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Physiology MCQS

8) The Bernoulli Principle states that:

a) Increased pressure increases velocity.

b) Increased velocity decreases pressure.

c) Decreased pressure decreases velocity.

d) Decreased velocity decreases pressure.

10) Increases in which of the following variables tend to decrease resistance to blood flow?

a) Radius of the blood vessel

b) Viscosity of the blood

c) Length of the blood vessel

d) Blood hematocrit

e) Turbulent flow of the blood

1) Increases in which of the following variables would be expected decrease venous return?

a. Cardiac output

b. Sympathetic nervous system tone

c. Blood volume

d. Venous resistance

e. Mean circulatory filling pressure

3) When comparing the standing position to the supine position:

a. Blood in the arteries of the toes flows backwards to the heart

b. Blood in the arteries of the toes has a higher pressure than in the aorta

c. Blood in the veins of the toes has a higher pressure than blood in the arteries of the toes

d. Blood tends to pool in the veins of the head and neck

e. There are no differences between standing and supine


C

1) The name of the shunt that allows blood to flow from pulmonary artery to aorta is called
the:

a. Ductus venosus

b. Umbilical vein

c. Foramen ovale

d. Ductus arteriosus

e. Cisterna magna

3) The compliance of the lungs is highest in the:

a. First breath of life

b. Second breath of life

c. Third breath of life

d. Fourth breath of life

e. Adult life

4) The right and left ventricles of the fetus:

a. Pump equal amounts of blood per unit time

b. Together pump the “combined ventricular output”

c. Create different pressures in pulmonary artery and aorta

d. Are actually one cardiac chamber until after birth, when the interventricular septum forms

e. Perform equal amounts of work

9. Which of the following will increase stroke volume?

A. Increased arterial pressure

B. Reduced activity of cardiac sympathetic nerves

C. Increased ventricular filling pressure


D. Low extracellular Ca2+

E. Reduced end-diastolic volume

17. Which of the following, in the absence of changes in other variables, will tend to decrease
venous return?

A. increased right atrial pressure

B. decreased venous compliance

C. increased blood volume

D. decreased venous resistance

E. increased mean circulatory filling pressure

18. Of the following sites within the fetal circulation, which has the highest oxygen
saturation?

A. umbilical artery

B. umbilical vein

C. descending aorta

D. carotid artery

E. superior vena cava

19. In a normal healthy person an increase in cardiac output will decrease:

A. Venous return

B. Pulmonary vascular resistance

C. Pulmonary arterial pressure

D. Systemic arterial pressure

E. The size of zone 3 of the lung

20. Which of the following would be the most likely to cause pulmonary edema?

A. Hemorrhage
B. Increased oncotic pressure

C. Reduced capillary permeability

D. Pulmonary capillary recruitment

E. Left heart failure

26. Large lipid-insoluble drugs cross the continuous capillary endothelium in the brain by:

A. Transcytosis

B. Bulk flow

C. Diffusion

D. Intercellular clefts

E. Lipid rafts

2.  According to Starling’s Law of the heart, an increase in end diastolic


volume:
a)   results in greater shortening of the ventricular muscle
b)   increases stroke volume
c)   is proportional to the increase in the initial length of myocardial fibers
in the left ventricle
d)   increases the net external work done by the heart
 e)   all of the above 

2. In a given patient, mean aortic pressure is 105 mm Hg, right atrial pressure is 5 mm Hg,
heart rate is 75 beats per minute, and stroke volume is 80 ml. The total peripheral resistance
in this individual is closest to:

a) 2 mm Hg per (L/min)

b) 17 mm Hg per (L/min)

c) 6 mm Hg per (L/min)

d) 60 (ml/min) per mm Hg

e) 8 mm Hg per (min/L)

E
1- In shock, the hydrostatic pressure …………. & oncotic pressure is constant:
A. Constant
B. No changes
C. Decreases
D. Increases
D
2- A 82–year-old diabetic is involved in an automobile accident, with severe
thoracic and abdominal traumatic injuries. He is rushed to the hospital and placed
in the intensive care unit. After a few hours, there is the rapid onset of myocardial
dysfunction, hypotension, disseminated intravascular coagulation, and coma. This
sequence of events most closely mimics what type of shock:
A. Anaphylactic
B. Cardiogenic
C. Hypovolemic
D. Neurogenic
E. Septic (Distributive)
B
3- In hypovolemic shock the decreased in CO is due to :
A. Inadequate blood/plasma volume
B. Reduced venous return
C. Failure of myocardial pump
D. A&B
C
4- The CO is normal or elevated in which of shock types:
A. Hypovolemic shock
B. Cardiogenic shock
C. Distributive shock
D. Obstructive shock
D
5- The heart pump is well but there is peripheral vasodilation:
A. Hypovolemic shock
B. Cardiogenic shock
C. Distributive shock
D. Obstructive shock
B
6- The heart fails to pump blood out:
A. Hypovolemic shock
B. Cardiogenic shock
C. Distributive shock
D. Obstructive shock
A

7- In fluid – shift mechanism in shock the fluid return from the extracellular space
to the capillary decreases.
A. True
B. False
B
8- In fluid – shift mechanism in shock The fluid exchange from the capillary to the
extracellular space decreases.
A. True
B. False
A
9- At arterial end, the water moves out of the capillary.
A. True
B. False
A
10-At venous end, the water moves into the capillary with a NFP of +5mmHg
A. True
B. False
A

1. Which of the following is NOT a function of the lungs?


A. Metabolism
B. Serves as a reservoir of blood for the left ventricle.
C. It is a filter to protect the systemic vasculature
D. Facilitates the exchange of O2 and CO2 between air and blood.
E. All of the above are true.
B
2. Which of the following is in the correct path of CO2 from the tissue to the atmosphere?
A. Reaction with H2O to make H2CO3, dissociation to H+ and HCO3-, H+ combines with imidazole
side chain of hemoglobin, carried back to lungs as HHb+ and HCO3-, reverse reaction forms CO2.
B. O2 is metabolized to CO2, reaction with H2O to make H2CO3, H2CO3 combines with imidazole
side chain of hemoglobin, H2CO3Hb+ is carried back to the lungs, reverse reaction forms CO2.
C. Reaction with H2O to make H2CO3, dissociation to H+ and HCO3-, HCO3- combines with
imidazole side chain of hemoglobin, carried back to the lungs as HCO3-Hb+ and H+, reverse
reaction forms CO2.
D. O2 is metabolized to CO2, reaction with H2O to make H2CO3, dissociation to H+ and HCO3-,
carried back to lungs in this form, reverse reaction forms CO2.
A
3. Which of the following is NOT an effector of respiration?
A. Heart
B. diaphragm
C. intercostals
D. Trapezius.
D
4. Which of the following is the first branching of the bronchial tree that has gas exchanging
capabilities?
A. Terminal bronchioles.
B. Respiratory bronchioles.
C. Alveoli
D. segmental bronchi
E. alveolar ducts.
A
5. Which of the following could NOT be part of an acinus?
A. alveolar sacs
B. Alveolar ducts
C. Terminal bronchioles
D. Respiratory bronchiole
C
6. If you increased the left atrial pressure from 5 mmHg to 15 mmHg, what effect would that have on
pulmonary circulation?
A. It would force blood the opposite direction.
B. It would increase the speed at which blood moves through the pulmonary circulation.
C. No change.
D. Blood flow would almost or completely stop.
A
7. Which of the following concerning average lung volumes and capacities of a person at rest is
TRUE?
A. TLC>VC>TV>FRC
B. TLC>FRC>VC>TV
C. TLC>VC>FRC>TV
D. TLC>FRC>TV>VC
D
8. Which of the following is NOT a normal occurance with increasing age?
A. Vital capacity of the lung decreases.
B. Residual volume increases.
C. Functional residual capacity increases.
D. Inspiratory capacity decreases.
E. Expiratory reserve volume increases
E.
9. Which of the following spirometry measurements has the greatest sensitivity for detecting early air
flow obstruction?
A. FVC
B. FEV1
C. FFE
D. FEF25-75
B

10. Which of the following does NOT happen during inspiration?


A. The ribs move upward.
B. The diaphragm lifts up.
C. The antero-posterior dimensions of the chest are increased.
D. The tranverse dimensions of the thorax are increased.
E. The scalene and sternocleidomastoid muscles can be recruited for inspiration
B

11. During inspiration, how does alveolar pressure compare to atmospheric pressure?
A. Alveolar pressure is greater than atmospheric.
B. Alveolar pressure is less than atmospheric.
C. Alveolar pressure is the same as atmospheric.
D. Alveolar pressure is one of the few pressures where the reference pressure is not atmospheric.
B

12. Which of the following represents the pressure difference that acts to distend the lungs?
A. Alveolar pressure
B. Airway opening pressure
C. Transthoracic pressure
D. Transpulmonary pressure
E. Esophageal pressure.
D

13. If a patient had a progressive lung disease that required an ever increasing pressure to fill the
same volume of lung, how would the lung's compliance be affected?
A. It would increase it.
B. It would stay the same.
C. It would decrease it.
D. These variables do not affect lung compliance.
B

14. An asthma sufferer finds she has to breathe at twice her normal rate. How does that affect her
dynamic compliance?
A. It stays the same.
B. It decreases.
C. It increases.
D. Static compliance, not dynamic, is the variable affected by asthma.
C
15. According to the Law of Laplace, air should flow from the smaller alveoli to the larger,
collapsing them. In the lungs, several factors counter that tendency, and stabilize the alveolar
structures. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
A. Surfactant lowers surface tension to a greater degree when it is on a smaller surface area, allowing
the smaller alveoli to stay open.
B. Mechanical stability is given by surrounding alveoli.
C. Transpulmonary pressure is lower for smaller alveoli, allowing them to stabilize in comparison to
the bigger ones.
D. Surface tension at the gas-liquid interface increases as alveolar surface area increases.
B
16. Which of the following is FALSE concerning the production and role of lung surfactant?
A. It is part of a lipoprotein called dipalmitoyl phosphatidyl-choline.
B. It is synthesized by alveolar type II cells.
C. As the alveolar surface area decreases during the compression curve, the surfactant decreases the
surface tension at a constant rate.
D. When surfactant density is decreased during expansion, surface tension initially rises rapidly, then
slows down until it reaches the starting point.
D
17. Which of the following is NOT true concerning respiratory distress syndrome in premature
infants?
A. Their ability to synthesize DPPC is limited.
B. Higher pressures are required to ventilate the lungs.
C. Lung compliance is low.
D. Positive pressure respirators are often used to assist them in breathing.
E. Alveoli tend to overexpand and sometimes burst at the end of inspiration.
E
18. Which of the following is NOT true at FRC?
A. It is about 75% TLC.
B. The elastic recoil of the chest wall is outward.
C. The elastic recoil of the lung is inward.
D. The relaxation pressure of the lung and chest wall combined is at atmospheric pressure.
B
19. If the lung were punctured, which of the following would happen?
A. The lung would collapse on the side of the puncture.
B. Both the lung and the chest wall would collapse on the side of the puncture.
C. The relaxation pressure of the chest wall would increase until it surpassed the atmospheric.
D. The relaxation pressure of the chest wall would increase, but stop before it reached atmospheric
pressure.
B

20. Which of the following is FALSE concerning the airflow in the lungs?
A. During inspiration and expiration, the flow in the trachea and larger bronchi is turbulent.
B. Towards the middle of the bronchial tree, the flow is turbulent at the branches and laminar in
between.
C. Near the end of the bronchial tree, the flow is laminar.
D. The acini have very small radii which significantly increases the total air flow resistance of the
bronchial tree.
C

A person normally passively inhales and exhales 500 mL of air. This is the __________.

 tidal volume
 expiratory capacity
 residual volume

The amount of air that a person normally cannot exhale at all is about 1200 mL. This is
the __________.

 vital capacity
 residual volume
 expiratory reserve volume

After a person inhales normally and then forces himself to inhale some more, this is
called the __________ volume.

 tidal
 residual
 inspiratory reserve

Anatomy MCQS

1) The parotid gland:


a) is the largest of the major salivary glands
b) is a mainly mucons gland
c) is a well organised, regular gland, clearly divided into lobes
d) drains into the parotid duct on its posteromedial surface
e) extends from the zygomatic arch to the lower level of the earlobe
A
2) Cutaneous sensation to the upper lip is supplied by the:
a) zygomaticofacial nerve
b) buccal nerve
c) infraorbital nerve
d) mental nerve
e) external nasal nerve
C
3) Skin over the upper lateral eyelid is supplied by the:
a) lacrimal nerve
b) supraorbital nerve
c) supratrochlear nerve
d) zygomaticofacial nerve
e) zygomaticotemporal nerve
A

4) The facial nerve:


a) marginal mandibular branch supplies muscles of the upper and lower lips
b) emerges through the stylomastoid foramen
c) has four main branches that exit the parotid gland
d) supplies the anterior belly of digastric
e) divides into temporofacial and cervicofacial divisions just after it enters the parotid gland
B
5) The facial artery:
a) is a branch of the internal carotid artery
b) crosses the angle of the jaw at the posterior border of masseter muscle
c) courses along inferior margin of parotid duct
d) lies in front of the facial vein
e) none of the above

B
11. An artery that supplies the thyroid gland is sometimes found anterior to the trachea and is named
the
a. superior thyroid artery
b. inferior thyroid artery
c. thyroidea ima
d. anterior ascending cervical artery
e. superficial ascending cervical artery
A

12. The isthmus of the thyroid gland


a. lies directly anterior to the thyroid cartilage
b. lies directly anterior to the cricoid cartilage
c. lies directly anterior to the 2nd, 3rd, and 4th tracheal rings
d. is the same as the pyramidal lobe
e. contains the superior pair of parathyroid glands
C

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