Practice Oral test questions

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1. When will the APU Inflight for Overspeed, Underspeed, 7. What are the braking Locked wheel protection
automatically or a FADEC Critical Fault system higher level
shutdown inflight and functions ? Anti-skid protection
on the ground ? On the ground for an Overspeed,
Underspeed, FADEC Critical Fault, Touchdown protection
APU Fire, EGT Over-temperature,
HOTLOP, Sensor Fail Automatic wheel braking
(retraction)
2. Which electrical loads Hot Battery Bus 1 - Engine 1 Oil Level,
are on the Hot Engine 1A and 2A Fire Bottle, Engine 1 8. What does P-BIT stand for Power Up Built In Test
Battery Buses ? Fuel SOV, Engine 1 Hydraulic SOV and which two systems
have them ? The P-BIT is provided for both
Courtesy & Service Lights, DC hydraulic and electrical systems
Ceiling Lights.
9. Which seven conditions Bleed source not available for
will cause the ECS packs the pack
Hot Battery Bus 2 - Engine 2 Oil
to close ?
Level, Engine 1B and 2B Fire Bottle,
The respective pack button is
Engine 2 Fuel SOV, Engine 2
ASM 3-17 OFF
Hydraulic SOV
Any engine is starting with
Central Maintenance Computer
weight-on-wheels (both packs
(CMC), Refuelling Panel, and the
will be shutoff)
Water/Waste System controller
3. What does ACE stand Actuator Control Electronics, 4 Respective engine is starting,
for ? How many are no weight on wheels (inflight)
there ? Flight Control Module, 4, inside the and the opposite engine is not
MAU's. starting
What does FCM stand
for ? How many are Primary ACE (Rudder and Elevators) Any engine is starting and the
there ? Horizontal Stabilizer ACE APU is the bleed source (both
Where are they Spoilers ACE packs close)
located ? Slat/Flap ACE
Respective bleed leak
What are the P-ACE /
HS-ACE / S-ACE / Respective BIT failure (system
SF-ACE ? fault in pack)
4. What are the elevator Gain on speed 10. Which conditions must APU bleed switch must be set
higher level functions exist before the APU to AUTO
? AOA limiting bleed valve be
commanded open ? APU bleed is available (APU
A.O.M 14-08-10 Thrust compensation running)
ASM 3-10
5. What are the rudder Gain on speed
No APU bleed duct leak
higher level functions
? Turn coordination
Left engine bleed is unavailable
A.O.M 14-08-10 Yaw damp
No anti-ice requested
High speed panel stroke limiting

Rudder flight authority

6. What are the Spoiler Roll Spoiler scheduling with
higher level functions airspeed/speed brake deployment
?
11. Which conditions must exist Cross bleed button set 15.
before the cross bleed valve be AUTO
commanded open ?
One side providing
ASM 3-11 bleed source and the
other not
APU bleed OFF for
either main engine start
Engine 2 start inflight
No bleed air leak
detected
12. Which conditions must exist Respective engine bleed
before an engine bleed valve be switch is set AUTO
commanded open ?
Respective engine bleed 16.
ASM 3-10 is available
No fire condition
detected
No bleed air leak
detected
13. When will the recirculation fans Dump button is pressed
be commanded OFF ?
Smoke is detected in the
ASM 3-15 recirculation bay
Both packs are
commanded OFF
On the ground, cabin 17.
warmup mode, with APU
as bleed source
Cargo compartment
smoke detected
14. When will FADEC command both One engine inoperative
packs OFF ? and APU bleed air not
available 18.
ASM 3-17
Thrust levers set to MAX
and APU bleed is not
available
Take Off Dataset set to
OFF and APU bleed is
not available
Which conditions will One engine is inoperative and APU
cause the ECS to bleed is not available up to 9700 ft
command both packs
OFF during a go- Thrust levers are set to MAX and
around ? When will APU bleed air is not available
packs be recovered ?
Thrust levers are set to MAX and
ice protection is requested ON
(APU cannot provide bleed air for
anti-ice)
Packs will be recovered when TL
reduced to TOGA or below, two
engines running above 500 ft AGL,
or one engine inoperative above
9700 ft for both takeoff and go-
around modes
Which conditions will Press the AP/TRIM disconnect
cause the autopilot to button
disengage ?
Press the AP button on FGP
ASM 5-15
Press the manual trim switch
Exerting a light force on yoke for
long time or strong force for short
time
Wind shear is detected
Direct mode is activated
Stick shaker is activated
An internal fault occurs
Which conditions will Press either auto throttle
cause the auto throttles disconnect button on TL's
to disengage ? When Press the AT button on the FGP
will auto throttles
automatically Auto throttles will auto disconnect
disconnect ? after touchdown, when TL's moved
beyond TOGA detent or thrust
ASM 5-33 reverser actuation during an RTO
What is the normal Gear handle signals PSEM to
landing gear extension extend gear
sequence ? Hydraulic pressure releases the
uplocks and the retraction actuator
ASM 17-11 allowing gear to fall/extend
Gear doors are mechanically
opened
When gear fully extended it is held
in place by downlock springs
19. How does the Same as normal gear extension 25. What are the indications 6 overhead panel lights, 2
Electrical Override except the PSEM is bypassed when the fire test button is glare shield panel lights, 5
Extension function ? pressed, and what EICAS messages, 2 ITT
precaution should be gauge messages, and 2
ASM 17-11 observed when pressing the different aural warnings.
fire test button ?
20. How does the Pulling the handle releases hydraulic
Pressing the fire test button
Alternate Gear pressure to the uplocks and actuator,
ASM 8-12 for more than 10 seconds on
Extension handle gravity and aerodynamic forces cause
the ground will cause the
function ? the gear to fall into a down/locked
APU to shutdown
position
ASM 17-11 26. Which items are powered Captains MFD
during an electrical Captains CCD
21. When is the Roll Active lateral mode is deactivated
emergency ? EICAS
Mode Bank Logic TO mode is selected by TOGA button
IESS
activated ? on the ground
Chronometer
Autopilot is engaged with no other
FGP
ASM 5-19 flight director modes active
Standby Compass
22. What actions will For a bank angle less than 6 degrees illumination
the AP take with the AP will level the wings First Officers MCDU
respect to a yoke For a bank angle between 6 degrees BOTH ACP's
Roll input ? and 35 degrees the AP will maintain
27. When will system logic Inflight when an engine
the bank angle
command the electric driven hydraulic pump fails
ASM 5-19 For a bank angle greater than 35
hydraulic pumps ON inflight, its respective AC electric
degrees the AP will maintain a 35
whilst landing, during pump will activate
degree bank angle
takeoff or on the ground ?
23. Which items are FAGHOP During landing the AC
connected to the ASM 15-7 and 15-9 electric pumps will operate
accessory gearbox Fuel pump for 60 seconds to mitigate
? ATS pressure variations in the
Generator (IDG) event of an engine failure
ASM ? Hydraulic pump
Oil pump During takeoff same as for
PMA landing when TL's set to
24. Which are the four Idle modes are Flight/Approach/Final TOGA detent and speed
engine idle modes Approach/Ground greater than 50 kts
and what are the
conditions for each Flight mode is active inflight On the ground AC hydraulic
mode ? whenever an approach idle mode is pump 2 will activate when
not active engine 1 is running and flaps
ASM 7-22 are selected or the parking
Approach idle mode is active when brake is released
weight off wheels, Flaps 1 or greater 28. When will PTU logic be During takeoff or landing
or landing gear down, altitude les activated ? and/or if ENG 1 or EDP 1 fails
than 15,000 ft
ASM 15-9
Final Approach idle mode is active
29. Which conditions must be Flaps not set 0 and landing
when same conditions as approach
met before the PTU can be gear not indicating up, EDP 1
idle except altitude below 1200 ft
activated ? Can the PTU be is operational and hydraulic
activated on the ground ? tank 2 quantity > 12%. PTU
Ground idle provides stable/minimum
cannot be activated on the
engine thrust for ground operations
ASM 15-9 ground.
30. Which conditions will cause the Slat/flap 5 or FULL with 35. Which two AVAIL and IN USE.
'LANDING GEAR' aural warning gear retracted messages
to be annunciation and non- appear on the AVAIL indicates that AC power is available
cancelling ? Which condition Slat/Flap 1-2-3-4 and RA AC GPU from the AC GPU (correctly conditioned 115
will permit the aural warning to below 700 ft AGL with button what VAC/400 Hz)
be cancelled with the LG WARN TLA < 45 degrees 2 do they
INHIB button ? engines or < 59 degrees 1 indicate ? IN USE indicates that the AC GPU is
engine, with gear connected to the aircrafts electrical system
retracted and is powering the aircraft
36. What will the RAGO - Respective IDG, then APU, then
Can be inhibited if dual
AC GPU GPU, then Opposite IDG in order of priority,
RA failure with LG WARN
button highest first.
INHIB button
indicate if the
31. How is the TO CONFIG test TO CONFIG test is APU is started The APU has a higher priority so it will
triggered and which four triggered by TLA during ? replace the GPU as the AC electrical
configurations is it looking at ? takeoff or by pressing the source, the AC GPU button will indicate
TO CONFIG button on AVAIL when it is isolated from the aircrafts
the ground. It is looking AC buses
at the flaps, spoilers,
37. What are the 2 x IDG's, APU, AC GPU, RAT
parking brake and pitch
AC power
trim
sources ?
32. What is an IDG ? Integrated Drive
38. What is a TRU Transformer Rectifier Unit (300 Amps)
Generator
and what does
115 VAC / 400 Hz / 40
it do ? It steps down 115 volts to 28 volts and
kVA
converts it from AC to DC (i.e 115 VAC to 28
Driven through CSD by
VDC)
the engine accessory
gearbox 39. Why does BATT 2 is used to power the APU starter
BATT 2 have and will be automatically isolated from the
33. What does the IDG switch AUTO - System logic
an AUTO aircrafts DC Buses for that purpose by
positions AUOTO/OFF/DISC do controls the connection
position when system logic. During an APU start BATT 2 is
? of AC power from the
BATT 1 does isolated from DC ESS BUS 2 and connected
IDG to its respective AC
not ? to the APU START BUS.
bus
40. Is BATT 1 Yes, BATT 1 powers the APU FADEC which
OFF - IDG is isolated required for controls the start sequence and thereafter
from its respective AC an APU start ? the operation of the APU
bus and de-energized 41. What controls 4 x ICC's and 2 x SPDA's.
and manages
DISC - IDG is physically the electrical EICC and SPDA 1 are located in the forward
separated from the system ? (nose) electronics bay, LICC and RICC
accessory gearbox by its Where are along with SPDA 2 are located in the mid
respective CSD they located ? electronics bay, AICC is located in the rear
34. What does the amber LED light It identifies the IDG which electronics bay
adjacent the IDG switch indicate has failed and facilitates 42. What are you There are six lights which illuminate when
? the correct IDG being looking for the annunciation test button is pressed, they
disconnected from the when you are the two amber IDG disconnect lights,
accessory gearbox drive press the two engine bleed switch lights, one APU
annunciation bleed switch light and the cockpit door
test button ? inhibit switch light
43. What happens when The cockpit door lock is reset for 52. How long will the slow rate bottle last ...
you press the cockpit 500 seconds for ?
door inhibit switch ?
53. Inflight the FA calls to tell you there is Yes. Press the
44. What is powered by Hot Battery Bus 1 - Engine 1 Oil smoke coming from the floor toward the button twice at
the hot Battery Buses Level, Engine 1A and 2A Fire Bottle, back of the aircraft, there are no cargo least, the first
? Engine 1 Fuel SOV, Engine 1 fire annunciation. Can you use the cargo press will arm
Hydraulic SOV, Courtesy & Service compartment fire extinguisher ? How the fire
Lights, DC Ceiling Lights. many times should you press the button extinguisher, the
? second button
Hot Battery Bus 2 - Engine 2 Oil will discharge it
Level, Engine 1B and 2B Fire Bottle,
54. What does the APU EMER STOP button It shuts down the
Engine 2 Fuel SOV, Engine 2
do ? APU immediately
Hydraulic SOV, Central Maintenance
without a cool
Computer (CMC), Refuelling Panel,
down period
and the Water/Waste System
controller. 55. What type of APU ? Sundstrand
APS2300
45. What happens when The respective engine fuel SOV,
you pull the engine hydraulic SOV and bleed air SOV 56. What are the APU limitations ? Altitude - Bleed
fire handles ? close load 15,000 ft,
electrical load
46. How many fire Two, yes.
33,000 ft,
extinguisher bottles
starting 30,000
are available for
ft, engine starting
engine fire protection
25,000 ft
? Can both bottles be
used on one engine ? 57. What is the maximum altitude to use APU will NOT
APU for anti-icing ? provide bleed air
47. What do you look for 6 x lights overhead panel, 2 x lights
for anti-ice
in a fire detection glare shield, 5 x EICAS messages, 2
protection
system test ? x ITT gauge messages, 2 x aural
warnings 58. When will the APU auto shutdown ...
inflight ?
48. How many fire Two, no
extinguishers are 59. When will the APU auto shutdown on ...
available for a cargo the ground ?
compartment fire ? 60. How long will it take for the APU to ...
Can they be use auto shutdown on the ground for an
separately for each APU Fire ?
compartment ?
61. When will the APU automatically ...
49. How many smoke Three in the forward compartment discharge the fire extinguisher ?
detectors are located and two in the aft compartment
62. Which fuel pumps are located in the 1 x main ejector
in each cargo
right fuel tank ? pump, 3 x
compartment ?
scavenge ejector
50. How many detectors ... pumps, 1 x AC
are required to sense fuel pump and 1
smoke before a fire x DC fuel pump
indication is
63. When is the D.C. fuel pump used ? For APU start
annunciated ?
whenever the
51. If you get a cargo fire Once for automatic discharge of right engine is
annunciation inflight, both bottles with a one minute not running and
how many times do pause between bottles or twice to there is no AC
you push the discharge both immediately power available
respective fire
extinguisher button ?
64. When do we ( Engine starting) 74. How long does the 8 seconds
use the AC Takeoff and landing RAT take to spool up
fuel pump ? Injector pump failure ??? ?
65. Can fuel be No 75. What does the The inverter converts battery D.C.
transferred inverter do ? What is power to AC power for the AC STBY
between the inverter power BUS in the event of an electrical
tanks ? rating ? emergency (Igniters), it is rated at
250 VA.
66. When will the ...
AC fuel pump 76. What will happen if The cabin will depressurization at a
be activated the DUMP button is rate of 2000 ft per minute to 12,400
automatically pressed whilst the ft MSL, then it will close and the
? CPC is set in AUTO cabin altitude will continue to (leak)
mode ? climb
67. How many Three
hydraulic 77. At which altitude will ...
systems are you get a CABIN HI
there ? ALT annunciation ?
68. What are the ... 78. At which altitude will ...
major the passenger
components oxygen masks
of the automatically deploy
hydraulic ?
system ?
79. Do the flight crew Nope, no way. More for us. Yay.
69. What is the Power Transfer Unit (PTU) transfers power and passengers share
PTU and how from hydraulic system 1 to hydraulic system the same oxygen (We have pressurized O2 bottle,
does it 2. Hydraulic system 1 powers a hydraulic system ? they have chemical oxygen
function ? motor which drives a hydraulic pump on the generators)
hydraulics system 2 side, effectively
80. How long does the ...
transferring hydraulic system 1 power to the
passenger oxygen
hydraulic system 2.
last ?
70. When will the ...
81. What are the crew Green for three crew, cyan for two
PTU
oxygen dispatch crew.
automatically
minimums ?
operate ?
82. Where can you check Status page on MFD or at the bottle
71. What is the 3000 psi
the crew oxygen location from the aircraft exterior
working
bottle quantity ?
pressure of
the hydraulic
systems ?
72. Which ...
condition(s)
will cause the
hydraulic
system pump
2 to
automatically
activate ?
73. What is the It is the redundant hydraulic system, powered
function of by the RAT in the event of an electrical
hydraulic emergency
system 3 ?
83. What is the When the Total Air Temperature (TAT) inflight 91. What differentiates the ...
definition of or the Static Air Temperature (SAT) on the flight modes of the
icing ground indicates + 10 deg.C or below and aircraft ?
conditions ? visible moisture is present. On the ground
92. What are the higher Yaw damper ??????
where standing water, snow slush or ice
level functions of the
might be ingested into an operating engine or
rudder ?
freeze on engine nacelle or sensor probes.
93. How many slats are on 3 on each wing for a total of 6
84. How do we The MCDU TO DATASET must be set to ALL.
the aircraft ? ??????
setup the
aircraft for 94. Which of the slats are The three outboard sections
takeoff if the heated ? adjacent the engine
weather 95. What type of ice None, it is not anti-ice protected
conditions protection is used for ?
are 500 OVC the horizontal stabilizer
and 10 deg.C ?
?
96. Which flight controls are Flaps and slats, elevator trim
85. How do the Small probes vibrate at a determined electrically operated ?
ice detectors frequency, the build up of ice on the probes
97. How many multifunction Three on each wing for a total of
work ? causes the vibrating frequency to shift which
spoilers does the aircraft six ??????
activates the anti-icing system. The probes
have ?
are heated to shed the ice accretion every
minute (in icing conditions) to start the cycle 98. What are the functions Speed brakes, roll control
again, heating ceases two minutes after of the multifunction (adverse yaw) and lift dump
exiting icing conditions. spoilers ?
86. Can one ice Yes 99. Which panels are ground Two inboard downward moving
detector spoilers ? panels on each wing and ?????
work 100. How many ground ...
efficiently if spoilers are on the
the other aircraft ?
fails ?
101. Which spoilers deploy Ground spoilers ......... ????
87. How many ... on landing ?
AMS
controllers 102. Which conditions will ...
are there ? cause the spoilers to
retract automatically
88. How many ... inflight ?
AMS
channels are 103. What are the three ways Normal gear extension, bypass
there ? of lowering the landing switch gear extension and
gear ? alternate gear extension handle
89. Which Flaps, spoilers, parking brake and elevator (free fall)
systems trim
does the TO 104. How does the electrical It bypasses the PSEM
CONFIG test landing gear switch work
? ?

90. What are the Ground, takeoff,???????

flight modes
of the
aircraft ?
105. List 10 ways that the autopilot can disconnect ? AP/TRIM disconnect button
Manual trim button
AP button on the FGP
Slight yoke pressure long time period
Medium yoke pressure short period time
AFCS fault
Direct mode
ATS button pressed and held
????
106. Which equipment is required for RVSM operations ? ...
107. At which speed will wing anti-ice cycle on ? 40 KIAS (during takeoff roll)