24/11/2020 Revision Test - End of Semester Exam 2020: Attempt review

BMS1062 - Molecular Biology - S2 2020

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Started on Tuesday, 24 November 2020, 12:28 PM

State Finished
Completed on Tuesday, 24 November 2020, 12:34 PM
Time taken 5 mins 57 secs

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Question 1 Below is an image depicting the various level of DNA organisation. Drag the labels to the corresponding marker
Correct sites to correctly annotate the image.
Marked out of
1.00 Chromosome

Histone

Chromatin
Nuc

Your answer is correct.

Question 2 Which of the following is not a universal feature of cells?

Correct

Marked out of Select one:

1.00
a. The expression of information involves RNA molecules as intermediates

b. DNA replicates conservatively 

c. Hereditary information is stored in DNA

d. Proteins are used as catalysts

Your answer is correct.

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Question 3 Deoxycytidine triphosphate (dCTP) is a:

Correct

Marked out of Select one:

1.00
a. purine deoxynucleoside

b. pyrimidine deoxynucleotide 

c. pyrimidine base

d. purine deoxynucleotide

Your answer is correct.

Question 4 Which of the following help(s) to hold the DNA strands apart while they are being replicated?
Correct

Marked out of Select one:

1.00
a. DNA polymerase

b. Ligase

c. Primase

d. Single-strand binding proteins 

Your answer is correct.

Question 5 Why is the lagging strand of DNA replicated in short Okazaki fragments?
Correct

Marked out of Select one:

1.00
a. Because DNA is tightly wound

b. Because DNA polymerase can only synthesize in one direction 

c. To help with repair enzymes

d. To help with proof reading

Your answer is correct.

Question 6 The leading and the lagging strands differ in that:

Correct

Marked out of Select one:

1.00
a. The leading strand is synthesized in the same direction as the opening of the replication fork, and the
lagging strand is synthesized in the opposite direction 

b. The leading strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 3’ end of the growing strand, and the
lagging strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 5’ end

c. The lagging strand is synthesized continuously, whereas the leading strand is synthesized in short
fragments that are ultimately stitched together

d. None of the above are true

Your answer is correct.

Question 7 Suppose you are provided with an actively dividing culture of E.coli bacteria to which radioactive thymine has
Correct been added. What would happen if a cell replicates once in the presence of this radioactive base?
Marked out of
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Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Radioactive thymine would pair with radioactive guanine

b. Neither of the two daughter cells would be radioactive

c. DNA in both daughter cells would be radioactive 

d. One of the daughter cells, but not the other, would have radioactive DNA

Your answer is correct.

Question 8 DNA microarrays are very useful in genomic studies because they:
Correct

Marked out of Select one:

1.00
a. Allow mapping of genes to be done in a short time

b. Allow for reverse transcription to be carried out very fast

c. Allow expression of many genes in the genome to be compared at one time 

d. Can be used to knock out function of any gene in the genome

Your answer is correct.

Question 9 If the sequence below corresponds to the Human angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) cDNA spanning Exon
Correct 15 to 17. If this is digested with PstI (CTGCA↓G), how many fragments will have PstI sticky ends on both ends?
Marked out of
 
1.00
1 CTGCAGAAGA ACATGCAAAT AGCCAACCAC ACCCTGAAGT ACGGCACCCA GGCCAGGAAG

61 TTTGATGTGA ACCAGTTGCA GAACACCACT ATCAAGCGGA TCATAAAGAA GGTTCAGGAC

121 CTAGAACGGG CAGCACTGCC TGCCCAGGAG CTGGAGGAGT ACAACAAGAT CCTGTTGGAT

181 ATGGAAACCA CCTACAGCGT GGCCACTGTG TGCCACCCGA ATGGCAGCTG CCTGCAGCTC

241 GAGCCAGATC TGACGAATGT GATGGCCACG TCCCGGAAAT ATGAAGACCT GTTATGGGCA

301 TGGGAGGGCT GGCGAGACAA GGCGGGGAGA GCCATCCTCC AGTTTTACCC GAAATACGTG

361 GAACTCATCA ACCAGGCTGC CCGGCTCAAT G

Select one:
a. 1 

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

Your answer is correct.

Question 10 Which of the following is true regarding PCR?

Correct

Marked out of Select one:

1.00
a. Tm = temperature at which 90% of helical structure is lost

b. G and C melts at a lower temperature

c. PCR utilises the separation of DNA strands at high temperature above the Tm 

d. The orientation of a primer contributes to the Tm of the primer

Y i t
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Your answer is correct.

Question 11 Which of the following statements regarding the genetic code is correct? 
Correct

Marked out of Select one:

1.00
a. More than one nucleotide triplet can serve as a stop codon  Correct!

b. Wobble base pairing of the anticodon decreases the number of codons a tRNA can recognise

c. The 3rd base of the codon is the most critical for recognition by the tRNA anticodon

d. More than one amino acid can be coded for by a single codon

Your answer is correct.

Question 12 Beginning at +1 a gene has the following coding sequence: 5'-ATGTCGCCAT-3'. Which one of the following
Correct would be the RNA produced by transcription?
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. 3′-UACAGCCGUA-5′

b. 5′-AUGGCGACAU-3′

c. 5′-AUGUCGCCAU-3′ 

d. 3′-AUGUCGCCAU-5

Your answer is correct.

Question 13 One RNA polymerase synthesizes all different types of RNA in:
Correct

Marked out of Select one:

1.00
a. Eukaryotes

b. Prokaryotes 

c. Eukaryotes and Prokaryotes

d. Neither Eukaryotes or Prokaryotes

Your answer is correct.

Question 14 All of these features are in most (but not necessarily all) tRNA synthetases except for one that is INCORRECT:
Correct

Marked out of Select one:

1.00
a. Binding surface for the tRNA anticodon

b. Binding surface for the ribosome  Aminoacyl tRNA synthetases (aaRS) do not bind the ribosome (nor
the mRNA)

c. Active site catalysing the covalent attachment of amino acids to tRNAs

d. Active site editing, i.e. the removal of incorrect amino acids

Your answer is correct.

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Question 15 Which one of the following is required for RNA splicing to occur?
Correct

Marked out of Select one:

1.00
a. A free 5´ hydroxyl created by hydrolysis of the phosphate ester bond

b. A 2´ hydroxyl group 

c. A polycistronic arrangement

d. A cyclic phosphodiester at the 3´ end of the RNA molecule

Your answer is correct.

Question 16 Which of the following statements is true?

Correct

Marked out of Select one:

1.00
a. Introns often contain protein coding information

b. Some species do not have introns. 

c. Eukaryotic genes have introns of approximately the same size.

d. Eukaryotic genes have approximately the same number of introns.

Your answer is correct.

Question 17 A protein binds a DNA sequence several hundred base pairs upstream of a promoter. This results in an
Correct increased rate of transcription of the gene.
Marked out of  
1.00 Which of the following proteins is likely binding?

Select one:
a. Operon

b. Enhancer 

c. Silencer

d. Repressor

Your answer is correct.

Question 18 The addition of an acetyl group to histone tails (histone acetylation):

Correct

Marked out of Select one:

1 00
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1.00
a. prevents the interaction between neighbouring nucleosomes and thus reduces chromatin compaction,
allowing transcription to occur 

b. is essential for helicase to bind to chromatin and initiate the replication process

c. allows import of histones into the nucleus and nucleosome assembly

d. stabilises nucleosome structure through favouring interactions between the eight histone subunits

Your answer is correct.

Question 19 Emma aims to follow the production of an antiviral factor in infected cells. She detects the mRNA of this factor
Correct using microarray analysis but fails to detect the protein by Western blot. This negative result may be due to:
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Targeting of the antiviral factor to the nucleus

b. The virus induces an arrest of cellular transcription

c. The protein has failed to fold and is degraded by chaperones

d. Proteasome degradation following polyubiquitination of the protein  Correct!

Other valid answers:
- The protein is activated by proteolytic removal of a region that is recognised by the antibody
- The virus prevents cellular translation (e.g. by inhibiting cap-dependent translation)

Your answer is correct.

Question 20 In the process of eukaryotic protein synthesis, each mRNA is translated:

Correct

Marked out of Select one:

1.00
a. Simultaneously by many ribosomes until it is degraded  Correct!

b. Only once

c. By only one ribosome at a time

d. Simultaneously by many ribosomes for the life of the cell

Your answer is correct.

Question 21 Which structure is correctly paired with its function in relation to the initiation of protein synthesis in
Correct prokaryotes?
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Initiation factors– promote assembly of small and large rRNA subunits

b. AUG codon – the first three nucleotides at the 5´ end of mRNAs

c. fmet-tRNA – undergoes codon/anticodon base pairing with the 16S rRNA

d. Shine-Dalgarno sequence – acts as a start signal for protein synthesis  Correct!

Your answer is correct.

Question 22 Deletion of a single base from the coding sequence of a gene is likely to result in any of the following outcomes
Correct except one.  Which one?
Marked out of
1 00 S l
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1.00 Select one:
a. A shorter protein

b. A protein in which a single amino acid is replaced by another amino acid 

c. A protein whose sequence of amino acids differs markedly from normal

d. A non-functional protein being generated

Your answer is correct.

Question 23 If a cell has completed the first meiotic division and is just beginning meiosis II, which of the following is an
Correct appropriate description of its contents?
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. It has half the amount of DNA as the cell that began meiosis 

b. It has half the chromosomes but twice the DNA of the originating cell

c. It is identical in content to another cell from the same meiosis

d. It has the same number of chromosomes but each of them has different alleles than another cell from
the same meiosis

Your answer is correct.

Question 24 The normal sequence of amino acids in a particular peptide is Val-Asn-Pro-Thr-Arg-Cys.  The sequences
Correct produced following a number of different mutations are listed below.  Which sequence is correctly matched with
Marked out of the type of mutation most likely to have caused the observed change in the peptide?
1.00

Select one:
a. Val-Val-His-Leu-Ala : Frameshift  Correct!

b. Val-Asn-Ala-His-Glu-Ser  : Nonsense

c. Val-Asn-Pro-Thr-Arg-Cys : Missense

d. Val-His-Pro-Thr-Arg-Cys  : Silent

Your answer is correct.

The following image depicts examples of mutation types (for a different sequence than the one in the question):

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Question 25 In the Holliday model, branch migration results in the formation of:
Correct

Marked out of Select one:

1.00
a. Heteroduplex regions on both chromosomes 

b. Heteroduplex regions on one chromosome

c. Double stranded breaks

d. Gene conversion

Your answer is correct.

Question 26 Which of the following is true about new genes and genome evolution:
Correct

Marked out of Select one:

1.00
a. DNA is made from pre-existing DNA

b. Genetic innovation can arise from intragenic mutation

c. The basis of evolution of new genes is through gene duplication

d. All of the above 

Your answer is correct.

Question 27 Concentrating on the B cell receptor, the genes that encode the receptor:
Correct

Marked out of Select one:

1.00
a. Will be rearranged in all the cells of the body

b. Are rearranged only when required to produce antibodies

c. Are rearranged identically in T and B cells

d. Will be different in B cells compared to liver cells. 

Your answer is correct.

Question 28 B cells or B lymphocytes:

Correct

Marked out of Select one:

1.00
a. are part of the innate immune system

b. are generated only after exposure to a pathogen

c. are the most abundant cells in the blood

d. recognise antigen as a 3-dimensional structure 

Your answer is correct.

Question 29 Diversity in the T cell receptor:

Correct

Marked out of Select one:

1.00
a. is driven solely by exposure to environmental antigens

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b. is observed mostly in the CDR3 region 

c. is encoded by a single gene which mutates during development of the T cell

d. is generated equally by all CDR regions

Your answer is correct.

Question 30 The isotype of an antibody molecule is:

Correct

Marked out of Select one:

1.00
a. has no influence on the function of the antibody

b. governed by the binding sites produced

c. governed by the constant domain 

d. indicates what kind of antigen it will bind to

Your answer is correct.

Question 31 Transgenic mice:

Correct

Marked out of Select one:

1.00
a. show us that genes cannot be mixed across species

b. have genes removed from their genome

c. carry the neomycin resistance gene

d. can have their T cell repertoire confined to a single specificity 

Your answer is correct.

Question 32 Gene rearrangement or recombination:

Correct

Marked out of Select one:

1.00
a. Can be associated with disease 

b. Is confined to meiosis

c. Is confined to the generation of antigen receptors in the immune system

d. Results in cell death because of gene destruction

Your answer is correct.

Question 33 T cell receptors:

Correct

Marked out of Select one:

1.00
a. Bind directly to surface of bacteria

b. Interact with MHC and peptide complexes 

c. Expressed by a single cell are diverse and quite different

d. Can only bind peptides presented by MHC class I molecules

Your answer is correct.

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Question 34 The expression pattern of a transgene:

Correct

Marked out of Select one:

1.00
a. occurs randomly in cells

b. is determined by the promoter region of the gene 

c. is determined by the coding region of the gene

d. is always restricted to a single tissue

Your answer is correct.

Question 35 Trypanosomes switch expression of their variant surface glycoprotein (VSG) coat giving them a survival
Correct advantage by allowing them to:
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. to complement B cell isotype switching

b. to evade the host adaptive antibody response 

c. by transgenic technology and heterologous recombination

d. to evade the host innate immune response

Your answer is correct.

Information
The following information relations to questions 36-38. 
Chan and Jane want to purify plasmid pZZA for a cloning experiment. They inoculate L-broth containing
the antibiotic ampicillin with a single transformed colony of Escherichia coli. After overnight growth they
harvest the cells and isolate plasmid DNA using an alkaline lysis procedure. To confirm that they purified the
correct plasmid, Chan and Jane prepared two samples. Sample 1 was digested exhaustively with the
restriction endonuclease EcoRI. Sample 2 was not digested. The samples were subjected to analysis by
agarose gel electrophoresis using a 1% agarose gel. When electrophoresis was complete DNA bands were
visualised by illumination with UV light. A DNA standard marker was included in a separate well.
A schematic of the gel (below) shows how the gel was loaded and a representation of the results:

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Question 36 Which of the following statements about gel electrophoresis is TRUE?

Correct

Marked out of Select one:

1.00
a. The length of the plasmid can be determined from sample 2

b. Two circular plasmids containing the same number of base pairs move through an agarose gel at the
same rate

c. Agarose gels are better suited to separating smaller DNA fragments than polyacrylamide gels

d. Super coiled migrates faster than both linear and open-circular DNA 

Your answer is correct.

Question 37
What is the most likely explanation for the difference between samples 1 and 2?
Correct

Marked out of
1.00
Select one:
a. EcoRI binds to some of the plasmid DNA in sample 1 and retards its migration

b. Digestion of pZZA plasmid in sample 1 was incomplete

c. The pZZA plasmid has 1 EcoRI restriction sites

d. The pZZA plasmid has 2 EcoRI restriction sites 

Your answer is correct.

Question 38 Estimate the size of the plasmid in this experiment:

Correct

Marked out of Select one:

1.00
a. 2.0 kb

b. ~3.3 kb

c. 4.3-6.6 kb 

d. 6.6 kb

Your answer is correct.

Information
Below are a list of enzymes involved in DNA replication. 
A. Helicase

B. Ligase
C. Primase
D. Topoisomerase
  

Pick the option from the list above that BEST answers questions 39-42. Each option may be used to answer
once, more than once or not at all.

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Question 39 Which enzyme relieves helical winding ahead of the replication fork?
Correct

Marked out of Select one:

1.00
a. Helicase

b. Ligase

c. Primase

d. Topoisomerase 

Your answer is correct.

Question 40 Which enzyme breaks hydrogen bonds holding strands together?

Correct

Marked out of Select one:

1.00
a. Helicase 

b. Ligase

c. Primase

d. Topoisomerase

Your answer is correct.

Question 41 Which enzyme synthesises a short RNA sequence to initiate polymerisation?

Correct

Marked out of Select one:

1.00
a. Helicase

b. Ligase

c. Primase 

d. Topoisomerase

Your answer is correct.

Question 42 Which enzyme forms a phosphodiester bond joining the Okazaki fragments?
Correct

Marked out of Select one:

1.00
a. Helicase

b. Ligase 

c. Primase

d. Topoisomerase

Your answer is correct.

Information
The following information relations to questions 43-46. 
An employee working within the development team at an industrial chemical company accidently spills a
sample of an experimental compound on their skin. Following this exposure, the employee has developed some
unusual spots on their skin and seeks medical attention. The employee’s doctor investigates by analysing the
DNA of the patient’s skin cells.

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Question 43 Which of the following techniques would be most valuable to identify differences between the DNA in the
Correct patient’s normal skin cells and the damaged ones?
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Fluorescent In Situ Hybridisation

b. Next generation DNA Sequencing 

c. Polymerase Chain Reaction

d. Microarray

Your answer is correct.

Question 44 A number of single base deletions were detected in the damaged cells. What type of unrepaired damage is most
Correct likely to have cause this?
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Depurination 

b. Methylation

c. Deamination

d. Mismatch

Your answer is correct.

Question 45 What type of mutation would single nucleotide deletions cause?

Correct

Marked out of Select one:

1.00
a. Silent

b. Nonsense

c. Frameshift 

d. Missense

Your answer is correct.

Question 46 If these were the result of the chemical exposure, which of the following would best describe these mutations?
Correct

Marked out of Select one:

1.00
a. Germline

b. Spontaneous

c. Heritable

d. Induced 

Your answer is correct.

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