6/28/2020 Quiz App

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Marks Scored : 50.

Question no 1
DNA cannot be linked with or have no attachment with:
  
 

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Option A :
Nucleoplasm    

Option B :
  Stroma              

Option C :
   Mitochondrial matrix    

Option D :
Cell membrane

Question no 2
Primary structure of DNA is maintained by:
 
                                                                        
 

Option A :
 Hydrogen bonds         

Option B :
Hydrophobic interactions

Option C :
 Peptide bonds        

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Option D :
Phosphodiester bonds

Question no 3
Which of the followings is involved during RNA synthesis?
  
                                                                        
 

Option A :
Elongation             

Option B :
Dehydration synthesis                      

Option C :
Polymerization      

Option D :
 All A, B, C

Question no 4
Smallest type of RNA is:
 
 

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Option A :
 tRNA             

Option B :
rRNA            

Option C :
Primer       

Option D :
mRNA

Question no 5
A false description about structure of DNA is:
 

Option A :
Two strands are antiparallel

Option B :
Diameter of DNA depends on species

Option C :

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 Strands are in 5’ to 3’ direction

Option D :
Hydrogen bonds are present between strands

Question no 6
tRNA is responsible for:
 
 

Option A :
Precisely directing which types of amino acids are assembled into polypeptides

Option B :
Providing the site where polypeptides are assembled

Option C :
Positioning each amino acid at the correct place on elongating polypeptide chain

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Option D :
Acting as machinery for protein synthesis

Question no 7
A similarity between prokaryotic and eukaryotic transcription:
 
 

Option A :
Post transcriptional modi cations               

Option B :
Nature of substrate molecule

Option C :
Number of RNA polymerases involved             

Option D :
Location of transcription process

Question no 8
Endonuclease cleave all of the following bonds except:
 
 
 

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Option A :
P-O-C    

Option B :
G C               

Option C :
A=T        

Option D :
T=C

Question no 9
It does not code any amino acid:
 
                             
 

Option A :
 UAG           

Option B :
UAC               

Option C :
 UAU      

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Option D :
UGU

Question no 10
During protein elongation, incoming tRNAs bind with:
 
                                  
 

Option A :
E site           

Option B :
P site              

Option C :
  A site       

Option D :
T site

Question no 11
In bacteria, enzyme catalyzing a dehydration synthesis reaction between two amino acids during
translation is attached with _________ ribosome:
 

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Option A :
80S          

Option B :
40S                         

Option C :
 50S      

Option D :
70S

Question no 12
What is true about translation in cytoplasm?
 
 

Option A :
 mRNA translocates from cytoplasm to nucleus

Option B :
Translation proceeds in 5’ to 3’ direction

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Option C :
First tRNA binds with A site

Option D :
Release factors help in elongation of chain

Question no 13
ATGCATT is a normal sequence of DNA. After exposure to some high power radiations some change took
place and now the new sequence is ATGATT. This is:
 
                                                            
 

Option A :
Insertion        

Option B :
Point mutation            

Option C :
  Base substitution    

Option D :
Chromosomal rearrangement

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Question no 14
Failure in fetal brain development is due to defective:
 
 

Option A :
Adenosine deaminase         

  

Option B :
Phenylalanine hydroxylase        

Option C :
 Phenylalanine  

Option D :
Homogenetisate 1.2-dioxygenase

Question no 15
A protein which prevents secondary structure formation in DNA:
 
 
 

Option A :
 SSBPs          

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Option B :
Primase             

Option C :
Helicase         

Option D :
DNA Pol I

Question no 16
After transcription in eukaryotes, mRNA is subjected to:
  
                                                                          
 

Option A :
Translation          

Option B :
Become part of ribosomes           

Option C :
Storage in nucleus     

Option D :
Post transcriptional modi cations
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Question no 17
15
In Meselson-Stahl experiment a heavy parental DNA molecule contained N in its nucleotides. If it
followed semi-conservative replication then what was the outcome after two rounds of replication:
 
 

Option A :
 2 heavy strands       

Option B :
2 hybrid and 2 light molecules

Option C :
2 light strands      

Option D :
2 heavy and 2 hybrid strands

Question no 18
An RNA-dependent polymerase:
 
 

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Option A :
 RNA Pol I          

Option B :
Reverse transcriptase         

Option C :
DNA Pol II        

Option D :
RNA Pol

Question no 19
Okazaki fragments are aligned in the form of one strand by:
                           
 

Option A :
 DNA Pol I          

Option B :
Topoisomerase            

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Option C :
DNA Ligase      

Option D :
Taq polymerase

Question no 20
All of the following sites are present on tRNA except:
 
 
 

Option A :
 DNA binding site            

Option B :
Ribosome binding sites            

Option C :
Anticodon            

Option D :
Activation enzyme recognition site

Question no 21

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RNA Pol III synthesizes:

 
  
 

Option A :
 mRNA        

Option B :
tRNA             

Option C :
Primers     

Option D :
rRNA

Question no 22
In mitochondria, UGA is read as:
 
 
 

Option A :
 Methionine          

Option B :
Arginine            

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Option C :
 Stop codon           

Option D :
Tryptophan

Question no 23
Anticodon for tryptophan is:
  
 
 

Option A :
ACC      

Option B :
UGA                   

Option C :
UGG      

Option D :
  UAC

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Question no 24
All are examples of point mutations except:
 
                                                                                      
 

Option A :
  Alkaptonuria            

Option B :
  Sickle cell anemia              

Option C :
Phenylketonuria        

Option D :
Fragile X syndrome

Question no 25
In prokaryotes, 35 represents:
 
                                                  
 

Option A :
 TTGACA      

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Option B :
TTGACT               

Option C :
TATAAT       

Option D :
TATAAA

Question no 26
The human cells take about 24 hours to complete cell cycle. The maximum time is utilized during:
 
                          
 

Option A :
  G1 phase    

Option B :
S phase         

Option C :
 G2         

Option D :
 G0

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Question no 27
All of the following are related to G1 phase of the cell cycle except:
 
 
 

Option A :
Extensive metabolic activities                          

Option B :
Cells grow in size         

Option C :
 DNA base units are accumulated

Option D :
Energy storage for chromosomal movement

Question no 28
Rapid metabolic activity occurs during _________ of cell cycle:

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Option A :
  Metaphase     

Option B :
Anaphase            

Option C :
 Prophase         

Option D :
Interphase

Question no 29
Identify A, B, C and D in the below diagram:

 
 

Option A :

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  A–G1, B–S, C–G2, D–M Phase         

Option B :
A–S, B–G2, C–G1, D–M Phase                         

Option C :
A–G2, B–M Phase, C–G1, D–S

                                                                                            

Option D :
 A–M Phase, B–G1, C–G1, D–S

Question no 30
Cell cycle is divided into:
 
 

Option A :
  Karyokinesis and cytokinesis 

Option B :
  Interphase and mitotic phase       

Option C :
   Interphase and prophase

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Option D :
M–phase and S–phase

Question no 31
Chemically, the microtubules are composed of:
 
 

Option A :
Tubulin protein and traces of RNA           

Option B :
Actin protein and traces of RNA     

Option C :
Tubulin and Actin proteins

Option D :
Actin and Myosin protein

Question no 32
Following diagram represents a dividing human cell:

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This cell is in which phase of mitosis?

 
  
                  
 

Option A :
Prophase         

Option B :
Metaphase        

Option C :
Anaphase       

Option D :
Telophase

Question no 33
During mitosis in human cell, how many kinetochore bers can originate from each pole to bind with
chromosomes:
  
  
 

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Option A :
23      

Option B :
46                  

Option C :
 92      

Option D :
108

Question no 34
During plant cell division, the phragmoplast is formed from vesicles originated from:
 
 
 

Option A :
Endoplasmic reticulum    

Option B :
Golgi complex            

Option C :
Cytoskeletal proteins      

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Option D :
Glyoxysomes

Question no 35
It is the most critical phase of mitosis which ensures equal distribution of chromatids in the daughter
cells:
 
 

Option A :
 Prophase            

Option B :
  Metaphase          

Option C :
 Anaphase   

Option D :
Telophase

Question no 36
All are features of mitotic division except:
 
    

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Option A :
Continuity of same genetic information                   

Option B :
Variations and genetic recombination

Option C :
Replacement of older cells                                    

Option D :
Development of an organism

Question no 37
Cancer arises due to mutations in genes responsible for:
 

Option A :
 Cell division                 

Option B :
 Blood vessels formation                                                                              

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Option C :
Glucose metabolism       

Option D :
Nucleotide metabolism

Question no 38
It is not a feature of cancerous cell:
 
  
 

Option A :
 Grows rapidly     

Option B :
Less differentiated             

Option C :
Performs a speci c function 

Option D :
Have prominent nucleoli

Question no 39
This phase of meiosis is prolonged as compared to others:

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Option A :
 Metaphase II       

Option B :
Prophase I            

Option C :
   Anaphase I      

Option D :
Telophase II

Question no 40
Which of the following structure can be formed both by mitosis and meiosis?
 
 

Option A :
  Spores in fungi       

Option B :
Gametes in plants     

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Option C :
 Gametes in animals      

Option D :
Spores in plants

Question no 41
Chromosomes become visible during:
 
 

Option A :
Zygotene      

Option B :
Diplotene          

Option C :
Leptotene             

Option D :
Pachytene

Question no 42
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In meiosis, nucleoli disappear during:

 
 
 

Option A :
Diplotene      

Option B :
Diakinesis            

Option C :
 Zygotene     

Option D :
Pachytene

Question no 43
Synaptonemal complex starts disappearing during:
 
                                                      
 

Option A :
Leptotene         

Option B :
Zygotene         

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Option C :
Pachytene      

Option D :
 Diplotene

Question no 44
Number of kinetochore bers required to arrange chromosomes at equatorial plate during metaphase I is:
  
                    
 

Option A :
23        

Option B :
92        

Option C :
   46      

Option D :
13

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Question no 45
Speci city of anaphase I as compared to anaphase is:
 
 

Option A :
Sister chromatids get separated                             

Option B :
 Non-sister chromatids get separated

    

Option C :
Sister chromatids do not get separated                                         

Option D :
Non-sister chromatids don’t get separated

Question no 46
How many cells are produced by meiosis II?
 
 

Option A :
  4          

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Option B :
  2             

Option C :
  1      

Option D :
0

Question no 47
Which of the following syndrome highlights tetrasomy?
 

 
 

Option A :
Metafemale

Option B :
Patau’s syndrome

Option C :
Mongolism

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Option D :
Edward’s syndrome

Question no 48
Chromosomal make up for Turner’s syndrome is:
 
 
 

Option A :
 45+XY         

Option B :
44+XXY             

Option C :
44+XO    

Option D :
44+XYY

Question no 49
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During the late telophase the astral microtubules send signals to the equatorial region of the cell where
__________ are activated:
 
 

Option A :
Actin and Myosin       

Option B :
Actin and Tubulin

Option C :
Tubulin and Myosin             

Option D :
Flagellin and Actin

Question no 50
Mitotic apparatus includes all except:
 
 
 

Option A :
Spindles       

Option B :

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Nucleus            

Option C :
Centrioles      

Option D :
Astral microtubules

Question no 51
Nucleoli reorganization indicates start of:
  
 
 
 

Option A :
Prophase     

Option B :
Anaphase                 

Option C :
   Metaphase             

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Option D :
Telophase

Question no 52
CD4 receptor is present on?

 
                     
 
 

Option A :
Viral envelope                                                                   

                                                                  

             

Option B :
Viral capsid           

Option C :
Plasma membrane of lymphocyte

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Option D :
Nucleus of T lymphocyte

Question no 53
Reverse transcription is the conversion of:
 
                              

 
 

Option A :
 ss viral RNA to ds viral DNA                 

Option B :
ss viral RNA to ss host DNA

Option C :
ss viral RNA to ds host DNA                              

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Option D :
ss viral RNA to ss viral RNA

Question no 54
HIV is:
 
 

Option A :
Retrovirus        

Option B :
Oncovirus                       

Option C :
  Viroid       

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Option D :
 Prion

Question no 55
Which of the following step of HIV’s life takes place in nucleus?
 
  
 
 
 
 
 

Option A :
Uncoating         

Option B :
Translation                                   

   

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Option C :
Transcription of proviral DNA

Option D :
Assembly of viral components 

Question no 56
Simple multicellular organisms have been placed in:
 
                                                                                
 
 
 
 

Option A :
 

Protista         

     

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Option B :
         Fungi                                                 

  

Option C :
  Monera

                                                              

      

Option D :
   Animalia

Question no 57
Unicellular organisms can be present in all except:
 
  
 

Option A :
 Animalia         

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Option B :
  Fungi               

Option C :
Protista      

Option D :
Monera

Question no 58
Organisms placed in protista are mostly:
 
            
 

Option A :
Unicellular eukaryotes     

Option B :
Multicellular eukaryotes              

Option C :
 Unicellular prokaryotes       

Option D :
Multicellular prokryotes

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Question no 59
In ve kingdom classi cation organisms were classi ed on the basis of _______ levels of cellular
organisation:
 
 

Option A :
1         

Option B :
2                               

Option C :
  3   

Option D :
4

Question no 60
This kingdom is regarded as a polyphyletic group of organisms:
  
 
 

Option A :
Protista            

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Option B :
  Fungi          

Option C :
 Plantae    

Option D :
Animalia

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