API-510-OPEN-6

1. The governing thickness of a 1.5" thick bolted flange is equivalent to the thickness
of which is used for determining impact test requirements.

a) 1.5"
b) 6"
c) 0.375"
d) 4"

2. What is the alignment tolerance of a Category "A" weld joint, where the thinner of the
two plates is 1-1/2" thick?

(a) 1/16 t
(b) 1/8"
(c) 3/16"
(d) 1/8t

3. Prior to pressure testing equipment, determination must be made whether hydrostatic test
can be conducted on such equipment by considering the:

a) Supporting structure & foundation design

b) Location of other equipment
c) Location of personnel property
d) Location of the gauge

4. What is the maximum reinforcement permitted for a 1 inch thick circumferential pipe weld?

(a) 3/32"
(b) 1/4"
(c) 3/16"
(d) 1/8"

5. A seamless shell (1 course) with two seamless elliptical heads are combined to form a
vessel. No radiography was performed on the attaching type.1welds. What joint
efficiency/quality factor must be used for the head and shell calculations? (Assume
circumferential stress governs)

(a) .90
(b) .85
(c) 1.00
(d) .70

6. A SAW welding operator is attempting to qualify by radiography on a 6” thick test

coupon. What is the permitted elongated sIag inclusion?

(a) 1/3" t
(b) 1/8" t
(c) 3/4" t
(d) 3/8" t
 7. What is the permissible percentage of distortion in a cylindrical shell?

(a) .5
(b) 1.5
(c) 1
(d) 2

8. What positions are used to qualify a welder for all position pipe welding?

(b) Fixed vertical (5G) and the multiple position (6G)

(c) Fixed horizontal (2G) and the multiple position (6G)
(a) Must use the fixed horizontal (2G) and the fixed vertical (5G)
(d) Fixed horizontal (2G) and the fixed vertical (5G), or the multiple position (6G)

9. How many IQl's are required for examining a complete girth seam containing 30
radiographs shot with a single exposure?

(a) 3
(b) 15
(c) 6
(d) 30
.

10. At what temperature do austenitic stainless steels suffer grain growth?

(a) 1,650 F
(b) 885 F
(c) 1,100 F
(d) 700 F

11. Sensitization of austenitic stainless steels occur between what temperatures?

(a) 700°F to 1100°F

(b) 850°F to 950°F
(c) 750°F to 1650°F
(d) 1200°F to 1400°F

Questions 12 to 15 are answered from the set of conditions below:

A fifteen year old vessel made of SA-203, Gr. B was measured as having a thickness of
0.645". The inside diameter is 42" and the MAWP is 450 psi at 650° F. The backing ring was
left in place and the vessel did comply with UW-11 (a)(5)(b). Material stress is 17,500 psi. The
previous reading on the material had a thickness of 0.68" during the first 10 year interval. A
Data report indicated that the material had a nominal thickness of 0.75".

12. The corrosion rate is:

(a) 0.007
(b) 0.07
(c) 0.035
(d) 0.0035
13. The required minimum thickness is:

(a) 0.548
(b) 0.645
(c) 0.610
(d) 0.788

14. The remaining corrosion allowance is:

(a) .097
(b) .00350
(c) .035
(d) .0097

15. The remaining service life in years is:

(a) 5
(b) 2.5
(c) 13.8
(d) 6.9

16. What is the minimum holding time for postweld heat treating of a weld joint made on P-1
material 3 inches thick?

(a) 3 hours
(b) 2- 1/2 hrs
(c) 2 hrs, 45 minutes
(d) 2 hrs, 15 minutes

17. A forged cylindrical vessel having an outside diameter of 16iinches was measured to have
an actual shell thickness of 0)17" Both ends OT the circular forged flat head is ½”, Using
fig.UG-34(b-1). What is the maximum allowable pressure for both heads? S=17,500 psi

(a) 104 psi

(b) 118 psi
(c) 123 psi
(d) 135 psi

18.Describe the appearance of chloride stress corrosion.

(a) Triangular and branching

(b) Trans-granular and branching
(c) Inter-granular and branching
(d) Primarily boundaries

19. Qualifications requirements for personnel performing magnetic particle examination on

repair welds are found in:

(a) ASNT-TC-1A
(b) Sect V
(c) Sect VIII
(d) API-510
20. A rounded indicatiot"1 1/4" diameter was found during spot radiography of a 1/2" thick
vessel weld. Your interpretation would be that:

(a) the indication is not acceptable to ASME VIII UW-51

(b) the indication is not acceptable to spot radiography ASME VII' UW-52
(c) the rounded indications are not a factor in the acceptability of welds not required to be fully
radiographed
(d) the rounded indications are not a factor for fully radiographed welds

21. A valid heating consideration when performing temper bead-welding is?

(a) Maintain a temperature of 500 plus/minus 50 degrees F for 2 hours after welding
(b) Maintain a temperature of 500 plus/minus 50 degrees F for 24 hours after welding
(c) Maintain an interpass temperature in excess of 500 degrees F
(d) Maintain a preheat temperature of at least 300 degrees F

22. Backscatter radiation is indicated by use of a lead letter "B" whose dimensions are:

(a) 1/2" thick by 1/16" high

(b) 1/2" thick by 1/8" high
(c) 1/8" thick by 1/2" high
(d) 1/16" thick by 1/2" high

23. When performing ultrasonic examination for wall thickness measurement, calibration is
performed on:

(a) three measurements

(b) at least two measurements
(c) two or three measurements
(d) two measurements where the thickness covers the range to be measured

24. Sample removal to spot check welds is used to detect:

(a) Laminations
(b) Chemical properties
(c) Physical properties
(d) Tensile strength

25. What type of corrosion affects the threaded parts of a turnbuckle?

(a) Fatigue
(b) Crevice
(c) Erosion
(d) Pitting

26. A groove weld WPS is qualified using an 8 inch thick test coupon. The testing equipment
for tensile and bends only accommodates 1-1/2 inch wide by 1-1/2 inch thick specimens.
Only one welding process, F-number and base material is usec. How many bend and
tensile of tests are required?

(a) 24 bends & 12 Tensile

(b) 4 bends & 2 Tensile
(c) 12 bends & 24 Tensile
(d) 12 bends & 6 Tensile
27. What is the minimum hydrostatic pressure for a pressure vessel given the following?

Shell material is SA-240 T 304 t = ½”

S= 10200 psi at 900°F
S= I8800 psi at 100°F
Corrosion allowance = 0
Design temperature = 900°F
MDMT = -50°.F
Category "A" type 1 welded joint, RT-1
Diameter = 38" OD
Not for lethal service

(a) 271.2
(b) 499.8
(c) 406.8
(d) 749.7

28. An individual using the automatic SAW process may be qualified by radiography on
production weld. How much of the weld must be radiographed?

(a) 6
(b) 12
(c) 3"
(d) 3'

Question 29 thru 31 comes from these following sets of conditions

You are designing a vessel to contain water, a multiple course vertical vessel using rolled and
welded plates without RT on all joints. The design parameters are:

Service - Water Tank

MAWP = 250 psi
ID = 24"
Stress = 17,500-psi
2:1 Seamless Ellipsoidal Heads
Head and shell material = SA-516-70
Temperature: 400°F
Type 1 welds
Shell Height = 2.4 feet

29. What is the minimum material thickness you can use for the bottom shell course?

(a) 0.2587"
(b) 0.2479"
(c) 0.2126"
(d) 0.1988"

30. What is the minimum material thickness you can use for the upper head?

(a) 0.2020"
(b) 0.2104"
(c) 0.3.141"
(d) 0.2288"
31. What is the minimum material thickness you can use for the lower head?

(a) 0.2020"
(b) 0.2104"
(c) 0.3141"
(d) 0.2288"

32. Longitudinal joints that are not staggered at a distance of at least 5 times the thickness of
the shell:

(a) Must be radiographed 4" in length on each side

(b) Is not permitted by code
(c) May be acceptable provided calculations are being performed
(d) Must be radiographed 6" in length on each side

33. What is the length of a discontinuity permitted in a weld joining 0.575" thick plates when
found by the radiographic method?

(a) 1/3t
(b) 1/4"
(c) 3/4"
(d) 1/3"

Questions 34-45 are in reference to attached WPS 101 & PQR 101

34. 'Which condition below best describes the result of tensile tests reported on the PQR?

(a) Test T1 & T2 are acceptable.

(b) Test T1 & T2 are unacceptable.
(c) Test T1 is acceptable & T2 is unacceptable.
(d) Test T1 is unacceptable & T2 is acceptable.

35. What condition below describes the results of the guided bend test?

(a) The three bend test is acceptable and the fourth one is not acceptable
(b) The test result overall is acceptable
(c)The test result is not acceptable due to the linear indication
(d) The bend test result is indeterminable

36. The supporting PQR qualifies the WPS to be used for?

(a) Manual welding.

(b) Semiautomatic welding.
(c) Automatic welding.
(d) All of the above.

37. The minimum qualified preheat temperature for the WPS is?

(a) 200 degrees F

(b) 100 degrees F
(c) 75 degrees F
(d) 60 degrees F
38. What welding process is qualified by this PQR?

(a) GTAW
(b) SMAW
(c) GMAW
(d) SAW

39. What is the P Number and the tensile strength of SA-106-C?

(a) P No.-1 and 70 ksi

(b) P NO.-1 and 60 ksi
(c) P No.-3 and 70 ksi
(d) P No.-3 and 60 ksi

40. What it the maximum interpass temperature?

(a) 3500
(b) 4500
(c) 2000
(d) Not required

41. In accordance with the PQR, the WPS is qualified for what welding positions?

(a) Flat and Horizontal

(b) Flat, Vertical, Overhead and Horizontal
(c) Vertical and Overhead
(d) Overhead and Horizontal

42. What is the F No. of an E7010 electrode?

(a) F No. 4
(b) F No. 3
(c) F No.2
(d) F No. 1

43. The Welder who welded the test plate for PQR 101 is qualified to weld in what position?

(a) Flat
(b) Flat and Horizontal
(c) Flat and Vertical
(d) Flat, Vertical and Horizontal

44. What material P. No.’s is the same welder qualified for?

(a) P No. 1
(b) P No. 4
(c) P No. 4,3,2,1
(d) P No. 1 through 11, and 4X

45. The same welder would be qualified to weld what minimum size pipe OD?

(a) 1"
(b) 2.875"
(c) 1 0"
(d) 24"

46. Replica transfer techniques are used to:

 (a) Another name for a portable hardness tester
(b) Part of the Brinnell Test
(c) Detect metallurgical changes in place
(d) A sub part of an Eddy Current test

"Questions 47-50 are from this set of conditions.

A 250 psi Vessel 100 ft tall is to be pneumatic tested in accordance with the original ASME
Section VII' Div. 1 rules.

Material is SA-516-70
Design Stress of 12,000 psi
Stress of 17,500 psi at ambient Test Temperature

47. What is the pneumatic test pressure required?

(a) 455 psi

(b) 546 psi
(c) 375 psi
(d) 313 psi

48. What is the minimum temperature at which a fabricated vessel can be tested?

(a) 10 degrees above Operating Temperature

(b) 10 degrees above MDMT
(c) 30 degrees above MDMT
(d) 30 degrees above zero

49. What is the first' test pressure reading of the vessel gage when pneumatically tested?

(a) 313 psi

(b) 227 psi
(c)187 psi
(d) 273 psi

50. What is the pressure reading on the gage after the THIRD step in testing the vessel?

(a) 344 psi

(b) 412 psi
(c) 225 psi
(d) 318 psi

51. Who is responsible for the preparation of design calculations to show compliance for the
Code rules for construction of vessels to be stamped with the (U) stamp?

(a) The Manufacturer

(b) Authorized Pressure Vessel Inspector
(c) An Engineer
(d) ASME code committee

52. Who is required to verify the application of the Code Symbol Stamp to' a Code vessel?
(a) The Manufacturer
(b) Authorized Inspector
(c) An Engineer
(d) ASME code committee

53. A Relief valve is a valve that:

(a) is a pressure relief device whose main relieving valve is controlled by a small spring
loaded pressure relief valve.
(b) is an automatic pressure-relieving device characterized by a full opening pop action. It is
used for gas or vapor service.
(c) is an automatic pressure-relieving device which opens further with an increase in
pressure. It is used primarily for liquid service.
(d) is an automatic pressure-activated relieving device suitable for use either as a safety
valve or relief valve, depending on application.

54. Which item below is not a requirement that must be met before a pressure vessel can be
rerated by changing the temperature or the maximum allowable working pressure?

(a) Calculations from a manufacturer or owner-user engineer with pressure vessel experience
and knowledge to justify rerating.
(b) Rerating is in accordance with the requirements of the construction code, or by formula
from the latest edition of the ASME Code.
(c) Rerating is acceptable to the Inspector.
(d) Rerating is acceptable to the ASME Quality Control Committee

55. The first step in an intemal inspection is to:

(a) Inspect all ladders, stairs and walkways

(b) Obtain a confined space permit
(c) Review the previous inspection report
(d) Review the as built records

56. An example of a non-typical pressure relieving device is:

(a) Safety valve

(b) Relief valve
(c) Control valve
(d) Pilot-Operated Valve

57. What may a pressure vessel manufacturer do to transfer the required markings on plate
material?

(a) Keep a record of such markings

(b) Have a shop foreman remember which plates have been cut
(c) The Authorized Inspector must stamp cut plates
(d) The data report must state that unmarked plate was used

58. Under what conditions may surface defects in material be repaired by the manufacturer?
(a) By prior approval of the Authorized Inspector
(b) Obtaining after completion approval of the Authorized Inspector
(c) By a certified NDT Lab
(d) Approval of an engineer

59. What is the permitted under tolerance for plate material in Section VIII provided the
material specification permits plate to be furnished to an under tolerance?

(a) 0.01" or 6% of plate thickness

(b) 0.01" or 4% of plate thickness
(c) 0.001" or 6% of plate thickness
(d) 0.02" or 6% of plate thickness

60. An example of a treating agent added to the process is:

(a) Carbon dioxide

(b) Nitrogen compounds
(c) Organic acids
(d) Mercury

61. What is the maximum carbon content of carbon and low alloy steels to be used in welded
construction or to be shaped by thermal cutting process?

(a) 3.5%
(b) .15%
(c) .30%
(d) .35%

62. Which material product form always requires a Material Test Report?

(a) Bar
(b) Pipe
(c) Plate
(d) Structural shapes

63. Which welding process may not be used for qualifying a welder by radiography?

(a) GMAW short circuit transfer

(b) SAW
(c) GTAW
(d) SMAW

64. A welders qualified in the 2G position on plate with backing using the GTAW process.
Which below welding would not be permitted?

(a) Pipe groove welds in Un:, rand H positions

(b) Plate groove welds in the H and V positions
(c) Fillet welds in the F and H positions
(d) Pipe groove welds in the F position

65. Erosion on an internal inspection would usually appear:

(a) Smooth
(b) Bright
(c) Confined to a local area
(d) All of the above

66. An SMAW WPS specifies an amperage range of 50-300 amps for E7018 electrodes. The
welder wants to use 400 amps to weld a groove weld. What must be done as a minimum?

(a) Re-qualify the procedure

(b) Revise the WPS.
(c) Make a new coupon with a new POR
(d) Revise the old PQR

67. A welder was qualified with a P-I test coupon using SMAW E7018 electrodes. What below
would not be permitted for this welder for this qualification?

(a) PS or P-8
(b) P1 to P1-P.5
(c) P25 to P8
(d) P8 to P8

68. What is the minimum test coupon length for a welder to be qualified by radiography?

(a) 3"
(b) 30"
(c) 6"
(d) 1.5"

69. The maximum interval between pressure relieving device inspections is:

(a) 5 years
(b) 10 years
(c) As per vendor recommendations
(d) dependent of service

70. Metallic linings that are bulged or buckled are usually an indication that:

(a) The vessel is cracked behind the lining

(b) The lining is fatigued
(c) The lining is cracked or leaking in that area
(d) That no holes or cracks exist

71. Who is responsible for the quality of welding and welding qualifications in a repair of
pressure vessels?

(a) The certifying Lab

(b) The repair organization
(c) The Authorized Inspector
(d) The welder

72. What other welding technique may be used in lieu of Post Weld Heat Treatment for P-1
and P-3 materials?
(a) None
(b) SAW never needs PWHT
(c) Twin arc welding
(d) Temper bead welding

73. Which below is unacceptable for identifying welder identification performed in production?

(a) Welder ID Stamping every 3'

(b) Welder ID Stamping every 4'
(c) Welder ID Stamping every 2'
(d) A record of welded joints and the welders making the joints

74. Section VIII, Division 1 magnetic particle non-destructive examination personnel shall be
qualified in accordance with:

(a) Section VlII, Division 1 (Appendix) standards

(b) Section IX
(c) SNT - TC-IA-1980
(d) ASME Code Section V

75.Cracks in concrete or fireproofing:

(a) May be caused by poor material

(b) May be caused by mechanical shock
(c) May be caused by extreme heat
(d) All f the above

76. In accordance with Section V, a lead letter "Fit is used and placed between:

(a) Source and the film

(b) The film and the examined object
(c) Object and the source
(d) On top of the object for better sensitivity

77. What item below is not part of a pressure relieving device inspection?

(a) Determine physical condition

(b) Determine operating condition
(c) That performance meets requirements
(d) That the vendor is on the approved list

78. A ________________ is a device used to determine the image quality of a radiograph.

(a) A step wedge comparison film

(b) A densitometer
(c) A penetrameter
(d) All of the above.

79. Under ASME Code Section V, what are the upper and lower densities acceptable for
 viewing if the density through the body of the penetrameter is 2.7? Assume single film
viewing.

(a) 2.295 to 3.510

(b) 1.890 to 3.105
(c) 1.8 to 4.0
(d) 1.3 to 4.0

80. The first step in an external inspection is to:

(a) Inspect all ladders, stairs and walkways

(b) Obtain a confined space permit
(c) Review the previous inspection report
(d) Review the as built records

81. A rupture disk is a:

(a) Thin diaphragm held between flanges that rupture at a predetermined pressure
(b) Thick diaphragm held between flanges that rupture at a predetermined pressure
(c) Thin diaphragm placed within a valve that ruptures at a predetermined pressure
(d) Thin diaphragm held between flanges that rupture at a pressure set by the operator

82. On a pressure vessel of welded steel construction, the hydrostatic test pressure must not
be less than ________ times the maximum allowable working pressure.

(a) 1.1
(b) 1.25
(c) 2.0
(d)1.5

83. When conducting a pressure test as part of a periodic inspection, what shall the shell
temperature be during the test for a 1" thick vessel?

(a) 10°F above MDMT to 120° F

(b) 30°F above MDMT to 135°F
(c) 30°F above MDMT to 120°F
(d) MDMT" shall not exceed yield point

84. How does the API-510 define Alteration?

(a) A physical change in any component or a re-rating that has design implications that affect
the pressure containing capability of a pressure vessel beyond the scope of the items
described in the existing data report.
(b) The work necessary to restore a vessel to a condition suitable for safe operation.
(c) Can be the addition or replacement of pressure and non-pressure parts that do not
change the rating of the vessel
(d) A physical change in any component or a re-rating that has design implications that may
affect the pressure containing capability of a pressure vessel within the scope of the items
described in the existing data report.
85. Galvanic corrosion requires a metallic connection, an anode, a cathode and

(a) A second metallic connection

(b) A less noble element
(c) An electrolyte
(d) A more noble element

86. For alterations or repairs initially post weld heat treated as a code requirement, what
postweld treatment alternative may not be used?

(a) Preheat to not less than 300°F

(b) Temper bead technique
(c) Duplication of the original heat treatment
(d) Preheat to not less than 885°F

87. Re-rating of a pressure vessel is considered complete when:

(a) The first production use brings the vessel up to pressure and temperature limits
(b) The original manufacturer has reviewed the calculations
(c) Only after the local jurisdiction has made its inspection
(d) The inspector oversees the attachment of an additional name plate or additional required
stamping

88. The owner of a pressure vessel requires a head of the vessel to be changed with the
same head design due to corrosion. This will be classified as:

(a) Either a repair or alteration

(b) An alteration
(c) A repair
(d) Neither a repair or alteration

89. Which item below is not an important factor in inspection of metallic linings?

(a) That no corrosion exists

(b) That they are properly installed
(c) The corrosion resistance of the material
(d) That no holes or cracks exist

90. High Temperature Sulphuric Corrosion requires a temperature in excess of _____

degrees F before it occurs at an accelerated rate.

(a) 450°F
(b) 885°F
(c) 1100°
(d) 350°F

91. What item is not a factor in the selection of tools for thickness measurements?

(a) Accessibility to both sides.

(b) Accuracy desired
(c) Equipment availability
(d) Desire for NDE methods.
92. A visual external inspection of above ground pressure vessels is required:

(a) At least every five years or the same interval as internal inspection whichever is less
(b) At least every four years
(c) At least every three years
(d) At least every two years

93. What item below does not apply to entering a vessel that has been in service?

(a) Concern for fine particulate engulfment

(b) Assure that the vessel is properly secured and blinded
(c) Assure that someone outside the vessel is designated to assist in the case of emergency
(d) Obtain an entry permit from operations or safety

94. Which of the following is not a method for determining actual thickness of a pressure
vessel?

(a) Any suitable non-destructive examination

(b) Measurements taken through drilled test holes
(c) Gauging from un-corroded surfaces in the vicinity of the corroded area
(d) Calculations based on a deterministic of foundation method

95. Corrosion by water is a concern for:

(a) Crude stocks stored in tanks that accumulate water by the breathing of the tanks
(b). Light stocks stored in tanks that accumulate water by the. breathing of the tanks
(c). Water bottoms are normally drawn off removing most concerns from water
(d). Water is eliminated by the addition of ammonia

96. Creep is defined as:

(a) The flow or brittle deformation of metals held for long periods of time at stress lower
than the normal yield strength
(b) The flow or plastic deformation of metals held for long periods of time at a stress in the
upper yield strength.
(c) The flow or plastic deformation of metals held for long periods of time at stress lower than
the normal yield strength.
(d) The flow or plastic deformation of metals at stress lower than the normal yield strength.

97. Relative to concrete foundations what below does not cause spalling?

(a) Mechanical shock

(b) Corrosion of reinforcing steel to close to the surface
(c) Excessive heat
(d) Excessive pressure on hold down bolts

98. If caustic is stored or used in a vessel, the vessel should be checked for:

(a) Caustic cracking

(b) Caustic corrosion
(c) Caustic embrittlement
(d) Caustic erosion
99. Vessels containing acidic corrodents are more likely to be subject to:

(a) Hydrogen blistering

(b) Heat blistering
(c) Acidic blistering
(d) Internal blistering

100. What must precede the name of the manufacturer on pressure vessel Code stampings?

(a) ASME Authorized Shop number

(b) ASME
(c) Certified By
(d) API Approval Symbol

102. The reasons for in-service inspection are to ascertain:

(a) Physical condition, types of corrosion

(b) Physical condition, causes and types of corrosion
(c) Physical condition, causes of corrosion
(d) Physical condition, locations of any indications

103. Which item below would not permit exempting a vessel with a known corrosion rate less
than 0.005 inch per year from an internal inspection?

(a) It remains in same service

(b) External inspections are periodically made per code
(c) Contents are subject to inadvertent contamination by corrosives
(d) No questionable conditions are disclosed by external inspections

104. A pilot-operated valve is a valve that:

(a) Is a pressure relief device whose main relieving valve is controlled by a small spring -
loaded pressure relief valve.
(b) Is an automatic pressure-relieving device characterized by a full opening pop action. It is
used for gas or vapor service.
(c) Is an automatic pressure-relieving device which opens further with an increase in pressure.
It is used primarily for liquid service.
(d) Is an automatic pressure-activated relieving device suitable for use either as a safety valve
or relief valve, depending on application.

105. Hydrolysis that forms hydrochloric acid uses what chemicals and water?

(a) Potassium and magnesium

(b) Potassium and calcium
(e) Magnesium and calcium
(d) Magnesium and mercaptans

106. Decarburization is usually the result of:

(a). Low temperature oxidation.

(b). Cast iron's ready supply of surface carbon.
(c). Hydrogen embrittlement.
(d). High temperature oxidation
107. pH is a relative measure of the acidity or alkalinity of materials. The definition of pH is:

(a) All pH values below 7 indicate alkalinity increasing with decreasing numbers, 7 is neutral
and values above 7 indicate increasing acidity with increasing numbers up to 14.
(b) All pH values below 7 indicate caustics increasing with decreasing numbers, 7 is neutral
and values above 7 indicate increasing acidity with increasing numbers up to 14.
(c) All pH values below 7 indicate increasing acidity with decreasing numbers, 7 is neutral and
values above 7 indicate increasing alkalinity with increasing numbers up to 14.
(d) All pH values below 7 indicate increasing alkalinity with increasing numbers, 7 js
neutral and values above 7 indicate increasing acidity with increasing numbers up to 14.

108. Repair work shall be authorized by the inspector:

(a) Prior to commencement of work.

(b) Prior to completion of repair plans being drawn
(c) After the work is completed
(d) After the successful hydrostatic test

109. Under catalytic conditions, such as in catalytic reformers, almost all detectable sulfur is
converted to:

(a) Calcium hydroxide

(b) Sodium carbonate
(c) Hydrogen sulfide
(d) Sodium hydroxide

110. What is the principal type of atmospheric corrosion?

(a) Organic
(b) Stress
(c) Inter-granular
(d) Galvanic

111. Stress corrosion- cracking is:

(a) Spontaneous failure under the combined effects of corrosion and tensile stress.
(b) Long term failure under the combined effects of corrosion and tensile stress.
(c) Spontaneous failure under the combined effects of corrosion and compressive stress.
(d) Spontaneous failure under the effect of corrosion or tensile stress.

112. Which item below is not where crevice corrosion (contact corrosion) will most likely
occur?

(a) Under barnacles

(b) Washers
(c) Valves
(d) Threaded joint pockets

113. What type of failure is a stress rupture?

(a) Creep
(b) Brittle
(c) Tensile
(d) High Yield
114. Define structural changes to a metal:

(a) Any change that occurs in the grains or crystals

(b) A change in the chemical composition
(c) A change in the physical properties
(d) A change the carbon content

115. At what temperature range is sigrma most likely to be found in furnace tubes, furnace
parts and equipment?

(a) 885°F to 1100° F

(b) 1200°F to 1400°F
(c) 1800°f to 2200° F
(d) 650°F to 850° F

116. Brittle fracture often appears as:

(a) Chevrons
(b) Beach marks
(c) Non-faceted
(d) Smooth and bright

117. What is the smallest size opening used for liquid relief valves?

(a) 3/4"
(b) 3/8"
(c) 1/2"
(d) 1"

118. Which item below is nnt an example of a cause of detrimental mechanical forces.

(a) Thermal shock

(b) External Loads
(c) Constant internal pressure
(d) Cyclical changes

119. What type of deterioration normally occur in foundations?

(a) Spalling
(b) Cracking
(c) Settling
(d) All of the above

120. What normally causes cracking of foundations and supports?

(a) Nitrogen compounds in the concrete

(b) Unequal settlement
(c) Design of material
(d) Low temperature
121. Buckling caused by over-pressuring generally is found:

(a) Mid way in the longitudinal portion of the vessel

(b) Mid way in the head portion of the vessel
(c) The area of shell to head
(d) Above the liquid level

122. Inspection of Pressure-Relieving devices encompasses such items as:

(a) Rupture disks, relief vales and pilot-operated valves

(b) Explosion doors
(c) Fusible plugs
(d) Control valves

123. What item below cannot be found on a material test report?

(a) Manufacturer's name

(b) Heat number
(c) Chemical properties
(d) Corrosion resistance

124. Failed springs in safety valves can cause malfunction in valve relieving capability in that:

(a) Weakened springs can cause reduction in set pressure and possibility of premature
opening
(b) Total break in the spring can cause uncontrolled valve opening
(c) Complete break in the spring can cause the valve to close and prevent relieving of excess
pressure.
(d) A and B above may result from failed springs

125. What corrosive compound causes the least trouble in tower overhead systems?

(a) Water
(b) Hydrogen sulfide
(c) Hydrogen chloride
(d) Carbon dioxide

126. When does the API-51 0 Inspection Code apply to vessels?

(a) After the contract to fabricate is signed

(b) After the code symbol has been affixed
(c) After they have been placed in service
(d) After they leave the erector's shop

127. What part of Section VIII applies specifically to low alloy and carbon steel fabrication of
vessels?

(a) Part UCL

(b) Part ULC
(c) Part UCS
(d) Part UHA
128. Where is cavitation most likely to occur?

(a) The discharge side of pump impellers

(b) The suction side of pump impellers
(c) The intake of regulating valves
(d) The acute bend in a pipe

129. Which below does not permit widely scattered pits may be ignored?

(a) Total area of pits does not exceed 7 sq. inches within any 6" diameter circle.
(b) No pit depth is more than 1/2 wall thickness exclusive of corrosion allowance.
(c) Total area of pits does not exceed 7 sq. inches within any 8" diameter circle.
(d) Sum of pit dimensions along any straight line within the circle does not exceed 2".

130. One type of authorized inspection agency is:

(a) An inspection organization who does inspections

(b) An Insurance/Inspection agency which does not write pressure vessel insurance
(c) An owner-user of pressure vessels who maintains an inspection organization only for his
equipment
(d) An independent third party consultant

131. How should the MAWP for the continued use of a pressure vessel be established?

(a) By only using the current edition of the Code to which the vessel was fabricated.
(b) By using the Code to which the vessel was fabricated
(c) By any method acceptable to the Inspector.
(d) By calculations provided by the local jurisdiction

132. Most cracks that occur in pressure vessels are found:

(a) In welds and heat affected zone

(b) In materials that are subject to brittle fracture
(c) When notch toughness is below 20 degrees F
(d) Structural

133. What is the minimum thickness allowed by the Code for plate under pressure?

(a) 5/16
(b) 3/16"
(c) 1/16"
(d) 1/8"

134. Which welding below would not be permitted for a welder who is qualified using a
double-groove weld?
(a) A lap weld
(b) A fillet weld
(c) A single V-groove weld with backing
(d) A single V-groove weld without backing

135. The frequency of inspection for pressure relieving devices:

(a) Is the same as the external and internal inspections

(b) Varies widely with operating conditions.
(c) Is determined by the repair concern.
(d) Is the same whether they operate in a satisfactory or high exposure environment.
136. When subcontracting a non-destructive examination, who has the responsibility for
assuring the acceptance criteria are met?

(a) Certificate Holder

(b) Inspector
(c) Level III Examiner
(d) Both (a) and (b)

137. Pressure vessels shall be inspected at time of installation. This includes external and
internal inspection, except when:

(a) The original data report is available and it satisfies the intended use of the vessel, internal
inspection is not required.
(b) The nameplate is verified and" has the necessary information required.
(c) The original data report has been reviewed and is satisfactory to the Inspector.
(d) The vessel will be inspected at a frequency established by the owner.

138. Which item below is not an organization permitted by the code to make repairs to
pressure vessels?

(a) The holder of a valid ASME Certificate of Authorization that authorizes the use of an
appropriate ASME Code symbol.
(b) An owner or user of pressure vessels who repairs his own equipment in accordance with
this inspection code.
(c) A contractor whose qualifications are not acceptable to the owner or user and who makes
repairs in accordance with any nationally recognized code.
(d) An individual or organization that is authorized by the legal jurisdiction.

139. What are the most common corrodents in refinery vessels?

(a) Carbon dioxide & dissolved oxygen

(b) Sulfur & chloride
(c) Organic sulfur compounds & water
(d) Organic acids & nitrogen compounds

140. Vessels containing acidic corrodents are subject to hydrogen blistering, where is this
normally found inside the vessel?

(a) Below and above liquid level

(b) Around manways
(c) In longitudinal welds
(d) Inlet nozzles

141. The use of any number of NDE procedures to establish the continued use of a pressure
vessel is:

(a) Off-stream inspection

(b) Inservice inspection
(c) On-stream inspection
(d) Defect inspection
142. At what temperature does hydrolysis take place?

(a) 300° F to 400° F

(b) 350° F to 450° F
(c) 2412° F to 360° F
(d) 400° F to 500° F

143. Which item below is not used to neutralize cooling water to control corrosion and
carbonate scaling?

(a) Caustic
(b) Sulfuric acid
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) soda ash

144. Which item below is not one of the three major groups into which corrosion problems are
normally divided in refining operations?

(a) Corrosion from lost cathodic protection

(b) Corrosion from components present in the crude oil.
(c) Corrosion from chemicals used in refinery processes.
(d) Environmental corrosion.

145. On which material would a spark-tester not be used?

(a) Concrete
(b) Glass
(c) Paint
(d) Rubber