FEEDLINES AND ANTENNAS

B-006-01-01 -The frequency of the signal and the B-006-02-10

What connects your transceiver to your length of the line A 75 ohm transmission line could be
antenna? matched to the 300 ohm feedpoint of an
-The power cord B-006-01-11 antenna:
-A ground wire What factors determine the -with an extra 250 ohm resistor
-A feed line characteristic impedance of a coaxial -by using a 4 to 1 balun
-A dummy load antenna feed line? -by using a 4 to 1 trigatron
-The ratio of the diameter of the -by inserting a diode in one leg of
B-006-01-02 inner conductor to the diameter of the the antenna
The characteristic impedance of a braid
transmission line is determined by -The diameter of the braid and the B-006-02-11
the: length of the line What kind of antenna feed line can be
-length of the line -The diameter of the braid and the constructed using two conductors which
-physical dimensions and relative frequency of the signal are maintained a uniform distance
positions of the conductors -The frequency of the signal and the apart using insulated spreaders?
-frequency at which the line is length of the line -Coaxial cable
operated -75 ohm twin-lead
-load placed on the line B-006-02-01 -600 ohm open-wire
What is a coaxial cable? -300 ohm twin-lead
B-006-01-03 -Two wires side-by-side in a plastic
The characteristic impedance of a 20 ribbon B-006-03-01
metre piece of transmission line is 52 -Two wires side-by-side held apart by Why does coaxial cable make a good
ohms. If 10 metres were cut off, the insulating rods antenna feed line?
impedance would be: -Two wires twisted around each other -It is weatherproof, and its impedance
-52 ohms in a spiral is higher than that of most amateur
-26 ohms -A center wire inside an insulating antennas
-39 ohms material which is covered by a metal -It is weatherproof, and its impedance
-13 ohms sleeve or shield matches most amateur antennas
-It can be used near metal objects,
B-006-01-04 B-006-02-02 and its impedance is higher than that
The impedance of a coaxial line: What is parallel-conductor feed line? of most amateur antennas
-can be the same for different -Two wires twisted around each other -You can make it at home, and its
diameter line in a spiral impedance matches most amateur
-changes with the frequency of the -A center wire inside an insulating antennas
energy it carries material which is covered by a metal
-is correct for only one size of line sleeve or shield B-006-03-02
-is greater for larger diameter line -A metal pipe which is as wide or What is the best antenna feed line to
slightly wider than a wavelength of use, if it must be put near grounded
B-006-01-05 the signal it carries metal objects?
What commonly available antenna feed -Two wires side-by-side held apart by -Ladder-line
line can be buried directly in the insulating rods -Twisted pair
ground for some distance without -Coaxial cable
adverse effects? B-006-02-03 -Twin lead
-300 ohm twin-lead What kind of antenna feed line is made
-600 ohm open-wire of two conductors held apart by B-006-03-03
-75 ohm twin-lead insulated rods? What are some reasons not to use
-coaxial cable -Open-conductor ladder line parallel-conductor feed line?
-Coaxial cable -You must use an impedance-matching
B-006-01-06 -Twin lead in a plastic ribbon device with your transceiver, and it
The characteristic impedance of a -Twisted pair does not work very well with a high
transmission line is: SWR
-the impedance of a section of the B-006-02-04 -It does not work well when tied down
line one wavelength long What does the term "balun" mean? to metal objects, and it cannot
-the dynamic impedance of the line at -Balanced unloader operate under high power
the operating frequency -Balanced to unbalanced -It does not work well when tied down
-the ratio of the power supplied to -Balanced unmodulator to metal objects, and you must use an
the line to the power delivered to the -Balanced antenna network impedance- matching device with your
termination transceiver
-equal to the pure resistance which, B-006-02-05 -It is difficult to make at home, and
if connected to the end of the line, Where would you install a balun to it does not work very well with a high
will absorb all the power arriving feed a dipole antenna with 50-ohm SWR
along it coaxial cable?
-Between the coaxial cable and the B-006-03-04
B-006-01-07 antenna What common connector usually joins
A transmission line differs from an -Between the transmitter and the RG-213 coaxial cable to an HF
ordinary circuit or network in coaxial cable transceiver?
communications or signaling devices in -Between the antenna and the ground -A PL-259 connector
one very important way. That important -Between the coaxial cable and the -An F-type cable connector
aspect is: ground -A banana plug connector
-capacitive reactance -A binding post connector
-inductive reactance B-006-02-06
-propagation delay What is an unbalanced line? B-006-03-05
-resistance -Feed line with neither conductor What common connector usually joins a
connected to ground hand-held transceiver to its antenna?
B-006-01-08 -Feed line with both conductors -A BNC connector
The characteristic impedance of a connected to ground -A PL-259 connector
parallel wire transmission line does -Feed line with both conductors -An F-type cable connector
not depend on the: connected to each other -A binding post connector
-velocity of energy on the line -Feed line with one conductor
-radius of the conductors connected to ground B-006-03-06
c-entre to centre distance between Which of these common connectors has
conductors B-006-02-07 the lowest loss at UHF?
-dielectric What device can be installed to feed -An F-type cable connector
a balanced antenna with an unbalanced -A BNC connector
B-006-01-09 feed line? -A PL-259 connector
Any length of transmission line may be -A triaxial transformer -A type-N connector
made to appear as an infinitely long -A balun
line by: -A wavetrap B-006-03-07
-terminating the line in its -A loading coil If you install a 6 metre Yagi antenna
characteristic impedance on a tower 50 metres from your
-leaving the line open at the end B-006-02-08 transmitter, which of the following
-shorting the line at the end A flexible coaxial line contains: feed lines is best?
-increasing the standing wave ratio -four or more conductors running -RG-174
above unity parallel -RG-59
-only one conductor -RG-213
B-006-01-10 -braid and insulation around a central -RG-58
What factors determine the conductor
characteristic impedance of a -two parallel conductors separated by B-006-03-08
parallel-conductor antenna feed line? spacers Why should you regularly clean,
-The distance between the centres of tighten and re-solder all antenna
the conductors and the radius of the B-006-02-09 connectors?
conductors A balanced transmission line: -To help keep their resistance at a
-The distance between the centres of -is made of two parallel wires minimum
the conductors and the length of the -has one conductor inside the other -To keep them looking nice
line -carries RF current on one wire only -To keep them from getting stuck in
-The radius of the conductors and the -is made of one conductor only place
frequency of the signal -To increase their capacitance

B-006-03-09
What commonly available antenna feed
line can be buried directly in the
ground for some distance without
adverse effects?
-75 ohm twin-lead
-600 ohm open-wire
-Coaxial cable
-300 ohm twin-lead
B-006-03-10
When antenna feed lines must be placed
near grounded metal objects, which of
the following feed lines should be
used?
-300 ohm twin-lead
-600 ohm open-wire
-75 ohm twin-lead
-Coaxial cable
B-006-03-11
TV twin-lead feed line can be used for
a feed line in an amateur station. The
impedance of this line is
approximately:
-600 ohms
-50 ohms
-300 ohms
-70 ohms
B-006-04-01
Why should you use only good quality
coaxial cable and connectors for a UHF
antenna system?
-To keep television interference high
-To keep the power going to your
antenna system from getting too high
-To keep the standing wave ratio of
your antenna system high
-To keep RF loss low
B-006-04-02
What are some reasons to use
parallelconductor feed line?
-It will operate with a high SWR, and
has less loss than coaxial cable
-It has low impedance, and will
operate with a high SWR
-It will operate with a high SWR, and
it works well when tied down to metal
objects
-It has a low impedance, and has less
loss than coaxial cable
B-006-04-03
If your transmitter and antenna are 15
metres apart, but are connected by 65
metres of RG-58 coaxial cable, what
should be done to reduce feed line
loss?
-Shorten the excess cable so the feed
line is an odd number of wavelengths
long
-Shorten the excess cable
-Roll the excess cable into a coil
which is as small as possible
-Shorten the excess cable so the feed
line is an even number of wavelengths
long
B-006-04-04
As the length of a feed line is
changed, what happens to signal loss?
-Signal loss decreases as length
increases
-Signal loss increases as length
increases
-Signal loss is the least when the
length is the same as the signal's
wavelength
-Signal loss is the same for any
length of feed line
B-006-04-05
As the frequency of a signal is
changed, what happens to signal loss
in a feed line?
-Signal loss increases with decreasing
frequency
-Signal loss increases with increasing
frequency
-Signal loss is the least when the
signal's wavelength is the same as the
feed line's length
-Signal loss is the same for any
frequency
B-006-04-06
Losses occurring on a transmission
line between transmitter and antenna
results in:
-an SWR reading of 1:1
-less RF power being radiated
-reflections occurring in the line
-the wire radiating RF energy
B-006-04-07
The lowest loss feed line on HF is: -standing waves are produced in the
-open-wire feedline
-75 ohm twin-lead
-coaxial cable B-006-05-08
-300 ohm twin-lead The result of the presence of standing
waves on a transmission line is:
B-006-04-08 -perfect impedance match between
In what values are RF feed line losses transmitter and feedline
expressed? -maximum transfer of energy to the
-ohms per MHz antenna from the transmitter
-dB per MHz -lack of radiation from the
-ohms per metre transmission line
-dB per unit length -reduced transfer of RF energy to the
antenna
B-006-04-09
If the length of coaxial feed line is B-006-05-09
increased from 20 metres (65.6 ft) to An SWR meter measures the degree of
40 metres (131.2 ft), how would this match between transmission line and
affect the line loss? antenna by:
-It would be increased by 100% -comparing forward and reflected
-It would be reduced by 10% voltage
-It would be increased by 10% -measuring radiated RF energy
-It would be reduced to 50% -measuring the conductor temperature
-inserting a diode in the feed line
B-006-04-10
If the frequency is increased, how B-006-05-10
would this affect the loss on a A resonant antenna having a feed point
transmission line? (Answer bank has it impedance of 200 ohms is connected to
wrong. Answer should be: It would a feed line and transmitter which have
increase) an impedance of 50 ohms. What will the
-It is independent of frequency standing wave ratio of this system be?
-It would increase -6:1
-It depends on the line length -3:1
-It would decrease -4:1
-5:1
B-006-05-01
What does an SWR reading of 1:1 mean? B-006-05-11
-The best impedance match has been The type of feed line best suited to
attained operating at a high standing wave
-An antenna for another frequency band ratio is:
is probably connected -75 ohm twin-lead
-No power is going to the antenna -600 ohm open-wire
-The SWR meter is broken -coaxial line
-300 ohm twin-lead
B-006-05-02
What does an SWR reading of less than B-006-06-01
1.5:1 mean? What device might allow use of an
-A fairly good impedance match antenna on a band it was not designed
-An impedance match which is too low for?
-An impedance mismatch; something may -An antenna tuner
be wrong with the antenna system -An SWR meter
-An antenna gain of 1.5 -A low pass filter
-A high pass filter
B-006-05-03
What kind of SWR reading may mean poor B-006-06-02
electrical contact between parts of an What does an antenna matching unit do?
antenna system? -It matches a transceiver to a
-A negative reading mismatched antenna system
-No reading at all -It helps a receiver automatically
-A jumpy reading tune in stations that are far away
-A very low reading -It switches an antenna system to a
transmitter when sending, and to a
B-006-05-04 receiver when listening
What does a very high SWR reading -It switches a transceiver between
mean? different kinds of antennas connected
-The transmitter is putting out more to one feed line
power than normal, showing that it is
about to go bad B-006-06-03
-The antenna is the wrong length, or What would you use to connect a
there may be an open or shorted coaxial cable of 50 ohms impedance to
connection somewhere in the feed line an antenna of 35 ohms impedance?
-There is a large amount of solar -An SWR meter
radiation, which means very poor radio -An impedance-matching device
conditions -A low pass filter
-The signals coming from the antenna -A terminating resistor
are unusually strong, which means very
good radio conditions B-006-06-04
When will a power source deliver
B-006-05-05 maximum output to the load?
What does standing-wave ratio mean? -When air wound transformers are used
-The ratio of maximum to minimum instead of iron-core transformers
voltages on a feed line -When the power-supply fuse rating
-The ratio of maximum to minimum equals the primary winding current
inductances on a feed line -When the impedance of the load is
-The ratio of maximum to minimum equal to the impedance of the source
resistances on a feed line -When the load resistance is infinite
-The ratio of maximum to minimum
impedances on a feed line B-006-06-05
What happens when the impedance of an
B-006-05-06 electrical load is equal to the
If your antenna feed line gets hot internal impedance of the power
when you are transmitting, what might source?
this mean? -The electrical load is shorted
-You should transmit using less power --The source delivers maximum power to
-The conductors in the feed line are the load
not insulated very well No current can flow through the
-The feed line is too long circuit
-The SWR may be too high, or the feed -The source delivers minimum power to
line loss may be high the load
B-006-05-07 B-006-06-06
If the characteristic impedance of the Why is impedance matching important?
feedline does not match the antenna -So the load will draw minimum power
input impedance then: from the source
-heat is produced at the junction -To ensure that there is less
-the SWR reading falls to 1:1 resistance than reactance in the
-the antenna will not radiate any circuit
signal
-To ensure that the resistance and Polarization of an antenna is
reactance in the circuit are equal determined by: B-006-08-07
-So the source can deliver maximum -the height of the antenna The speed of a radio wave:
power to the load -the electric field -is infinite in space
-the type of antenna -is the same as the speed of light
B-006-06-07 -the magnetic field -is always less than half speed of
To obtain efficient power transmission light
from a transmitter to an antenna B-006-07-06 -varies directly with frequency
requires: An isotropic antenna is a:
-high load impedance -hypothetical point source B-006-08-08
-low ohmic resistance -infinitely long piece of wire At the end of suspended antenna wire,
-matching of impedances -dummy load insulators are used. These act to:
-inductive impedance -half-wave reference dipole limit the electrical length of the
antenna
B-006-06-08 B-006-07-07 -increase the effective antenna length
To obtain efficient transfer of power What is the antenna radiation pattern -allow the antenna to be more easily
from a transmitter to an antenna, it for an isotropic radiator? -held vertically
is important that there is a: -A parabola -prevent any loss of radio waves by
-high load impedance -A cardioid the antenna
-matching of impedance -A unidirectional cardioid
-proper method of balance -A sphere B-006-08-09
-low ohmic resistance To lower the resonant frequency of an
B-006-07-08 antenna, the operator should:
B-006-06-09 VHF signals from a mobile station -shorten it
If an antenna is correctly matched to using a vertical whip antenna will -lengthen it
a transmitter, the length of normally be best received using a: -ground one end
transmission line: -random length of wire -centre feed it with TV ribbon feeder
-must be a full wavelength long -horizontal ground-plane antenna
-must be an odd number of quarter-wave -vertical ground-plane antenna B-006-08-10
-must be an even number of half-waves -horizontal dipole antenna One solution to multiband operation
-will have no effect on the matching with a shortened radiator is the "trap
B-006-07-09 dipole" or trap vertical. These
B-006-06-10 A dipole antenna will emit a "traps" are actually:
The reason that an RF transmission vertically polarized wave if it is: -large wire-wound resistors
line should be matched at the -fed with the correct type of RF -a coil and capacitor in parallel
transmitter end is to: -too near to the ground -coils wrapped around a ferrite rod
-ensure that the radiated signal has -parallel with the ground -hollow metal cans
the intended polarization -mounted vertically
-transfer the maximum amount of power B-006-08-11
to the antenna B-006-07-10 The wavelength corresponding to a
-prevent frequency drift If an electromagnetic wave leaves an frequency of 2 MHz is:
-overcome fading of the transmitted antenna vertically polarized, it will -360 m (1181 ft)
signal arrive at the receiving antenna, by -150 m (492 ft)
ground wave: -1500 m (4921 ft)
B-006-06-11 -polarized at right angles to original -30 m (98 ft)
If the centre impedance of a folded -vertically polarized
dipole is approximately 300 ohms, and -horizontally polarized B-006-09-01
you are using RG8U (50 ohms) coaxial -polarized in any plane What is a parasitic beam antenna?
lines, what is the ratio required to -An antenna where the driven element
have the line and the antenna matched? B-006-07-11 obtains its radio energy by induction
-2:1 Compared with a horizontal antenna, a or radiation from director elements
-4:1 vertical antenna will receive a -An antenna where all elements are
-10:1 vertically polarized radio wave: driven by direct connection to the
-6:1 -at weaker strength feed line
-without any comparative difference -An antenna where some elements obtain
B-006-07-01 -if the antenna changes the their radio energy by induction or
What does horizontal wave polarization polarization radiation from a driven element
mean? -at greater strength -An antenna where wave traps are used
-The electric and magnetic lines of to magnetically couple the elements
force of a radio wave are B-006-08-01
perpendicular to the earth's surface If an antenna is made longer, what B-006-09-02
-The electric lines of force of a happens to its resonant frequency? How can the bandwidth of a parasitic
radio wave are perpendicular to the -It decreases beam antenna be increased?
earth's surface -It increases -Use traps on the elements
-The electric lines of force of a -It stays the same -Use larger diameter elements
radio wave are parallel to the earth's -It disappears -Use tapered-diameter elements
surface -Use closer element spacing
-The magnetic lines of force of a B-006-08-02
radio wave are parallel to the earth's If an antenna is made shorter, what B-006-09-03
surface happens to its resonant frequency? If a slightly shorter parasitic
-It stays the same element is placed 0.1 wavelength away
B-006-07-02 -It increases from an HF dipole antenna, what effect
What does vertical wave polarization -It disappears will this have on the antenna's
mean? -It decreases radiation pattern?
-The magnetic lines of force of a -A major lobe will develop in the
radio wave are perpendicular to the B-006-08-03 horizontal plane, parallel to the two
earth's surface The wavelength for a frequency of 25 elements
-The electric lines of force of a MHz is: -A major lobe will develop in the
radio wave are perpendicular to the -15 metres (49.2 ft) horizontal plane, toward the parasitic
earth's surface -4 metres (13.1 ft) element
-The electric and magnetic lines of -12 metres (39.4 ft) -A major lobe will develop in the
force of a radio wave are parallel to -32 metres (105 ft) vertical plane, away from the ground
the earth's surface -The radiation pattern will not be
-The electric lines of force of a B-006-08-04 affected
radio wave are parallel to the earth's The velocity of propagation of radio
surface frequency energy in free space is: B-006-09-04
-300 000 kilometres per second If a slightly longer parasitic element
B-006-07-03 -3000 kilometres per second is placed 0.1 wavelength away from an
What electromagnetic wave -150 kilometres per second HF dipole antenna, what effect will
polarization does a Yagi antenna have -186 000 kilometres per second this have on the antenna's radiation
when its elements are parallel to the pattern?
earth's surface? B-006-08-05 -A major lobe will develop in the
-Helical Adding a series inductance to an horizontal plane, parallel to the two
-Horizontal antenna would: elements
-Vertical -increase the resonant frequency -A major lobe will develop in the
-Circular -have little effect vertical plane, away from the ground
-decrease the resonant frequency -A major lobe will develop in the
B-006-07-04 -have no change on the resonant horizontal plane, away from the
What electromagnetic wave frequency parasitic element, toward the dipole
polarization does a half-wavelength -The radiation pattern will not be
antenna have when it is perpendicular B-006-08-06 affected
to the earth's surface? The resonant frequency of an antenna
-Circular may be increased by: B-006-09-05
-Horizontal -lowering the radiating element The property of an antenna, which
-Parabolical -increasing the height of the defines the range of frequencies to
-Vertical radiating element which it will respond, is called its:
-shortening the radiating element -bandwidth
B-006-07-05 -lengthening the radiating element -front-to-back ratio
-impedance
-polarization
B-006-09-06
Approximately how much gain does a
half-wave dipole have over an
isotropic radiator?
-1.5 dB
-3.0 dB
-6.0 dB
-2.1 dB
B-006-09-07
What is meant by antenna gain?
-The numerical ratio of the signal in
the forward direction to the signal in
the back direction
-The numerical ratio of the amount of
power radiated by an antenna compared
to the transmitter output power
-The final amplifier gain minus the
transmission line losses
-The numerical ratio relating the
radiated signal strength of an antenna
to that of another antenna
B-006-09-08
What is meant by antenna bandwidth?
-Antenna length divided by the number
of elements
-The angle between the half- power
radiation points
-The angle formed between two
imaginary lines drawn through the ends
of the elements
-The frequency range over which the
antenna may be expected to perform
well
B-006-09-09
In free space, what is the radiation
characteristic of a half-wave dipole?
-Minimum radiation from the ends,
maximum broadside
-Maximum radiation from the ends,
minimum broadside
-Omnidirectional
-Maximum radiation at 45 degrees to
the plane of the antenna
B-006-09-10
The gain of an antenna, especially on
VHF and above, is quoted in dBi. The
"i" in this expression stands for:
-isotropic
-ideal
-ionosphere
-interpolated
B-006-09-11
The front-to-back ratio of a beam
antenna is:
-the forward power of the major lobe
to the power in the backward direction
-both being measured at the 3 dB
points
the ratio of the maximum forward power
-in the major lobe to the maximum
backward power radiation
undefined
-the ratio of the forward power at the
3 dB points to the power radiated in
the backward direction
B-006-10-01
How do you calculate the length in
metres (feet) of a quarter-wavelength
vertical antenna?
-Divide 468 (1532) by the antenna's
operating frequency (in MHz)
-Divide 300 (982) by the antenna's
operating frequency (in MHz)
-Divide 71.5 (234) by the antenna's
operating frequency (in MHz)
-Divide 150 (491) by the antenna's
operating frequency (in MHz)
B-006-10-02
If you made a quarter-wavelength
vertical antenna for 21.125 MHz, how
long would it be?
3.6 metres (11.8 ft)
3.36 metres (11.0 ft)
7.2 metres (23.6 ft)
6.76 metres (22.2 ft)
B-006-10-03
If you made a half-wavelength vertical
antenna for 223 MHz, how long would it
be?
-64 cm (25.2 in)
-128 cm (50.4 in)
-105 cm (41.3 in)
-134.6 cm (53 in)
B-006-10-04
Why is a 5/8-wavelength vertical
antenna better than a 1/4-wavelength
vertical antenna for VHF or UHF mobile
operations? B-006-11-04
-A 5/8-wavelength antenna has less Approximately how long is the
corona loss reflector element of a Yagi antenna
-A 5/8-wavelength antenna has more for 28.1 MHz?
gain -4.88 metres (16 feet)
-A 5/8-wavelength antenna is easier to -5.33 metres (17.5 feet)
install on a car -10.67 metres (35 feet)
-A 5/8-wavelength antenna can handle -2.66 metres (8.75 feet)
more power
B-006-11-05
B-006-10-05 What is one effect of increasing the
If a magnetic-base whip antenna is boom length and adding directors to a
placed on the roof of a car, in what Yagi antenna?
direction does it send out radio -SWR increases
energy? -Weight decreases
-Most of it is aimed high into the sky -Wind load decreases
-Most of it goes equally in two -Gain increases
opposite directions
-It goes out equally well in all B-006-11-06
horizontal directions What are some advantages of a Yagi
-Most of it goes in one direction with wide element spacing?
-High gain, less critical tuning and
B-006-10-06 wider bandwidth
What is an advantage of downward -High gain, lower loss and a low SWR
sloping radials on a ground plane -High front-to-back ratio and lower
antenna? input resistance
-It increases the radiation angle -Shorter boom length, lower weight and
-It brings the feed point impedance wind resistance
closer to 300 ohms
-It brings the feed point impedance B-006-11-07
closer to 50 ohms Why is a Yagi antenna often used for
-It lowers the radiation angle radiocommunications on the 20-metre
band?
B-006-10-07 -It provides excellent
What happens to the feed point omnidirectional coverage in the
impedance of a ground-plane antenna horizontal plane
when its radials are changed from -It is smaller, less expensive and
horizontal to downward-sloping? easier to erect than a dipole or
-It increases vertical antenna
-It decreases -It provides the highest possible
-It stays the same angle of radiation for the HF bands
-It approaches zero -It helps reduce interference from
other stations off to the side or
B-006-10-08 behind
Which of the following transmission
lines will give the best match to the B-006-11-08
base of a quarter-wave ground-plane What does "antenna front-to- back
antenna? ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi
-300 ohms balanced feed line antenna?
-75 ohms balanced feed line -The relative position of the driven
-300 ohms coaxial cable element with respect to the reflectors
-50 ohms coaxial cable and directors
-The power radiated in the major
B-006-10-09 radiation lobe compared to the power
The main characteristic of a vertical radiated in exactly the opposite
antenna is that it will: direction
-receive signals equally well from all -The power radiated in the major
compass points around it radiation lobe compared to the power
-be very sensitive to signals coming radiated 90 degrees away from that
from horizontal antennas direction
-require few insulators -The number of directors versus the
-be easy to feed with TV ribbon feeder number of reflectors
B-006-10-10 B-006-11-09
Why is a loading coil often used with What is a good way to get maximum
an HF mobile vertical antenna? performance from a Yagi antenna?
-To tune out capacitive reactance -Optimize the lengths and spacing of
-To lower the losses the elements
-To lower the Q -Use RG-58 feed line
-To improve reception -Use a reactance bridge to measure the
antenna performance from each
B-006-10-11 direction around the antenna
What is the main reason why so many -Avoid using towers higher than 9
VHF base and mobile antennas are 5/8 metres (30 feet) above the ground
of a wavelength?
-The angle of radiation is high giving B-006-11-10
excellent local coverage The spacing between the elements on a
-The angle of radiation is low three-element Yagi antenna,
-It is easy to match the antenna to representing the best overall choice,
the transmitter is _______ of a wavelength.
-It's a convenient length on VHF -0.15
-0.5
B-006-11-01 -0.75
How many directly driven elements do -0.2
most Yagi antennas have?
-None B-006-11-11
-Two If the forward gain of a six- element
-Three Yagi is about 10 dB, what would the
-One gain of two of these antennas be if
they were "stacked"?
B-006-11-02 -7 dB
Approximately how long is the driven -13 dB
element of a Yagi antenna for 14.0 -20 dB
MHz? -10 dB
-5.21 metres (17 feet)
-10.67 metres (35 feet) B-006-12-01
-20.12 metres (66 feet) If you made a half-wavelength dipole
-10.21 metres (33 feet and 6 inches) antenna for 28.550 MHz, how long would
it be?
B-006-11-03 -10.5 metres (34.37 ft)
Approximately how long is the director -28.55 metres (93.45 ft)
element of a Yagi antenna for 21.1 -5.08 metres (16.62 ft)
MHz? -10.16 metres (33.26 ft)
-5.18 metres (17 feet)
-6.4 metres (21 feet) B-006-12-02
-3.2 metres (10.5 feet) What is one disadvantage of a random
-12.8 metres (42 feet) wire antenna?
-It usually produces vertically were to cut this antenna for 3.75 MHz, B-006-13-07
polarized radiation what would be its approximate length? Compared to a dipole antenna, what are
-It must be longer than 1 wavelength -38 meters (125 ft.) the directional radiation
-You may experience RF feedback in -32 meters (105 ft.) characteristics of a cubical quad
your station -45 meters (145 ft.) antenna?
-You must use an inverted T matching -75 meters (245 ft.) -The quad has more directivity in both
network for multi-band operation horizontal and vertical planes
B-006-13-01 -The quad has more directivity in the
B-006-12-03 What is a cubical quad antenna? horizontal plane but less directivity
What is the low angle radiation -A center-fed wire 1/2-electrical in the vertical plane
pattern of an ideal half-wavelength wavelength long -The quad has less directivity in the
dipole HF antenna installed parallel -A vertical conductor 1/4- electrical horizontal plane but more directivity
to the earth? wavelength high, fed at the bottom in the vertical plane
-It is a figure-eight, perpendicular -Two or more parallel four- sided wire -The quad has less directivity in both
to the antenna loops, each approximately one- horizontal and vertical planes
-It is a circle (equal radiation in electrical wavelength long
all directions) -Four straight, parallel elements in B-006-13-08
-It is two smaller lobes on one side line with each other, each Moving the feed point of a
of the antenna, and one larger lobe on approximately 1/2- electrical multielement quad antenna from a side
the other side wavelength long parallel to the ground to a side
-It is a figure-eight, off both ends perpendicular to the ground will have
of the antenna B-006-13-02 what effect?
What is a delta loop antenna? -It will change the antenna
B-006-12-04 -A type of cubical quad antenna, polarization from vertical to
The impedances in ohms at the feed except with triangular elements rather horizontal
point of the dipole and folded dipole than square -It will significantly decrease the
are, respectively: -A large copper ring or wire loop, antenna feed point impedance
-73 and 150 used in direction finding -It will change the antenna
-73 and 300 -An antenna system made of three polarization from horizontal to
-52 and 100 vertical antennas, arranged in a vertical
-52 and 200 triangular shape -It will significantly increase the
-An antenna made from several antenna feed point impedance
B-006-12-05 triangular coils of wire on an
A dipole transmitting antenna, placed insulating form B-006-13-09
so that the ends are pointing What does the term "antenna front-
North/South, radiates: B-006-13-03 toback ratio" mean in reference to a
-mostly to the South and North Approximately how long is each side of delta loop antenna?
-mostly to the South a cubical quad antenna driven element -The relative position of the driven
-equally in all directions for 21.4 MHz? element with respect to the reflectors
-mostly to the East and West -3.54 metres (11.7 feet) and directors
-0.36 metres (1.17 feet) -The power radiated in the major
B-006-12-06 -14.33 metres (47 feet) radiation lobe compared to the power
How does the bandwidth of a folded -143 metres (469 feet) radiated in exactly the opposite
dipole antenna compare with that of a direction
simple dipole antenna? B-006-13-04 -The power radiated in the major
-It is essentially the same Approximately how long is each side of radiation lobe compared to the power
-It is less than 50% a cubical quad antenna driven element radiated 90 degrees away from that
-It is 0.707 times the bandwidth for 14.3 MHz? direction
-It is greater -21.43 metres (70.3 feet) -The number of directors versus the
-5.36 metres (17.6 feet) number of reflectors
B-006-12-07 -53.34 metres (175 feet)
What is a disadvantage of using an -7.13 metres (23.4 feet) B-006-13-10
antenna equipped with traps? The cubical "quad" or "quad" antenna
-It is too sharply directional at B-006-13-05 consists of two or more square loops
lower frequencies Approximately how long is each leg of of wire. The driven element has an
-It will radiate harmonics a symmetrical delta loop antenna approximate overall length of:
-It must be neutralized driven element for 28.7 MHz? -three-quarters of a wavelength
-It can only be used for one band -2.67 metres (8.75 feet) -one wavelength
-7.13 metres (23.4 feet) -two wavelengths
B-006-12-08 -10.67 metres (35 feet) -one-half wavelength
What is an advantage of using a trap -3.5 metres (11.5 feet)
antenna? B-006-13-11
-It may be used for multi- band B-006-13-06 The delta loop antenna consists of two
operation Which statement about two- element or more triangular structures mounted
-It has high directivity at the higher delta loops and quad antennas is true? on a boom. The overall length of the
frequencies -They perform very well only at HF driven element is approximately:
-It has high gain -They compare favorably with a -one-quarter of a wavelength
-It minimizes harmonic radiation threeelement Yagi -one wavelength
-They are effective only when -two wavelengths
B-006-12-09 constructed using insulated wire -one-half of a wavelength
The "doublet antenna" is the most -They perform poorly above HF
common in the amateur service. If you
 RADIOWAVE PROPAGATION
-325 km (180 miles)
B-007-01-01 B-007-02-03 -4500 km (2500 miles)
What type of propagation usually Which ionospheric region is closest to -None; the E region does not support
occurs from one hand- held VHF the earth? radio-wave propagation
transceiver to another nearby? -The E region
-Tunnel propagation -The D region B-007-03-04
-Sky-wave propagation -The F region Skip zone is:
-Auroral propagation -The A region -a zone of silence caused by lost sky
-Line-of-sight propagation waves
B-007-02-04 -a zone between any two refracted
B-007-01-02 Which region of the ionosphere is the waves
How does the range of sky-wave least useful for long distance radio- -a zone between the end of the ground
propagation compare to ground- wave wave propagation? wave and the point where the first
propagation? -The F2 region refracted wave returns to earth
-It is much shorter -The F1 region -a zone between the antenna and the
-It is about the same -The D region return of the first refracted wave
-It depends on the weather -The E region
-It is much longer B-007-03-05
B-007-02-05 The distance to Europe from your
B-007-01-03 What two sub-regions of ionosphere location is approximately 5000 km.
When a signal is returned to earth by exist only in the daytime? What sort of propagation is the most
the ionosphere, what is this called? -Troposphere and stratosphere likely to be involved?
-Tropospheric propagation -Electrostatic and electromagnetic -sporadic "E"
-Ground-wave propagation -D and E -back scatter
-Sky-wave propagation -F1 and F2 -multihop
-Earth-moon-earth propagation -tropospheric scatter
B-007-02-06
B-007-01-04 When is the ionosphere most ionized? B-007-03-06
How are VHF signals propagated within -Dawn For radio signals, the skip distance
the range of the visible horizon? -Midnight is determined by the:
-By direct wave -Midday -power fed to the final
-By sky wave -Dusk -angle of radiation
-By plane wave -type of transmitting antenna used
-By geometric wave B-007-02-07 -height of the ionosphere and the
When is the ionosphere least ionized? angle of radiation
B-007-01-05 -Shortly before dawn
Skywave is another name for: -Just after noon B-007-03-07
-ionospheric wave -Just after dusk The distance from the transmitter to
-tropospheric wave -Shortly before midnight the nearest point where the sky wave
-ground wave returns to the earth is called the:
-inverted wave B-007-02-08 -skip zone
Why is the F2 region mainly -angle of radiation
B-007-01-06 responsible for the longest distance -skip distance
That portion of the radiation which is radio-wave propagation? -maximum usable frequency
directly affected by the surface of -Because it exists only at night
the earth is called: -Because it is the lowest ionospheric B-007-03-08
-tropospheric wave region Skip distance is the:
-ionospheric wave -Because it does not absorb radio -the minimum distance reached by a
-inverted wave waves as much as other ionospheric signal after one reflection by the
-ground wave regions ionosphere
-Because it is the highest ionospheric -the maximum distance reached by a
B-007-01-07 region signal after one reflection by the
At HF frequencies, line-of-sight ionosphere
transmission between two stations uses B-007-02-09 -the minimum distance reached by a
mainly the: What is the main reason the 160, 80 ground-wave signal
-troposphere and 40 metre amateur bands tend to be -the maximum distance a signal will
-skip wave useful only for short-distance travel by both a ground wave and
-ionosphere communications during daylight hours? reflected wave
-ground wave -Because of auroral propagation
-Because of D-region absorption B-007-03-09
B-007-01-08 -Because of magnetic flux Skip distance is a term associated
The distance travelled by ground -Because of a lack of activity with signals from the ionosphere. Skip
waves: effects are due to:
-depends on the maximum usable B-007-02-10 -reflection and refraction from the
frequency During the day, one of the ionospheric ionosphere
-is more at higher frequencies layers splits into two parts called: -selective fading of local signals
-is less at higher frequencies -D1 & D2 -high gain antennas being used
-is the same for all frequencies -E1 & E2 -local cloud cover
-A & B
B-007-01-09 -F1 & F2 B-007-03-10
The radio wave which follows a path The skip distance of a sky wave will
from the transmitter to the ionosphere B-007-02-11 be greatest when the:
and back to earth is known correctly The position of the E layer in the -polarization is vertical
as the: ionosphere is: -ionosphere is most densely ionized
-F layer below the D layer -angle between ground and radiation is
-surface wave below the F layer smallest
-ionospheric wave sporadic -signal given out is strongest
-skip wave above the F layer
B-007-03-11
B-007-01-10 B-007-03-01 If the height of the reflecting layer
Reception of high frequency (HF) radio What is a skip zone? of the ionosphere increases, the skip
waves beyond 4000 km is generally -An area which is too far away for distance of a high frequency (HF)
possible by: ground-wave or sky-wave propagation transmission:
-ground wave -An area covered by sky-wave -stays the same
-ionospheric wave propagation -varies regularly
-skip wave -An area which is too far away for -becomes greater
-surface wave ground-wave propagation, but too close -decreases
for sky-wave propagation
B-007-02-01 -An area covered by ground- wave B-007-04-01
What causes the ionosphere to form? propagation What effect does the D region of the
-Lightning ionizing the outer ionosphere have on lower frequency HF
atmosphere B-007-03-02 signals in the daytime?
-Solar radiation ionizing the outer What is the maximum distance along the -It absorbs the signals
atmosphere earth's surface that is normally -It bends the radio waves out into
-Release of fluorocarbons into the covered in one hop using the F2 space
atmosphere region? -It refracts the radio waves back to
-Temperature changes ionizing the -None; the F2 region does not support earth
outer atmosphere radio-wave propagation -It has little or no effect on 80-
-2160 km (1200 miles) metre radio waves
B-007-02-02 -4500km (2500 miles)
What type of solar radiation is most -325 km (180 miles) B-007-04-02
responsible for ionization in the What causes the ionosphere to absorb
outer atmosphere? B-007-03-03 radio waves?
-Microwave What is the maximum distance along the -The presence of ionized clouds in the
-Ionized particle earth's surface that is normally E region
-Ultraviolet covered in one hop using the E region? -The ionization of the D region
-Thermal -2160 km (1200 miles) -The splitting of the F region
-The weather below the ionosphere B-007-05-01 What happens to signals higher in
How do sunspots change the ionization frequency than the critical frequency?
B-007-04-03 of the atmosphere? -They pass through the ionosphere
Two or more parts of the radio wave -The more sunspots there are, the -They are absorbed by the ionosphere
follow different paths during greater the ionization -Their frequency is changed by the
propagation and this may result in -The more sunspots there are, the less ionosphere to be below the maximum
phase differences at the receiver. the ionization usable frequency
This "change" at the receiver is -Unless there are sunspots, the -They are reflected back to their
called: ionization is zero source
-fading -They have no effect
-baffling B-007-06-02
-absorption B-007-05-02 What causes the maximum usable
-skip How long is an average sunspot cycle? frequency to vary?
-17 years -The amount of radiation received from
B-007-04-04 -5 years the sun, mainly ultraviolet
A change or variation in signal -11 years -The temperature of the ionosphere
strength at the antenna, caused by -7 years -The speed of the winds in the upper
differences in path lengths, is atmosphere
called: B-007-05-03 -The type of weather just below the
-absorption What is solar flux? ionosphere
-fluctuation -A measure of the tilt of the earth's
-path loss ionosphere on the side toward the sun B-007-06-03
-fading -The number of sunspots on the side of What does maximum usable frequency
the sun facing the earth mean?
B-007-04-05 -The radio energy emitted by the sun -The lowest frequency signal that will
When a transmitted radio signal -The density of the sun's magnetic reach its intended destination
reaches a station by a one-hop and field -The highest frequency signal that is
two-hop skip path, small changes in most absorbed by the ionosphere
the ionosphere can cause: B-007-05-04 -The lowest frequency signal that is
-consistent fading of received signal What is the solar-flux index? most absorbed by the ionosphere
-consistently stronger signals -Another name for the American sunspot -The highest frequency signal that
-variations in signal strength number will reach its intended destination
-a change in the ground-wave signal -A measure of solar activity that
compares daily readings with results B-007-06-04
B-007-04-06 from the last six months What can be done at an amateur station
The usual effect of ionospheric storms -A measure of solar activity that is to continue HF communications during
is to: taken at a specific frequency a sudden ionospheric disturbance?
-produce extreme weather changes -A measure of solar activity that is -Try a higher frequency
-cause a fade-out of sky- wave signals taken annually -Try the other sideband
-prevent communications by ground wave -Try a different antenna polarization
-increase the maximum usable frequency B-007-05-05 -Try a different frequency shift
What influences all
B-007-04-07 radiocommunication beyond ground-wave B-007-06-05
On the VHF and UHF bands, polarization or line-of-sight ranges? What is one way to determine if the
of the receiving antenna is very -The F2 region of the ionosphere maximum usable frequency (MUF) is high
important in relation to the -The F1 region of the ionosphere enough to support 28 MHz propagation
transmitting antenna, yet on HF bands -Solar activity between your station and western
it is relatively unimportant. Why is -Lunar tidal effects Europe?
that so? -Listen for signals on the 10-metre
-The ionosphere can change the B-007-05-06 beacon frequency
polarization of the signal from moment Which two types of radiation from the -Listen for signals on the 20-metre
to moment sun influence propagation? beacon frequency
-The ground wave and the sky wave -Subaudible and audio-frequency -Listen for signals on the 39-metre
continually shift the polarization emissions broadcast frequency
-Anomalies in the earth's magnetic -Polar region and equatorial emissions -Listen for WWVH time signals on 20
field produce a profound effect on HF -Infra-red and gamma-ray emissions MHz
polarization -Electromagnetic and particle
-Greater selectivity is possible with emissions B-007-06-06
HF receivers making changes in What usually happens to radio waves
polarization redundant B-007-05-07 with frequencies below the maximum
When sunspot numbers are high, how is usable frequency (MUF) when they are
B-007-04-08 the ionosphere affected? sent into the ionosphere?
What causes selective fading? -Frequencies up to 40 MHz or higher -They are changed to a frequency above
-Phase differences between radio wave are normally usable for long-distance the MUF
components of the same transmission, communication -They are completely absorbed by the
as experienced at the receiving -High frequency radio signals are ionosphere
station absorbed -They are bent back to the earth
-Small changes in beam heading at the -Frequencies up to 100 MHz or higher -They pass through the ionosphere
receiving station are normally usable for long-distance
-Time differences between the communication B-007-06-07
receiving and transmitting stations -High frequency radio signals become At what point in the solar cycle does
-Large changes in the height of the weak and distorted the 20-metre band usually support
ionosphere at the receiving station worldwide propagation during daylight
ordinarily occurring shortly before B-007-05-08 hours?
sunrise and sunset All communication frequencies -Only at the minimum point of the
throughout the spectrum are affected solar cycle
B-007-04-09 in varying degrees by the: -Only at the maximum point of the
How does the bandwidth of a -ionosphere solar cycle
transmitted signal affect selective -aurora borealis -At any point in the solar cycle
fading? -atmospheric conditions -At the summer solstice
-It is the same for both wide and -sun
narrow bandwidths B-007-06-08
-It is more pronounced at wide B-007-05-09 If we transmit a signal, the frequency
bandwidths Average duration of a solar cycle is: of which is so high we no longer
-Only the receiver bandwidth -11 years receive a reflection from the
determines the selective fading effect -3 years ionosphere, the signal frequency is
-It is more pronounced at narrow -6 years above the:
bandwidths -1 year -skip distance
-maximum usable frequency
B-007-04-10 B-007-05-10 -speed of light
Polarization change often takes place The ability of the ionosphere to -sunspot frequency
on radio waves that are propagated reflect high frequency radio signals
over long distances. Which of these depends on: B-007-06-09
does not cause polarization change? -the amount of solar radiation Communication on the 80 metre band is
-Parabolic interaction -the power of the transmitted signal generally most difficult during:
-Reflections -the receiver sensitivity -daytime in summer
-Passage through magnetic fields -upper atmosphere weather conditions -evening in winter
(Faraday rotation) -evening in summer
-Refractions B-007-05-11 -daytime in winter
Propagation cycles have a period of
B-007-04-11 approximately 11: B-007-06-10
Reflection of a SSB transmission from -years The optimum working frequency provides
the ionosphere causes: -months the best long range HF communication.
-little or no phase-shift distortion -days Compared with the maximum usable
-phase-shift distortion -centuries frequency (MUF), it is usually:
-signal cancellation at the receiver -double the MUF
-a high-pitch squeal at the receiver B-007-06-01 -half the MUF
-slightly lower
-slightly higher -East -Propagation through ground waves that
-North absorb much of the signal
B-007-06-11 -West -The state of the E-region at the
During summer daytime, which bands are -South point of refraction
the most difficult for communications
beyond ground wave? B-007-07-08 B-007-08-05
-160 and 80 metres Where in the ionosphere does auroral Why are HF scatter signals usually
-40 metres activity occur? weak?
-30 metres -At F-region height -Propagation through ground waves
-20 metres -At E-region height absorbs most of the signal energy
-In the equatorial band -Only a small part of the signal
B-007-07-01 -At D-region height energy is scattered into the skip zone
Which ionospheric region most affects -The F region of the ionosphere
sky-wave propagation on the 6 metre B-007-07-09 absorbs most of the signal energy
band? Which emission modes are best for -Auroral activity absorbs most of the
-The F2 region auroral propagation? signal energy
-The F1 region -RTTY and AM
-The E region -FM and CW B-007-08-06
-The D region -CW and SSB What type of radio-wave propagation
-SSB and FM allows a signal to be detected at a
B-007-07-02 distance too far for ground-wave
What effect does tropospheric bending B-007-07-10 propagation but too near for normal
have on 2-metre radio waves? Excluding enhanced propagation modes, skywave propagation?
-It causes them to travel shorter what is the approximate range of -Short-path skip
distances normal VHF tropospheric propagation? -Sporadic-E skip
-It garbles the signal -2400 km (1500 miles) -Scatter
-It reverses the sideband of the -800 km (500 miles) -Ground wave
signal -3200 km (2000 miles)
-It lets you contact stations farther -1600 km (1000 miles) B-007-08-07
away When does scatter propagation on the
B-007-07-11 HF bands most often occur?
B-007-07-03 What effect is responsible for -When the sunspot cycle is at a
What causes tropospheric ducting of propagating a VHF signal over 800 km minimum and D-region absorption is
radio waves? (500 miles)? high
-Lightning between the transmitting -Faraday rotation -At night
and receiving stations -Tropospheric ducting -When the F1 and F2 regions are
-An aurora to the north -D-region absorption combined
-A temperature inversion -Moon bounce -When communicating on frequencies
-A very low pressure area above the maximum usable frequency
B-007-08-01 (MUF)
B-007-07-04 What kind of propagation would best be
That portion of the radiation kept used by two stations within each B-007-08-08
close to the earth's surface due to other's skip zone on a certain Which of the following is not a
bending in the atmosphere is called frequency? scatter mode?
the: -Scatter-mode -Meteor scatter
-inverted wave -Sky-wave -Tropospheric scatter
-ground wave -Ducting -Ionospheric scatter
-tropospheric wave -Ground-wave -Absorption scatter
-ionospheric wave
B-007-08-02 B-007-08-09
B-007-07-05 If you receive a weak, distorted Meteor scatter is most effective on
What is a sporadic-E condition? signal from a distance, and close to what band?
-Patches of dense ionization at E- the maximum usable frequency, what -40 metres
region height type of propagation is probably -6 metres
-Partial tropospheric ducting at E- occurring? -15 metres
region height -Ground-wave -160 metres
-Variations in E-region height caused -Line-of-sight
by sunspot variations -Scatter B-007-08-10
-A brief decrease in VHF signals -Ducting Which of the following is not a
caused by sunspot variations scatter mode?
B-007-08-03 -Side scatter
B-007-07-06 What is a characteristic of HF scatter -Back scatter
On which amateur frequency band is the signals? -Inverted scatter
extended-distance propagation effect -Reversed modulation -Forward scatter
of sporadic-E most often observed? -A wavering sound
-160 metres -Reversed sidebands B-007-08-11
-20 metres -High intelligibility In which frequency range is meteor
-6 metres scatter most effective for extended-
-2 metres B-007-08-04 range communication?
What makes HF scatter signals often -30 - 100 MHz
B-007-07-07 sound distorted? -10 - 30 MHz
In the northern hemisphere, in which -Energy scattered into the skip zone -3 - 10 MHz
direction should a directional antenna through several radio-wave paths -100 - 300 MHz
be pointed to take maximum advantage -Auroral activity and changes in the
of auroral propagation? earth's magnetic field
 INTERFERRENCE AND SUPPRESSION
-The modulation of an unwanted signal What device can be used to minimize
B-008-01-01 is heard on the desired signal the effect of RF pickup by audio wires
What is meant by receiver overload? connected to stereo speakers, intercom
-Interference caused by turning the B-008-01-10 amplifiers, telephones, etc.?
volume up too high If a television receiver suffers from -Magnet
-Too much current from the power cross-modulation when a nearby amateur -Attenuator
supply transmitter is operating at 14 MHz, -Diode
-Interference caused by strong signals which of the following cures might be -Ferrite core
from a nearby transmitter effective?
-Too much voltage from the power -A low pass filter attached to the B-008-02-09
supply antenna output of the transmitter Stereo speaker leads often act as
-A high pass filter attached to the antennas to pick up RF signals. What
B-008-01-02 antenna output of the transmitter is one method you can use to minimize
What is one way to tell if radio -A high pass filter attached to the this effect?
frequency interference to a receiver antenna input of the television -Shorten the leads
is caused by front-end overload? -A low pass filter attached to the -Lengthen the leads
-If grounding the receiver makes the antenna input of the television -Connect the speaker through an audio
problem worse attenuator
-If connecting a low pass filter to B-008-01-11 -Connect a diode across the speaker
the receiver greatly cuts down the How can cross-modulation be reduced?
interference -By installing a suitable filter at B-008-02-10
-If the interference is about the same the receiver One method of preventing RF from
no matter what frequency is used for -By using a better antenna entering a stereo set through the
the transmitter -By increasing the receiver RF gain speaker leads is to wrap each of the
-If connecting a low pass filter to while decreasing the AF gain speaker leads around a:
the transmitter greatly cuts down the -By adjusting the passband tuning -copper bar
interference -iron bar
B-008-02-01 -ferrite core
B-008-01-03 What devices would you install to -wooden dowel
If a neighbour reports television reduce or eliminate audio-frequency
interference whenever you transmit, no interference to home entertainment B-008-02-11
matter what band you use, what is systems? Stereo amplifiers often have long
probably the cause of the -Bypass resistors leads which pick up transmitted
interference? -Metal-oxide varistors signals because they act as:
-Incorrect antenna length -Bypass capacitors -transmitting antennas
-Receiver VR tube discharge -Bypass inductors -RF attenuators
-Receiver overload -frequency discriminators
-Too little transmitter harmonic B-008-02-02 -receiving antennas
suppression What should be done if a properly
operating amateur station is the cause B-008-03-01
B-008-01-04 of interference to a nearby telephone? How can you prevent key-clicks?
What type of filter should be -Ground and shield the local telephone -By increasing power
connected to a TV receiver as the distribution amplifier -By using a key-click filter
first step in trying to prevent RF -Stop transmitting whenever the -By using a better power supply
overload from an amateur HF station telephone is in use -By sending CW more slowly
transmission? -Ask the telephone company to install
-High-pass RFI filters B-008-03-02
-Low-pass -Make internal adjustments to the If someone tells you that signals from
-Band-pass telephone equipment your hand-held transceiver are
-No filter interfering with other signals on a
B-008-02-03 frequency near yours, what may be the
B-008-01-05 What sound is heard from a cause?
When the signal from a transmitter publicaddress system if audio -Your hand-held may be transmitting
overloads the audio stages of a rectification of a nearby single- spurious emissions
broadcast receiver, the transmitted sideband phone transmission occurs? -You may need a power amplifier for
signal: -Clearly audible speech from the your hand-held
-is distorted on voice peaks transmitter's signals -Your hand-held may have chirp from
-can appear wherever the receiver is -On-and-off humming or clicking weak batteries
tuned -Distorted speech from the -You may need to turn the volume up on
-appears only on one frequency transmitter's signals your hand-held
-appears only when a station is tuned -A steady hum whenever the
transmitter's carrier is on the air B-008-03-03
B-008-01-06 If your transmitter sends signals
Cross-modulation of a broadcast B-008-02-04 outside the band where it is
receiver by a nearby transmitter would What sound is heard from a transmitting, what is this called?
be noticed in the receiver as: publicaddress system if audio -Side tones
-interference only when a broadcast rectification of a nearby CW -Transmitter chirping
signal is tuned transmission occurs? -Spurious emissions
-the undesired signal in the -Audible, possibly distorted speech -Off-frequency emissions
background of the desired signal -Muffled, severely distorted speech
-distortion on transmitted voice peaks -A steady whistling B-008-03-04
-interference continuously across the -On-and-off humming or clicking What problem may occur if your
dial transmitter is operated without the
B-008-02-05 cover and other shielding in place?
B-008-01-07 How can you minimize the possibility -It may transmit a weak signal
What is cross-modulation of audio rectification of your -It may transmit spurious emissions
interference? transmitter's signals? -It may interfere with other stations
-Interference between two -By installing bypass capacitors on operating near its frequency
transmitters of different modulation all power supply rectifiers -It may transmit a chirpy signal
type -By using CW emission only
-Interference caused by audio -By ensuring that all station B-008-03-05
rectification in the receiver equipment is properly grounded In Morse code transmission, local RF
reamplifier -By using a solid-state transmitter interference (key-clicks) is produced
-Harmonic distortion of the by:
transmitted signal B-008-02-06 -the making and breaking of the
-Modulation from an unwanted signal is An amateur transmitter is being heard circuit at the Morse key
heard in addition to the desired across the entire dial of a broadcast -frequency shifting caused by poor
signal receiver. The receiver is most voltage regulation
probably suffering from: -the power amplifier, and is caused by
B-008-01-08 -harmonics interference from the high frequency parasitics
What is the term used to refer to the transmitter -poor waveshaping caused by a poor
condition where the signals from a -cross-modulation or audio voltage regulator
very strong station are superimposed rectification in the receiver
on other signals being received? -poor image rejection B-008-03-06
-Receiver quieting -splatter from the transmitter Key-clicks, heard from a Morse code
-Cross-modulation interference transmitter at a distant receiver, are
-Capture effect B-008-02-07 the result of:
-Intermodulation distortion Cross-modulation is usually caused by: -power supply hum modulating the
-rectification of strong signals carrier
B-008-01-09 -harmonics generated at the -too sharp rise and decay times of the
What is the result of cross- transmitter carrier
modulation? -improper filtering in the transmitter -sparks emitting RF from the key
-Receiver quieting -lack of receiver sensitivity and contacts
-A decrease in modulation level of selectivity -changes in oscillator frequency on
transmitted signals keying
-Inverted sidebands in the final stage B-008-02-08
of the amplifier B-008-03-07
In a Morse code transmission, local RF -Your transmitter's power-supply -Substantially higher
interference (key-clicks) is produced filter capacitor was bad
by: B-008-05-05
-shift in frequency when keying the B-008-04-06 In order to reduce the harmonic output
transmitter What causes splatter interference? of a high frequency (HF) transmitter,
-sparking at the key contacts -Keying a transmitter too fast which of the following filters should
-sudden movement in the receiver -Signals from a transmitter's output be installed at the transmitter?
loudspeaker circuit are being sent back to its -Band pass
-poor shaping of the waveform input circuit -High pass
-The transmitting antenna is the wrong -Rejection
B-008-03-08 length -Low pass
Key-clicks can be suppressed by: -Overmodulation of a transmitter
-inserting a choke and a capacitor at B-008-05-06
the key B-008-04-07 To reduce harmonic output from a
-turning the receiver down Your amateur radio transmitter appears transmitter, you would put a _______
regulating the oscillator supply to be creating interference to the in the transmission line as close to
voltage television on channel 3 (60-66 MHz) the transmitter as possible.
-using a choke in the RF power output when you are transmitting on the 15 -high pass filter
metre band. Other channels are not -low pass filter
B-008-03-09 affected. The most likely cause is: -band reject filter
A parasitic oscillation: -no high-pass filter on the TV -wave trap
-is generated by parasitic elements of -a bad ground at the transmitter
a Yagi beam -harmonic radiation from the B-008-05-07
-does not cause any radio interference transmitter To reduce energy from an HF
-is produced in a transmitter -front-end overload of the TV transmitter getting into a television
oscillator stage set, you would place a _______ as
-is an unwanted signal developed in a B-008-04-08 close to the TV as possible.
transmitter One possible cause of TV interference -low pass filter
by harmonics from an SSB transmitter -wave trap
B-008-03-10 is from "flat topping" — driving the -band reject filter
Parasitic oscillations in the RF power final amplifier into non- linear -high pass filter
amplifier stage of a transmitter may operation. The most appropriate remedy
be found: for this is: B-008-05-08
-at high or low frequencies -retune transmitter output A band pass filter will:
-on harmonic frequencies -use another antenna -attenuate high frequencies but not
-at high frequencies only -reduce microphone gain low
-at low frequencies only -reduce oscillator output -pass frequencies each side of a band
-allow only certain frequencies
B-008-03-11 B-008-04-09 through
Transmitter RF amplifiers can generate In a transmitter, excessive harmonics -stop frequencies in a certain band
parasitic oscillations: are produced by:
-on VHF frequencies only -low SWR B-008-05-09
-on the transmitter fundamental -resonant circuits A band reject filter will:
frequency -a linear amplifier allow only two frequencies through
-on either side of the transmitter -overdriven stages pass frequencies each side of a band
frequency pass frequencies below 100 MHz
-on harmonics of the transmitter B-008-04-10 stop frequencies each side of a band
frequency An interfering signal from a
transmitter is found to have a B-008-05-10
B-008-04-01 frequency of 57 MHz (TV Channel 2 is A high pass filter would normally be
If a neighbour reports television 54 - 60 MHz). This signal could be fitted:
interference on one or two channels the: -between microphone and speech
only when you transmit on 15 metres, -crystal oscillator operating on its amplifier
what is probably the cause of the fundamental -at the Morse key or keying relay in
interference? -seventh harmonic of an 80 metre a transmitter
-De ionization of the ionosphere near transmission -at the antenna terminals of the TV
your neighbour's TV antenna -second harmonic of a 10 metre receiver
-Harmonic radiation from your transmission -between transmitter output and feed
transmitter -third harmonic of a 15 metre line
-TV receiver front-end overload transmission
-Too much low pass filtering on the B-008-05-11
transmitter B-008-04-11 A low pass filter suitable for a high
Harmonics may be produced in the RF frequency transmitter would:
B-008-04-02 power amplifier of a transmitter if: -pass audio frequencies above 3 kHz
What is meant by harmonic radiation? -excessive drive signal is applied to -attenuate frequencies below 30 MHz
-Unwanted signals at frequencies which it -attenuate frequencies above 30 MHz
are multiples of the fundamental -the output tank circuit is not -pass audio frequencies below 3 kHz
(chosen) frequency correctly tuned
-Unwanted signals that are combined -the oscillator frequency is unstable
with a 60-Hz hum -modulation is applied to more than
-Unwanted signals caused by one stage
sympathetic vibrations from a nearby
transmitter B-008-05-01
-Signals which cause skip propagation What type of filter might be connected
to occur to an amateur HF transmitter to cut
down on harmonic radiation?
B-008-04-03 -A low pass filter
Why is harmonic radiation from an -A key-click filter
amateur station not wanted? -A high pass filter
-It uses large amounts of electric -A CW filter
power
-It may cause sympathetic vibrations B-008-05-02
in nearby transmitters Why do modern HF transmitters have a
-It may cause auroras in the air built-in low pass filter in their RF
-It may cause interference to other output circuits?
stations and may result in out-of-band -To reduce fundamental radiation
signals -To reduce low frequency interference
to other amateurs
B-008-04-04 -To reduce harmonic radiation
What type of interference may come -To reduce RF energy below a cut-off
from a multi-band antenna connected to point
a poorly tuned transmitter?
-Parasitic excitation B-008-05-03
-Harmonic radiation What circuit blocks RF energy above
-Intermodulation and below a certain limit?
-Auroral distortion -A high pass filter
-An input filter
B-008-04-05 -A low pass filter
If you are told your station was heard -A band pass filter
on 21 375 kHz, but at the time you
were operating on 7125 kHz, what is B-008-05-04
one reason this could happen? What should be the impedance of a low
-Your transmitter's power-supply pass filter as compared to the
filter choke was bad impedance of the transmission line
-You were sending CW too fast into which it is inserted?
-Your transmitter was radiating -Substantially lower
harmonic signals -Twice the transmission line impedance
-About the same
1. There are ______________ Internet 15. A _______ is a data communication 28. _______ refers to the structure or
service providers. system within a building, plant, or format of the data, meaning the order
A) regional campus, or between nearby buildings. in which they are presented.
B) local
C) national and international A) LAN A) Semantics
D) all of the above B) MAN B) Syntax
C) WAN C) Timing
2. ______ refers to the physical or D) none of the above D) All of the above
logical arrangement of a network.
A) Topology 16. _______ refers to two 29. An unauthorized user is a network
B) Mode of operation characteristics: when data should be _______ issue.
C) Data flow sent and how fast it can be sent.
D) None of the above A) Security
A) Semantics B) Reliability
3. A ______ is a data communication B) Timing C) Performance
system spanning states, countries, or C) Syntax D) All the above
the whole world. D) none of the above
A) MAN 30. ________ is an idea or concept
B) WAN 17. This was the first network. that is a precursor to an Internet
C) LAN standard.
D) none of the above A) CSNET
B) NSFNET A) RCF
4. A _______ connection provides a C) ARPANET B) ID
dedicated link between two devices. D) ANSNET C) RFC
A) primary D) none of the above
B) multipoint 18. Devices may be arranged in a _____
C) point-to-point topology. 31. In _______ transmission, the
D) secondary channel capacity is shared by both
A) mesh communicating devices at all times.
5. Which topology requires a B) ring
multipoint connection? C) bus A) simplex
A) Bus D) all of the above B) half-duplex
B) Star C) full-duplex
C) Mesh 19. _______ is the protocol suite for D) half-simplex
D) Ring the current Internet.
1. The ______ layer adds a header to
6. A ________ is a set of rules that A) UNIX the packet coming from the upper layer
governs data communication. B) NCP that includes the logical addresses of
A) protocol C) TCP/IP the sender and receiver.
B) forum D) ACM
C) standard A) data link
D) none of the above 20. ________ is a collection of many B) network
separate networks. C) physical
7. In a ______ connection, two and D) none of the above
only two devices are connected by a A) A WAN
dedicated link. B) An internet 2. Which of the following is an
A) multipoint C) A LAN application layer service?
B) point-to-point D) None of the above
C) (a) and (b) A) File transfer and access
D) none of the above 21. In a ________ connection, three or B) Mail service
more devices share a link. C) Remote log-in
8. The information to be communicated D) All the above
in a data communications system is the A) point-to-point
_______. B) multipoint 3. When data are transmitted from
A) Medium C) (a) and (b) device A to device B, the header from
B) Protocol D) none of the above A’s layer 4 is read by B’s _______
C) Message layer.
D) Transmission 22. Which organization has authority
over interstate and international A) Transport
9. ________ defines how a particular commerce in the communications field? B) Application
pattern to be interpreted, and what C) Physical
action is to be taken based on that A) FCC D) None of the above
interpretation. B) IEEE
A) Syntax C) ITU-T 4. __________ provides full transport
B) Semantics D) ISOC layer services to applications.
C) Timing
D) None of the above 23. In the original ARPANET, _______ A) UDP
were directly connected together. B) TCP
10. Frequency of failure and network C) ARP
recovery time after a failure are A) routers D) none of the above
measures of the _______of a network. B) host computers
A) Performance C) networks 5. The process-to-process delivery of
B) Security D) IMPs the entire message is the
C) Reliability responsibility of the _______ layer.
D) Feasibility 24. Communication between a computer
and a keyboard involves ______________ A) Transport
11. A television broadcast is an transmission. B) Application
example of _______ transmission. C) Physical
A) half-duplex A) simplex D) Network
B) simplex B) half-duplex
C) full-duplex C) full-duplex 6. The ______ layer is responsible for
D) automatic D) automatic moving frames from one hop (node) to
the next.
12. Data flow between two devices can 25. Which topology requires a central
occur in a _______ way. controller or hub? A) transport
A) simplex B) data link
B) half-duplex A) Mesh C) physical
C) full-duplex B) Bus D) none of the above
D) all of the above C) Star
D) Ring 7. The _______ layer is responsible
13. _______ are special-interest for delivering data units from one
groups that quickly test, evaluate, 26. The _______ is the physical path station to the next without errors.
and standardize new technologies. over which a message travels.
A) physical
A) Standards organizations A) Protocol B) data link
B) Regulatory agencies B) Signal C) transport
C) Forums C) Medium D) network
D) All of the above D) All the above
8. The session, presentation, and
14. Which agency developed standards 27. In a _______ connection, more than application layers are the ____
for physical connection interfaces and two devices can share a single link. support layers.
electronic signaling specifications?
A) multipoint A) user
A) ISO B) point-to-point B) network
B) ITU-T C) primary C) both (a) and (b)
C) ANSI D) secondary D) neither (a) nor (b)
D) EIA
9. The physical, data link, and B) 32 A) IP
network layers are the ______ support C) 64 B) port
layers. D) variable C) specific
D) physical
A) network 22. The_____ address identifies a
B) user process on a host. 34. Layer 2 lies between the physical
C) both (a) and (b) layer and the _______ layer.
D) neither (a) nor (b) A) specific
B) port A) Data link
10. The ________ layer is responsible C) IP B) Transport
for the process-to-process delivery of D) physical C) Network
the entire message. D) None of the above
23. The_________ layer is responsible
A) transport for the delivery of a message from one 35. Why was the OSI model developed?
B) physical process to another.
C) network A) The rate of data transfer was
D) data link A) transport increasing exponentially
B) network B) Standards were needed to allow
11. The _______ layer lies between the C) physical any two systems to communicate
network layer and the application D) none of the above C) Manufacturers disliked the TCP/IP
layer. protocol suite.
24. The _________ layer enables the D) None of the above
A) Data link users to access the network.
B) Transport 36. In the OSI model, as a data packet
C) Physical A) application moves from the lower to the upper
D) None of the above B) physical layers, headers are _______.
C) data link
12. The Internetworking Protocol (IP) D) transport A) removed
is a ________ protocol. B) added
C) rearranged
A) connection-oriented 25. The TCP/IP _______ layer is D) modified
B) reliable equivalent to the combined session,
C) both a and b presentation, and application layers 37. In the OSI model, when data is
D) none of the above of the OSI model. transmitted from device A to device B,
the header from A’s layer 5 is read by
13. The _______ layer links the B’s _______ layer.
network support layers and the user
support layers. A) data link A) session
B) network B) physical
A) session C) physical C) transport
B) transport D) application D) presentation
C) data link
D) network 26. When a host on network A sends a 38. The seven-layer _____ model
message to a host on network B, which provides guidelines for the
14. ICMPv6 includes _______. address does the router look at? development of universally compatible
networking protocols.
A) IGMP A) logical
B) ARP B) physical A) ISO
C) RARP C) port B) OSI
D) a and b D) none of the above C) IEEE
D) none of the above
15. The ____ address uniquely defines 27. As the data packet moves from the
a host on the Internet. upper to the lower layers, headers are 39. The Internet model consists of
_______. _______ layers.
A) IP
B) port A) Rearranged A) Eight
C) specific B) Removed B) Seven
D) physical C) Added C) Five
D) Modified D) Three
16. The _______ layer coordinates the
functions required to transmit a bit 28. The physical layer is concerned 40. In the OSI model, what is the main
stream over a physical medium. with the movement of _______ over the function of the transport layer?
physical medium.
A) data link A) process-to-process message
B) transport A) dialogs delivery
C) network B) protocols B) node-to-node delivery
D) physical C) bits C) synchronization
D) programs D) updating and maintenance of
17. The ______ layer is responsible routing tables
for the source-to-destination 29. To deliver a message to the
delivery of a packet across multiple correct application program running on 41. _______ is a process-to-process
network links. a host, the _______ address must be protocol that adds only port
consulted. addresses, checksum error control, and
A) network length information to the data from
B) physical A) physical the upper layer.
C) data link B) port
D) transport C) IP A) IP
D) none of the above B) TCP
18. Mail services are available to C) UDP
network users through the _______ 30. Ethernet uses a ______ physical D) none of the above
layer. address that is imprinted on the
network interface card (NIC). 42. The ______ layer establishes,
A) Transport maintains, and synchronizes the
B) Physical A) 32-bit interactions between communicating
C) Data link B) 6-byte devices.
D) Application C) 64-bit
D) none of the above A) session
19. The ____ created a model called B) physical
the Open Systems Interconnection, 31. The _______ layer is the layer C) transport
which allows diverse systems to closest to the transmission medium. D) network
communicate.
A) Network 43. A port address in TCP/IP is ______
A) IEEE B) Transport bits long.
B) ISO C) Physical
C) OSI D) Data link A) 16
D) none of the above B) 32
32. The OSI model consists of _______ C) 48
20. The _______ layer changes bits layers. D) none of the above
into electromagnetic signals.
A) eight 44. In the OSI model, encryption and
A) Physical B) seven decryption are functions of the
B) Transport C) five ________ layer.
C) Data link D) three
D) None of the above A) application
33. The ________ address, also known B) presentation
21. IPv6 has _______ -bit addresses. as the link address, is the address of C) session
a node as defined by its LAN or WAN. D) transport
A) 128
45. TCP/IP is a ______ hierarchical D) 10 KHz C) (a) or (b)
protocol suite developed ____ the OSI D) None of the above
model. 9. In a time-domain plot, the
horizontal axis is a measure of 22. For a ______ channel, we need to
A) five-layer; before ________. use the Shannon capacity to find the
B) six-layer; before maximum bit rate.
C) seven-layer; before A) phase
D) five-layer; after B) signal amplitude A) noiseless
C) frequency B) noisy
46. The ________ address, also known D) time C) low-pass
as the link address, is the address of D) bandpass
a node as defined by its LAN or WAN. 10. _______ data are continuous and
take continuous values. 23. What is the bandwidth of a signal
A) logical that ranges from 1 MHz to 4 MHz?
B) port A) digital
C) physical B) analog A) 1 KHz
D) none of the above C) (a) or (b) B) 3 MHz
D) none of the above C) 4 MHz
47. The _______ model shows how the D) none of the above
network functions of a computer ought 11. Frequency and period are ______.
to be organized. 24. _____ signals can have an infinite
A) proportional to each other number of values in a range.
A) ANSI B) inverse of each other
B) CCITT C) the same A) Analog
C) ISO D) none of the above B) Digital
D) OSI C) (a) or (b)
12. When propagation speed is D) None of the above
48. The _______ layer ensures multiplied by propagation time, we get
interoperability between the ________. 25. A(n)_________ signal is a
communicating devices through composite analog signal with an
transformation of data into a mutually A) wavelength of the signal infinite bandwidth.
agreed upon format. B) throughput
C) distance a signal or bit has A) digital
A) network traveled B) analog
B) presentation D) distortion factor C) either (a) or (b)
C) transport D) neither (a) nor (b)
D) data link 13. A _________ sine wave is not
useful in data communications; we need 26. A periodic signal completes one
1. If the maximum amplitude of a sine to send a _______ signal. cycle in 0.001 s. What is the
wave is 2 V, the minimum amplitude is frequency?
________ V. A) single-frequency; composite
B) composite; single-frequency This A) 1 Hz
A) 2 is the correct answer. B) 100 Hz
B) 1 C) single-frequency; double- C) 1 KHz
C) -2 frequency D) 1 MHz
D) between -2 and 2 D) none of the above
27. The _____ of a composite signal is
2. _________ can impair a signal. 14. The _________ product defines the the difference between the highest and
number of bits that can fill the link. the lowest frequencies contained in
A) Noise that signal.
B) Attenuation A) delay-amplitude
C) Distortion B) frequency-amplitude A) period
D) All of the above C) bandwidth-period B) bandwidth
D) bandwidth-delay C) frequency
3. ________is the rate of change with D) amplitude
respect to time. 15. _______ signals can have only a
limited number of values. 28. ________ is a type of transmission
A) Time impairment in which an outside source
B) Frequency A) Digital such as crosstalk corrupts a signal.
C) Amplitude B) Analog
D) Voltage C) (a) or (b) A) Noise
D) None of the above B) Distortion
4. A signal is measured at two C) Attenuation
different points. The power is P1 at 16. Before data can be transmitted, D) Decibel
the first point and P2 at the second they must be transformed to ________.
point. The dB is 0. This means 29. _______ describes the position of
________. A) periodic signals the waveform relative to time 0.
B) electromagnetic signals
A) P2 equals P1 C) aperiodic signals A) Amplitude
B) P2 is zero D) low-frequency sine waves B) Phase
C) P2 is much larger than P1 C) Frequency
D) P2 is much smaller than P1 17. Data can be ________. D) Voltage

5. Baseband transmission of a digital A) digital 30. Given two sine waves A and B, if
signal is possible only if we have a B) analog the frequency of A is twice that of B,
____ channel. C) (a) or (b) then the period of B is ________ that
D) none of the above of A.
A) bandpass
B) low-pass 18. ________ is a type of transmission A) one-half
C) high rate impairment in which the signal loses B) twice
D) low rate strength due to the different C) the same as
propagation speeds of each frequency D) indeterminate from
6. ________ is a type of transmission that makes up the signal.
impairment in which the signal loses 31. As frequency increases, the period
strength due to the resistance of the A) Noise ________.
transmission medium. B) Distortion
C) Attenuation A) increases
A) Distortion D) Decibel B) decreases
B) Attenuation C) doubles
C) Noise 19. Signals can be ________. D) remains the same
D) Decibel
A) digital 32. If the available channel is a ____
7. A sine wave in the ______ domain B) analog channel, we cannot send a digital
can be represented by one single spike C) either (a) or (b) signal directly to the channel.
in the _____ domain. D) neither (a) nor (b)
A) low-pass
A) time; phase 20. A sine wave is ________. B) low rate
B) frequency; time C) bandpass
C) time; frequency A) periodic and discrete D) high rate
D) phase; time B) aperiodic and discrete
C) periodic and continuous 33. For a ______ channel, the Nyquist
8. If the bandwidth of a signal is 5 D) aperiodic and continuous bit rate formula defines the
KHz and the lowest frequency is 52 theoretical maximum bit rate.
KHz, what is the highest frequency? 21. _______ data have discrete states
and take discrete values. A) low-pass
A) 5 KHz B) bandpass
B) 47 KHz A) Analog C) noisy
C) 57 KHz B) Digital D) noiseless
 D) none of the above
34. In a frequency-domain plot, the A) Manchester
horizontal axis measures the ________. 12. The idea of RZ and the idea of B) differential Manchester
NRZ-L are combined into the ________ C) both (a) and (b)
A) phase scheme. D) neither (a) nor (b)
B) frequency
C) slope A) Manchester 24. The ________ mode provides
D) peak amplitude B) differential Manchester synchronization for the entire stream
C) both (a) and (b) of bits must. In other words, it
1. Which of the following encoding D) neither (a) nor (b) guarantees that the data arrive at a
methods does not provide for fixed rate.
synchronization? 13. ________ provides synchronization
without increasing the number of bits. A) isochronous
A) RZ B) synchronous
B) NRZ-L A) Line coding C) asynchronous
C) NRZ-I B) Block coding D) none of the above
D) Manchester C) Scrambling
D) None of the above 25. The idea of RZ and the idea of
2. If the frequency spectrum of a NRZ-I are combined into the ________
signal has a bandwidth of 500 Hz with 14. The Nyquist theorem specifies the scheme.
the highest frequency at 600 Hz, what minimum sampling rate to be_______.
should be the sampling rate, according A) Manchester
to the Nyquist theorem? A) equal to the lowest frequency of B) differential Manchester
a signal C) both (a) and (b)
A) 200 samples/s B) equal to the highest frequency of D) neither (a) nor (b)
B) 500 samples/s a signal
C) 1000 samples/s C) twice the bandwidth of a signal 26. In decoding a digital signal, the
D) 1200 samples/s D) twice the highest frequency of a receiver calculates a running average
signal of the received signal power, called
3. In asynchronous transmission, the the _______.
gap time between bytes is _______. 15. PCM is an example of _______
conversion. A) base
A) variable B) line
B) fixed A) analog-to-analog C) baseline
C) zero B) analog-to-digital D) none of the above
D) a function of the data rate C) digital-to-digital
D) digital-to-analog 27. In _________ transmission, we send
4. ______ substitutes eight bits one after another without start
consecutive zeros with 000VB0VB. 16. There are three sampling methods: or stop bits or gaps. It is the
__________. responsibility of the receiver to
A) B4B8 group the bits.
B) B8ZS A) ideal, natural, and flat-top
C) HDB3 B) ideal, sampled, and flat-top A) synchronous
D) none of the above C) quantized, sampled, and ideal B) asynchronous
D) none of the above C) isochronous
5. The most common technique to change D) none of the above
an analog signal to digital data is 17. In _______encoding, we use three
called __________. levels: positive, zero, and negative. 28. ______ finds the value of the
signal amplitude for each sample; ____
A) sampling A) unipolar finds the change from the previous
B) PAL B) polar sample.
C) PCM C) bipolar
D) none of the above D) none of the above A) DM; CM
B) DM; PCM
6. The minimum bandwidth of Manchester 18. Block coding can help in _______ C) PCM; DM
and differential Manchester is ____ at the receiver. D) none of the above
that of NRZ.
A) Synchronization 29. ______ substitutes four
A) the same as B) Error detection consecutive zeros with 000V or B00V.
B) twice C) Attenuation
C) thrice D) (a) and (b) A) HDB3
D) none of the above B) B4B8
19. In Manchester and differential C) B8ZSf
7. The signal rate is sometimes called Manchester encoding, the transition at D) none of the above
the ____ rate. the middle of the bit is used for
__________. 30. The ______ scheme uses three
A) bit levels (+V, 0, and -V) and three
B) baud A) bit transfer transition rules to move between the
C) signal B) synchronization levels.
D) none of the above C) baud transfer
D) none of the above A) 4B5B
8. Unipolar, bipolar, and polar B) MLT-3
encoding are types of _______ 20. _______ encoding has a transition C) 2B1Q
encoding. at the beginning of each 0 bit. D) none of the above

A) line A) Differential Manchester 31. While there is (are) only _____

B) block B) Manchester way(s) to send parallel data, there is
C) NRZ C) RZ (are) _____ subclass(es) of serial
D) Manchester D) All the above transmission.

9. ________ is normally referred to as 21. In ______, the change or lack of A) one; two
mB/nB coding; it replaces each m-bit change in the level of the voltage B) one; three
group with an n-bit group. determines the value of the bit. C) two; three
D) none of the above
A) Line coding A) NRZ-L
B) Block coding B) NRZ-I 32. Which quantization level results
C) Scrambling C) both (a) and (b) in a more faithful reproduction of the
D) None of the above D) neither (a) nor (b) signal?

10. In ______ schemes, the voltages 22. In ___________ there is always a A) 2

are on the both sides of the time axis. transition at the middle of the bit, B) 8
For example, the voltage level for 0 but the bit values are determined at C) 16
can be positive and the voltage level the beginning of the bit. If the next D) 32
for 1 can be negative. bit is 0, there is a transition; if
the next bit is 1, there is none. 33. A _________ digital signal
A) unipolar includes timing information in the
B) bipolar A) Manchester data being transmitted.
C) polar B) differential Manchester
D) all of the above C) both (a) and (b) A) self-synchronizing
D) neither (a) nor (b) B) self-transmitted
11. The ________ rate defines the C) self-modulated
number of data elements sent in 1s; 23. In _______ encoding, the duration D) none of the above
the ______ rate is the number of of the bit is divided into two halves.
signal elements sent in 1s. The voltage remains at one level 34. In _______ transmission, bits are
during the first half and moves to the transmitted over a single wire, one at
A) signal; data other level in the second half. The a time.
B) data; signal transition at the middle of the bit
C) baud; bit provides synchronization. A) asynchronous serial
B) synchronous serial A) Analog-to-analog
C) parallel 47. ________ is the process of B) Digital-to-digital
D) (a) and (b) converting digital data to a digital C) Digital-to-analog
signal. D) Analog-to-digital
35. The first step in PCM is ________.
A) Line coding 11. If the baud rate is 400 for a QPSK
A) quantization B) Block coding signal, the bit rate is ________ bps.
B) sampling C) Scrambling
C) modulation D) None of the above A) 100
D) none of the above B) 400
48. In a _____ scheme, all the signal C) 800
36. _______ encoding has a transition levels are on one side of the time D) 1600
at the middle of each bit. axis, either above or below.
12. In ________, the phase of the
A) Manchester A) unipolar carrier is varied to represent two or
B) Differential Manchester B) polar more different signal elements. Both
C) RZ C) bipolar peak amplitude and frequency remain
D) All the above D) all of the above constant.

37. In ______ transmission, we send 1 1. In ________, the amplitude of the A) PSK

start bit (0) at the beginning and 1 carrier signal is varied to create B) FSK
or more stop bits (1s) at the end of signal elements. Both frequency and C) ASK
each byte. phase remain constant D) QAM

A) synchronous A) PSK 13. Which of the following is not an

B) asynchronous B) ASK analog-to-analog conversion?
C) isochronous C) FSK
D) none of the above D) QAM A) QAM
B) AM
38. In _______ transmission, bits are 2. How many carrier frequencies are C) PM
transmitted simultaneously, each used in BPSK? D) FM
across its own wire.
A) 0 14. How many carrier frequencies are
A) Asynchronous serial B) 1 used in BASK?
B) Synchronous serial C) 2
C) Parallel D) none of the above A) 0
D) (a) and (b) B) 1
3. The constellation diagram of 16-QAM C) 2
39. Which encoding method uses has ______ dots. D) none of the above
alternating positive and negative
values for 1s? A) 4 15. Quadrature amplitude modulation
B) 8 (QAM) is a combination of ___________.
A) AMI C) 16
B) RZ D) none of the above A) PSK and FSK
C) NRZ-I B) ASK and FSK
D) Manchester 4. AM and FM are examples of ________ C) ASK and PSK
conversion. D) none of the above
40. The data rate is sometimes called
the ___ rate. A) analog-to-analog 16. In _________, the frequency of the
B) digital-to-digital carrier signal is varied to represent
A) bit C) analog-to-digital data. Both peak amplitude and phase
B) baud D) digital-to-analog remain constant.
C) signal
D) none of the above 5. The Federal Communications A) ASK
Commission (FCC) allows ______ kHz for B) FSK
41. _______ provides redundancy to each FM station. C) PSK
ensure synchronization and inherent D) QAM
error detection. A) 20
B) 100 17. If the bit rate for an ASK signal
A) Line coding C) 200 is 1200 bps, the baud rate is
B) Block coding D) none of the above ________.
C) Scrambling
D) None of the above 6. Analog-to-analog conversion is A) 1200
needed if the available bandwidth is B) 600
42. In _______ transmission, a start _______. C) 400
bit and a stop bit frame a character D) 300
byte. A) band-pass
B) low-pass 18. The constellation diagram of BPSK
A) synchronous serial C) either (a) or (b) has ______ dots.
B) asynchronous serial D) neither (a) nor (b)
C) parallel A) 0
D) (a) and (b) 7. In _____ transmission, the B) 1
frequency of the carrier signal is C) 2
43. Two common scrambling techniques modulated to follow the changing D) none of the above
are ________. voltage level (amplitude) of the
modulating signal. The peak amplitude 19. The constellation diagram of QPSK
A) B8ZS and HDB3 and phase of the carrier signal remain has ______ dots.
B) AMI and NRZ constant, but as the amplitude of the
C) NRZ and RZ information signal changes, the A) 4
D) Manchester and differential frequency of the carrier changes B) 2
Manchester correspondingly. C) 1
D) none of the above
44. ___________ conversion involves A) AM
three techniques: line coding, block B) FM 20. In _______, the peak amplitude of
coding, and scrambling. C) PM one signal level is 0; the other is
D) none of the above the same as the amplitude of the
A) Analog-to-analog carrier frequency.
B) Analog-to-digital 8. How many carrier frequencies are
C) Digital-to-analog used in QPSK? A) OOK
D) Digital-to-digital B) PSK
A) 0 C) FSK
45. The _____ scheme uses data B) 2 D) none of the above
patterns of size 2 and encodes the 2- C) 1
bit patterns as one signal element D) none of the above 21. If the bit rate for a 16-QAM signal
belonging to a four-level signal. is 4000 bps, what is the baud rate?
9. Which of the following is not a
A) MLT-3 digital-to-analog conversion? A) 1200
B) 4B5B B) 1000
C) 2B1Q A) FSK C) 400
D) none of the above B) ASK D) 300
C) AM
46. In _____, the level of the voltage D) PSK 22. ASK, PSK, FSK, and QAM are
determines the value of the bit. examples of ________ conversion.
10. _______ conversion is the process
A) NRZ-I of changing one of the characteristics A) analog-to-analog
B) NRZ-L of an analog signal based on the B) digital-to-digital
C) both (a) and (b) information in the digital data. C) analog-to-digital
D) neither (a) nor (b) D) digital-to-analog
 C) 400 12. ____ is designed to use the high
23. If the bit rate for an FSK signal D) 300 bandwidth capability of fiber-optic
is 1200 bps, the baud rate is cable.
________. 1. The _______ technique uses M
different carrier frequencies that are A) WDM
A) 1200 modulated by the source signal. At one B) FDM
B) 600 moment, the sign modulates one carrier C) TDM
C) 400 frequency; at the next moment, the D) None of the above
D) 300 signal modulates another carrier
frequency. 13. We can divide ____ into two
24. The constellation diagram of BASK different schemes: synchronous or
has ______ dots. A) DSSS statistical.
B) FHSS
A) 0 C) FDM A) WDM
B) 1 D) TDM B) TDM
C) 2 C) FDM
D) none of the above 2. In synchronous TDM, for n signal D) none of the above
sources of the same data rate, each
25. The Federal Communications frame contains _______ slots. 14. In ________ TDM, each input
Commission (FCC) allows ______kHz for connection has an allotment in the
each AM station. A) n + 1 output even if it is not sending data.
B) n – 1
A) 20 C) 0 to n A) isochronous
B) 10 D) n B) statistical
C) 5 C) synchronous
D) none of the above 3. Which multiplexing technique D) none of the above
transmits digital signals?
26. How many carrier frequencies are 15. In ________ TDM, slots are
used in BFSK? A) WDM dynamically allocated to improve
B) FDM bandwidth efficiency.
A) 2 C) TDM
B) 1 D) None of the above A) isochronous
C) 0 B) synchronous
D) none of the above 4. The sharing of a medium and its C) statistical
link by two or more devices is called D) none of the above
27. In _____ transmission, the phase _______.
of the carrier signal is modulated to 16. The word ______ refers to the
follow the changing voltage level A) modulation portion of a _______ that carries a
(amplitude) of the modulating signal. B) multiplexing transmission.
C) encoding
A) AM D) line discipline A) line; channel
B) FM B) channel; link
C) PM 5. _______ is designed to be used in C) link; channel
D) none of the above wireless applications in which D) line; link
stations must be able to share the
28. _________ conversion is the medium without interception by an 17. Which multiplexing technique
representation of analog information eavesdropper and without being subject shifts each signal to a different
by an analog signal. to jamming from a malicious intruder. carrier frequency?

A) Analog-to-analog A) Multiplexing A) FDM

B) Digital-to-digital B) Spread spectrum B) TDM
C) Analog-to-digital C) Modulation C) Both (a) and (b)
D) Digital-to-analog D) None of the above. D) None of the above

29. In _____ transmission, the carrier 6. ______ is an analog multiplexing 18. Which multiplexing technique
signal is modulated so that its technique to combine optical signals. transmits analog signals?
amplitude varies with the changing
amplitudes of the modulating signal. A) WDM A) WDM
B) FDM B) TDM
A) PM C) TDM C) FDM
B) FM D) None of the above D) (a) and (c)
C) AM
D) none of the above 7. FDM is an _________technique. 19. ________ is the set of techniques
that allows the simultaneous
30. In QAM, both ________ of a carrier A) digital transmission of multiple signals
frequency are varied. B) analog across a single data link.
C) either (a) or (b)
A) phase and frequency D) none of the above A) Demodulating
B) amplitude and phase B) Multiplexing
C) frequency and amplitude 8. ______ can be applied when the C) Compressing
D) none of the above bandwidth of a link (in hertz) is D) None of the above
greater than the combined bandwidths
31. ________ uses two carriers, one of the signals to be transmitted. 20. ________ can be achieved by using
in-phase and the other quadrature. multiplexing; ______ can be achieved
A) TDM by using spreading.
A) QAM B) FDM
B) ASK C) Both (a) or (b) A) Privacy and antijamming;
C) FSK D) Neither (a) or (b) efficiency
D) PSK B) Privacy and efficiency;
9. In TDM, the transmission rate of antijamming
32. Given an AM radio signal with a the multiplexed path is usually C) Efficiency; privacy and
bandwidth of 10 KHz and the highest- _______ the sum of the transmission antijamming
frequency component at 705 KHz, what rates of the signal sources. D) Efficiency and antijamming;
is the frequency of the carrier privacy
signal? A) equal to
B) less than 21. The ______ technique expands the
A) 710 KHz C) greater than bandwidth of a signal by replacing
B) 705 KHz D) not related to each data bit with n bits.
C) 700 KHz
D) Cannot be determined from given 10. In a multiplexed system, ____ A) DSSS
information lines share the bandwidth of _____ B) FHSS
link. C) FDM
33. A constellation diagram shows us D) TDM
the __________ of a signal element, A) 1; n
particularly when we are using two B) n; 1 22. ________ is a digital process that
carriers (one in-phase and one C) 1; 1 allows several connections to share
quadrature). D) n; n the high bandwidth of a link.

A) amplitude and frequency 11. _________ utilization is the use A) WDM

B) amplitude and phase of available bandwidth to achieve B) TDM
C) frequency and phase specific goals. C) FDM
D) none of the above D) None of the above
A) Amplitude
34. If the baud rate for a 64-QAM B) Frequency 23. _______ is a digital multiplexing
signal is 2000, what is the bit rate? C) Bandwidth technique for combining several low-
D) None of the above rate channels into one high-rate one.
A) 12000
B) 1000 A) WDM
B) TDM 11. ________ cable consists of two
C) FDM insulated copper wires twisted A) refraction
D) None of the above together. B) reflection
C) criticism
24. In ________, we combine signals A) Twisted-pair D) incidence
from different sources to fit into a B) Coaxial
larger bandwidth. C) Fiber-optic 24. Which of the following is not a
D) none of the above guided medium?
A) line coding
B) block coding 12. In fiber optics, the signal is A) fiber-optic cable
C) spread spectrum __________ waves. B) coaxial cable
D) none of the above C) twisted-pair cable
A) radio D) atmosphere
25. Which multiplexing technique B) light
involves signals composed of light C) infrared 25. Microwaves are _________.
beams? D) very low-frequency
A) omnidirectional
A) WDM 13. Signals with a frequency above 30 B) bidirectional
B) FDM MHz use _______propagation. C) unidirectional
C) TDM D) none of the above
D) none of the above A) line-of-sight
B) sky 26. ________ cables carry data signals
1. When the angle of incidence is C) ground in the form of light.
____________ the critical angle, the D) none of the above
light beam bends along the interface. A) Twisted-pair
14. A parabolic dish antenna is a(n) B) Coaxial
A) less than ___________ antenna. C) Fiber-optic
B) equal to D) none of the above
C) more than A) unidirectional
D) none of the above B) bidirectional 27. Radio waves are _________.
C) omnidirectional
2. Transmission media lie below the D) horn A) unidirectional
__________ layer. B) omnidirectional
15. A(n) _______ medium provides a C) bidirectional
A) application physical conduit from one device to D) none of the above
B) transport another.
C) network 28. In a fiber-optic cable, the signal
D) physical A) unguided is propagated along the inner core by
B) guided __________.
3. _________ cable consists of an C) either (a) or (b)
inner copper core and a second D) none of the above A) refraction
conducting outer sheath. B) reflection
16. ________ cable is used for voice C) modulation
A) Twisted-pair and data communications. D) none of the above
B) Shielded twisted-pair
C) Coaxial A) Twisted-pair
D) Fiber-optic B) Coaxial 1. Packet-switched networks can also
C) Fiber-optic be divided into _________
4. __________ consists of a central D) none of the above subcategories: virtual-circuit
conductor and a shield. networks and datagram networks.
17. Signals with a frequency between
A) Twisted-pair 2 MHz and 30 MHz use _______
B) Coaxial propagation.
C) Fiber-optic A) five
D) none of the above A) ground B) three
B) line-of-sight C) two
5. _______ cable can carry signals of C) sky D) four
higher frequency ranges than _______ D) none of the above
cable. 2. In __________, each packet is
18. Transmission media are usually treated independently of all others.
A) Coaxial; twisted-pair categorized as ___________.
B) Twisted-pair; fiber-optic A) circuit switching
C) Coaxial; fiber-optic A) determinate or indeterminate B) datagram switching
D) none of the above B) fixed or unfixed C) frame switching
C) guided or unguided D) none of the above
6. _________ are used for cellular D) metallic or nonmetallic
phone, satellite, and wireless LAN 3. Based on the Clos criteria, if N =
communications. 19. ________ are used for short-range 200, then k must be equal to or greater
communications such as those between than _________.
A) Radio waves a PC and a peripheral device.
B) Infrared waves A) 19
C) Microwaves A) Radio waves B) 21
D) none of the above B) Infrared waves C) 31
C) Microwaves D) 41
7. The inner core of an optical fiber D) none of the above
is _________ in composition. 4. In _________, resources are
20. _________ media transport allocated on demand.
A) copper electromagnetic waves without the use
B) glass or plastic of a physical conductor. A) circuit switching
C) bimetallic B) datagram switching
D) liquid A) Guided C) frame switching
B) Unguided D) none of the above
8. What is the major factor that makes C) Either (a) or (b)
coaxial cable less susceptible to D) None of the above 5. In _______ switching, the paths in
noise than twisted-pair cable? the circuit are separated from one
21. ________ cables are composed of a another spatially.
A) insulating material glass or plastic inner core surrounded
B) inner conductor by cladding, all encased in an outside A) time-division
C) diameter of cable jacket. B) two-dimensional
D) outer conductor C) space-division
A) Twisted-pair D) three-dimensional
9. Signals with a frequency below 2 B) Coaxial
MHz use _______ propagation. C) Fiber-optic 6. In a ________ network, two types of
D) none of the above addressing are involved: global and
A) line-of-sight local.
B) sky 22. Which of the following primarily
C) ground uses guided media? A) datagram
D) none of the above B) virtual-circuit
A) radio broadcasting C) circuit-switched
10. In an optical fiber, the inner B) satellite communications D) none of the above
core is _________ the cladding. C) local telephone system
D) cellular telephone system 7. In a three-stage space division
A) less dense than switch, if N = 200, the number of
B) denser than 23. When a beam of light travels crosspoints is ______.
C) the same density as through media of two different
D) another name for densities, if the angle of incidence A) 40,000
is greater than the critical angle, B) less than 40,000
_______ occurs. C) greater than 40,000
D) greater than 100,000 technologies to take advantage of the D) none of the above
best of both.
8. A ________ network is made of a set 2. A local telephone network is an
of switches connected by physical A) SSS example of a _______ network.
links, in which each link is divided B) TST
into n channels. C) TTT A) packet-switched
D) none of the above B) message-switched
A) circuit-switched C) circuit-switched
B) line-switched 21. In _______, the resources need to D) none of the above
C) frame-switched be reserved during the setup phase;
D) none of the above the resources remain dedicated for the 3. A traditional cable TV network
entire duration of data transfer phase transmits signals ______.
9. In a banyan switch, for 8 inputs until the teardown phase.
and 8 outputs, we have _____ A) downstream
microswitches at each stage. A) frame switching B) upstream
B) datagram switching C) upstream and downstream
A) 2 C) circuit switching D) none of the above
B) 3 D) none of the above
C) 4 4. The traditional cable TV system
D) 8 22. Based on the Clos criteria, if N used ________cable end to end.
= 200, then n must be equal to or
10. In _________, there is no resource greater than ____. A) twisted-pair
allocation for a packet. B) fiber-optic
A) 40 C) coaxial
A) circuit switching B) 30 D) none of the above
B) datagram switching C) 20
C) frame switching D) 10 5. The telephone network is made of
D) none of the above ______ major components.
23. Circuit switching takes place at
11. A _________ network is a cross the ________ layer. A) 4
between a circuit-switched network and B) 3
a datagram network. It has some A) physical C) 2
characteristics of both. B) data line D) none of the above
C) network
A) packet-switched D) transport 6. Data from a computer are _______;
B) frame-switched the local loop handles _______
C) virtual-circuit 24. A ________ switch combines signals.
D) none of the above crossbar switches in several (normally
three) stages. A) analog; analog
12. The most popular technology in B) digital; digital
time-division switching is called the A) multiple path C) digital; analog
_________. B) multiple crossbar D) analog; digital
C) multistage
A) TSI D) none of the above 7. The original telephone network,
B) STI which is referred to as the plain old
C) ITS 25. In _______ there are no setup or telephone system (POTS), was an
D) none of the above teardown phases. ________ system.

13. A switched WAN is normally A) circuit switching A) analog

implemented as a _______ network. B) datagram switching B) digital
C) frame switching C) digital as well as analog
A) virtual-circuit D) none of the above D) none of the above
B) datagram
C) circuit-switched 26. We can divide today’s networks 8. The protocol that is used for
D) none of the above into ____ broad categories. signaling in the telephone network is
called ______.
14. We can say that a packet switch A) five
has _______ types of components. B) four A) SSS
C) three B) SS7
A) four D) two C) POP
B) three D) none of the above
C) two 27. A ________ switch is a multistage
D) none of the above switch with microswitches at each 9. _______technology is a set of
stage that route the packets based on technologies developed by the
15. In a one-stage space division the output port represented as a telephone companies to provide high
switch, if N = 200, the number of binary string. data rate transmission.
crosspoints is ______.
A) TSI A) LDS
A) 20,000 B) banyan B) ASL
B) 40,000 C) crossbar C) DSL
C) 30,000 D) none of the above D) none of the above
D) 10,000
28. The _______ address in the header 10. The local loop has _______ cable
16. In a banyan switch, for 8 inputs of a packet in a datagram network that connects the subscriber telephone
and 8 outputs, we have _____ stages. normally remains the same during the to the nearest end office.
entire journey of the packet.
A) 2 A) fiber-optic
B) 3 A) destination B) coaxial
C) 4 B) source C) twisted-pair
D) 8 C) local D) none of the above
D) none of the above
17. A switch in a datagram network 11. The second generation of cable
uses a routing table that is based on 29. Based on the Clos criteria, if N networks is called a(n) _________
the ______ address. = 200, then the minimum number of network.
crosspoints is greater than or equal
A) destination to _______. A) HCF
B) source B) HFC
C) local A) 42,000 C) CFH
D) none of the above B) 20,000 D) none of the above
C) 18,000
18. Traditionally, _____ methods of D) 15,200 12. The largest portion of the
switching have been important. bandwidth for ADSL carries _______.
30. The simplest type of switching
A) six fabric is the ______ switch. A) upstream data
B) five B) downstream data
C) four A) crossbar C) control data
D) three B) crosspoint D) voice communication
C) TSI
19. The network layer in the Internet D) STS 13. _______ is suitable for businesses
is designed as a __________ network. that require comparable upstream and
1. To use a cable network for data downstream data rates.
A) circuit-switched transmission, we need two key devices:
B) datagram a ________ and a _________. A) SDSL
C) virtual-circuit B) ADSL
D) none of the above C) VDSL
A) CT; CMTS D) (b) and (c)
20. A ________ switch combines space- B) CM; CMTS
division and time-division C) CM; CMS
14. The carrier that handles intra- D) The remainder
LATA services is called a(n) _____ . 27. In ________signaling, a portion of
the bandwidth is used for signaling 9. Which error detection method
A) IXC and another portion for data. consists of just one redundant bit per
B) LEC data unit?
C) POP A) mixed
D) none of the above B) in-band A) CRC
C) out-of-band B) Checksum
15. DMT is a modulation technique that D) none of the above C) Simple parity check
combines elements of _______ and D) Two-dimensional parity check
_______. 28. Telephone companies provide two
types of analog services: analog 10. In _____ coding, we divide our
A) FDM; QAM _______ services and analog message into blocks, each of k bits,
B) FDM; TDM _____services. called ___.
C) PSK; FSK
D) QDM; QAM A) leased; out-of-band A) block; blockwords
B) out-of-band; in-band B) block; datawords
16. The carrier that handles inter- C) switched; in-band C) linear; datawords
LATA services is called a(n) _______. D) switched; leased D) none of the above

A) IXC 29. The HFC network uses _______ 11. A _____ error means that two or
B) LEC cable. more bits in the data unit have
C) POP changed.
D) none of the above A) coaxial
B) twisted-pair A) burst
17. The modern telephone network is C) fiber-optic B) double-bit
now ________. D) a combination of (a) and (c) C) single-bit
D) none of the above
A) digital 30. In ______signaling, the same
B) digital as well as analog circuit is used for both signaling and 12. Adding 1 and 1 in modulo-2
C) analog data. arithmetic results in _________.
D) none of the above
A) mixed A) 0
18. In an HFC network, the upstream B) out-of-band B) 1
data are modulated using the _______ C) in-band C) 2
modulation technique. D) none of the above D) none of the above

A) ASK 31. Most popular modems available are 13. In ________ error correction, the
B) PCM based on the ________standards. receiver corrects errors without
C) QAM requesting retransmission.
D) QPSK A) X-series
B) V-series A) onward
19. _______ was designed as an C) VX-series B) forward
alternative to the T-1 line. D) none of the above C) backward
D) none of the above
A) ADSL 1. Checksums use _________ arithmetic.
B) HDSL 14. If the Hamming distance between a
C) VDSL A) one’s complement arithmetic dataword and the corresponding
D) SDSL B) two’s complement arithmetic codeword is three, there are _____
C) either (a) or (b) bits in error.
20. HDSL encodes data using _______. D) none of the above
A) 5
A) 2B1Q 2. The checksum of 1111 and 1111 is B) 4
B) 1B2Q _________. C) 3
C) 4B/5B D) none of the above
D) 6B/8T A) 0000
B) 1111 15. A simple parity-check code can
21. In an HFC network, the downstream C) 1110 detect __________ errors.
data are modulated using the _______ D) 0111
modulation technique. A) an odd-number of
3. In modulo-11 arithmetic, we use B) an even-number of
A) PCM only the integers in the range ______, C) two
B) QAM inclusive. D) no errors
C) PSK
D) ASK A) 1 to 10 16. The Hamming distance between equal
B) 0 to 10 codewords is _________.
22. Another name for the cable TV C) 1 to 11
office is the _______. D) none of the above A) 0
B) 1
A) head end 4. In cyclic redundancy checking, the C) n
B) combiner divisor is _______ the CRC. D) none of the above
C) fiber node
D) splitter A) one bit less than 17. In a linear block code, the
B) one bit more than _______ of any two valid codewords
23. The term modem is a composite word C) The same size as creates another valid codeword.
that refers to the two functional D) none of the above
entities that make up the device: a A) ANDing
signal _______ and a signal _______. 5. The ________ between two words is B) XORing
the number of differences between C) ORing
A) demodulator; modulator corresponding bits. D) none of the above
B) modulator; demodulator
C) modern; demo A) Hamming rule 18. In ________ error correction, the
D) none of the above B) Hamming code receiver asks the sender to send the
C) Hamming distance data again.
24. The two most common digital D) none of the above
services are ________ service and A) forward
______. 6. The _______ of a polynomial is the B) backward
highest power in the polynomial. C) retransmission
A) switched/56; DDS D) none of the above
B) switched/56; switched/64 A) range
C) DDS; switched 64 B) power 19. We can divide coding schemes into
D) leased; out-of-band C) degree two broad categories: ________ and
D) none of the above ______coding.
25. The United States is divided into
many _______. 7. In modulo-2 arithmetic, __________ A) linear; nonlinear
give the same results. B) block; convolution
A) IXCs C) block; linear
B) LECs A) addition and subtraction D) none of the above
C) LATAs B) addition and multiplication
D) none of the above C) addition and division 20. In modulo-2 arithmetic, we use
D) none of the above only ______.
26. The standard for data transmission
over an HFC network is called _______. 8. In cyclic redundancy checking, what A) 1 and 2
is the CRC? B) 0 and 1
A) ADSL C) 0 and 2
B) CMTS A) The quotient D) none of the above
C) DOCSIS B) The dividend
D) MCNS C) The divisor
21. To guarantee correction of up to If a codeword is rotated, the result
5 errors in all cases, the minimum is another codeword. 10. In the _________ method, a special
Hamming distance in a block code must packet called a ______ circulates
be ________. A) Convolution through the ring.
B) Cyclic
A) 11 C) Non-linear A) polling: poll request
B) 6 D) none of the above B) token passing: token
C) 5 C) reservation: control frame
D) none of the above 34. The Hamming distance between 100 D) none of the above
and 001 is ________.
22. The _____of errors is more
difficult than the ______. A) 0 11. The maximum throughput for pure
B) 1 ALOHA is ________ per cent.
A) detection; correction C) 2
B) correction; detection D) none of the above A) 36.8
C) creation; correction B) 18.4
D) creation; detection C) 12.2
1.In _______, the stations share the D) none of the above
23. In block coding, if k = 2 and n = bandwidth of the channel in time.
3, we have _______ invalid codewords.
A) FDMA 12. In ________, the available
A) 4 B) CDMA bandwidth is divided into frequency
B) 8 C) TDMA bands.
C) 2 D) none of the above
D) none of the above A) TDMA
B) CDMA
24. The checksum of 0000 and 0000 is 2. In ______, the chance of collision C) FDMA
__________. can be reduced if a station senses the D) none of the above
medium before trying to use it.
A) 0000
B) 1111 A) CSMA 13. In ___________ methods, no station
C) 0111 B) MA is superior to another station and
D) 1110 C) CDMA none is assigned the control over
D) FDMA another.
25. In one’s complement arithmetic, if
positive 7 is 0111, then negative 7 is A) controlled access
________. 3. In the _______ method, the stations B) random access
in a network are organized in a C) channelization
A) 1101 logical ring. D) none of the above
B) 1000
C) 1111 A) polling
D) none of the above B) token passing 14. In the ________method, a station
C) reservation that has a frame to send senses the
26. In block coding, if n = 5, the D) none of the above line. If the line is idle, it sends
maximum Hamming distance between two immediately. If the line is not idle,
codewords is ________. it waits a random amount of time and
4. In _______, the sequences are then senses the line again.
A) 5 generated using orthogonal codes such
B) 3 the Walsh tables. A) 1-persistent
C) 2 B) nonpersistent
D) none of the above A) TDMA C) p-persistent
B) CDMA D) none of the above
27. Which error detection method uses C) FDMA
one’s complement arithmetic? D) none of the above 15. In ______, each station is
allocated a band to send its data. In
A) Checksum other words, each band is reserved for
B) CRC 5. __________ augments the CSMA a specific station, and it belongs to
C) Simple parity check algorithm to detect collision. the station all the time.
D) Two-dimensional parity check
A) CSMA/CD A) CDMA
28. The divisor in a cyclic code is B) CSMA/CA B) FDMA
normally called the _________. C) either (a) or (b) C) TDMA
D) both (a) and (b) D) none of the above
A) redundancy
B) degree 16. In the _______method, after the
C) generator 6. In the _________ method, after the station finds the line idle it sends
D) none of the above station finds the line idle, it sends or refrain from sending based on the
its frame immediately. If the line is outcome of a random number generator.
29. In modulo-2 arithmetic, we use the not idle, it continuously senses the If the line is busy, it tries again.
______ operation for both addition and line until it finds it idle.
subtraction. A) p-persistent
A) p-persistent B) nonpersistent
A) OR B) nonpersistent C) 1-persistent
B) XOR C) 1-persistent D) none of the above
C) AND D) none of the above
D) none of the above
17. To avoid collisions on wireless
30. We add r redundant bits to each 7. In the _____ method, time is networks, ________was invented.
block to make the length n = k + r. divided into intervals. In each
The resulting n-bit blocks are called interval, a reservation frame precedes A) CSMA/CD
_________. the data frames sent in that interval. B) CSMA/CA
C) either (a) or (b)
A) codewords A) token passing D) both (a) and (b)
B) datawords
C) blockwords B) reservation
D) none of the above 18. In _____, each station is
C) polling allocated a time slot during which it
31. To guarantee the detection of up can send data. Each station transmits
to 5 errors in all cases, the minimum D) none of the above its data in its assigned time slot.
Hamming distance in a block code must
be _______. A) TDMA
8. In the _______ method, each station B) CDMA
A) 11 has a predecessor and a successor. C) FDMA
B) 5 D) none of the above
C) 6 A) token passing
D) none of the above B) polling
C) reservation 19. In the _______ method, the primary
32. A generator that contains a factor D) none of the above device controls the link; the
of ____ can detect all odd-numbered secondary devices follow its
errors. instructions.
9. The vulnerable time for CSMA is the
A) x ________propagation time. A) token passing
B) 1 B) reservation
C) x + 1 A) three times C) polling
D) none of the above B) two times D) none of the above
C) the same as
33. _______codes are special linear D) none of the above
block codes with one extra property.
20. In _____, each station transmits A) 1000Base-LX
its data in its assigned time slot. A) 36.8 B) 1000Base-SX
B) 18.4 C) 1000Base-T
A) TDMA C) 12.2 D) none of the above
B) CDMA D) none of the above
C) FDMA
D) none of the above 5. What is the hexadecimal equivalent
32. _________ is a multiple-access of the Ethernet address 01011010
method in which the available 00010001 01010101 00011000 10101010
21 We discussed ________ bandwidth of a link is shared in time, 00001111?
channelization protocols. frequency, or through code, between
different stations. A) 5A:81:BA:81:AA:0F
A) four B) 5A:11:55:18:AA:0F
B) three A) Controlled access C) 5A:88:AA:18:55:F0
C) two B) Channelization D) 5A:18:5A:18:55:0F
D) none of the above C) Random access
D) none of the above
6. In Ethernet addressing, if all the
22. In the ______ method, all data 33. ________ requires that each bits are 1s, the address is _________.
exchanges must be made through the station first listen to the medium
primary device even when the ultimate before sending. A) multicast
destination is a secondary device. B) broadcast
A) FDMA C) unicast
A) polling B) CDMA D) none of the above
B) token passing C) MA
C) reservation D) CSMA
D) none of the above 7. If an Ethernet destination address
34. We have categorized access methods is 07:01:02:03:04:05, then this is a
into _______ groups. ______ address.
23. We discussed ______ popular
controlled-access methods. A) five A) broadcast
B) three B) unicast
A) four C) four C) multicast
B) three D) two D) any of the above
C) two
D) none of the above
35. In _______ methods, a station 8. Each station on an Ethernet network
cannot send unless it has been has a unique _______ address imprinted
24. In __________, each station is authorized by other stations. on its network interface card (NIC).
forced to send only at the beginning
of the time slot. A) controlled access A) 48-bit
B) channelization B) 32-bit
A) pure ALOHA C) random access C) 5-byte
B) slotted ALOHA D) none of the above D) none of the above
C) both (a) and (b)
D) neither (a) nor (b)
36. In slotted ALOHA, the vulnerable 9. Gigabit Ethernet has a data rate of
time is ______ the frame transmission ________Mbps.
25. In _______ methods, the stations time.
consult one another to find which A) 10,000
station has the right to send. A) two times B) 1000
B) three times C) 100
A) channelization C) the same as D) 10
B) random access D) none of the above
C) controlled access
D) none of the above 10. In the Ethernet frame, the _______
37. In ________, a station monitors field contains error detection
the medium after it sends a frame to information.
26. In ________ each station sends a see if the transmission was
frame whenever it has a frame to send. successful. If so, the station is A) address
finished. If, however, there is a B) preamble
A) slotted ALOHA collision, the frame is sent again. C) CRC
B) pure ALOHA D) none of the above
C) both (a) and (b) A) CSMA/CD
D) neither (a) nor (b) B) CSMA/CA
C) either (a) or (b) 11. 100Base-T4 uses ________ line
D) both (a) and (b) coding.
27. In ______, the stations use
different codes to achieve multiple A) 8B6T
access. 38. _______ is based on coding theory B) Manchester
and uses sequences of numbers called C) MLT-3
A) CDMA chips. D) NRZ
B) TDMA
C) FDMA A) TDMA
D) none of the above B) CDMA 12. ________uses long-wave 1310-nm
C) FDMA single mode fiber.
D) none of the above
28. In _______, collisions are avoided A) 10GBase-E
through the use of three strategies: 1. __________ uses four twisted pairs. B) 10GBase-S
the interframe space, the contention C) 10GBase-L
window, and acknowledgments. A) 1000Base-LX D) none of the above
B) 1000Base-T
A) CSMA/CD C) 1000Base-SX 13. ______defines a protocol data unit
B) CSMA/CA D) none of the above (PDU) that is somewhat similar to that
C) either (a) or (b) of HDLC.
D) both (a) and (b)
2. 1000Base-SX, 1000Base-LX, and A) LLC
29. In the ________ method, a station 1000Base-CX use _________ block coding B) LLU
needs to make a reservation before and ________ line coding. C) MAC
sending data. Time is divided into D) none of the above
intervals. A) 8B/10B; NRZ
B) 4B/5B; NRZ 14. 100Base-TX uses _________ block
A) token passing C) 8B/10B; MLT-3 coding and ________ line coding.
B) polling D) 4B/5B; MLT-3
C) reservation A) 8B/10B; NRZ
D) none of the above B) 4B/5B; MLT-3
3. _________ uses two fiber-optic C) 4B/5B; NRZ
30. In pure ALOHA, the vulnerable time cables. D) 8B/10B; MLT-3
is ______ the frame transmission time.
A) 100Base-FX 15. The _____ sublayer is responsible
A) two times B) 100Base-T4 for the operation of the CSMA/CD
B) three times C) 100Base-TX access method and framing.
C) the same as D) none of the above
D) none of the above A) MAC
B) MII
4. __________ uses two optical fibers C) LLC
31. The maximum throughput for slotted and a short-wave laser source. D) none of the above
ALOHA is ________ per cent.
 27. Fast Ethernet has a data rate of B) 4B/5B; MLT-3
16. _______ is the most widely used ________Mbps. C) 8B/10B; MLT-3
local area network protocol. D) 4B/5B; NRZ-I
A) 10,000
A) Token Bus B) 1000
B) Ethernet C) 100 39. Which of the following could not
C) Token Ring D) 10 be an Ethernet unicast destination?
D) none of the above
A) 46:56:21:1A:DE:F4
28. The purpose of the _______ is to B) 43:7B:6C:DE:10:00
17. In Ethernet addressing, if the provide flow and error control for the C) 48:32:21:21:4D:34
least significant bit of the first upper-layer protocols that actually D) 44:AA:C1:23:45:32
byte is 1, the address is _________. demand these services.

A) multicast A) LLC 40. _________ uses thick coaxial

B) broadcast B) LLU cable.
C) unicast C) MAC
D) none of the above D) none of the above A) 10Base2
B) 10Base5
C) 10Base-F
18. Gigabit Ethernet access methods 29. __________ uses two pairs of D) 10Base-T
include _______ mode. twisted-pair cable.

A) full-duplex A) 100Base-T4 41. The IEEE 802.3 Standard defines

B) 100Base-TX _________ CSMA/CD as the access method
B) half-duplex C) 100Base-FX for first-generation 10-Mbps
D) none of the above Ethernet.
C) both (a) and (b)
A) non-persistent
D) neither (a) nor (b) 30. ________ uses fiber-optic cable. B) p-persistent
C) 1-persistent
A) 10Base2 D) none of the above
19. _________ uses four pairs of B) 10Base-F
voice-grade, or higher, twisted-pair C) 10Base-T
cable. D) 10Base5 42. _________ uses four twisted-pair
cables that connect each station to a
A) 100Base-T4 common hub.
B) 100Base-FX 31. In Ethernet addressing, if the A) 10Base-F
C) 100Base-TX least significant bit of the first B) 10Base-T
D) none of the above byte is 0, the address is _________. C) 10Base5
D) 10Base2
A) broadcast
20. Standard Ethernet (10-Mbps) uses B) multicast 1. VLANs create _________ domains.
_______ encoding. C) unicast A) multicast
D) none of the above B) broadcast
A) AMI C) unicast
B) Manchester D) none of the above
C) NRZ 32. ________ uses 1550-mm single mode
D) differential Manchester fiber. 2. A ________ operates in both the
physical and the data link layer.
A) 10GBase-E A) router
21. In _________, auto negotiation B) 10GBase-S B) bridge
allows two devices to negotiate the C) 10GBase-L C) repeater
mode or data rate of operation. D) none of the above D) passive hub

A) Ten-Gigabit Ethernet 3. A _______ is a device that operates

B) Gigabit Ethernet 33. 1000Base-T uses ________ line only in the physical layer.
C) Fast Ethernet coding. A) bridge
D) Standard B) router
A) MLT-3 C) passive hub
B) 4D-PAM5 D) repeater
22. If an Ethernet destination address C) Mancheste
is 08:07:06:05:44:33, then this is a D) 8B6T 4. A ______ switch is a faster and
______ address. more sophisticated router.
A) two-layer
A) broadcast 34. The maximum frame length for 10- B) four-layer
B) unicast Mbps Ethernet is ________ bytes. C) three-layer
C) multicast D) none of the above
D) any of the above A) 1200
B) 1518 5. _________ is just a connector.
23. ________ uses short-wave 850-nm C) 1500 A) A passive hub
multimode fiber. D) none of the above B) An active hub
C) either (a) or (b)
A) 10GBase-E D) neither (a) nor (b)
B) 10GBase-L
C) 10GBase-S 6. A ______ normally connects LANs and
D) none of the above 35. The minimum frame length for 10- WANs in the Internet and has a table
Mbps Ethernet is _______bytes. that is used for making decisions
about the route.
24. Which of the following could not A) 128 A) router
be an Ethernet multicast destination? B) 80 B) bridge
C) 32 C) repeater
A) 7B:AA:C1:23:45:32 D) none of the above D) none of the above
B) 7C:56:21:1A:DE:F4
C) 83:32:21:21:4D:34 7. A repeater is a connecting device
D) B7:7B:6C:DE:10:00 36. __________uses two optical fibers that operates in the _______ layer of
and a long-wave laser source. the Internet model.
A) network
25. __________ uses thin coaxial A) 1000Base-T B) data link
cable. B) 1000Base-SX C) physical
C) 1000Base-LX D) all of the above
A) 10Base2 D) none of the above
B) 10Base5 8. A _______ regenerates a signal,
C) 10Base-F connects segments of a LAN, and has no
D) 10Base-T 37. The _______ layer of Ethernet filtering capability.
consists of the LLC sublayer and the A) router
26. In the Ethernet, the _______field MAC sublayer. B) repeater
is actually added at the physical C) bridge
layer and is not (formally) part of A) network D) none of the above
the frame. B) data link
C) physical 9. In a(n) _______ configuration, the
A) address D) none of the above administrator types the port numbers,
B) CRC the IP addresses, or other
C) preamble characteristics, using the VLAN
D) none of the above 38. 100Base-FX uses _________ block software.
coding and ________ line coding. A) automatic
B) manual
A) 8B/10B; NRZ C) semiautomatic
D) none of the above C) repeater
24. A __________ forwards every frame; D) none of the above
10. A _______ LAN allows several LANs it has no filtering capability.
to be connected. A) router 38. Some new two-layer switches,
A) wired B) bridge called _______ switches, have been
B) wireless C) passive hub designed to forward the frame as soon
C) backbone D) repeater as they check the MAC addresses in the
D) none of the above 25. A _______ is a connecting device header of the frame.
that operates in the physical and data A) come-through
11. A backbone is usually a ______. link layers of the Internet model. B) go-through
A) star A) router C) cut-through
B) bus B) repeater D) none of the above
C) either (a) or (b) C) bridge 1. The original IEEE 802.11, has a
D) neither (a) nor (b) D) none of the above data rate of ________ Mbps.
A) 11
12. A bridge can use the _________ 26. A _______ can check the MAC B) 22
algorithm to create a loopless addresses contained in the frame. C) 6
topology. A) repeater D) 1
A) multiway tree B) bridge
B) binary tree C) router 2. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is
C) spanning tree D) passive hub going from a station to an AP, the
D) none of the above address flag is _____.
27. ________ is part of the media; its A) 01
13. ________ is actually a multiport location in the Internet model is B) 10
repeater. It is normally used to below the physical layer. C) 11
create connections between stations in A) A passive hub D) 00
a physical star topology. B) An active hub
A) A passive hub C) either (a) or (b) 3. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is
B) An active hub D) neither (a) nor (b) going from one station in a BSS to
C) either (a) or (b) another without passing through the
D) neither (a) nor (b) 28. In a(n) _____ configuration, the distribution system, the address flag
stations are automatically connected is _________.
14. In a _____ backbone, the backbone or disconnected from a VLAN using A) 11
is just one switch. criteria defined by the administrator. B) 00
A) star A) automatic C) 10
B) bus B) semiautomatic D) 01
C) ring C) manual
D) none of the above D) none of the above 4. In IEEE 802.11, the access method
used in the PCF sublayer is ______
15. A spanning tree is a graph in which 29. IEEE 802.1d specification, defines A) polling
there is no _____. _________ criteria for a transparent B) controlled
A) arc bridges. C) contention
B) loop A) two D) none of the above
C) node B) four 5. In IEEE 802.11, a BSS without an AP
D) branch is called an _________.
C) three A) an infrastructure network
16. A ________ bridge can forward and D) none of the above B) an ad hoc architecture
filter frames and automatically build C) either (a) or (b)
its forwarding table. 30. A two-layer switch is a ______. D) neither (a) nor (b)
A) dual A) router
B) transparent B) repeater 6. In IEEE 802.11, the addressing
C) simple C) bridge mechanism can include up to
D) none of the above D) none of the above ______addresses.
A) six
17. A virtual local area network 31. In a bridged LAN, the _______ B) five
(VLAN) is configured by _________. algorithm creates a topology in which C) four
A) hardware each LAN can be reached from any other D) none of the above
B) physical wiring LAN through one path only.
C) software A) binary tree 7. In Bluetooth, the _______ layer is
D) none of the above B) spanning tree roughly equivalent to the physical
C) unary tree layer of the Internet model.
18. A ________ is normally a computer D) none of the above A) baseband
that operates in all five layers of B) radio
the Internet model or seven layers of 32. A _____ can be used as a connecting C) L2CAP
OSI model. device between two internetworks that D) none of the above
A) gateway use different models.
B) router A) gateway 8. In IEEE 802.11, a station with
C) bridge B) router ________ mobility is either stationary
D) repeater C) bridge (not moving) or moving only inside a
D) repeater BSS.
19. A ________ is a device in which A) ESS-transition
the stations are completely unaware of 33. Membership in a VLAN can be based B) no-transition
its existence. on _________. C) BSS-transition
A) simple bridge A) MAC addresses D) none of the above
B) transparent bridge B) IP addresses
C) passive hub C) port numbers 9. In Bluetooth, the L2CAP sublayer,
D) repeater D) all of the above is roughly equivalent to the LLC
sublayer in LANs.
20. A ______ has a table used in 34. A ________receives a signal and, A) baseband
filtering decisions. before it becomes too weak or B) L2CAP
A) bridge corrupted, regenerates the original C) radio
B) passive hub bit pattern. It then sends the D) none of the above
C) repeater refreshed signal.
D) none of the above A) router 10. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is
B) bridge going from one AP to another AP in a
21. In a star-topology Ethernet LAN, C) repeater wireless distribution system, the
_______ is just a point where the D) passive hub address flag is _____.
signals coming from different stations A) 10
collide; it is the collision point. 35. In a(n) ______ configuration, the B) 01
A) A passive hub initializing is done manually, with C) 11
B) An active hub migrations done automatically. D) 00
C) either (a) or (b) A) automatic
D) neither (a) nor (b) B) semiautomatic 11. A Bluetooth network is called a
C) manual ________.
22. VLANs can_________. D) none of the above A) scatternet
A) provide an extra measure of B) bluenet
security 36. A _______ is a three-layer device C) piconet
B) reduce network traffic that handles packets based on their D) none of the above
C) either (a) or (b) logical addresses.
D) both (a) and (b) A) router 12. A Bluetooth network consists of
B) repeater _____ primary device(s) and up to ____
23. A ________ link acts as a LAN in C) bridge secondary devices.
a remote backbone connected by remote D) none of the above A) one; seven
bridges. B) one; five
A) multidrop 37. A three-layer switch is a kind of C) five; three
B) point-to-point ________. D) two; six
C) multipoint A) bridge
D) none of the above B) router
13. In Bluetooth, the current data 27. The original IEEE 802.11, uses A) 6
rate is ____Mbps. _________. B) 2
A) 11 A) FHSS C) 1
B) 5 B) OFDM D) none of the above
C) 2 C) DSSS
D) none of the above D) either (a) or (c)

14. In IEEE 802.11, a BSS with an AP 28. The IEEE 802.11a, uses _________.
is sometimes referred to as A) DSSS
____________. B) OFDM
A) an infrastructure network C) FHSS
B) an ad hoc architecture D) either (a) or (c)
C) either (a) or (b)
D) neither (a) nor (b) 29. In IEEE 802.11, a ___ is made of
stationary or mobile wireless stations
15. In IEEE 802.11, the ______ is a and an optional central base station,
timer used for collision avoidance. known as the access point (AP).
A) BSS A) BSS
B) ESS B) CSS
C) NAV C) ESS
D) none of the above D) none of the above

16. In IEEE 802.11, the MAC layer 30. The IEEE 802.11 standard for
frame has ______ fields. wireless LANs defines two services:
A) four ______ and _______.
B) six A) ESS; SSS
C) five B) BSS; ESS
D) none of the above C) BSS; ASS
D) BSS; DCF
17. Bluetooth uses ______method in the
physical layer to avoid interference 31. In Bluetooth, the _____ link is
from other devices or other networks. used when avoiding latency (delay in
A) FHSS data delivery) is more important than
B) DSSS integrity (error-free delivery).
C) FDMA A) SCL
D) none of the above B) ACL
C) ACO
18. In Bluetooth, the _____ link is D) SCO
used when data integrity is more
important than avoiding latency. 32. IEEE 802.11b, has a data rate of
A) SCL _____Mbps.
B) ACO A) 5.5
C) ACL B) 2
D) SCO C) 1
D) none of the above
19. In Bluetooth, the _____layer is
roughly equivalent to the MAC sublayer 33. IEEE 802.11g, has a data rate of
in LANs. _____Mbps.
A) L2CAP A) 22
B) radio B) 11
C) baseband C) 2
D) none of the above D) 1

20. IEEE has defined the 34. In IEEE 802.11, a station with
specifications for a wireless LAN, ________mobility can move from one BSS
called _______, which covers the to another, but the movement is
physical and data link layers. confined inside one ESS.
A) IEEE 802.5 A) ESS-transition
B) IEEE 802.11 B) no-transition
C) IEEE 802.2 C) BSS-transition
D) IEEE 802.3 D) none of the above

21. In IEEE 802.11, a station with 35. The access method in Bluetooth is
________ mobility can move from one ________.
ESS to another. A) TDD-TDMA
A) BSS-transition B) CDMA
B) ESS-transition C) FDMA
C) no-transition D) none of the above
D) none of the above
36. The IEEE 802.11 wireless LANs use
22. The IEEE 802.11g, uses _________. ________ types of frames.
A) DSSS A) five
B) OFDM B) six
C) FHSS C) four
D) either (a) or (c) D) none of the above

23. In IEEE 802.11, the access method 37. In IEEE 802.11, _______ is an
used in the DCF sublayer is _________. optional access method that can be
A) CSMA/CA implemented in an infrastructure
B) CSMA/CD network (not in an ad hoc network).
C) ALOHA A) PCF
D) none of the above B) DCF
C) either (a) or (b)
24. The RTS and CTS frames in CSMA/CA D) neither (a) nor (b)
____ solve the hidden station problem.
The RTS and CTS frames in CSMA/CA ____ 38. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is
solve the exposed station problem. coming from an AP and going to a
A) cannot; cannot station, the address flag is _______.
B) can; cannot A) 00
C) cannot; can B) 11
D) can; can C) 10
D) 01
25. In IEEE 802.11, communication
between two stations in two different 39. In Bluetooth, multiple ________
BSSs usually occurs via two ________. form a network called a _________.
A) ESSs A) piconets: bluenet
B) APs B) scatternet; piconets
C) BSSs C) piconets: scatternet
D) none of the above D) bluenet; scatternet

26. Bluetooth is a _______ technology 40. The IEEE 802.11b, uses _________.
that connects devices (called gadgets) A) OFDM
in a small area. B) FHSS
A) VLAN C) DSSS
B) wired LAN D) either (a) or (b)
C) wireless LAN
D) none of the above 41. IEEE 802.11a, has a data rate of
_____Mbps.