180o  x  180o  z  180o 
17. A  2B  3C  k
A  k A  B  C  180
k k k
B  k   180
2 2 3
k
C 
3
x2   x  1   x  2
2 2
18. [Pythagoras theorem]
x=3
1
Area =  4  3  6 sq. cm
2
2 2 2
19. BC = 41 – 4
D C
41
A 40 B
BC = 9 cm
2
Area of the required square = 9
20. perimeter = 68 cm
66
D C
15 O
8
A 17 B
2
Area = 240 cm
 difference in their magnitudes = 240 – 68 = 172 units
o
21. 4x + 5x + 9x = 180
 18x ÷ 180  x = 10
o
∵ the triangle is right angled

Now
y2   y  1   y  2  y  3
2 2
 the longest side of the triangle = 5 units
1 1
22. 1  2  A  C
2 2
A
O
2
B C
o
= 45
 AOC = 135
o
23. Two geometric figure are congruent only when their shape and size are the same.
2 2 2
24. 3 +4 =5
 ABC is a right angled triangle
Now arc(ABC) = arc(DEF)
1 1
 3  4   DF  EG
2 2
12  5  EG
12
 EG 
5
25. D is midpoint of BC
ADB  ADC
A
o o
70 70
B C
D
67
ADC = 90
o
CAD = 20
o
26. ABC  DEF

 AB = DE
BC = EF
AC = DF
27. ABC and EBC are congruent

CA = CE
And also the sides of ABC are 3, 4 & 5.
BLC  CMB
28.
  
29. OAB  OPQ
O O'
A B P Q
30. a = 60
B = 70 ABC  PQR
C = 50
 b + c – a = 120 – 60 = 60
o o o
A P
60
o a
o
b c 70
B C Q R
31. AM = BM
A
P M
B C
MPB  MPA
32. All the four triangles are congruent to one another

D C
A B
68
 their areas are equal
33.     not defined
34. Basic concept.
35. In 3 minutes distance covered = 5 m
10 m
36. Additive inverse of (−a) is „a‟

 1 
Multiplicative inverse of –a is  
 a 
37. product of reciprocal is 1.
 1 1 1 
38.  0.5  0.05  0.005   3  74
 
n n 
th observation    1 th observation
39. Median =
2 2 
2
When „n‟ is odd
n  n  1
40. The sum of first n natural numbers =
2
41. Simple concept of median and mode.
42. possible outcomes are {TT, HH, HT, TH}
43. Let x be the number of students in the class

 equation 2x + 7 = 45
44. On solving x = 2, y = 3
 x + y = -2 + 3 = - 4 + 9 = 5
2 2 2 2
45.
(5, 3)
69
Physics
C  0 F  32 x x  32
1.     9x  5x  160
100 180 100 180

 4x  160  x  40o 40o C  40o F 
o
3. at 4 C water has greatest density.
o
K = 273 + C = 273 + 4 = 277 K
4. 1 gram need 80 cal

∵ 10 gram need 800 cal = 800  4.2 = 3360 joules
distance displacement
6. 
time time
 speed  velocity
speed
 1
velocity
7. a = constant
V = u + at  v  t
1
S = ut  at 2  S  t 2
2
2r r
9. distance = 
4 2
Displacement = 2 r
r 1 
Ratio =  
2 2r 2 2
10. Let time taken = t sec

Distance covered by jerry in t sec
 s1 = vt = 10t
Distance covered by tom in t sec to catch jerry
= s2 = 25t = 10t + 90
 t = 6 sec
FIITJEE COMMON
TEST
for
PHASE – II
SET – A
70

QP CODE:
Time:90 Minutes Maximum Marks: 90
INSTRUCTIONS
A: General :
pen.
3. Darken the appropriate bubbles with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only.
Booklet with them.
2. For each question you will be awarded 1 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles is darkened. No Negative Mark will be awarded.
Enrollment No. : Batch :
Name :
From questions 1 – 25, in each of the following questions, there is a certain relationship between two given
words on one side of (: :) and one word is given on another side (: :) while another word is to be found from
the given alternatives having the same relation with this word as the words of the given pair bear. Choose
the correct alternative.
1. King : Throne : : Judge : ?
(A) Lawyer (B) Bench
(C) Court (D) Trial
2. Love : Friend : : Hate : ?

(A) Harted (B) Brother
(C) Enemy (D) Companion
71
3. Cobbler : Leather : : Tailor : ?

(A) Thread (B) Cloth
(C) Shirt (D) Draper
4. Collage : Dean : : Museum : ?

(A) Supervisor (B) Custodian
(C) Warden (D) Curator
5. Tea : Leaves : : Coffee : ?

(A) Plant (B) Leaves
(C) Seeds (D) Stimulant
6. USA : Congress : : Iran : ?

(A) Althing (B) Storting
(C) Majlis (D) Cortes
7. Ocean : Water : : Glacier : ?

(A) Cooling (B) Cave
(C) Ice (D) Mountain
8. Smoke : Pollution : : War : ?

(A) Peace (B) Victory
(C) Treaty (D) Destruction
9. Pyramid : Egypt : : Eiffel tower : ?

(A) Spain (B) France
(C) Canada (D) Japan
72
10. French : France : : Dutch : ?
(A) Holland (B) Norway
(C) Fiji (D) Sweden
11. Calander : Dates : : Dictionary : ?

(A) Vacobulary (B) Language
(C) Words (D) Book
12. Cricket : Pitch : : Wrestling : ?

(A) Ring (B) Wrestler
(C) Ground (D) Arena
13. Scientist : Laboratory : : Actor : ?

(A) Casino (B) Gallery
(C) Stage (D) Site
14. Motorcycle : Battery : : Life : ?

(A) Comet (B) Star
(C) Sun (D) Moon
15. Magazine : Editor : : Drama : ?

(A) Director (B) Player
(C) Manager (D) Actor
16. Aryabhata : Mathematician : : Varahamihira : ?

(A) Physician (B) Astronomer
(C) Scientist (D) Architect
17. Hongkong : China : : Vatican : ?

(A) France (B) Maxico
(C) Canada (D) Rome
18. Brinjal : Vegetable : : Orange : ?

(A) Fruit (B) Stem
(C) Leaf (D) Root
19. Abduct : Kidnap : : Solicit : ?

(A) Request (B) Ban
(C) Squander (D) Allot
20. Menu : Food : : Catalogue : ?

(A) Rack (B) Newspaper
(C) Library (D) Books
73
21. Mumbai : Maharashtra : : Trivandrum : ?

(A) Kolkata (B) Gujarat
(C) Kerala (D) Sikkim
22. Dog : Bark : : Goat : ?

(A) Bleat (B) Howl
(C) Grunt (D) Bray
23. Girl : Beautiful : : Boy : ?

(A) Smart (B) Heroic
(C) Courageous (D) Handsome
24. Touch : Feel : : Greet : ?

(A) Smile (B) Manners
(C) Acknowledge (D) Success
25. Radio : Listener : : Film : ?

(A) Producer (B) Actor
(C) Viewer (D) Director
26. Find the odd word from the group

(A) Dog (B) Cow
(C) Goat (D) Buffalo
27. Find the odd word.

(A) walking (B) running
(C) moving (D) reading

(A) car (B) bus
(C) scooter (D) jeep

(A) Patna (B) Lucknow
(C) Kolkata (D) Jamshedpur

(A) square (B) sphere
(C) rectangle (D) circle
74
(A) Rose (B) Lily
(C) Lotus (D) Grapes

(A) eye (B) bone
(C) ear (D) hand

(A) red (B) blue
(C) yellow (D) black

th th
(A) 14 November (B) 15 August
th nd
(C) 26 January (d) 2 October

(A) moon (B) football
(C) earth (D) bangles

(A) Green (B) indigo
(C) Pink (D) violet

(A) cheese (B) wine
(C) milk (D) curd

(A) debit (B) deposit
(C) deduction (D) withdrawal
39. Find the odd pair of word.

(A) horse : neigh (B) lion : grunt
(C) owl : hoot (D) sheep : bleat
40. Find the odd group at letters.

(A) HJA (B) NPE
(C) OQU (D) XYZ
75
41. Find the odd one.

(A) 216 (B) 33
(C) 8 (D) 64

(A) 75 (B) 45
(C) 25 (D) 15

(A) 345 (B) 821
(C) 236 (D) 182
44. Take out the odd one.

(A) 456 (B) 234
(C) 123 (D) 312
45. Find out the odd group.

(A) 25, 50, 56 (B) 20, 40, 46
(C) 18, 36, 40 (D) 12, 24, 30
46. If MEAT is written as TEAM, then BALE is written as

(A) ELAB (B) EABL
(C) EBLA (D) EALB
47. If in a certain code language MIGHT is written as GHMTI. Then how will EARTH be written in that
code?
(A) RTEHA (B) RTEAH
(C) REAEH (D) RETHA
48. If SILVER is coded as ZXYBDQ and KAMAL is coded as LNCNY, then what will be the code for
VIKAS?
(A) BXNLZ (B) ZXYCN
(C) BXLNZ (D) LNCBD
49. If a certain code language PUT is written as 57, the how will BAT be written in that language?
(A) 25 (B) 60
(C) 55 (D) 23
50. If B = 2, BAG = 10 then BOX = ?

(A) 36 (B) 39
(C) 41 (D) 52
76
51. If A = 1 and AND = 19 then CAT = ?
(A) 32 (B) 47
(C) 24 (D) 37
52. If A = 1 and AND = 56 then CAT = ?

(A) 60 (B) 65
(C) 75 (D) 55
53. If P = 16 and TAP = 37 then CUP = ?

(A) 40 (B) 38
(C) 36 (D) 39
54. If G = 7 and GOD = 420, then MOOD = ?

(A) 11700 (B) 10181
(C) 12500 (D) 95000
55. In a certain code language „he is great‟ is written as „ka pa ra‟ and „is Ram hanging‟ is written as „na
sa ka‟. Find the code for „is‟.
(A) na (B) sa
(C) ka (D) ra
56. In a certain code language 125 = go to school, 146 = study in school, 135 = run to school, which
digit is used for run?
(A) 6 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 1
From questions 57 – 61, read the following information carefully to answer the following question. In a
certain code language 4 6 1 means „where are you‟, 1 6 9 means „you are good‟ and 8 6 52 means „flowers
are not bad‟.
57. What is the code for „not‟?

(A) 6 (B) 8
(C) 2 (D) 8 or 5 or 2
58. What is the code for „good‟?

(A) 4 (B) 9
(C) 6 (D) 6 or 1
77
59. How will „where not are good flowers‟ be written in coded language?
(A) 68954 (B) 46598
(C) 45698 (D) none of these
60. How will „are you where‟ be written in the coded language?
(A) 614 (B) 163
(C) 618 (D) 168
61. What does „59‟ means?

(A) not good (B) bad are
(C) not bad (D) data indequate
62. If 3, 1, 11, 5 represents CAKE, 6, 1, 9, 12 is FAIL. What represents FIRST?

(A) 9, 18, 6, 14, 20 (B) 6, 18, 9, 19, 20
(C) 6, 9, 18, 19, 20 (D) 18, 19, 20, 9, 6
63. If Z = 52 and ACT = 48, then BAT?

(A) 39 (B) 41
(C) 44 (D) 46
64. In a certain code PROSE is written as PPOQE. How would LIGHT be written in that code?
(A) LIGFT (B) LGGHT
(C) LGGFT (D) JIEHR
65. If CONSTABLE is coded as 91, what will be the code number of STABLE?
(A) 97 (B) 59
(C) 79 (D) 75
66. 1, 6, 15, ?, 45, 66, 91

(A) 25 (B) 26
(C) 27 (D) 28
67. 1, 9, 25, 49, ?, 121

(A) 64 (B) 81
(C) 91 (D) 100
68. 1, 2, 3, 6, 9, 18, …., 54

(A) 18 (B) 27
(C) 36 (D) 81
78
69. 0, 6, 24, 60, 120, 210, ….
(A) 240 (B) 290
(C) 336 (D) 504
70. 1, 3, 3, 6, 7, 9, ?, 12, 21
(A) 10 (B) 11
(C) 12 (D) 13
71. Find the next two terms in the same series A, C, F, J, ?

(A) L, P (B) M, O
(C) O, U (D) R, V
72. 3, 3, 4.5, 9, 22.5, ?

(A) 27.5 (B) 24
(C) 55 (D) 67.5
73. 7200, 3600, 1200, 300, 60, ?

(A) 10 (B) 25
(C) 15 (D) 20
From questions 74 – 78, read the following information carefully to answer the questions that follow.
(i) A, B, C, D, E and F are the six members of family.
(ii) F is the granddaughter of E.
(iii) D is the grandmother of A.
(iv) C is the mother of F and wife of B.
(v) B‟s mother is D.
(vi) There are two married couple in the family.
74. How many males are there in the family?

(A) 4 (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) cannot be determined
75. What is C‟s relation with A?

(A) mother (B) grandmother
(C) daughter (D) cannot be determined
76. Take out the true statement.

(A) A is sister of F (B) A is F‟s brother
(C) D has two grandson (D) none of the above
79
77. Who among the following is one of the couple?

(A) EB (B) DE
(C) CD (D) cannot be determined
78. How many female there in the family?

(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) cannot be determined
From questions 79 – 81, read the following information carefully and answer the question given below.
(i) „P×Q‟ means P is the father of Q.
(ii) „P−Q‟ means P is the sister of Q.
(iii) „P+Q‟ means P is the mother of Q.
(iv) „P÷Q‟ means P is the brother of Q.
79. If the expression B + D × M ÷ N. How is M related to B.

(A) granddaughter (B) son
(C) grandson (D) none of these
80. Which of the following represent „J is the son of B‟.

(A) J ÷ R – T × F (B) J + R – T × F
(C) J ÷ M – N × F (D) none of these
81. Which of the following represent „R is the niece of M‟.

(A) M ÷ K × T − R (B) M – J + R – N
(C) R – M × T ÷ W (D) none of these
From questions 82 – 84, if „−„ = „×‟, „÷‟ = „+‟, and „+‟ = „−„ then what will the value of the following.
82. 7 ÷ 3 – 10 ÷ 15 + 2
(A) 56 (B) 59
(C) 52 (D) 50
83. 12 – 3 + 14 ÷ 5
(A) 38 (B) 25
(C) 23 (D) 27
80
84. 8÷9+7÷6–3
(A) 21 (B) 24
(C) 28 (D) 30
85. If 782 = 20 and 671 = 17 then 884 = ?

(A) 32 (B) 19
(C) 26 (D) 23
86. The sum of two numbers, one of which is one third of the other is 36. The smaller number is
(A) 6 (B) 7
(C) 8 (D) 9
87. If in a certain language WEAK is coded as 9%25 and SKIT is coded as #57@ then how will WAIT
be coded in the same language
(A) 9267 (B) 9276
(C) 72@6 (D) none of these
88. Find the whole number which when increased by 20 is equal to one sixth times of the new number.
(A) 7 (B) 5
(C) 3 (D) 4
89. The smallest number by which 3600 can be divided to make a perfect cube is
(A) 9 (B) 50
(C) 300 (D) 450
90. The LCM of two numbers is 280 and their ratio is 7 : 8. The two number are
(A) 7, 8 (B) 42, 48
(C) 35, 40 (D) 28, 32
81
FIITJEE COMMON
TEST
UTYCRP 1618 LOT A Batches
PHASE – II
MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT)
SET – A
QP CODE:
Answer
1. B 2. C 3. B 4. D 5. C 6. C
7. C 8. D 9. B 10. A 11. C 12. D
13. C 14. C 15. A 16. A 17. D 18. A
19. A 20. D 21. C 22. A 23. D 24. C
25. C 26. A 27. D 28. C 29. D 30. B
31. D 32. B 33. D 34. A 35. D 36. C
37. B 38. B 39. B 40. D 41. B 42. C
43. A 44. D 45. C 46. D 47. A 48. C
49. D 50. C 51. C 52. A 53. A 54. A
55. C 56. C 57. D 58. B 59. D 60. A
82
61. D 62. C 63. D 64. C 65. B 66. D
67. B 68. B 69. C 70. D 71. C 72. D
73. A 74. D 75. A 76. D 77. B 78. B
79. C 80. D 81. B 82. D 83. D 84. C
85. D 86. D 87. D 88. D 89. D 90. C
83
FIITJEE COMMON
TEST
UTYCRP 1618 LOT A Batches
PHASE – II
MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT)
SET – A
QP CODE:
Solution
1. As king  throne, judge  bench
2. love  hate, friend  enemy
3. cobbler  leather, tailor  cloths
4. collage  dean, museum  curator
5. tea  leaves, coffee  seeds
6. USA  Congress, Iran  Mailis
7. ocean  water, glacier  ice
8. smoke  pollution, war  destruction
9. pyramid  Egypt, effill tower  france
10. French  France, Dutch  Holland
11. calander  dates, dictionary  word
12. cricket  pitch, wrestler  arena
13. scientist  laborary, actor  stage
14. motorcycle  battery, life  sun
15. magazine  editor, drama  director
16. aryabhatta  mathematician, varahamihira  physician
17. hongkong  china, Vatican  rome
18. brinjal  vegetable, orange  fruit
84
19. abduct  kidnap, solicit  request
20. menu  food, catalogue  books
21. Mumbai  Maharashtra, Trivandrum  kerela
22. dog  bark, goat  bleat
23. girl  beautiful, boy  handsome
24. touch  feel, greet  acknowledge
25. radio  listener, film  viewer
26. only dog is omnivorous
27. all except reading are related to motion.
28. except scooter all are four wheeler.
29. except Jamshedpur all are capitals of states.
30. except sphere all are two-dimensional figure.
31. except grapes all are flowers.
32. except bone all are organs.
33. except black all others are primary colours.

th
34. except 14 November. All are national holidays.
35. except bangle all other item do not have whole.
36. except pink all are part of „VIBGYOR‟
37. except wine all are milk or milk product.
38. except deposite all are similar words.
39. except lion-grunt all are correct match of animal and their sound.
40. except XYZ. All have two letters difference
41. except 33 all no. are cubes of natural no.
42. except 25 all are divisible of 3
43. except 345 addition in 11.
44. except 312 all are increasing order of digits.
45. except 18, 36, 40 all no. grous have second number double the first number and third number 6
more than second number.
46.
MEAT TEAM , BALE EALB
85
M I G H T 
 G H M T I E A R T H 
 R T E H N
47.
1 2 3 4 5 3 4 1 5 2 1 2 3 4 5 3 4 1 5 2
48.
SZ
K L Y B
I X
A N I X
LY
MC K L
V B
A N A N
E D
LY SZ
RQ
49. 16 21 20
P U T  16 + 21 + 20 = 57
2 1 20
B A T  2 + 1 + 20 = 23
50. B=2
BAG=2+1+7=0
B O X = 2 + 15 + 24 = 41
51. same as Q. N. 50.
52. A=1
A N D = 56 C A T
1 × 14 × 4 3 × 1 × 20 = 20
53. P = 16
T – 20 C–3
A–1 U – 21 = 40
P – 16 P – 16
54. M = 13
13 1 4 13 15 15 4
M A D M O O D
13 ×1 × 4 = 52 13 × 15 × 15 × 4 = 11700
55. He is great  Ka d ra
Is ram hungry  na sa ka
∵ is = ka
56. 1 2 5  go to school
1 4 6  study in school
1 3 5  run to school
 run = 3
57-61. 4 6 1  where are you
1 6 9  you are good
8 6 5 2  flowers are not bad
86
62. letters are coded according to their place in english alphabets
63. ACT = 1 × 2 + 3 × 2 + 20 × 2 = 48
BAT = 2 × 2 + 1 × 2 + 20 × 2 = 46
64.
P 
P L 
L
2 2
R  P I  G
O 
O G 
G
2
S  Q H 
2
F
E 
E T 
T
65. value of alphabetical position
66. patter +5, +9, +13, +17, +21, +25 ….

2 2 2 2 2 2
67. 1 , 3 , 5 , 7 , 9 , 11
68. alternate number multiplied by 3

3 3 3 3 -3
69. 1 – 1, 2 – 2, 3 – 3, 4 – 4. 5 – 5
70.
+2 +4 +6 +8
1, 3, 3, 6, 7, 9, 13, 12, 21
71. difference between two letters are increasing
72.
3 3 4.5 9 22.5 67.5
x1 x1.5 2 2.5 x3
73.
7200 3600 1200 300 60 10
2 3 4 5 6
80. check by option
81. check by option
82. = 7 + 3 × 10 + 15 – 2
= 7 + 30 + 15 – 2 = 50
83. 12 × 3 – 14 + 5 = 27
84. 8 + 9 – 7 + 6  3 = 28
85. 782 = (7 + 8 + 2) + 3 = 20
671 = (6 + 7 + 1) + 3 = 17
884 = (8 + 8 + 4) + 3 = 23
86. let the no be 3x and x

A/q 3x + x = 36
∴x=9
87
88. let two whole no be x

1
 x   x  20 
6
4
3600
 8   2
3
89.
450
90. Let the number be 7x and 8x

 HCF = x
 LCM  HCF = product of numbers
 280 × = 56x
2
∵x=5
∵ numbers are 35 and 40
FIITJEE COMMON TEST

NSEJS Q.P CODE
xxxxxx.x
PHASE –III
SET – (A)
Time: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 180
1. The question paper consists of 4 parts (Physics -Section-I, Chemistry - Section-II, Mathematics-
Section-III and Biology- IV) and each part consists of four sections.
2. Each Section contains 15 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D) for its answer, out of which only one is correct.
B. Marking scheme:
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases,
minus one (1) mark will be awarded.
88
Enrolment No. :
Name : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Batch : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Date:. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
89
SECTION – I
Physics
1. Two resistors of resistance 2 and 4 when connected to a battery will have:
(A) same current flowing through them when connected in parallel
(B) same current flowing through them when connected in series
(C) same potential difference across them when connected in series
(D) different potential difference across them when connected in parallel
V 
2. The following circuit diagram shows the experimental set-up for +
the study of dependence of current on potential difference.
Which two circuit components are connected in series?
– R
(A) Battery and voltmeter
A
(B) Ammeter and voltmeter + 
+ ( )
(C) Ammeter and Rheostat
(D) Resistor and voltmeter
3. In the given circuit the voltmeter and ammeter readings would be

V 
respectively: +
(A) 0 V and 0 A each (B) 3V and 1A 6
(C) 1V and 3A (D) 3V and 3A 6
+  () –
A
+
3V
4. A constant current flows in a horizontal wire in the plane of the paper N

from East to West as shown in figure. The direction of magnetic field
at a point will be North to South:
W E
(A) directly above the wire
(B) directly below the wire
(C) at a point located in the plane of the paper, on the North side of S
the wire W E
(D) at a point located in the plane of the paper, on the South side of
the wire
5. Three resistors are connected to a 10-V battery as shown 4.0  4.0 

in the figure. What is the current through the 2.0 
resistor? 10 V 2.0 
(A) 0.25 A (B) 0.50 A
(C) 1.0 A (D) 2.0 A
6. The SI unit of heat is:

(A) calorie (B) Btu
(C) kilocalorie (D) joule
90
7. The initial velocity of a train which is being stopped in 20 s by applying breaks (retardation
due to brakes being 1.5 m/s2)
(A) 30 m/s (B) 30 cm/s
(C) 20 cm/s (D) 50 cm/s
8. An electric train is moving with a velocity of 120 km/h. How much distance will it cover in
30 s?
(A) 5 km (B) 2 km
(C) 1 km (D) none of these
9. Unit of electric power may also be expressed as:

(A) volt ampere (B) kilowatt hour
(C) watt second (D) joule second
10. In an experiment to study the dependence of current on

potential difference across a resistor, a student obtained the 0.4
graph as shown in the diagram. The value of resistance of
 0.3
the resistor is, I (A) 0.2
(A) 0.1 (B) 1.0 
0.1
(C) 10 (D) 100 
1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0
V (Volt) 
11. Two magnetic field lines:

(A) intersect at neutral point (B) never intersect each other
(C) intersect near North-pole or South-pole (D) intersect at the mid-point of the magnet
12. The current flowing through a resistor

100 200 1 2
connected in an electrical circuit and the
potential differences developed across its
ends are shown in the given diagrams. The
value of resistance of the resistor in ohm is: 0 mA 300 0 V 3
(A) 25
(B) 20
(C) 15
(D) 10
13. A resistance coil is made by combining two 2.5 Ohm resistance in series. A 1.0 V steady
voltage is applied across the two ends of the coil for 5 minutes. The heat generated is:
(A) 30 J (B) 60 J
(C) 90 J (D) 120 J
14. Specific heat of a substance depends on its:

(A) mass (B) volume
(C) temperature (D) nature
15. The centre of the cyclone having low pressure is called:

(A) Nose of the storm (B) Neck of the storm
(C) Eye of the storm (D) None of these
91
SECTION – II
Chemistry
1. The gas which escape out from many aerated soft drinks is
(A) H2 (B) CO2
(C) O2 (D) N2
2. The dried perspiration of sheep is called

(A) suint (B) yalk
(C) web (D) none of these
3. Soil erosion means the removal of top soil. This is brought about by wind and water or
rain. Soil erosion is caused by
(A) deforestation (B) overgrazing
(C) poor farming method (D) all
4. Other name of alluvial soil is

(A) Regar (B) khadar
(C) alluvial soil (D) red soil
5. The soil transported by flowing water is called as

(A) soluble soil (B) colluvial soil
(C) alluvial soil (D) olive soil
6. What are the features of top-soil.

(A) It is darkest in colour among the other types of soil
(B) it is rich in humans
(C) it is very fertile
(D) all
7. 200 gm of a soil is taken and dried completely in bright sunshine. The mass of dried soil is
found to be 170 gm. Calculate the % of water (or moisture) present in the given sample of
soil.
(A) 10% (B) 15%
(C) 20% (D) 25%
8. Which soil has the highest humus content

(A) Mountain soil (B) Laterite soil
(C) Red soil (D) Black soil
9. Name living organism present in soil

(A) Ant (B) Scorpion
(C) Earth-worm (D) All
92
10. What is a soil horizon?

(A) A factor influencing how soil is formed (B) A layer of soil
(C) An organism found within the soil (D) A technique used to map soils
11. Which three layers form the soil profile?

(A) Air. water and soil
(B) Minerals, organic matter and living organisms
(C) Clay, silt and sand
(D) The topsoil, subsoil and parent material
12. How does a 'sandy' soil feel like to touch?

(A) Sticky (B) Gritty
(C) Smooth (D) none of these
13. Why is organic matter (humus) an important part of soil?

(A) It helps to improve water infiltration
(B) It can break down organic pollutants
(C) It converts nitrogen in the air into nitrates used by plants
(D) It is rich in nutrients, which is important for fertility
14. Which of the following is NOT a common reason why soil maps are used?
(A) To determine the land drainage capabilities of an area
(B) To determine the suitability of soils for particular crops
(C) To identify soils and their properties
(D) To record how soils are used by people
15. A horizon of soil also designated as

(A) Eluviated horizon (B) Illuviated horizon
(C) both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
93
SECTION – III
Mathematics
1. The value of 0.6  0.7  0.5  0.2  0.4
(A) 0.13 (B) 0.31
(C) 0.1 (D) 1
2ps  3qr
2. If p : q = 1 : 3 and r : s = 2 : 5 then the value of is equal to
3pr  5qs
8
(A) 0 (B)
81
8 80
(C) (D)
81 81
0.1 0.01 0.001 0.0001

3.    is equal to
100 0.001 0.0001 0.00001
(A) 0.0004 (B) 0.0000
(C) 40 (D) 30.001
1 1 1
4. The value of the expression:  
 a  b  a  c  b  c b  a   c  a  c  b 
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) – 1 (D) a + b + c
5. A boat travels with a speed of 15 km/h in still water. In a river flowing at 5 km/hr, the boat
travels some distance downstream and then returns. The ratio of average speed to the
speed in still water is :
(A) 8 : 3 (B) 3 : 8
(C) 8 : 9 (D) 9 : 8
1
6. ABCD is a parallelogram. P is a point on AD such that AP = AD and Q is a point on BC
3
1
such that CQ = BC. then what kind of quadrilateral AQCD is
3
(A) Rhombus (B) Parallelogram
(C) Square (D) Rectangle
7. If 60x = 5, then 12 = __________.

(A) 51x (B) 60x 1
(C) 5x 1 (D) 601 x
94
8. What should be subtracted from p4 + 3p2 + 1 to get p2 + p – 1?

(A) p4 + 2p2 – p + 2 (B) 2p2 + 2
4
(C) p + p + 2 (D) p3 – 2p
9. At what rate percent of simple interest will Rs. 250 amount to Rs. 300 in 4 years?
(A) 4% (B) 6%
(C) 5% (D) None of these
10. During one year, the population of a town increased by 10% and during the next year, it
diminished by 10%. Then the population now is:
(A) same as in the beginning (B) greater than that in the beginning
(C) less than that in the beginning (D) none of the above
 
If 3m  3m   81 , then m = __________.
2 2 m
11.
 
(A) 3 (B) 6
(C) –6 (D) –3
12. 1  1  1  1  1  1  1  2   __________.

1 5
(A) (B)
2 8
(C) 1 (D) 2
13. D is an interior point of triangle ABC and x, y, z and w A

are the measures of the angles in degrees, as shown in the x
figure. An expression for x in terms of y, z and w is
(A) w  y  z
D
(B) w  2 y  2z w
y
(C) 2w  y  2z z
B
(D) 180  w  y  z
0
C
14. If a + b = - 2 then the value of a3 + b3 + 8 = ?

(A) 8ab (B) 2ab
(C) 4ab (D) 6ab
1 3 1 3 1 2 1
15. p  q  p q  pq2 equals
8 27 4 6
 2p  3q   3p  2q 
3 3
(A)  (B) 
 2   6 
p   q  p  q 
3 3 3
(C)      (D) 
 2   3   6 
95
SECTION – IV
Biology
1. When mechanical pressure is applied to the soft stems, the rate of ascent of sap
(A) Stops
(B) Increases
(C) Remains unaffected
(D) Increases in the beginning and then stops
2. In angiosperms, each pollen grain produces two sperms. What do these sperms do in the
fertilization of a flower?
(A) Each one fertilizes a separate egg cell to give rise to two seeds
(B) One fertilizes an egg cell and the other fertilizes a cell that gives rise to the tissue of
the fruit
(C) Both fertilizes a single egg cell
(D) One fertilizes an egg cell and the other fertilizes a cell that forms food reserve tissue
3. Mammals are said to have a double circulatory system. It means that

(A) Blood vessels are paired, e.g., artery to each leg
(B) There are two types of blood vessels attached to every organ e.g., an artery and a vein
(C) There are two systems, one from the heart to the lungs and then latter to the rest of
the body
(D) The blood circulates twice in the heart during each trip around the body
4. Which of the following specifies that sexual reproduction is advantageous over asexual
reproduction?
(A) It produces more off-springs
(B) It ensures survival of the species
(C) It preserves the parental genes
(D) It increases the variations among the off-springs
5. Blood leaving liver and entering into the heart, has usually high concentration of
(A) Urea (B) Bile
(C) Glucose (D) Erythrocytes
6. Which of the following methods of vegetative propagation is also known as “GOOTEE”?

(A) Grafting (B) Bud layering
(C) Air layering (D) Cutting
7. If 50% leaves are removed from a plant, the rate of transpiration by remaining leaves will :
(A) decrease (B) remain unchanged
(C) increase (D) depend on the prevailing conditions
8. Match the following:

(1) Transpiration (i) Reproduction in angiosperms
(2) Guttation (ii) Plasmodium
(3) Fragmentation (iii) Lenticles
(4) Triple fusion (iv) Hydathodes
(v) Spirogyra
(A) 1 – iii, 2 – v, 3 – iv, 4 – i (B) 1 – iii, 2 – iv, 3 – v, 4 – ii
(C) 1 – iii, 2 – iv, 3 – v, 4 – i (D) 1 – ii, 2 – iii, 3 – v, 4 – i.
9. When the new individuals are formed without fusion of gametes:

(A) Apo-mixis (B) Amphi-mixis
(C) Pollination (D) Chromosomal mingling
96
10. A method in which roots are induced on the stem while it is still attached to the parent
plant is called:
(A) Layering (B) Cutting
(C) Grafting (D) Vivipary
11. What percent of water utilize by plant during transpiration?

(A) 50% (B) Only 2%
(C) 70% (D) 98%
12. Absence of which of these in bile, will make the fat digestion difficult?
(A) Cholesterol (B) Salts
(C) Pigments (D) Acids
13. Dead space in the respiratory system is

(A) Upper respiratory tract (B) Nasal chambers
(C) Alveolar space (D) Lower respiratory tract
14. In an experiment, CO2 availed to a C3 plant, was labelled with a radioactive isotope and
the amount of radioactivity in the chloroplast was measured as photosynthesis proceeded.
In which of the following molecules did the radioactivity first appear?
(A) Glucose (B) Ribulose biphophate
(C) Phospho-enol pyruvate (D) Phospho-glycerate
15. Athletes are often trained at high altitudes because

(A) training at high altitude increases muscle mass
(B) training at high altitude increases the number of red blood cells
(C) there is less chance of an injury at high altitude
(D) athletes sweat less at high altitude
97
FIITJEE COMMON TEST

NSEJS Q.P CODE
xxxxxx.x
PHASE –III
SET – (A)
Answer key
Q. No Phy Chem Maths Bio

Ans Concept Code Ans Concept Code Ans Concept Code Ans Concept Code
1 B P070302 B C070204 D M071303 A
2 C P070304 A C070103 B M072501 D
3 B P070302 D C070407 D M071203 D
4 B P070307 B C070403 A M072101 D
5 C P070302 C C070403 C M072101, 02 A
6 D P070201 D C070402 B M070802 C
7 A P070106 B C070405 D M070101, 02 B
8 C P070104 A C070401 A M070509 C
9 A P070305 D C070406 C M072507 A
10 C P070303 B C070402 C M072504 A
11 B P070308 B C070402 B M070101, 02 B
12 D P070303 B C070404 B M071402, 10 B
13 B D C070406 A M072206 A
14 D P070201 C C070408 D M070315 D
15 C P070504 A C070406 B M070304 B
FIITJEE COMMON TEST

PHASE – III
QP CODE: xxxxxx.x
SET-(A)
Time: 1 ½ hours Maximum Marks: 90

98
INSTRUCTIONS
Name of the Candidate : ……………….…………………………………………….
Enrollment Number : ……………………………………………………………..
99
SECTION – I
Mathematics
1. Find the value of „x‟ from the given figure if I || m. P Q l
(A) 12o (2x-15)
3x
(B) 24 o
(C) 96 o
(D) 48 o 75
o
S R m
2. The following observations have been arranged in ascending order. If the median of data
is 63. Find the value of x.
29,32, 48,50, x, x  2,72,78,84,95
(A) 61 (B) 62
 3.63 2   2.37 2
3. is simplified to:
3.63  2.37
(A) 6 (B) 1.36
(C) 2.26 (D) 1.26
 1  1  1  1 
4. Find the value of 1  1  1  1  ?
 a  a  1  a  2  a  3 
a 1 a 1
(A) (B)
a3 a2
a 1 a 1
(C) (D)
a4 a 3
5. A bag contains 25 paisa, 10 paisa and 5 paisa coins. If these are in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3
respectively and the total amount of money is Rs 30, what is the number of 5 paisa coins?
(A) 150 (B) 50
(C) 100 (D) 200
6. Ram kishan sells an article at a profit of 6%. If he sells it for Rs. 200 more, then there
would be profit of 10%. What is the C.P. of the article?
(A) Rs 4500 (B) Rs 6000
(C) Rs 5000 (D) none of these
100
If  x  1   y  3   z  5   t  7   0 then find the value of xyzt  16 .

2 2 2 2
7.
(A) 121 (B) 122
(C) 105 (D) 16
9
8. If the probability of winning a game is , then what is the probability of it‟s losing?
11
2 7
(A) (B)
11 9
2 7
(C) (D)
9 11
9. Four bells toll at interval of 6, 8, 12 and 18 seconds. If they begin to toll at 12 together,
what is the least time after that they will again toll together?
(A) 60 seconds (B) 72 seconds
(C) 80 seconds (D) none of these
10. If l || m and n is a transversal. Also 1 = (5x – 20)° and N

5 = (2x + 10)°, then 7 = 1 2
(A) 38° (B) 30° 4 l
3
(C) 10° (D) 70° 5 6
m
8 7
11. If ABCD is rhombus, then:

(A) AC2 + BD2 = 4AB2 (B) AC2 + BD2 = AB2
(C) AC2 + BD2 = 2AB2 (D) 2(AC2 + BD2) = 3AB2
p
12. The rational number of the form , q  0, p and q are positive integers, which represents
q
0.134 i.e., (0.134134....) is :
(A) 134 (B) 134
999 990
(C) 133 (D) 133
999 990
101
13. The value of 388  127  289 is

(A) 17 (B) 12
(C) 20 (D) None of these
14. If 6  6  6        P , then value of P is:

(A) 6 (B) 4
(C) 2 (D)3
x 7 3x 7
15. If , , and are in proportion then x = _________.
2 x 2 3
(A) 3 (B) 6
(C) 9 (D) 10
16. 63, 45, 72 litres are to be drawn from three cans respectively. What is the exact capacity
of measure which will do it most quickly?
(A) 7 litres (B) 8 litres
(C) 9 litres (D) 11 litres
17. (a% of b) + (b% of a) is equal to:

(A) a% of b (B) 2% of ab
(C) 20% of ab (D) 2% of 100ab
18. If „S‟ is selling price and „C‟ is cost price. Both are satisfying the following relation
3S + 4C = 7S – 2C What can be said about the transaction profit or loss?
(A) 100% profit (B) 50% loss
(C) 50%profit (D) 40% profit
5 41
19. If x    3 then x is equal to
12 12
(A) - x (B) - x
(C) 0 (D) 1
20. Find the sum of  A,  B,  C,  D and  E. A

(A) 108° (B) 180°
(C) 90° (D) 120° B E
C D
102
21. In the given figure, PQ  PS, PQ  SR . If SQR  28 and P Q

x
QRT  65 then value of x and y are
(A) x  37,y  53 28
(B) x  25,y  65
(C) x  28,y  62 y
37 65
(D) x  62,y  28 S R T
22. Even after reducing the marked price of a transistor by Rs. 32, a shopkeeper makes a
profit of 15%. If the cost price be Rs. 320, what percentage of profit would he have made
if he had sold the transistor at the marked price?
(A) 20% (B) 25%
(C) 30% (D) 28%
23. Determine x and y so that 53x + y = 625 and 12520x + 7y = (625)3/4.

(A) 27, 50 (B) 27, 77
(C) 27, – 77 (D) 27, – 50
24. The difference between compound interest and simple interest on certain amount of
money at 5% per annum for 2 years is Rs.15. Find the sum.
(A) Rs.4,500 (B) Rs.7,500
(C) Rs.5,000 (D) Rs.6,000
25. A man sold two watches of Rs.3,750 each; on one he gained 5% and on the other he lost
5%. What was his total gain or loss as a percentage?
1 1
(A) 1 % (B) %
4 2
1
(C) % gain (D) none of these
4
26. If each interior angle of a regular polygon is twice as large as the exterior angle, the
number of sides is
(A) 4 (B) 6
(C) 10 (D) 8
27. A mobile worth Rs. 9000 is sold by Mr. A to Mr. B at a 10% loss. Mr. B sells the mobile
back to Mr. A at a 10% gain. The result of the two transactions is:
(A) Mr. A breaks even (B) Mr. B gains Rs. 810
(C) Mr. A loses Rs. 900 (D) Mr. A loses Rs. 810
103
28. 3.6  0.8  __________.

(A) 2.2 (B) 3.2
(C) 2.7 (D) 2.8
29. If x% of 10 is 10, then x = __________.

(A) 10 (B) 100
30. a4 + 4a2b2 + b4 is greater than a4 – 8a2b2 + b4 by ________.

(A) 12a 2b2 (B) 12a 2 b2
4 2
(C) 12a b (D) 12a 2b4
31. The value of 2x3 at x = –k is:

(A) 2k3 (B) –2k3
(C) (–2k)3 (D) –(2k)3
PTR
32. Given I  , then R = _________.
100
100 I 100 P
(A) (B)
PT IT
100T
(C) (D) None of these
IP
 7 
1
33.  x  101 , then x = __________.
10 7
(A)  (B) 
7 10
7 10
(C) (D)
10 7
34. If A = (2x3 – 5) and B = (3x2 – 1), then the value of product of A, B at x = 1 is:
(A) 5 (B) 6
(C) –6 (D) None of these
35. y2 – 5y + 6 = 0 for y = ________.

(A) 2 (B) 4
104
36. If 100% of x = 50% of y then which of the following is true?

(A) x = 2y (B) y = 2x
(C) x = y (D) None of these
ab
37. If a : b = 4 : 5, then 
ba
(A) 9 (B) 1
4 5
(C) (D)
5 4
38. Calculate the simple interest on Rs. x for x years at the rate x% p.a.
x x2
(A) (B)
100 100
x3 x3
(C) (D)
100 1000
39. What percent of 36 is 9?

(A) 9 (B) 25
(C) 50 (D) 75
40. Chalk contains calcium, carbon and oxygen in the ratio 10:3:12 and in a stick of chalk,
carbon is 3g, what is the weight of chalk stick?
(A) 10 g (B) 3 g
(C) 12 g (D) 25 g
41. What should be taken away from 3x2 – 4y2 + 5xy + 20 to obtain – x2 – y2 + 6xy + 20?
(A) 4x2 + 3y2 – xy (B) 4x2 – 3y2 – xy
2 2
(C) 4x – 3y + xy (D) 4x2 + 3y2 + xy
105
Find the value of 2a  ab  3  ab when a = 5 and b = -3

2
42.
(A) 40 (B) 30
(C) 38 (D) 48
43. Which of the following is true:- P Q

(A) PQ2  QR2  RP2
(B) PQ2  PR2  QR2
(C) RP2  QR2  PQ2
(D)  PQR is isosceles 
R
44. If  ABC   PQR, then

(A) B = R (B) AB  QR
(C) A = Q (D) BC  QR
 2 3 4
5   5   5 57  65  22
7
  
45. Simplify
35 105  25 54  53 
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
106
SECTION – II
Physics
1. The device used to measuring electric potential difference is:
(A) ammeter (B) voltmeter
(C) voltammeter (D) galvanometer
2. If a wire is stretched to double of its original length then its new resistance will become:
(A) one fourth (B) four times
(C) three times (D) does not change
3. The current flowing through a conductor is 0.1 A. When a potential difference of 1.5 V is
applied across its ends. Resistance of the conductor will be:
(A) 10  (B) 15 
(C) 12  (D) 5 
4. In an electrical circuit two resistors of 2 and 4 respectively are connected in series to a

6V battery. The heat dissipated by the 4 resistor in 5 s will be:
(A) 5 J (B) 10 J
(C) 20 J (D) 30 J
5. Four identical cells, of emf 1.5 V each, were connected in four different ways as shown.
The potential difference, between the points X and Y, would equal 6.0 V, in case/cases
(I) X Y (II) X Y
(III) X Y (IV) X Y
(A) I and II (B) I and III

(C) I and IV (D) I only
6. Which of the following graphs represents a uniformly accelerated motion?

Y Y
Distance
Distance
(A) (B)
X X
O Time O Time
Y Y
Velocity
Velocity
(C) (D)
X X
O Time O Time
107
7. A particle is moving in a circle of diameter 10 m. The distance covered by it on completing

2 revolutions is
(A) 40 m (B) 20 m
(C) 20 m (D) zero
8. In the given displacement – time graph,

the velocity of moving body during 5
seconds to 10 seconds is:
20
(A) 0 m/s
Displacement (m)
(B) 10 m/s
(C) 20 m/s 10
(D) 15 m/s
0 5 10 15
Time (s)
9. The resistivity of a wire depends on:

(A) The area of cross section of wire (B) The nature of the material of wire
(C) The length of wire (D) All of these
10. Which of the following statements does not represent Ohm‟s law?
(A) current/potential difference = constant (B) Potential difference = current  resistance
(C) Potential difference/current = constant (D) Current = potential difference  resistance
11. What is the maximum resistance which can be made using five resistors each of 1/5 .
(A) 1/5 (B) 10
(C) 5 (D) 1
12. An electric kettle consumes 1 kW of electric power when operated at 220 V. A fuse wire of
what rating must be used for it?
(A) 1 A (B) 2 A
(C) 4 A (D) 5 A
13. The front face of a circular loop of wire is found North-pole. The direction of current in this
face of the loop will be:
(A) clockwise (B) anticlockwise
(C) towards north (D) towards south
14. The Fahrenheit and Kelvin scales of temperature will give the same reading at:
(A) – 40 (B) 313
(C) 574.25 (D) 732.75
15. A simple pendulum takes 32 seconds to complete 20 oscillations. What is the time period
of the pendulum?
(A) 1.6 s (B) 0.8 s
(C) 3.2 s (D) 640. s
108
SECTION – III
Chemistry
1. Soil is very important for
(A) agriculture (B) industry
(C) urbanization (D) all the three
2. Which one of the following soils is well aerated and drains water quickly?
(A) Loam (B) Silt
(C) Clay (D) Sand
3. A sample of soil percolates 300 mL water in one fourth hour. What is its percolation rate?
(A) 75 mL/min (B) 50 mL/min
(C) 30 mL/min (D) 20 mL/min
4. Which one of the following very appropriately describes the B-horizon of soil?
(A) More minerals and more humus (B) Less minerals and more humus
(C) More minerals and less humus (D) Less minerals and less humus
5. The factor that affect agriculture in any region depend on the following except
(A) rainfall (B) yield
(C) sunlight (D) temperature
6. Why do potters mix horse dung in soil for making pots?

(A) it makes the earthen pots very hard (B) it helps to open up the pores in pots
(C) it gives easy shape to pots (D) it closes all the leaks in pots
7. The ideal conditions in soil for paddy cultivation is/are

(A) rich in clay (B) rich in humus
(C) good water holding capacity (D) all the three
8. If a handful of soil added to water in a glass, stirred well and left undisturbed for some
time, four different layers are formed. They are (i) sand, (ii) humus, (iii) gravel and (iv) clay.
Arrange these layers in order from top to bottom and choose the correct option.
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (B) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(C) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii) (D) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
9. The soil with the highest water holding capacity is

(A) sand (B) clay
(C) silt (D) loam
109
10. The uppermost horizon of soil is generally dark in color due to

(A) sand (B) silt
(C) clay (D) humus
11. Effect of radioactive pollution causes

(A) Tuberculosis (B) Cancer
(C) Cough & cold (D) Malnutrition
12. Which type of soil would have highest percolation rate of water
(A) Loomy soil (B) Sandy Soil
(C) Clayey soil (D) none
13. Laterite soil is best for growing

(A) Tea and coffee (B) Rice
(C) Wheat (D) Jute
14. Particle size of clay is

(A) more than 0.005 mm particles of soil (B) less than 0.005 mm particles of soil
(C) less than 1 nm particles of soil (D) between 1nm to 100 nm particle of soil
15. Soil is formed by the action of rain, snow, fluctuating temperature on rocks. The process is
called
(A) Leaching (B) Silting
(C) Weathering (D) Soil erosion
110
SECTION – IV
Biology
1. Micro propagation is
(A) Raising of plants from a small tissue in culture
(B) Multiplication of small plants
(C) Propagation of small parts of an organism
(D) Continuous maintenance of an organ or tissue
2. Which of the following vein carries oxygenated blood?

(A) Inferior vena cava (B) Superior vena cava
(C) Hepatic vein (D) Umblical vein
3. After pollination, which of the following events is crucial for fertilization to occur in flowering
plants?
(A) Sperms swim to the egg and the polar nuclei
(B) Petals close around the reproductive parts
(C) Cell division occurs within the pollen grain
(D) A pollen tube grows from the stigma to the ovule
4. Which of the following is not a function of the mammalian kidney?

(A) Water retention (B) Regulation of sodium in the blood
(C) Excretion of toxins (D) Synthesis of urea
5. Tricuspid valve is found in between:

(A) sinus venosus and right atria (B) right atria and right ventricle
(C) left ventricle and left atria (D) ventricle and aorta
6. Pacemaker of the heart is:

(A) Atrio-ventricular node (B) Bundle of His
(C) Sino-atrial node (D) Purkinje fibers
7. What is triple fusion?

(A) Fusion of 1 male generative nucleus with 2 polar nuclei.
(B) Fusion of 2 male generative nuclei with 1 polar nucleus.
(C) Fusion of 1 male generative nucleus, 1 polar nucleus and 1 synergid.
(D) Fusion of 1 male generative nucleus, 1 anti-podal cell and 1 synergid.
8. Double fertilization is a characteristic of:

(A) Angiosperm (B) Pteridophytes
(C) Gymnosperm (D) Bryophytes
9. Match the following:

Column I Column II
1. Budding a. Mango, Sapota, Guava
2. Binary fission b. Apple, orange, rose
3. Epiphyllus bud c. Yeast
4. Bud grafting d. Amoeba
5. Approach grafting e. Bryophyllum
(A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – e, 4 – d, 5 – c (B) 1 – e, 2 – c, 3 – d, 4 – b, 5 – a
(C) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – e, 4 – a, 5 – b (D) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – e, 4 – b, 5 – a
10. Transport of food materials in plants is helped by:

(A) Xylem (B) Phloem
(C) Cambium (D) Vascular bundle
111
11. Milk dentition lacks

(A) Incisors (B) Molars
(C) Canines (D) Pre molars
12. In mammals the body cavity is partitioned into thoracic and abdominal cavities by
(A) Liver (B) Lungs
(C) Diaphragm (D) Ribs
13. The organelle that helps in osmo-regulation in Amoeba is

(A) Mitochondria (B) Contractile vacuole
(C) Lysosomes (D) Plasma membrane
14. The blood vessel with thin enough wall for nutrient exchange with tissue fluids is
(A) Vein (B) Artery
(C) Capillary (D) Arteriole
15. Man cannot digest cellulose but ruminants can consume food rich in cellulose because
(A) They have enzyme cellulose in their stomach
(B) They masticate it well by chewing teeth
(C) They have bacteria in their alimentary canal which digest cellulose
(D) None of the above
112
FIITJEE COMMON TEST

PHASE-III
QP CODE: xxxxxx.x
SET-(A)

Answer key
Q. Mathematics physics Chemistry Biology

No Ans CC Ans CC Ans CC Ans CC
1 B M072203, 04 B P070304 D C070404 A
2 B M071914 B P070303 D C070404 D
3 D M070311 B P070302 D C070403 D
4 D M072101 C P070306 C C070401 D
5 A M072502 B P070304 B C070402 B
6 C M070201,02 D P070106 B C070404 C
7 A M070403 C P070105 D C070401 A
8 A A P070106 C C070406 A
9 B M071211 B P070303 B C070404 D
10 B M072205, 0703 D P070302 D C070404 B
11 A M070905 D P070303 B C070404 D
12 A M071303 D P070306 B C070404 C
13 C M070104 B P070310 A C070404 B
14 D M070105 C P070205 B C070406 C
15 C M072502 A P070102 C C070407 C
16 C M071211
17 B M072503
M070201, M070202,
18 C M070203
19 C M071309
20 B M072303
21 A M072204, M072206
22 B M070201, M070202
23 C M070101, M070102
24 D M072506
25 D M072505
26 B M072102, M072205
27 B M070201, M070202
28 C M071303
113
29 B M072503
30 B M070509
31 B M07
32 A M071601
33 B M070102
34 C M070508
35 A M070402
36 B M072503
37 A M072501
38 C M072507
39 B M072503
40 D M072502
41 B M070509
42 C M071209
43 B M072305
44 D M072403
45 A M070102
FIITJEE COMMON TEST

Class – VII
PHASE – III
SET – (A)
Q.P. CODE: XXXXXX.X
INSTRUCTIONS
A: General :
pen.
7. Ltd.,
FIITJEE No B – 4, Sec – sheets
additional 16, Noida
will(U.P), 201301,for
be provided Ph rough
: 0120work
– 4754800/804/811/814 www.fiitjeenoida.com
Booklet with them.
114
Enrollment No. : Batch :
Name :
MAT
1. Find the odd one out
(A) crusade (B) campaign
(C) expedition (D) cruise
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. which one does
not belong to that group?
(A) Tooth (B) Chin
(C) Nose (D) Ear
3. Choose the number pair/group which is different from others?

(A) 7: 22 (B) 12 : 37
(C) 8 : 33 (D) 15 : 46
4. Choose the number which is different from others in the group?

(A) 64 (B) 125
(C) 27 (D) 144
5. Find out the two signs to be interchanged for making following equation correct
5 + 3 x 8 - 12 / 4 =3
(A) + and - (B) - and /
(C) + and x (D) + and /
6. If × stands for 'addition', ÷ stands for 'subtraction', + stands for 'multiplication' and-stands
for 'division', then 20 × 8 ÷ 8 - 4 + 2 = ?
(A) 80 (B) 25
(C) 24 (D) 5
7. If × means ÷, - means ×, ÷ means + and + means- than (3 - 15 ÷ 19) × 8 + 6 = ?

(A) 8 (B) 4
(C) 2 (D) -1
115
8. If A + B = 2C and C + D = 2A, then

(A) A + C = B + D (B) A + C = 2D
(C) A + D = B + C (D) A + C = 2B
9. Select the correct set of symbols which will fit in the given equation?
5 0 3 5 = 20
(A) x, x, x (B) -, +, x
(C) x, +, x (D) +, -, x
10. If Q means 'add to', J means 'multiply by', T means 'substract from' and K means 'divide
by' then 30 K 2 Q 3 J 6 T 5 = ?
(A) 18 (B) 28
(C) 31 (D) 103
Questions (11–15) Direction: Words in Capital letters in column-I are written in small letters in a
code language in column-II. Decode the language and find out the correct alternative for the given
letters in each questions .
Column –I Column –II

HOPE vtyg
WIDE ceth
LUCK nxfl
DUST aien
SIND cmae
SOAP gapv
FEAR putj
MUST nidg
HUNT mnyi
FILE cxut
PINE cmtg
11. Code for letters in the word SOLE are –

(A) txza (B) fvxy
(C) mtax (D) vtax
116
12. Code for letters in the word MENT are –

(A) ndti (B) dtum
(C) mdit (D) puit
13. Code for letters in the word NEWS are –

(A) hmta (B) tmkh
(C) fmak (D) tahv
14. Code for letters in the word STAR are

(A) ipaj (B) jami
(C) paiz (D) ajkl
15. Code for letters in the word TIME are

(A) tkci (B) citd
(C) ctpb (D) litm
16. Shankar is father of 'B' but 'B' is not son of Shankar then what is the relationship of 'B' to
Shankar ?
(A) Grand daughter (B) Mother
(C) Daughter (D) Grand Son
17. Sachin is the bother of the son of Ajit's son. Then what is the relationship of Sachin to Ajit
?
(A) Brother (B) Cousin
(C) Nephew (D) Grandson
18. If AB = 3 then CD = ___ ?

(A) 7 (B) 8
(C) 9 (D) 6
19. If STUDY = 89 then BOOK = ___ ?

(A) 34 (B) 43
(C) 45 (D) 47
20. If HOME= 41 then LOCK = ___ ?

(A) 40 (B) 32
(C) 35 (D) 45
117
21. If YZ = 3 then XY = ___ ?

(A) 5 (B) 4
(C) 3 (D) 6
22. If AIR = 53 then DUST = ___ ?

(A) 54 (B) 35
(C) 43 (D) 44
23. If PRIVATE is coded as 1234567 how is RIVER coded?

(A) 32473 (B) 23472
(C) 34273 (D) 23742
24. Pen is to Pencil as Hockey is to

(A) Team (B) Players
(C) Football (D) None of these
25. Crime is related to Police as Flood is related to

(A) Rain (B) Dam
(C) River (D) None of these
26. Bank is related to Money in the same way as Transport is related to

(A) Goods (B) Speed
(C) Movement (D) Road
27. Moon : Satellite :: Earth : ?

(A) Sun (B) Planet
(C) Solar System (D) none
28. Clock : Time :: Thermometer : ?

(A) Radiation (B) Heat
(C) Temperature (D) Energy
29. Tractor : Trailer :: Horse : ?

(A) Saddle (B) Cart
(C) Engine (D) none
30. Car : Garage :: Aeroplane : ?

(A) Port (B) Hangar
(C) Depot (D) none of these
118
31. Which number would replace the question mark (?) in the series 2, 7, 14, 23, ?, 47
(A) 28 (B) 34
(C) 31 (D) 38
32. Which is the number that should come next in the following series?
4, 6, 12, 14, 28, 30, ___
(A) 32 (B) 64
(C) 62 (D) 60
33. Find the wrong number in the series.

7, 28, 63, 124, 215, 342
(A) 7 (B) 28
(C) 124 (D) 215
34. What will be the next term in

BKS, DJT, FIU, HHV, ?
(A) IJX (B) IGX
(C) JGW (D) IGU
Direction (Q. 35 to 38) : In each of the following letter series, some of the letters are missing
which are given in that order as one of the alternatives below it. choose the correct
alternative.
35. ba – ba – bac – acb – cbac

(A) aacb (B) bbca
(C) ccba (D) cbac
36. adb – ac – da – cddcb dbc – cbda

(A) bccba (B) cbbaa
(C) ccbba (D) bbcad
37. a – ba – cbaac – aa – ba
(A) ccbb (B) cabc
(C) cbcb (D) bbcc
38. – bc – – b – aabc
(A) acac (B) babc
(C) abab (D) aacc
119
39. Identify the figure that completes the pattern.
(X) (1) (B) (3) (4)

(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
(X) (1) (B) (3) (4)

(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
41. I am facing South. I turn right and walk 20 metre. Then I turn right again and walk 10
metre. Then I turn left and walk 10 metre and then turning right walk 20 metre. Then I turn
right again and walk 60 metre. In which direction am I from the starting point ?
(A) North-East (B) Norst-West
(C) North (D) West
42. Rohit walked 25 metres towards South. Then he turned to his left and walked 20 metres.
He then turned to his left and walked 25 metres. He again turned to his right and walked
15 metres. At what distance is he from the starting point and in which direction ?
(A) 35 metre, North (B) 30 metre, South
(C) 35 metre, East (D) 30 metre, North
43. Starting from a point P, Sachin walked 20 metres towards South. He turned left and
walked 30 metres. He then turned left and walked 20 metres. He again turned left and
walked 40 metres and reached a point Q. How far and in which direction is the point Q from
the point P?
(A) 30 metres, West (B) 10 metres, West
(C) 30 metres, North (D) 10 metres, North
120
44. From his house, Lokesh went 15 kms to the North. Then he turned West and covered 10
kms. Then he turned South and covered 5 kms. Finally, turning to East, he covered 10
kms. In which direction is he from his house ?
(A) East (B) North
(C) West (D) South
45. X started to walk straight towards south. After walking 5 m he turned to the left and walked
3m. After this he turned to the right and walked 5 m. Now to which direction X is facing.
(A) North-East (B) South
(C) North (D) South-West
46. Rohit walked 25 m towards south. Then he turned his left and walked 20 m. He then
turned to his left and walked 25 m. He again turned to his right and walked 15 m. At what
distance is he from the starting point and in which direction?
(A) 35 m East (B) 35 m North
(C) 30 m West (D) 45 m East
47. One morning Sujata started to walk towards the Sun. After covering some distance she
turned to right then again to the right and after covering some distance she again turns to
the right. Now in which direction is she facing?
(A) North-East (B) South
(C) North (D) South-West
48. One morning after sunrise, Suresh was standing facing a pole. The shadow of the pole fell
exactly to his right. To which direction was he facing?
(A) East (B) South
(C) West (D) Data is inadequate
49. Golu started from his house towards North. After covering a distance of 8km, he turned
towards left and covered a distance of 6km. What is the shortest distance now from his
house?
(A) 10 km (B) 16 km
(C) 14 km (D) 2 km
50. A man walks 5 km towards south and then turns to the right. After walking 3 km he turns to
the left and walks 5 km. Now in which direction he from the starting place?
(A) West (B) South
(C) North-East (D) South-West
121
51. One morning after sunrise Nivedita and Niharika were talking to each other face to face at
Dalphin crossing. If Niharika‟s shadow was exactly to the right of Nivedia, whch direction
Niharika was facing?
(A) North (B) South
(C) East (D) Data is inadequate
52. Radha moves towards South-East a distance of 7 km, then she moves towards west and
travels a distance of 14 km. From here she moves towards North-West a distance of 7 km
and finally he moves a distance of 4 km towards east. How far is she now from the starting
point?
(A) 3 km (B) 4 km
(C) 10 km (D) 11 km
53. K is 40 m South-West of L. If m is 40 m South-East of L, then M is in which direction of K?

(A) East (B) West
(C) North-East (D) South
Directions (Q. 54 to Q. 58): Six persons A,B,C,D,E and F are sitting in two rows, three in each. E
is not at the end of any row D is second to the left of F. C the neighbour of E, is sitting diagonally
opposite to D. B is the neighbour of F.
54. Which of the following are sitting diagonally opposite to each other?
(A) F and C (B) D and A
(C) A and C (D) A and F
55. Who is facing B?

(A) A (B) C
(C) D (D) E
56. Which of the following are in same row?

(A) A and E (B) E and D
(C) C and B (D) A and B
57. Which of the following are in one of the two rows?

(A) FBC (B) CEB
(C) DBF (D) AEF
58. After interchanging seat with E, who will be the neighbours of D in the new position?
(A) C and A (B) F and B
(C) only B (D) only A
122
Directions (Q. 59 to Q. 61)
(1) Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a closed circle facing the center.
(2) E is to the left of D.
(3) C is between A and B.
(4) F is between E and A.
59. Who is to the left of B?

(A) A (B) C
(C) D (D) E
60. Who is to the right of C?

(A) A (B) B
(C) D (D) E
61. Which of the above given statements is superfluous?

(A) 1 (B) 2
(1) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting on a wall and all of them are facing east.
(2) C is on the immediate right to D.
(3) B is at an extreme end and has E as his neighbour.
(4) G is between E and F.
(5) D is sitting third from the south end.
62. Name the person who should change places with C such that he gets the third place from
the north end?
(A) E (B) F
(C) C (D) G
63. Immediately between which of the following pairs of People are sitting?
(A) AC (B) AF
(C) CE (D) CF
123

(A) P, Q, R, S and T are sitting in a circle facing the center.
(B) R is immediate left of T.
(C) P is between S and T.
64. Who is to the immediate left of R?

(A) P (B) Q
(C) S (D) T
65. Which of the Following statements can be dispensed with?

(A) None (B) B only
(C) C only (D) B or C only
A, B, C, D, E and F are seated in a circle facing the center. C is between F and B. A is second to
the left of D and second to the right of E.
66. Who is facing A?

(A) B (B) D
(C) F (D) either F or B
67. Who among the following is facing D?

(A) A (B) C
(C) E (D) cannot be determine
Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in circle facing the center. B is sitting between G
and D. H is third to the left of B and second to the right of A. C is sitting between A and G and B
and E are not sitting opposite to each other.
68. Who is third to the left of D?

(A) A (B) E
(C) F (D) cannot be determine
124
69. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(A) C is third to the right of D.
(B) A is sitting between C and F.
(C) D and A are sitting opposite to each other.
(D) E is sitting between F and D.
70. A group of eight members sit in a circle. D is between A and F and is opposite to G.E is to
the right of A but on the left of C, whose right hand neighbour is G. B enjoys having H to
his left and F to his right. Find the member who is diagonally opposite to A?
(A) B (B) F
(C) G (D) H
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
125
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
75. Identify the figure that completes the pattern

.
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
126
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
127
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
82. If CAR = 59, then COLOR = ?

(A) 67 (B) 72
(C) 64 (D) 74
83. Court : Justice : : School : ?

(A) Education (B) Teacher
(C) Student (D) None of these
84. One morning Udai and Vishal were talking to each other face to face at a crossing. If
Vishal‟s shadow as exactly to the left of Udai, which direction was Udai facing?
(A) East (B) West
(C) North (D) South
85. Ravi left home and cycled 10 km towards South, then turned right and cycled 5 km and
then again turned right and cycled 10 km. After this he turned left and cycled 10 km. How
many kilometers will he have to cycle to reach his home straight?
(A) 10 km (B) 15 km
(C) 20 km (D) 25 km
86. A child went 90 m in the East to look for his father, then he turned right and went 20 m.
After this he turned right and after going 30 m he reached to his uncle‟s house. His father
was not there. From there he went 100 m to his north and met his father. How far did he
meet his father from the starting point?
(A) 80 m (B) 100 m
(C) 140 m (D) 260 m
128
87. P started from his house towards west. After walking a distance of 25 m. He turned to the
right and walked 10 m. He then again turned to the right and walked 15 m. After this he is
to turn right at 135 and to cover 30 m. In which direction should he go?
(A) West (B) South
(C) South-West (D) South-East
88. Shyam walks 5 km towards East and then turns left and walks 6 km. Again he turns right
and walks 9 km. Finally he turns to his right and walks 6 km. How far is he from the
starting point?
(A) 26 km (B) 21 km
(C) 14 km (D) 9 km
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
90. Eight books are kept one over the other counting from the top the second, fifth and sixth
books are on plays. Two books on plays are between two books on composition. One
book of plays is between two books on poetry. While the book at the top of the book of
literature is a book of composition. Which book is fourth from the top?
(A) plays (B) poetry
(C) composition (D) literature
129
FIITJEE COMMON TEST

Class – VII
PHASE – III
SET – (A)
QP CODE: XXXXXX.X
ANSWERS
1. D 2. B 3. C 4. D
5. B 6. C 7. C 8. A
9. B 10. B 11. D 12. C
13. A 14. A 15. B 16. C
17. D 18. A 19. B 20. C
21. A 22. D 23. B 24. C
25. B 25. A 27. B 28. C
29. B 30. B 31. B 32. D
33. B 34. C 35. C 36. B
37. B 38. A 39. C 40. D
41. A 42. C 43. B 44. B
45. B 46. A 47. C 48. B
49. A 50. C 51. A 52. C
53. A 54. D 55. D 56. A
57. C 58. A 59. C 60. A
61. D 62. C 63. D 64. B
65. A 66. A 67. B 68. C
69. D 70. D 71. D 72. C
73. D 74. D 75. D 76. D
77. D 78. C 79. D 80. D
81. D 82. B 83. A 84. C
85. B 86. B 87. C 88. C
89. D 90. C
FIITJEE COMMON TEST

Batches: Udaya Two Year CRP (1618) A-Lot
PHASE – IV
NSEJS
QP CODE:
130
Time: 1:30 hr. Maximum Marks: 180
B. Marking scheme:
1. For each question in Section I, II, III & IV you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble
Enrolment No. :
Name : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Batch : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Date:. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
131
1. The mirror used by a dental surgeon is:

(A) convex mirror (B) concave mirror
(C) plane mirror (D) none of these
2. When an object is placed between the focus and centre of curvature of a concave mirror,
then the image formed is:
(A) real (B) inverted
(C) enlarged (D) all of the above
3. An image formed by a lens is erect. Such an image could be formed by a:

(A) convex lens provided the image is smaller than object
(B) concave lens provided the image is smaller than object
(C) concave lens provided the image is larger than object
(D) concave lens provided the image is of the same size
4. If an object is placed at a distance of 0.5 m in front of a plane mirror, the distance between
the object and the image formed by the mirror will be:
(A) 2 m (B) 1 m
(C) 0.5 m (D) 0.25 m
5. What is the value of  in the following

diagram? 30°
(A) 30°
(B) 45°
(C) 90°
(D) 60°

6. The relation between the focal length and radius of curvature of a spherical mirror is
_______
R
(A)  1  f (B) R + 2 = f
2
R
(C) f (D) 2R = f
2
7. If a mirror has a focal length of +10 cm, it is a

8. Which of the following mirror is commonly used as a rear view mirror?

(A) Concave (B) Convex
(C) Plane (D) None of these
132
9. If two mirrors are placed in such a way that they make an angle 45°, the number of images
formed of an object placed between them is:
(A) 7 (B) 8
(C) 6 (D) 5
10. For a real object, the image formed by a plane mirror is:
(A) virtual, behind the mirror and enlarged
(B) virtual, behind the mirror and of the same size as the object
(C) real, at the surface of the mirror and enlarged
(D) real, behind the mirror and of the same size as the object
11. A concave mirror has a focal length of 10 cm. At which of the following distance should an
object be placed so that it may form virtual, erect and magnified image?
(A) 12 cm (B) 25 cm
(C) 8 cm (D) 15 cm
12. Which of the following form virtual and erect images for all positions of the real object?
(A) Convex lens (B) Concave lens and convex mirror
(C) Concave mirror (D) All of these
13. A body which allows all the light to pass through it and does not reflect any light is:
(A) Transparent body (B) Opaque body
(C) Translucent body (D) Polished surface
14. The instrument used by sailors in submarines to look above the water is:
(A) Telescope (B) Periscope
(C) Kaleidoscope (D) Microscope
15. An object is placed at 15 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 7.5 cm. The image of
object will form at a distance:
(A) 15 cm from pole of mirror (B) 7.5 cm from pole of mirror
(C) 22.5 cm from pole of mirror (D) 30 cm from pole of mirror
133
1. The following cause alkalinity as well as hardness in natural water.

(A) Calcium carbonate (B) Calcium bicarbonate
(C) Magnesium carbonate (D) All of the above
2. Which of the following is not a water borne disease?

(A) Typhoid (B) Scabies
(C) Cholera (D) Hepaitis
3. The process of nutrient enrichment is termed as

(A) Eutrophication (B) Limiting nutrients
(C) Enrichment (D) Schistosomiasis
4. Salinity of sea water is measured by a salinometer. Sea water mainly composed of 6

constituents (they are also referred to as conservative elements)
(A) Na ,HCO32 ,SO24 ,K  ,Ca2 (B) Na ,Cl ,SO24 ,Mg2 ,Ca2,K 
(C) SO24 ,Cl ,F ,Na ,K  ,Cs (D) K  ,Cl ,Na ,SO24 ,CO32 ,Mg2
5. Ion exhange column method is used to remove which type of hardness in water?
(A) Temporary (B) Permanent
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
6. Permeability is
(A) The ability of a solid to allow fluids to pass through it
(B) The process by which plants release water vapour to the atmosphere
(C) The amount of water vapour in air relative to maximum amount of water vapour the air
can hold
(D) Percentage of pore space in the rock
7. Fresh water is treated differently at a treatment centre before coming to our home. Correct
sequence of the procedure involves.
(A) Sedimentation stage  Filteration stage  Coagulation stage  Disinfection stage 
Storage stage
(B) Filteration stage  Coagulation stage  Disinfection stage  Storage stage 
Sedimentation stage
(C) Coagulation stage  Sedimentation stage  Filteration stage  Disinfection stage 
Storage stage
(D) Sedimentation stage  Disinfection stage  Coagulation stage  Storage stage 
Coagulation stage
134
8. Study the flow chart carefully & identify X andY.

colourless 
Phenol
Pthalein
 X  Y 
Phenol
Pthalein
Pink
NaCl + H2O
X Y
(A) NaOH NaCl
(B) HCl NaOH
(C) NaOH NaCl
(D) HCl NaOH
9. Study the given set up of an experiment. You will observe that

A B C
Air To suction
pump
Lime water
Potassium
hydroxide
solution Lime water
Germinating
seeds
(A) lime water in test tube B turns milky
(B) lime water in test tube C turns milky
(C) Potassium hydroxide solution in test tube A turns red.
(D) Temperature in the flask will go down.
10. People living in hard water areas (e.g. limestone areas) generally have a
(A) lower incidence of heart disease (B) higher incidence of heart disease
(C) more prone to diseases (D) no effect on health
11. After oceans, which of the following reservoirs contain the most water?
(A) The atmosphere (B) the lakes and rivers
(C) glaciers and polar ice capes (D) the underground water
135
12. Match both the columns & mark the correct option from the codes given below
Column – I Column – II
(A) Limestone (i) NaHCO3
(B) Blue vitrol (ii) CuSO4
(C) Vinegar (iii) CaCO3
(D) Baking Soda (iv) CH3COOH
(A) (A)(iv), (B)(i), (C)(ii), (D)(iii) (B) (A)(iii), (B)(ii), (C)(i), (D)(iv)
(C) (A)(iv), (B)(iii), (C)(ii), (D)(i) (D) (A)(iii), (B)(ii), (C)(iv), (D)(i)
13. Which of the following terms is a measure of amount of water vapour in the air as a
proportion of maximum amount the air can hold at same temperature?
(A) Dew point (B) Sublimation point
(C) Evaporation rate (D) Relative humidity
14. When electricity is passed through water, water gets decomposed into hydrogen and
oxygen gas. Such reactions are accompanied by
(A) absorption of heat (B) release of heat
(C) no heat changes evolved (D) none of these
15. There are solutions which have a lower concentration of solute than cell. In such solution
water will move from environment into cell in order to balance the concentration of solute.
(A) Hypotonic solution (B) Hypertonic solution
(C) Isotonic solution (D) Concentrated solution
136
1. If radius of a circle is increased by 50% the percentage increase is area of the circle is
equal to
(A) 200 (B) 100
(C) 150 (D) 125
2. The area of a circular garden is 3850 cm2. If there is a path of 7 m lying outside it, then the
area of the path is
(A) 5544 cm2 (B) 1694 cm2
(C) 3850 cm2 (D) 7724 m2
3. The area of a circle is 220 sq. cm. The area of a square inscribed in this circle is
(A) 49 cm2 (B) 70 cm2
2
(C) 140 cm (D) 150 cm2
4. The area of a rhombus is 21 sq. m. If the perimeter of the rhombus is 40 cm, then the sum
of its diagonals is
(A) 14 cm (B) 18 cm
(C) 20 cm (D) 22 cm
5. Area of square is 100 cm2. Find the area of square formed by joining the mid points of its
side
(A) 100 cm2 (B) 50 cm2
2
(C) 125 cn (D) 200 cm2
6. If the radius of a circle is doubled, then the area becomes

(A) 2 times (B) 3 times
(C) 4 times (D) Remains the same
7. The dimensions of a rectangular box are in the ratio 5 : 3 : 2. Its total surface area is 15.5
square metres. The dimensions of the box are
(A) 3.5 m, 2.5 m, 1.5 m (B) 2.5 m, 2 m, 1.5 m
(C) 2.5 m, 1.5 m, 1 m (D) cannot be determined
8. The hypotenuse of a right angled triangle is 15 cm and one side is 12 cm. Its area is
(A) 52 sq. cm (B) 54 sq. cm
(C) 56 sq. cm (D) 58 sq. cm
9. Area of a quadrilateral is 24. 375 sq. cm. If diagonal intersect at 90o and one of the
diagonals is equal to 6.5 cm. Find the other diagonal?
(A) 6.5 cm (B) 7.5 cm
(C) 7 cm (D) 6 cm
137
10. From four corners of a square sheet of side 4 cm, four pieces, each in the shape of arc of
a circle with radius 2 cm, are cut out. The area of the remaining portion is:
(A)  8    sq. cm (B) 16  4  sq. cm
(C) 16  8  sq. cm (D)  4  2  sq. cm
11. A 7 m wide road runs outside around a circular park, whose circumference is 176 m. The
are of the road is:
(A) 1386 m2 (B) 1472 m2
2
(C) 1512 m (D) 1760 m2
12. If each side of a square is increased by 10%, its area will be increased by
(A) 10% (B) 21%
(C) 44% (D) 100%
13. The length of a rectangular hall is 5 m more than its breadth. The area of the hall is 750m2.
The length of the hall is:
(A) 15 m (B) 22.5 m
(C) 25 m (D) 30 m
14. The difference of the areas of two squares drawn on two line segments of different lengths
is 32 sq. cm. Find the length of the greater line segment if one is longer than the other by
2cm.
(A) 7 cm (B) 9 cm
(C) 11 cm (D) 16 cm
Q
15. In the given figure (not to scale), QT = 90 m
and UR = 50 m, QU : UT = UV : VT = 1 : 2.
PV : VS = 4 : 5. Find the area of the figure
(in m2) U R
(A) 4250
(B) 3980
P
(C) 4380 V S
(D) 4550
138
1. About ___ of the world‟s land surface is covered with the forest.
(A) 1/3 – one third (B) ½ - half
(C) 3rd – third (D) ¼ - one fourth
2. Which of the following is not a part of the forest?

(A) Canopy (B) Crown
(C) Under storey (D) Vegetation
3. Which of the following plant gives us timber?

(A) Sal (B) Mahogany
(C) Teak (D) All of the above
4. The type of the tree and animals thriving in a forest depends on

(A) topography of a place (B) soil type
(C) climate (D) all of these
5. Plants that gives us medicine are

(A) vanilla and mango (B) neem and eucalyptus
(C) amla (D) both B and C
6. Which of these is the mechanical process in treating waste water?

(A) disinfecting water (B) digestion of waste
(C) screening of waste (D) none
7. The improper management of sewage results in

(A) diseases (B) contamination of water supply
(C) water pollution (D) all of these
8. Social Forestry Programme (1976) includes raising of trees of multiple uses for the benefit
of
(A) urban community (B) rural community
(C) hills (D) all of these
9. Cultigens are domestic animals and plants which cannot service without human care
which of the following is a cultigen?
(A) Maize (B) Tomatoes
(C) Cabbage (D) All of these
10. Which of the following does not occur when the sewage is discharge into the rivers?
(A) eutrophication (B) depletion of O2
(C) increasing O2 (D) none
139
11. In developing countries, the heaviest demand on forests is for

(A) fuel wood (B) timber wood
(C) wood for agricultural tools (D) medicines
12. Deforestation reduces the chances of

(A) erosion (B) fertility
(C) rainfall (D) all of these
13. Trees means water, water means bread and bread and bread is life. It is true as death of
plants should result in death of animals, also because
(A) there will be no oxygen (B) there will be no CO2
(C) there will be deficiency of water (D) all of the above
14. Sewage water can be made fit for drinkable / recycling with the help of
(A) hydrophytes (B) microorganisms
(C) chlorine and alum (D) both B and C
15. The amplification of DDT in the various trophic levels is known as

(A) green house effect (B) biomagnification
(C) eutrophication (D) pollution
140
FIITJEE COMMON
TEST
PHASE – IV
NSEJS
QP CODE:
ANSWERS
1. B 2. D 3. B 4. B
5. D 6. C 7. A 8. B
9. A 10. B 11. C 12. B
13. A 14. B 15. A
1. B 2. B 3. A 4. B
5. B 6. A 7. C 8. B
9. B 10. A 11. C 12. D
13. D 14. A 15. A
1. D 2. B 3. C 4. D
5. B 6. C 7. C 8. B
9. B 10. B 11. A 12. B
13. D 14. B 15. D
1. A 2. D 3. D 4. D
5. D 6. C 7. D 8. D
9. D 10. C 11. A 12. C
13. D 14. D 15. B
141
142
Answers & Solutions

1. B
Sol. Concave mirror forms virtual and magnified image of an object placed between its pole
and focus.
2. D
Sol. Real, inverted and magnified image is formed.
B
A
P
C A F
B
3. B
Sol. Image of a real object formed by a concave lens is always virtual, erect and diminished.
4. B
Sol. In case of a plane mirror, object distance from mirror = image distance from mirror.
5. D
Sol. As i1 = r1 = 30° (Laws of reflection)
x = 60° i1
and hence r1
x
y = 90 – x = 30°
 i2 = r2 = 60°
i2 r2
y
6. C
Sol. Focal length (f) of a spherical mirror is half of its radius of curvature (R).
7. A
Sol. Focal length of convex mirror is taken positive.
8. B
Sol. A convex mirror has wider field of view and it forms virtual, erect and diminished image.
9. A
360
Sol. Number of images (n)   1.

10. B
Sol. A plane mirror forms virtual, erect image of same size of the object and behind the mirror.
11. C
Sol. For image formed by a concave mirror to be virtual and erect, object should be placed
before focus.
12. B
143
Sol. Concave lens as well as convex mirror always forms virtual and erect image of a real
object.
13. A
Sol. The object which allows light to pass through it is called transparent.
14. B
Sol. A periscope is used by sailors in submarines to look above the water.
15. A
Sol. Image of an object placed at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror is formed at its
centre of curvature.
1. B
2. B
Sol. Scabies is not a water borne disease.
3. A
Sol. The process of nutrient enrichment is termed as Eutrophication.
4. B
Sol. Sea water mainly composed of 6 constituents i.e. Na ,Cl ,SO24 ,Ca2,K  ,Mg2 .
5. B
Sol. Ion exchange column method is used to remove permanent hardness of water.
6. A
Sol. Permeability is the ability of a solid to allow fluids to pass through it.
7. C
Sol. Correct sequence of the procedure involves:
Coagulation stage  Sedimentation stage  Filteration stage  Disinfection stage 
Storage stage
8. B
Sol.
colourless 
Phenol
Pthalein
 HCl  NaOH 
Phenol
Pthalein
 Pink
NaCl + H2O
9. B
Sol. The lime water in flask C turns milky because the air given out from the seeds contain
carbon dioxide whereas lime water in flask B remains clear because potassium hydroxide
in flask A absorbs the carbon dioxide and it is this air that is entering in flask B.
10. A
Sol. People living in hard water areas (e.g. limestone areas) generally have a lower incidence
of heart disease.
11. C
Sol. After oceans, glaciers and polar ice capes contain the most water.
144
12. D
Sol. (A) Limestone (iii) CaCO3
(B) Blue vitrol (ii) CuSO4
(C) Vinegar (iii) CH3COOH
(D) Baking Soda (iv) NaHCO3
13. D
Sol. Relative humidity measure of amount of water vapour in the air as a proportion of
maximum amount the air can hold at same temperature.
14. A
Sol. When electricity is passed through water, water gets decomposed into hydrogen and
oxygen gas. Such reactions are accompanied by absorption of heat and hence are called
endothermic reactions.
15. A
Sol. Such solutions are called hypotonic solutions and when water diffuses into cell, it will swell
or sometimes burst.

1. D
Sol. Let radius of circle be r.
Area  r 2
Radius increase by 50%.
So new radius = 1.5r
New area   1.5r   2.25 r 2
2
% increase = 125%
2. B
Sol. Let radius of garden be r
r 2  3850 7 cm
3850
r2  7
22
r  35 m
Area of path    422  352 
22
  7  77  1694 cm2
7
3. C
Sol. Area of circle = 220
d2
 220
4
880
d2  7
22
d2  280  d  280 O
Now, diameter of circle

= diagonal of square.
 diagonal  280
1
 
2
 Area of square  280  140 cm2
2
4. D
145
Sol. Area of rhombus = 21

1
 d1  d2  21
2
d1  d2  42 (1)
Perimeter = 40 cm
 side = 10 cm
2 2
1  1 
Now,  d1    d2   102  d12  d22  400
2  2 
Now,  d1  d2   d12  d22  2d1d2
2
 400  84
 484
d1  d2  484  22cm
5. B
Sol. Area of square formed by joining mid point
1
 of area of square
2
1
  100  50 cm2
2
6. C
Sol. Let radius be r
Area  r 2
If radius is doubled.
 New area    2r   4r 2
2
Area becomes = 4 times
7. C
Sol. Let the dimensions of the box be 5x, 3x, 2x
Now total surface area = 15.5
2 lb  bh  hl  15.5
 
2 15x2  6x 2  10x 2  15.5
62x  15.5
2
x  0.5
 dimensions are 2.5 m., 1.5 m., 1 m.
8. B
1
Sol. Area of a right angled triangle   the
2
A
product of the perpendicular sides
Now in  ABC
122  x2  152
15
x2  152  122 x
x2  225  144
x2  81
x9 C
B
1 12
 Area   12  9  54
2
Area = 54 sq. cm.
146
9. B
C
Sol. If diagonal intersect at 90o in a
1
quadrilateral then A   d1  d2
2
D
d1  6.5cm
A  24.375 sq. cm
1
 d1  d2  A 6.5
2
1
 6.5  d 2  24.375
2 A
24.375  2 B
d2 
6.5
d2  7.5 cm
10. B
Sol. Area of sectors  r 2  4 sq. cm
 Area of square  4  4  16 sq.
cm.
 Area of the remaining portion
 16  4  sq. cm
11. A
Sol. If the radius of the circular park be r metre, then 2r  176
22
 2  r  176
7
176  7
r   28 metre
2  22
Radius of the park with road
 28  7  35 metre
 Area of the road

7

22

352  282
22
  63  7  1386 m2
7
12. B
Sol. Increase percent in area
 10  10 
  10  10  %  21%
 100 
13. D
Sol. Let the breadth of rectangular hall = x cm
 length = (x + 5) m
Area of hall
= Length  Breadth
 750   x  5  x
 x2  5x  750  0
147
 x2  30x  25x  750  0

 x  x  30   25  x  30   0
  x  25  x  30   0
 x  25 as x cannot be negative.
 Length of hall = x + 5
= 25 + 5 = 30 m
14. B
Sol. Let the length of the smaller line segment = x cm
The length of larger line segment
= (x + 2) cm
According to the question
 x  2
2
 x2  32
 x2  4x  4  x2  32
 4x  32  4  28
28
x 7
4
The required length
 x  2  7  2  9 cm.
15. D
Sol. QU: UT  1: 2
1
 QU   90  30 m
3
UT  90  30  60m
UV : VT  1: 2 Q
1
UV   60  20m 30
3 U R
VT  60  20  40 m 50
20
PV 4 P
 40 V S
VS 5 40
PV 4
  PV  40 m
50 5 T
Area  arPVQ  arQUR  arPVT  arTVS  arVURS

1 1 1 1
  40  50   30  50   40  40   40  50  20  50
2 2 2 2
= 4550
1. A
Sol. About one third of the world‟s land surface is covered with the forest.
2. D
Sol. The top is crown, the canopy and then the under storey are the parts of the forest.
3. D
Sol. Sal, Mahogany and Teak gives us timber.
4. D
Sol. The type of the tree of a particular place depends on topography, soil type and climate.
5. D
Sol. Neem, eucalyptus and amla gives us oil which have medicinal properties.
148
6. C
Sol. Screening of waste helps to eliminated big particles from the waste water.
7. D
Sol. The improper management of sewage results in disease, contamination of water supply
and water pollution.
8. D
Sol. Social forestry programme raising of trees for urban community, rural community and hills.
9. D
Sol. Maize, tomato and cabbages are the cultigens.
10. C
Sol. Sewage discharge would lead to depletion of O2 and eutrophication.
11. A
Sol. In developing countries, the heaviest demand is for fuel wood.
12. C
Sol. Deforestation reduces the chances of rainfall.
13. D
Sol. Animals would die, if all the plants die due to absence of O2, CO2 and water.
14. D
Sol. With the help of both microorganisms and chemicals like chlorine & alum we can made
water fit for drinking.
15. B
Sol. Amplification of DDT takes place due to biomagnification.
FIITJEE COMMON
TEST
Batches: Udaya Two Year CRP (1618) A-
Lot
PHASE – IV
QP CODE:
90
149

INSTRUCTIONS
150
1. The height of an equilateral triangle is 6 cm. Its area is

2
(A) 2 2 cm (B) 6 2 cm2
(C) 2 3 cm2 (D) 3 3 cm2
2. Sides of a triangle are 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm. Its area is

(A) 48 sq. cm (B) 28 sq. cm
(C) 12 sq. cm (D) 24 sq. cm
3. The area of a square field is 0.5 hectare. The length of its diagonal is
(A) 100 m (B) 100 2 m
(C) 200 m (D) 300 m
4. The ratio between area of two circles is 36 : 25. The ratio between their radii is
(A) 6 : 5 (B) 5 : 4
(C) 3 : 2 (D) 5 : 6
5. The hypotenuse by a right isosceles triangle is 5 2 cm, then its area is

(A) 25 (B) 50
(C) 12.5 (D) 10
6. If angle of a sector is 45o , then the ratio of area of the sector to area of semi circle is
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 4
(C) 1 : 8 (D) 1 : 3
7. Area of a circle is 616 sq. cm, then the circumference of the circle is
(A) 44 cm (B) 88 cm
(C) 22 cm (D) 616 cm
8. Quadrilateral in which diagonals are unequal and bisect each other at 90o is
(A) Rectangle (B) Rhombus
(C) Square (D) Parallelogram
9. Sides of an equilateral triangle is 12 cm. Its height is

(A) 6 3 cm (B) 2 3 cm
(C) 3 3 cm (D) 36 3 cm
10. Polygon forming a polyhedron are called

(A) edges (B) faces
(C) vertices (D) lines
151
11. The radius of a circle is 0.25 m. The number of revolutions it will make to travel a distance
of 11 km will be
(A) 2800 (B) 4000
(C) 5000 (D) 7000
12. Number of edges is an octahedron pyramid are

(A) 16 (B) 8
(C) 14 (D) 9
13. If a polyhedron has 47 faces and 145 edges, then number of vertices are
(A) 98 (B) 100
(C) 102 (D) none
14. Number of vertices in heptagonal prism are

(A) 21 (B) 14
(C) 7 (D) 9
15. A rectangle has ____________lines of symmetry?

(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 1
16. Length of perpendicular from vertex to the base of a pyramid is called

(A) axes (B) lateral edge
(C) height (D) none
17. In a right prism, the angle between the lateral edge and its base is
(A) 30o (B) 60o
(C) 90o (D) 0
18. If the perimeter of a semi – circular protractor is 36 cm, then its diameter is
(A) 10 cm (B) 12 cm
(C) 14 cm (D) 16 cm
19. Find the area of quadrant of a circle whose circumference is 44 cm

(A) 77 cm2 (B) 38.5 cm2
2
(C) 19.25 cm (D) 154 cm2
20. Perimeter of the given figure is (where arc AB is a semi

circle)
(A) 10.2 cm
1.5 cm
(B) 13 cm
(C) 8.4 cm
(D) 7.2 cm
A B
2.8 cm
152
21. A sector of 150o is cut out from a circle and the remaining area is 35 m2. The area of circle
is
(A) 40 m2 (B) 60 m2
2
(C) 55 m (D) 70 m2
22. Which of the following is a polyhedron?

(A) Sphere (B) Cone
(C) Cube (D) Cylinder
23. Length of a rectangular park is 780 m and its breadth is 320 m. What would it cost to fence
the park at the rate of Rs. 7.50 per meter?
(A) Rs. 33000 (B) Rs. 32500
(C) Rs. 16500 (D) Rs. 35500
24. Which of the following expression is correct one for calculating the circumference of a
circle?
(A) 2r (B) d
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) none of these
25. A courtyard 20 m long and 15 m broad is to be paved with bricks of length 25 cm and
breadth 12 cm. Find the number of bricks required
(A) 9000 (B) 10000
(C) 8000 (D) 70000
26. Each side of the figure, measures 1 cm. The area of the
figure is
(A) 9 sq. cm (B) 12 sq. cm
(C) 13 sq. cm (D) Can‟t say
27. A right circular cone of height 4 cm and diameter 6 cm, then find slant height of the cone?
(A) 5 cm (B) 6 cm
(C) 7 cm (D) 8 cm
28. A square has rotational symmetry of order

(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 1
29. Number of lines of symmetry of the figure is

(A) 4 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3
153
30. Which of the following has no line of symmetry?

(A) F (B) U
(C) Y (D) M
31. The cost of flooring a room 20m long at Rs. 7 per sq. m is Rs. 2520. The breadth of the
room is
(A) 20 m (B) 18 m
(C) 24 m (D) 28 m
32. Which of the following has infinite number of lines of symmetry?

(A) polygon of n sides (B) circle
(C) semi circle (D) none of these
33. The area of a square field is 625 m2. Find the cost of fencing the field at the rate of Rs.
62.50 per metre?
(A) 4250 (B) 6250
(C) 5500 (D) 5000
34. The lengths of the parallel sides of a trapezium are 8.6 cm and 6.4 cm. The distance
between the parallel sides is 3.5 cm. Find the area of trapezium
(A) 26.25 sq. cm (B) 28.25 sq. cm
(C) 53.5 sq. cm (D) 27.25 sq. cm
35. If the length and breadth of a rectangle are in the ratio 3 : 2 and its perimeter is 20 cm.
then the area of the rectangle (in cm2) is:
(A) 24 (B) 48
(C) 72 (D) 96
36. The diagonal of a square A is (a + b). The diagonal of a square whose area is twice the
area of square A, is
(A) 2 (a + b) (B) 2 (a + b)2
(C) 2  a  b  (D) 2  a  b 
37. What is the area of the triangle whose sides are 9 cm, 10 cm and 11 cm?
(A) 30 cm2 (B) 60 cm2
(C) 30 2 cm 2
(D) 60 2 cm2
38. The perimeter of a non – square rhombus is 20 cm. One of its diagonal is 8 cm. The area
of the rhombus is
(A) 28 sq. cm (B) 20 sq. cm
(C) 22 sq. cm (D) 24 sq. cm
39. If the diagonals of two squares are in the ratio 2 : 5, their area will be in the ratio of
(A) 2 : 5 (B) 2 : 5
(C) 4 : 25 (D) 4 : 5
154
40. The perimeter of a rhombus is 100 cm and one of its diagonals is 40 cm. Its area (in cm 2)
is
(A) 1200 (B) 1000
(C) 600 (D) 500
41. The sides of a triangle are 16 cm, 12 cm and 20 cm. Find the area
(A) 64 cm2 (B) 112 cm2
(C) 96 cm2 (D) 81 cm2
42. If the ratio of areas of two squares is 225 : 256, then the ratio of their perimeter is:
(A) 225 : 256 (B) 256 : 225
(C) 15 : 16 (D) 16 : 15
43. The wheel of a motor car makes 1000 revolutions in moving 440 m. The diameter (in
meter) of the wheel is
(A) 0.44 (B) 0.14
(C) 0.24 (D) 0.34
44. If diagonals of a rhombus are 24 cm and 32 cm, then perimeter of that rhombus is
(A) 80 cm (B) 84 cm
(C) 76 cm (D) 72 cm
45. The perimeter and length of a rectangle are 40 m and 12 m respectively. Its breadth will be
(A) 10 m (B) 8 m
(C) 6 m (D) 3 m
155
1. Formation of shadow suggest that light travels in:

(A) straight line (B) vacuum
(C) dark room (D) none of these
2. When white light is passed through a prism it splits into:

(A) seven colours (B) five colours
(C) three colours (D) eight colours
3. Speed of light in water is _______ its speed in air.

(A) greater than (B) same as
(C) less than (D) cannot be compared
4. According to the laws of reflection

(A) i = r
(B) i < r i r
(C) i > r
(D) none of these
5. When light is incident on a polished surface _______ reflection takes place.

(A) regular (B) irregular
(C) normal (D) none of these
6. The geometric centre of the hollow sphere of which a spherical mirror is a part of it, is
called:
(A) focus (B) centre of curvature
(C) pole (D) principal axis
7. The focus of a concave mirror is _______

(A) real (B) virtual
(C) undefined (D) at the pole
8. When an object is at infinity from a concave mirror, the image formed is

(A) at the focus (B) virtual and erect
(C) highly enlarged (D) none of these
9. A diverging mirror is:

(A) a plane mirror (B) a convex mirror
(C) a concave mirror (D) a shaving mirror
10. If an incident ray passes through the centre of curvature of a spherical mirror, the reflected
ray will:
(A) Pass through the pole (B) Pass through the focus
(C) Retrace its path (D) Be parallel to the principal axis
156
11. Which of the following is incorrect?

(A) Red + cyan = white (B) Blue + yellow = white
(C) Green + magenta = white (D) Red + green = white
12. A ray of light parallel to the principal axis incident on a concave mirror, the reflected ray
will:
(A) pass through focus (B) pass through centre of curvature
(C) pass through pole (D) retrace its path
13. Objects which emit light of their own are called:

(A) non-luminous objects (B) transparent objects
(C) translucent objects (D) luminous objects
14. If the angle of incidence is 45°, then the angle of reflection will be:
(A) 90° (B) 22.5°
(C) 45° (D) 30°
15. A spherical mirror whose inner hollow curved surface is the reflecting surface is a:
157
1. Pani Panchayat was started in which part of India?

(A) Madhya Pradesh (B) Delhi
(C) Gujarat (D) Maharastra
2. Density of ice is less than water due to:

(A) Normal structure of ice (B) Closed structure of ice
(C) Cage-like structure of ice (D) None of these
3. During melting of ice molecules come together and hence density increase upto _______.
(A) 38°C (B) 2°C
(C) 4°C (D) 100°C
4. Rain water containing acid harms

(A) Vegetation (B) Aquatic life
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
5. Water which readily gives a lather with soap is known as

(A) Soft water (B) Hard water
(C) Virtual water (D) Fused water
6. The process by which surface water becomes ground water is called

(A) Evaporation (B) Discharge
(C) Infiltration (D) Transpiration
7. How much of Earth‟s water is stored in underground aquifer?

(A) about 1% (B about 5%
(C) about 10% (D) about 20%
8. Percolation tank _______.

(A) seeping in water from rivers and lakes into the tank, major source of water in southern
part of the country.
(B) allows rainwater to seep into the soil & recharge ground water.
(C) traditional way of collecting water.
(D) technique of watering plants by making use of narrow tublings which deliver water
directly at the base of the plant.
9. Temporary hardness is caused due to

(A) Magnesium carbonate (B) Calcium sulphate
(C) Magnesium sulphate (D) Magnesium chloride
10. For coagulation chemical X is used. Suspended particles get stuck to this chemical „X‟ to
form „floc‟. What is „X‟ from the given options?
(A) Batroxobin (B) Potash Alum [K2SO4Al2(SO4)324H2O]
(C) EDTA (D) None of these
158
11. Observe the given flow chart carefully & answer

Mg  O2 
heat
 X 
H2O
 Y 
red litmus
solution
Z
(white ash)
What is Y?
(A) MgOH (B) Mg2OH
(C) Mg(OH)2 (D) None of these
12. Which of the following gases are responsible for acid rain?
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Nitrogen dioxide
(C) Sulphur dioxide (D) All of these
13. Many tiny water droplets high up in the air come together and fall down as
(A) Rain (B) Hail
(C) Snow (D) All of these
14. Which of the following can contaminate an aquifer?

(A) Lindfills (B) Storage tanks
(C) Gas stations (D) All of these
15. Water react with sulphur dioxide to produce.

(A) Sulphurous acid (B) Sulphuric acid
(C) Either (A) or (B) (D) None of these
159
1. Paper is generally obtained from the

(A) wood pulp of bamboos (B) eucalyptus
(C) teak (D) both A and B
2. Afforestation results in
(A) decreased pollution (B) soil erosion
(C) scarcity of forest products (D) increases in earth‟s temperature
3. Which of the following is not the source of oil?

(A) groundnut (B) sunflower
(C) soyabean (D) moong
4. A food chain do not includes

(A) producer (B) decomposers
(C) consumer (D) herbivores
5. Which of the following is concerned with the conservation of the forest?

(A) Silent valley (B) Kaziranga
(C) Ghana (D) Gir
6. Sewage water can be purified by

(A) microorganisms (B) aquatic plants
(C) light (D) fishes
7. Concept of waste management are

(A) reduce (B) reuse
(C) recycle (D) all of these
8. Waste water generated by industries is called

(A) sewage (B) effluent
(C) grey water (D) none
9. The solid matter that settles to the bottom in the sedimentation tank is
(A) sewage (B) sludge
(C) contaminate (D) none
10. Water polluted by various human activities causes a number of water borne disease.
Which of the following is not a water borne?
(A) cholera (B) typhoid
(C) asthma (D) dysentery
11. A sewage main holes are located at every

(A) 50 – 60 m (B) 70 – 80 m
(C) 80 – 90 m (D) 90 – 100 m
160
12. Which of the following is an anti forest conservation activity?

(A) selective felling of trees (B) control on forest fires
(C) cleaning of fallen trees (D) protection of wild life
13. Planting of flower and fruit trees along road sides in included in
(A) Agro forestry programme (B) Social forestry programme
(C) Urban forestry programme (D) Vann Mahotsava
14. In the treatment of waste water before discharge, which treatment stage involves
biological treatment?
(A) Primary stage (B) Secondary treatment stage
(C) Reverse osmosis (D) Tertiary treatment stage
15. Biochemical oxygen demand measures

(A) industrial pollution
(B) dissolved oxygen needed by microbes to decompose wastes
(C) air pollution
(D) water pollution
161
FIITJEE COMMON
TEST
Batches: Udaya Two Year CRP (1618) A-
Lot
PHASE – IV
SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE Test
QP CODE:
ANSWERS
1. C 2. D 3. A 4. A
5. C 6. B 7. B 8. B
9. A 10. B 11. D 12. A
13. B 14. B 15. A 16. C
17. C 18. C 19. B 20. A
21. B 22. C 23. C 24. C
25. B 26. C 27. A 28. B
29. C 30. A 31. B 32. B
33. B 34. A 35. A 36. C
37. C 38. D 39. C 40. C
41. C 42. C 43. B 44. A
45. B
1. A 2. A 3. C 4. A
5. A 6. B 7. A 8. A
9. B 10. C 11. D 12. A
13. D 14. C 15. B
1. D 2. C 3. C 4. C
5. A 6. C 7. A 8. B
9. A 10. B 11. C 12. D
13. D 14. D 15. A
1. D 2. A 3. D 4. B
5. A 6. A 7. D 8. B
162
9. B 10. C 11. A 12. C

13. C 14. B 15. B
163
Answers & Solutions

1. C
Sol. Height of an equilateral triangle is given by
3a
h
2
3
6 aa2 2
2
3 2 3
 
2
 Area  a   2 2  2 3 cm2
4 4
2. D
Sol. 62  82  102 , So triangle is right.
1
Area   6  8  24 sq. cm.
2
3. A
1 2
Sol. Area of square  d , (d is diagonal).
2
1 2
5000m2  d
2
d  100m
4. A
Sol. If r1 and r2 are radii of two circles.
r12 36
 Ratio of areas   r1 : r1  6 : 5 .
r22 25
5. C
Sol. Let equal sides of triangle a.
 
2
a2  a2  5 2
a=5
a 5 2
1
Area   5  5  12.5 cm2
2
6. B
Area of sec tor Angle of sec tor
Sol. 
Area of semicircle Angleof semi  circle
45o
  1: 4
180o
7. B
Sol. Area = 616
r 2  616
616
r2   7  196  r  14
22
 Circumference  2r  88cm
164
8. B
Sol. It‟s the property of rhombus
9. A
3
Sol. h a  6 3 cm
2
10. B
Sol. Polygon forming a polyhedron are called faces
11. D
11000m
Sol. Number of revolutions   7000
2  0.25
12. A
Sol. Octahedron pyramid has 16 edges.
13. B
Sol. By Euler‟s Formula
E2F V
145  2  47  V  V  100
14. B
Sol. Number of vertices in heptagonal prism  7  2  14
15. A
Sol. A rectangle has 2 lines of symmetry
16. C
Sol. Length of perpendicular from vertices to base of pyramid is called height.
17. C
Sol. In a right prism, the angle between the lateral edge and its base is 90o
18. C
Sol. Perimeter of semicircle = 36
r  2r  36
 22 
r  2   36
 7 
r 7
 diameter = 14 cm
19. B
Sol. 2r  44
r  7 cm
1 2 1 22
Area of quadrant  r    7  7  38.5 cm2
4 4 7
20. A
Sol. Perimeter  1.5  2  2.8    1.4
= 10.2 cm
21. B
Sol. Area of remaining sector = 35 cm2
165
210o
 r 2  35
360o
12
r 2  35   60 m2
7
22. C
Sol. Only cube is polyhedron
23. C
Sol. Length of rectangular park = 780 m
Breadth of rectangular park = 320 m
Perimeter of rectangular park = 2 (length + Breadth)
= 2 (780 + 320) m
= 2  1100 m
= 2200 m
According to the question,
Cost of fencing 1 m = Rs. 7.50
 Cost of fencing 2200m = Rs. (7.50  2200)
= Rs. 16500
24. C
Sol. Both (A) and (B) are correct.
25. B
1500 cm  2000 cm
Sol. Number of bricks required 
25  12
= 10000
26. C
Sol. Area of given figure
= Area of rectangle + 4 x area of a
square
 3  3  4  1  13 sq. cm.
27. A
V
Sol. Height = 4 cm and diameter = 6 cm
6
i.e. radius  = 3 cm
2
By Pythagoras theorem, we have Slant height
VA2  OA2  VO2 h
 VA 2  32  42
 VA  32  42
B A
O
 VA  25  5cm
 slant height = 5 cm
28. B
Sol. A square has rotational symmetry of order 4.
29. C
166
Sol. As shown the figure has 2 lines of

symmetry
30. A
Sol. F has no line of symmetry.
31. B
Sol. Cost of flooring 1 sqm = Rs. 7
2520
Area of floor   360 sq.m
7
360
Area    b  b   18m
20
32. B
Sol. Circle has infinite lines of symmetry
33. B
Sol. Area  S2  625
S  625
S = 25 m
Fencing the field is related to the perimeter.
 Perimeter = 4S = 4  25
= 100 metres
Cost of fencing = 100  62.5
= Rs. 6250
34. A
Sol. Here, a = 8.6 cm, b = 6.4 cm and d = 3.5 6.4
cm
1
Area    a  b   d
2 3.5
1
   8.6  6.4   3.5  7.5  3.5
2
 Area = 26.25 sq. cm. 8.6
35. A
Sol. Let the length and breadth of the rectangle be 3x and 2x cm respectively. Then,
2  3x  2x   20
20
 10x  20  x  2
10
 Length  3x  3  2
= 6 cm
Breadth  2x  2  2  4 cm
 Area  6  4  24 cm2
36. C
Sol. Area of the square A
167
 diagonal
2

2
a  b
2

2
Area of the new square
a  b  2  a  b 2
2
  
2
 Side = (a + b)
 Diagonal  2 x side
 2 a  b
37. C
Sol. Semi – perimeter
9  10  11
S  15 cm
2
Area of triangle
 s  s  a  s  b  s  c 
 15 15  9 15  10 15  11
 15  6  5  4  30 2 cm2
38. D
20 D C
Sol. Side of rhombus   5cm
4
OB = 4 cm
d1
OA  52  42  9  3 cm
AC  6cm O
d2
Area of rhombus
1 1
 d1d2   8  6  24 sq. cm A B
2 2
39. C
Sol. Let diagonal be 2x and 5x.
1
A1 2   2x 
2
4
  
A 2 1  5x 2 25
 
2
 4 : 25
40. C
168
Sol. BD = 40 cm
BE = 20 cm
A
AE = x cm
100
AB =  25 cm
4
 From ABE,
AE  252  202 B D
E
 45  5  15 cm
 AC  30 cm
Area of rhombus ABCD
1 1
 d1d2   40  30 C
2 2
= 600 sq. cm
41. C
Sol. Semi – perimeter
16  12  20
S
2
48
  24 cm
2
Area of triangle
 s  s  a  s  b  s  c 
 24  24  16  24  12 24  20 
 24  8  12  4  96 sq. cm
42. C
225
Sol. Ratio of areas 
256
 Ratio of sides
225 15
 
256 16
 Ratio of perimeter
4  15
  15 :16
4  16
43. B
Sol. Distance covered by wheel in one revolution
= Circumference of wheel
440
  diameter 
1000
22 440
  diameter 
7 1000
440 7
 Diameter  
1000 22
= 0.14 m
44. A
169
Sol. AC = 24 cm = d2
BD = 32 cm = d1 D C
 OD  16 cm d1
OC = 12 cm
COD  90o d2
 CD  OC  OD2 2 O
 122  162
 144  256  400  20 cm A B
 Perimeter of rhombus
 4  CD  4  20  80 cm
45. B
Sol. Perimeter of rectangle
= 40 metre
Length = 12 metre
2 l  b   40
 2 12  b   40
40
 12  b   20
2
 b  20  12  8 metre
1. A
Sol. Shadow formation takes place due to rectilinear propagation of light.
2. A
Sol. On passing white light through a prism, it splits into seven colours and the process is
called dispersion of light.
3. C
Sol. Speed of light is less in water as compared to its speed in air.
4. A
Sol. According to the laws of reflection, angle of incidence = angle of reflection.
5. A
Sol. Regular reflection takes place by a polished surface.
6. B
Sol. Centre of curvature of a spherical mirror is the centre of the hollow sphere of which mirror
is a part.
7. A
Sol. A concave mirror has a real focus.
8. A
Sol. Image formed by a concave mirror for an object at infinity is real, inverted, highly
diminished and at focus of mirror in front of it.
9. B
Sol. Convex mirror is also called diverging mirror as it diverges light rays after reflection from it.
10. C
170
Sol. Ray incident to centre of curvature of a spherical mirror falls normally on the mirror hence
retraces its path after reflection.
11. D
Sol. Red + Green = Yellow.
12. A
Sol. If incident ray is parallel to the principal axis then after reflection, the reflected ray will pass
through focus.
13. D
Sol. Objects which emit their own light are called luminous.
14. C
Sol. From laws of reflection, i = r.
15. B
Sol. The mirror with inner hollow curved surface as reflecting surface is called concave mirror.
1. D
Sol. Pani Panchayat was started in Maharastra in 1972.
2. C
Sol. Density of ice is less than water due to cage-like structure of ice.
3. C
Sol. During melting of ice, molecules come together and hence its density increase upto 4°C.
4. C
Sol. Rainwater containing acid harms both vegetation and aquatic life.
5. A
Sol. Water which readily gives a lather with soap is known as soft water.
6. C
Sol. The process by which surface water becomes ground water is called infiltration.
7. A
Sol. 1.7% of Earth‟s water is stored in underground aquifer.
8. B
Sol. Percolation tank is the one which allows rainwater to seep into the soil and recharge
groundwater.
9. A
Sol. Temporary hardness is caused due to Magnesium carbonate.
10. B
Sol. Chemical X is potash alum. It is used as a coagulating agent.
11. C
Sol. 2Mg  O2 
heat
 2MgO 
H2O
 Mg(OH)2 
red litmus
solution
turns blue
171
12. D
Sol. CO2, SO2, NO2 are the gases which are responsible for acid rain.
13. D
Sol. Many tiny water droplets high up in the air come together & fall down as Rain, Hail and
Snow.
14. D
Sol. Landfills, Storage tanks, Gas stations – these all can contaminate an aquifer. They are the
potential threat to an aquifer contamination.
15. A
Sol. Water react with sulphur dioxide to produce sulphurous acid.
H2O SO2   H2SO3
Water Sulphur Sulphurous
dioxide acid
172
1. D
Sol. Paper is obtained from the wood pulp of bamboo and eucalyptus (gives oil).
2. A
Sol. Afforestation (planting of trees) results in less pollution.
3. D
Sol. Groundnut, sunflower and soyabean are the sources of oil.
4. B
Sol. A food chain do not includes decomposers (Bacteria, viruses and fungi)
5. A
Sol. Silent valley is concerned with the conservation of forest.
6. A
Sol. Microorganisms like Bacteria and virus helps in biological oxidation of the sewage water.
7. D
Sol. Waste management is based on three „R‟ reduce, reuse and recycle.
8. B
Sol. Waste water generated by the industries is known as effluent.
9. B
Sol. Sludge is the solid matter which settles at the bottom and scum is deposited on the top.
10. C
Sol. Cholera, Typhoid and Dysentery are water borne disease, where Asthma is due to organ
malfunction.
11. A
Sol. Sewage main holes are located at every 50 – 90 m.
12. C
Sol. Cleaning of fallen trees is an anti forest conservation.
13. C
Sol. Urban forestry includes planting of fruit and trees along road sides.
14. B
Sol. Secondary treatment of water is known as Biological treatment.
15. B
Sol. „BOD‟ is biological oxygen demand, which helps us to know the dissolved oxygen needed
by the microbes to decompose wastes.
FIITJEE COMMON
TEST
173

PHASE – IV
QP CODE:

INSTRUCTIONS
A: General :
pen.
Booklet with them.
2. For each question you will be awarded 1 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the
correct
Enrollment No. : answer and zero mark if no bubbles is darkened. No Negative
Batch : Mark will be awarded.
Name :
174
Directions (Questions 1 – 5): In each of the following questions, you are given a figure (X)
followed by four alternative figure (A), (B), (C) and (D) such that figure (X) is embedded in one of
them. Trace out the alternative figure which contains figure (X).
1.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
2.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
3.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
4.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
5.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
Directions (Questions 6 – 10): In each of the following questions, arrange the given words in the
sequence in which they occur in the dictionary and then choose the correct sequence.
6. 1. Repoint 2. Reptile 3. Repent 4. Repute 5. Report

(A) 3, 1, 5, 2, 4 (B) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4
(C) 5, 1, 4, 3, 2 (D) 5, 4, 1, 3, 2
175
7. 1. Protein 2. Problem 3. Proverb 4. Property 5. Project

(A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 (B) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5
(C) 2, 5, 4, 1, 3 (D) 3, 4, 5, 2, 1
8. 1. Pestle 2. Pestilence 3. Pester 4. Pest 5. Pessimist

(A) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 (B) 4, 3, 1, 5, 2
(C) 3, 4, 2, 5, 1 (D) 4, 5, 1, 2, 3
9. 1. Page 2. Pagan 3. Palisade 4. Pageant 5. Palate

(A) 1, 4, 2, 3, 5 (B) 2, 4, 1, 3, 5
(C) 1, 4, 2, 5, 3 (D) 2, 1, 4, 5, 3
10. 1. Select 2. Seldom 3. Send 4. Selfish 5. Seller

(A) 1, 2, 4, 5, 3 (B) 2, 1, 5, 4, 3
(C) 2, 1, 4, 5, 3 (D) 2, 5, 4, 1, 3
11.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
12.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
13.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

176
14.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
15.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
Directions (Questions 16 – 18): Each of the following questions is based on the following
alphabet series:
ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ
16. Which letter in the alphabet is as far from G as T is from M?
(A) M (B) N
(C) O (D) P
17. Which letter is exactly midway between G and Q in the given alphabet?
(A) K (B) L
(C) M (D) N
18. Which letter is midway between the eighteenth letter from the left end and tenth letter from
the right end of the given alphabet?
(A) No letter (B) K
(C) Q (D) R
Directions (Questions 19 – 20): In each of the following questions, a number series is given with
one term missing. Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace
the question mark in the given series.
19. 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 25, ?

(A) 26 (B) 27
(C) 29 (D) 37
20. 6, 12, 21, ?, 48

(A) 33 (B) 38
(C) 40 (D) 45
177
Directions (Questions 21 – 23): Letters of the words given below have been jumbled up. You
are required to construct the words. Each letter has been numbered and each word is followed by
four options. Choose the option which given the correct order of the letters as indicated by the
numbers to form words.
21. T I R B H G
1 2 3 4 5 6
(A) 1, 3, 2, 4, 6, 5 (B) 3, 2, 6, 5, 4, 1
(C) 4, 3, 2, 6, 5, 1 (D) 4, 5, 2, 3, 6, 1
22. T R I F U
1 2 3 4 5
(A) 3, 1, 2, 4, 5 (B) 4, 2, 5, 3, 1
(C) 4, 3, 2, 1, 5 (D) 5, 3, 2, 1, 4
23. R U S G A
1 2 3 4 5
(A) 1, 5, 4, 2, 3 (B) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1
(C) 4, 5, 3, 2, 1 (D) 5, 3, 4, 1, 2
24. Kashish goes 30 metres North, then turns right and walks 40 metres, then again turns right
and walks 20 metres, then again turns right and walks 40 metres. How many metres is he
from his original position?
(A) 0 (B) 10
(C) 20 (D) 40
25. I am facing South. I turn right and walk 20 m. Then I turn right again and walk 10 m. Then I
turn left and walk 10 m and then turning right walk 20 m. Then I turn right again and walk
60 m. In which direction am I from the starting point?
(A) North (B) North west
(C) East (D) North east
Directions (Questions 26 – 27): In each of the following questions, select the figure from
amongst the four alternatives, which when placed in the blank space of figure (X) would complete
the pattern.
26.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

178
27.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
Directions (Questions 28 – 31): In each of the following questions, find the number of triangles
in the given figure.
28.
(A) 16 (B) 13
(C) 9 (D) 7
29.
(A) 15 (B) 16
(C) 17 (D) 18
30.
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 7
179
31.
(A) 5 (B) 6
(C) 8 (D) 10
32.
(A) 8 (B) 10
(C) 12 (D) 14
Directions (Questions 33 – 35): In each of the following questions, a word has been given,
followed by four other words, one of which cannot be formed by using the letters of the given
word. Find that word.
33. TRANSFORM
(A) TRAIN (B) FORT
(C) ROAM (D) RANSOM
34. CONSTRUCTION
(A) SUCTION (B) COINS
(C) CAUTION (D) NOTION
35. INTELLIGENCE
(A) TILLAGE (B) INCITE
(C) GENTLE (D) NEGLECT
36.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

180
37.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
38.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
39.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
40.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
Directions (Questions 41 – 45): In each of the following questions, find the number of triangles
41.
(A) 27 (B) 25
(C) 23 (D) 21
181
42.
(A) 10 (B) 19
(C) 21 (D) 23
43.
(A) 18 (B) 20
(C) 28 (D) 34
44.
(A) 16 (B) 22
(C) 28 (D) 32
45.
(A) 16 (B) 18
(C) 14 (D) 15
182
46.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
47.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
48.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
49.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
50.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

183
Directions (Questions 51 – 53): In each of the following questions, four words have been given
out of which three are alike in some manner, while the fourth one is different. Choose the odd
one.
51. (A) Cheetah (B) Lion

(C) Bear (D) Tiger
52. (A) Curd (B) Butter

(C) Oil (D) Cheese
53. (A) Biscuit (B) Chocolate

(C) Cake (D) Bread
54. In a certain code, FAVOUR is written as EBUPTS. How is DANGER written in that code?
(A) CBFFDS (B) CBMHDS
(C) EBFHDS (D) EBHHFS
55. If, in a code, MIND becomes KGLB and ARGUE becomes YPESC, then what will
DIAGRAM be in that code?
(A) BGYEPYK (B) BGYPYEK
(C) GLPEYKB (D) LKBGYPK
Directions (Questions 56 – 60): Arrange the given words in alphabetical order and tick the one
that comes at the second place.
56. (A) Signature (B) Sieve

(C) Sight (D) Sigh
57. (A) Basis (B) Baste

(C) Bask (D) Basinet
58. (A) Interview (B) Invent

(C) Interfere (D) Interlude
59. (A) Plane (B) Plain

(C) Plenty (D) Place
60. (A) Blast (B) Bottle

(C) Bondage (D) Boisterous
184
61.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
62.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
63.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
64.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
65.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

185
66. A, B and C are sisters. D is the brother of E and E is the daughter of B. How is A related to
D?
(A) Sister (B) Cousin
(C) Niece (D) Aunt
67. A and B are married couple. X and Y are brothers. X is the brother of A. How is Y related
to B?
(A) Brother in law (B) Brother
(C) Cousin (D) None of these
68. Deepak has a brother Anil. Deepak is the son of Prem. Bimals is Prem‟s father. In terms of
relationship, what is Anil of Bimal?
(A) Son (B) Grandson
(C) Brother (D) Grandfather
Directions (Questions 69 – 70): In each of the following questions, a word has been given,
followed by four other words, one of which cannot be formed by using the letters of the given
word. Find that word.
69. REASONABLE
(A) BRAIN (B) BONES
(C) NOBLE (D) ARSON
70. COURAGEOUS
(A) COURAGE (B) SOURCE
(C) COURSE (D) GENEROUS
Directions (Questions 71 – 73): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Seven children A, B, C, D, E, F and G are standing in a line. G is to the right of D and to the left of
B. A is on the right of C. A and D have one child between them. E and B have two children
between them. D and F have two children between them.
71. Who is on the extreme left?

(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D
72. Who is on the extreme right?

(A) B (B) E
(C) F (D) G
73. Who is exactly in the middle?

(A) A (B) C
(C) D (D) E
186
Directions (Questions 74 – 75): In each of the following questions, there is a certain relationship
between two given words on one side of : : and one word is given on another side of : : while
another word is to the found from the given alternatives, having the same relation with this word
as the words of the given pair bear. Choose the correct alternative.
74. Dog : Rabies : : Mosquito : ?

(A) Plague (B) Death
(C) Malaria (D) Sting
75. Radio : Listener : : Film : ?

(A) Producer (B) Actor
(C) Viewer (D) Director
76.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
77.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
78
.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

187
79.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
80
.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
Directions (Questions 81 – 85): In each of the following questions, count the number of squares
81.
(A) 8 (B) 12
(C) 15 (D) 18
82.
(A) 12 (B) 13
(C) 16 (D) 17
188
83.
(A) 11 (B) 21
(C) 24 (D) 26
84.
(A) 6 (B) 7
(C) 9 (D) 10
85.
(A) 32 (B) 30
(C) 29 (D) 28
86.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

189
87.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

88.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
89.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
90.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

190
FIITJEE COMMON
TEST
PHASE – IV
QP CODE:
ANSWERS
1. C 2. D 3. C 4 D
5. C 6. A 7. C 8. A
9. D 10. C 11. B 12. C
13. B 14. A 15. B 16. B
17. B 18. A 19. C 20. A
21. C 22. B 23. B 24. B
25. D 26. B 27. A 28. A
29. C 30. B 31. D 32. C
33. A 34. C 35. A 36. B
37. B 38. C 39. C 40. D
41. A 42. C 43. C 44. C
45. B 46. C 47. B 48. D
49. D 50. A 51. C 52. C
53. B 54. B 55. A 56. D
57. A 58. D 59. B 60. D
61. B 62. D 63. C 64. D
65. C 66. D 67. A 68. B
69. A 70. D 71. C 72. C
73. C 74. C 75. C 76. A
77. D 78. D 79. A 80. C
81. C 82. D 83. C 84. C
85. B 86. B 87. A 88. B
89. D 90. B
191

Sample Paper Class 7 PDF

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Sample Paper Class 7 PDF

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

1

FIITJEE COMMON TEST

A. Question Paper Format

2. A temperature difference of 27°C on Kelvin scale is

4. When air is saturated, it cannot hold

5. If a substance contracts on heating, its coefficient of linear expansion is

6. Maximum density of water is

7. If we decrease the pressure of the surroundings the water will boil at

8. Find the Fahrenheit reading for 10°C

10. The normal temperature of human body is

12. In summer the clock

14. Water in a container is heated from 0°C to 10°C. Its volume

Space for rough work

2. Which of the following acids is present in sour milk?

3. Virgin wool is obtained from

4. Natural fibre which is called as “queen of fibres” is :

5. Which of the following bacteria causes sorter‟s disease in sorters ?

7. What is the percentage of Carbon in wool?

10. Tussore silk is obtained from are ____________ feeding moth.

12. Fine merino wool has _________ crimps per inch

Space for rough work

SECTION – III (MATHEMATICS)

2. The remainder when the sum of x and y is divided by 118 is

3. The remainder when the difference of x and y is divided by 15 is

Direction (4 – 6): A bag contains 6 white, 5 red and 4 black balls.

5. If one ball is drawn randomly, find the probability ball is red?

7. Determine number of cows in the group.

Space for rough work

12. Closure property does not hold good in integers for

13. Which property is reflected in the following

14. A data can have _______ mode.

15. Write an expression:

Space for rough work

2. Green plants are

4. In which portion of chloroplast does light reaction takes place:

6. An Amoeba ingests food with the help of

7. Amylase enzyme is present in

8. Grass is rich in ________ which can only be digested by some animals.

9. During light reaction in photosynthesis the following are formed:

10. Dark reaction is called so because

11. Which of the following is not required for photosynthesis?

12. The largest gland in human body is

13. Pepsin acts in

14. Iodine turns ___________ in colour, in presence of ___________

15. Dark reaction occurs in:

Space for rough work

FIITJEE COMMON TEST

SECTION – III (MATHEMATICS)

Scholastic Aptitude Test

Name of the Candidate : ……………….…………………………………..

Enrollment Number :…………………………………………………….

2. 186 × 186 + 159 × 159 – 2 × 186 × 159

Space for rough work

   a  b3  and ab  0 , then find the value of  3a 2  3b2  2ab 

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 4

Space for rough work

16. Find his monthly salary

17. How much he spend on food?

21. If mean = 30 and median = 25, its mode is

22. If the mean of frequency of distribution is 50. Find the value of P.

Space for rough work

24. What is the percentage increase in sales of B from 2014 to 2015 ?

Space for rough work

14. Iodine turns _ in colour, in presence of _