1994

Three hours are allotted for this examination: 1 hour and 30 minutes for Section I, which consists of multiple-choice
questions, and 1 hour and 30 minutes for Section II, which consists of problems and essay questions. Section I is printed
in this examination booklet; Section II, in a separate booklet.

Battery-operated hand-held calculators may be used in both sections of the examination. All calculator memories must
be cleared of both programs and data; no peripheral devices such as magnetic cards or tapes will be allowed. Calculators
may not be shared.

Time - 1 hour and 30 minutes

Number of questions -75
Percent of total grade - 45

This examination contains 75 multiple-choice questions. Therefore, please be careful to fill in only the
ovals that are preceded by numbers 1 through 75 on your answer sheet.

INDICATE ALL YOUR ANSWERS TO QUESTIONS IN SECfION ION THE SEPARATE ANSWER SHEET.
No credit will be given for anything written in this examination booklet, but you may use the booklet for notes or
scratch work. After you have decided which of the suggested answers is best, COMPLETELY fill in the corresponding
oval on the answer sheet. Give only one answer to each question. If you change an answer, be sure that the previous
mark is erased completely.

Chicago is a

(A) state
(B) city
(C) country.
(D) continent
(E) village

Many candidates wonder whether or not to guess the answers to questions about which they are not certain. In this
section of the examination, as a correction for haphazard guessing, one-fourth of the number of questions you answer
incorrectly will be subtracted from the number of questions you answer correctly. It is improbable, therefore, that mere
guessing will improve your score significantly; it may even lower your score, and it does take time. If, however, you are
not sure of the correct answer but have some knowledge of the question and are able to eliminate one or more of the
answer choices as wrong, your chance of getting the right answer is improved, and it may be to your advantage to answer
such a question. .

Use your time effectively, working as rapidly as you can without losing accuracy. Do not spend too much time on
questions that are too difficult. Go on to other questions and come back to the difficult ones later if you have time. It is
not expected that everyone will be able to answer all the multiple-choice questions.
 I DO NOT DETACH FROM BOOK. I
~
I"
1
~
2 ::l.
e
H He :;.
...•
1.0079 4.0026 ~
(l)

3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 g:
Li Be B C N 0 F Ne 0'
~
6.941 9.012 10.811 12.011 14.007 16.00 19.00 20.179 :;'
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 ...•
(JQ

~
Na Mg Al Si P S CI Ar Ci'

22.99 24.30 26.98 28.09 30.974 32.06 35.453 39.948

:3 ....
~
~ 8
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 0'

K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
(l)

~
en
(l)
I
•.....•
n
::r C/.l
39.10 40.08 44.96 47.90 50.94 52.00 54.938 55.85 58.93 58.69 63.55 65.39 69.72 72.59 74.92 78.96 79.90 83.80 ~
•.....• 0 tTl
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
....
~ ~ n
::j ~
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
I"
~ 8- ~
en ~
~ W .....
85.47 87.62 88.91 91.22 92.91 95.94 (98) 101.1 102.91 106.42 107.87 112.41 114.82 118.71 121.75 127.60 126.91 131.29 (l) 0 ~
55 56 57 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
::l.
~
...•
(JQ
g.
::r g
Cs Ba *La Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg TI Pb Bi Po At Rn (l)
..c
(l)
en
132.91 137.33 138.91 178.49 180.95 183.85 186.21 190.2 192.2 .195.08 196.97 200.59 204.38 207.2 208.98 (209) (210) (222) ~
(l)
87 88 89 en
104 105 106 107 108 109 0.
0
Fr Ra tAc Unq Unp Unh Uns Uno Une ~
en
...•.
(223) 226.02 227.03 (261) (262) (263) (262) (265) (266) ~
§:
en
en
(l)
58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 n
f=t.
0
Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu ~
0
•..•..
140.12 140.91 144.24 (145) 150.4 151.97 157.25 158.93 162.50 164.93 167.26 168.93 173.04 174.97 ...•
::r
90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 (l)
(l)

Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr ><
232.04 231.04 238.03 237.05 (244) (243) (247) (247) (251) (252) (257) (258) (259) (260) ~.
~
I"
0.
0
p
Note: For all questions involving solutions and/or chemical equations, assume that the system is in pure water and at
room temperature unless otherwise stated. .

Directions: Each set of lettered choices below refers to the numbered questions or statements immediately following
it. Select the one lettered choice that best answers each question or best fits each statement and then fill in the
corresponding oval on the answer sheet. A choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all in each set.

Questions 5-7 refer to the phase diagram below of a

pure substance.
(A) Heisenberg uncertainty principle
(B) Pauli exclusion principle
(C) Hund's rule (principle of maximum multiplicity)
(D) Shielding effect
(E) Wave nature of matter
P
1. Can be used to predict that a gaseous carbon atom (atIp) 1.0
in its ground state is paramagnetic

2. Explains the experimental phenomenon of electron

diffraction 10 30 50 70 90 110 130
TeC)
3. Indicates that an atomic orbital can hold no more
than two electrons (A) Sublimation
(B) Condensation
(C) Solvation
4. Predicts that it is impossible to determine simulta- (D) Fusion
neously the exact position and the exact velocity of (E) Freezing
an electron

5. If the temperature increases from 10° C to 60° C at a

constant pressure of 0.4 atmosphere, which of the
processes occurs?

6. If the temperature decreases from 110° C to 40° C at

a constant pressure of 1.1 atmospheres, which of
the processes occurs?

7. If the pressure mcreases from 0.5 to 1.5 atmospheres

at a constant temperature of 50° C, which of the
processes occurs?

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

(A) Li2 (A) Pb
(B) B2 (B) Ca
(C) N2 (C) Zn
(D) O2 (D) As
(E) F2 (E) Na

12. Is added to silicon to enhance its properties as a

semiconductor

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Directions: Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by five suggested answers or completions.
Select the one that is best in each case and then fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

14. Which of the following is lower for a l.O-molar 16. Commercial vinegar was titrated with NaOH
aqueous solution of any solute than it is for pure solution to determine the content of acetic acid,
water? HC2H302 • For 20.0 milliliters of the vinegar,
26.7 milliliters of 0.600-molar NaOH solution was
(A) pH
required. What was the concentration of acetic
(B) Vapor pressure
(C) Freezing point acid in the vinegar if no other acid was present?
(D) Electrical conductivity (A) l.60 M
(E) Absorption of visible light (B) 0.800 M
(C) 0.600 M
(D) 0.450 M
15. In a molecule in which the central atom exhibits
sp3d2 hybrid orbitals, the electron pairs are directed (E) 0.200 M
toward the corners of
(A) a tetrahedron 17. Relatively slow rates of chemical reaction are asso-
ciated with which of the following?
(B) a square-based pyramid
(C) a trigonal bipyramid (A) The presence of a catalyst
(D) a square (B) High temperature
(E) an octahedron (C) High concentration of reactants
(D) Strong bonds in reactant molecules
(E) Low activation energy

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 Which species acts as an oxidizing agent in the reaction represented
above?
(A) H20
(B) Cl04-
(C) CI02-
(D) Mn02
(E) Mn04-

19. In which of the following compounds is the mass ratio of chromium

to oxygen closest to 1.62 to LOa?
(A) cr03
(B) cr02
(C) crO
(D) Cr20
(E) Cr203

When the equation above is balanced with lowest whole-number coefficients, the
coefficient for OH- is
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
(E) 7

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

21. Correct statements about alpha particles include
which of the following?
I. They have a mass number of 4 and a charge
of +2.
II. They are more penetrating than beta particles.
ill. They are helium nuclei.
The proposed steps for a catalyzed reaction
(A) I only between Ce4'" and Tl'" are represented above. The
(B) ill only products of the overall catalyzed reaction are
(C) I and II
(D) I and ill (A) Ce4'" and TI'"
(B) Ce3 .•. and TP'"
(E) II and ill (C) Ce3 .•. and Mn3 .•.
(D) Ce3 .•. and Mn4 .•.
(E) TP'" and Mnz",

In the equilibrium represented above, the species

that act as bases include which of the following? 24. A sample of 0.0100 mole of oxygen gas is confined
at 37° C and 0.216 atmosphere. What would be the
I. HS04- pressure of this sample at 15° C and the same
II. H20 volume?
ill. SO/-
(A) 0.0876 atm
(A) II only (B) 0.175 atm
(B) ill only (C) 0.201 atm
(C) I and II (D) 0.233 atm
(D) I and III (E) 0.533 atDl
(E) II and ill

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 1
Hlg) + '2 02(g) ~ H20(2)
1
2 Na(s) + '2 02(g) ~ Na20(s)
1 1
Na(s) + '2 02(g) + '2 H2(g) ~ NaOH(s)

Based on the information above, what is the standard enthalpy

change for the following reaction?

(A) -1,125 kJ
(B) -978 kJ
(C) -722 kJ
(D) -150 kJ
(E) +275 kJ

26. Which of the following actions would be likely to

change the boiling point of a sample of a pure
liquid in an open container?
1. Placing it in a smaller container
II. Increasing the number of moles of the liquid in
the container .
ill. Moving the' container and liquid to a higher
altitude
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) ill only
(D) II and ill only
(E) I, II, and ill

27. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers

(n, t, m2, m.d best describes the valence electron of
highest energy in a ground-state gallium atom
(atomic number 31) ?
1
(A) 4,0,0, '2
1
(B) 4,0, 1, '2

1
(C) 4, I, 1, '2

1
(D) 4, 1,2, '2
1
(E) 4,2,0, '2

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28. Given that a solution is 5 percent sucrose by mass, what
additional information is necessary to calculate the
molarity of the solution?
I. The density of water
IT. The density of the solution
ill. The molar mass of sucrose
(A) I only
(B) IT only
(C) ill only
(D) I and ill
(E) IT and ill

29. When an aqueous solution of NaOH is added to

an aqueous solution of potassium dichromate,
K2Cr207. the dichromate ion is converted to
(A) crO/-
(B) cr02-
(C) Cr3+
(D) Cr203(S)
(E) Cr(OHMs)

30. The energy diagram for the reaction X + Y ~ Z is

shown above. The addition of a catalyst to this reac-
tion would cause a change in which of the indi-
cated energy differences?
(A) I only
(B) IT only
(C) ill only
(D) I and IT only
(E) LIT, and ill

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31. H2C204 + 2 H20 P 2 H30+ + C20l-
Oxalic acid, H2C204, is a diprotic acid with
K1 =
5.36 X 10-2 and K2 = 5.3 x 10-5• For the
reaction above, what is the equilibrium constant?
(A) 5.36 x 10-2
(B) 5.3 x 10-5
(C) 2.8 x 1O~
(D) 1.9 X 10-10
(E) 1.9 x 10-13

32. CH3CH20H boils at 78° C and CH30CH3 boils at

-24° C, although both compounds have the same
composition. This difference in boiling points may
be attributed to a difference in
(A) molecular mass
(B) density
(C) specific heat
(D) hydrogen bonding
(E) heat of combustion

33. A hydrocarbon gas with an empirical formula CH2

has a density of 1.88 grams per liter at 0° C and 1.00
atmosphere. A possible formula for the hydro-
carbon is
(A) CH2
(B) C2~
(C) C3H6
(D) C4Hg
(E) C5HIO

Based on concepts of polarity and hydrogen bonding, which of the following sequences
correctly lists the compounds above in the order of their increasing solubility in water?
(A) Z < Y <X
(B) Y < Z < X
(C) Y <X <Z
(D) X <Z < Y
(E) X < Y < Z

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35. For which of the following processes would M 38. Concentrations of colored substances are commonly
have a negative value? measured by means of a spectrophotometer. Which
of the following would ensure that correct values
1. 2 Fe103(s) ~ 4 Fe(s) + 3 OI(g)
are obtained for the measured absorbance?
II. Mg1• + 2 OH- ~ Mg(OHMs)
1. There must be enough sample in the tube
ill. H2(g) + C2~(g) ~ Cl~(g) to cover the entire light path.
(A) I only II. The instrument must be periodically reset
(B) I and II only using a standard.
(C) I and ill only ill. The solution must be saturated.
(D) II and ill only (A) I only
(E) I,II,and ill (B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and ill only
(E) I, II, and ill
An electrolytic cell based on the reaction repre-
sented above was constructed from zinc and copper 39. Samples of F2 gas and Xe gas are mixed in a
half-cells. The observed voltage was found to be container of fixed volume. The initial partial pres-
1.00 volt instead of the standard cell potential, EO, sure of the F1 gas is 8.0 atmospheres and that of
of 1.10 volts. Which of the following could correctly the Xe gas is 1.7 atmospheres. When all of the Xe
account for this observation? gas reacted, forrning a solid compound, the pres-
(A) The copper electrode was larger than the zinc sure of the unreacted F1 gas was 4.6 atmospheres.
electrode. The temperature remained constant. What is the
(B) The Znl• electrolyte was Zn(N03h, while the formula of the compound?
Cu2• electrolyte was CUS04. (A) XeF
(C) The Zn2• solution was more concentrated than (B) XeF3
the CUI. solution. (C) XeF4
(D) The solutions in the half-cells had different (D) XeF6
volumes. (E) XeFs
(E) The salt bridge contained KCl as the elec-
trolyte.

37. A sample of 3.30 grams of an ideal gas at 150.0°C

and 1.25 atmospheres pressure has a volume of
2.00 liters. What is the molar mass of the gas?
The gas constant, R, is 0.0821 (L· atm)/(mol • K).
(A) 0.0218 gram/mole
(B) 16.2 grams/mole
(C) 37.0 grams/mole
(D) 45.8 grams/mole
(E) 71.6 grams/mole

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 Mass of an empty container
Mass of the container plus
the solid sample 25.0 grams
-T- Volume of the solid sample 11.0 cubic
_hj=.:!61 mm centimeters
Hg(Q) The data above were gathered in order to determine
/ the density of an unknown solid. The density of the
sample should be reported as
Closed-end Manometer
(A) 0.5 g/cm3
(B) 0.50 g/cm3
The system shown above is at equilibrium at 28° C.
At this temperature, the vapor pressure of water is (C) 2.0 g/cm3
28 millimeters of mercury. The partial pressure of (D) 2.00 g/cm3
02( g) in the system is
(E) 2.27 g/cm3
(A) 28 mm Hg
(B) 56 mm Hg
43. Which of the following pairs of compounds are
(C) 133 mm Hg
isomers?
(D) 161 mm Hg
(E) 189 mm Hg

A strip of metallic scandium, Sc, is placed in a

beaker containing concentrated nitric acid. A
brown gas rapidly forms, the scandium disappears,
and the resulting liquid is brown-yellow but
becomes colorless when warmed. These observa-
tions best support which of the following state-
ments?
(A) Nitric acid is a strong acid.
(B) In solution scandium nitrate is yellow and
scandium chloride is colorless.
(C) Nitric acid reacts with metals to form
hydrogen.
(D) Scandium reacts with nitric acid to form a
brown gas.
(E) Scandium and nitric acid react in mole propor-
tions of 1 to 3.
44. Which of the following solutions has the lowest
freezing point?
(A) 0.20 m CJI1206, glucose
(B) 0.20 m NILBr
(C) 0.20 m ZnS04
(D) 0.20 m KMn04
(E) 0.20 m MgCh

. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

45. A sample of an ideal gas is cooled from 50.0° C to 49. The isomerization of cyclopropane to propylene is
25.0° C in a sealed container of constant volume. a first~order process with a half-life of 19 minutes
Which of the following values for the gas will at 500° C. The time it takes for the partial pressure
decrease? of cyclopropane to decrease from 1.0 atmosphere
to 0.125 atmosphere at 500· C is closest to
1. The average molecular mass of the gas
II. The average distance between the molecules (A) 38 minutes
III. The average speed of the molecules (B) 57 minutes
(C) 76 minutes
(A) I only
(D) 152 minutes
(B) II only
(E) 190 minutes
(C) III only
(D) I and III
(E) II and III 50. Which of the following acids can be oxidized to
form a stronger acid?
46. Which of the following solids dissolves in water to (A) H3P04
form a colorless solution?
(B) HN03
(A) CrCb
(C) H2C03
(B) FeCh
(C) CoCll (D) H3B03
(D) CuCh (E) H2S03
(E) ZnCh

47. Which of the following has the lowest conductivity?

(A) 0.1 M CUS04 Equal numbers of moles of HCl and O2 in a closed
(B) 0.1 M KOH system are allowed to reach equilibrium as repre-
(C) 0.1 M BaCh sented by the equation above. Which of the
(D) 0.1 M HF following must be true at equilibrium?
(E) 0.1 M HN03 I. [HCl] must be less than [CI2].
II. [02] must be greater than [HCl].
III. [Ch] must equal [H20].
Some PCb and Ch are mixed in a container at (A) I only
200° C and the system reaches equilibrium (B) II only
according to the equation above. Which of the (C) I and III only
following causes an increase in the number of (D) II and III only
moles of PCls present at equilibrium? (E) I, II, and III
1. Decreasing the volume of the container
II. Raising the temperature
III. Adding a mole of He gas at constant volume
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
(E) I, II, and III
52. When dilute nitric acid was added to a solution of 56. It is suggested that S02 (molar mass 64 grams),
one of the following chemicals, a gas was evolved. which contributes to acid rain, could be removed
This gas turned a drop of limewater, Ca(OHh, from a stream of waste gases by bubbling the gases
cloudy, due to the formation of a white precipitate. through 0.25-molar KOH, thereby producing K2S03•
The chemical was What is the maximum mass of S02 that could be
removed by 1,000. liters of the KOH solution?
(A) household ammonia, NH3
(B) baking soda, NaHC03 (A) 4.0 kg
(C) table salt, NaCI (B) 8.0 kg
(D) epsom salts, MgS04 • 7H20 (C) 16 kg·
(E) bieach, 5% NaOCl (D) 20. kg
(E) 40. kg
If 87 grams of K2S04 (molar mass 174 grams) is
dissolved in enough water to make 250 milliliters 57. Molecules that have planar configurations include
of solution, what are the concentrations of the potas- which of the following?
sium and the sulfate ions? 1. BCh
II. CHCh
[K+] [SO/-]
ill. NCh
(A) 0.020 M 0.020 M (A) I only
(B) l.OM 2.0M (B) ill only
(C) 2.0 M l.0 M
(C) I and II only
(D) 2.0 M 2.0M (D) II and ill only
(E) 4.0 M 2.0M (E) I, II, and ill

54. All of the following statements concerning the

characteristics of the halogens are true EXCEPT:
(A) The first ionization energies (potentials)
decrease as the atomic numbers of the halo-
gens increase.
(B) Fluorine is the best oxidizing agent.
(C) Fluorine atoms have the smallest radii.
(D) Iodine liberates free bromine from a solution
of bromide ion.
(E) Fluorine is the most electronegative of the
halogens.
The reaction indicated above is thermodynamically
spontaneous at 298 K, but becomes nonspontaneous
at higher temperatures. Which of the following is
true at 298 K ?
(A) ,6.G, t:::Jf, and ,6.8 are all positive.
(B) ,6.G, t:::Jf, and ,6.8 are all negative.
(C) ,6.G and t:::Jf are negative, but 68 is positive.
(D) ,6.G and M are negative, but t:::Jf is positive.
(E) ,6.G and t:::Jf are positive, but M is negative.

55. What volume of 0.150-molar HCI is required to

neutralize 25.0 milliliters of 0.120-molar Ba(OH)2 ?
(A) 20.0 mL
(B) 30.0 mL
(C) 40.0 mL
(D) 60.0 mL
(E) 80.0 mL GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE-
59. When a 1.00-gram sample of limestone was 63. What is the maximum mass of copper that could be
dissolved in acid, 0.38 gram of CO2 was generated. plated out by electrolyzing aqueous CuCl2 for
If the rock contained no carbonate other than 16.0 hours at a constant current of 3.00 amperes?
CaC03, what was the percent of CaC03 by mass in =
(l faraday 96,500 coulombs)
the limestone? (A) 28 grams
(A) 17% (B) 57 grams
(B) 51% (C) 64 grams
(C) 64% (D) 114 grams
(D) 86% (E) 128 grams
(E) 100%
64. At 25° C, a sample of NH3 (molar mass 17 grams)
effuses at the rate of 0.050 mole per minute. Under
the same conditions, which of the following gases
According to the data in the table below, what is effuses at approximately one-half that rate?
the value of f::Jl0 for the reaction represented
(A) O2 (molar mass 32 grams)
above?
(B) He (molar mass 4.0 grams)
(C) CO2 (molar mass 44 grams)
Average Bond Energy (D) Cb (molar mass 71 grams)
Bond (kilojoules/mole) (E) C~ (molar mass 16 grams)
I-I 149
CI-CI 239 65. Barium sulfate is LEAST soluble in a O.Ol-molar
I-CI 208 solution of which of the following?
(A) -860 kJ (A) Ah(S04)3
(B) -382 kJ (B) (~)2S04
(C) +180 kJ
(D) +450 kJ (C) Na2S04
(E) +1,248 kJ (D) NH3
(E) BaCh
61. A I-molar solution of which of the following salts
has the highest pH ?
66. What is the pH of a 1.0 x 1O-2-molarsolution of
(A) NaN03 =
HCN ? (Fot HCN, Ka 4.0 x 10-10.)
(B) Na2C03 (A) 10
(C) NaCI (B) Between 7 and 10
(C) 7
(D) NaHS04 (D) Between 4 and 7
(E) Na2S04 (E) 4

62. The electron-dot structure (Lewis structure) for

which of the following molecules would have two
unshared pairs of electrons on the central atom?
(A) H2S
(B) NH3
(C) C~ ~
(D) HCN GO ON TO THE -NEXT PAGE
(E) CO2
67. Substances X and Y that were in a solution were 70. To determine the molar mass of a solid mono-
separated in the laboratory using the technique of protic acid, a student titrated a weighed sample of
fractional crystallization. This fractional crystalliza- the acid with standardized aqueous NaOH. Which
tion is possible because substances X and Y have of the following could explain why the student
different obtained a molar mass that was too large?
(A) boiling points . I. Failure to rinse all acid from the weighing paper
(B) melting points into the titration vessel
(C) densities II. Addition of more water than was needed to
(D) crystal colors dissolve the acid
(E) solubilities III. Addition of some base beyond the equivalence
point
68. Which of the following molecules has a dipole (A) I only
moment of zero? (B) III only
(A) C6H6 (benzene) (C) I and II only
(B) NO (D) II and III only
(C) S02 (E) I, II, and III
(D) NH3
(E) H2S

69. Correct procedures for a titration include which of If 1 mole of O2 oxidizes Fe(0H)2 according to the
the following? reaction represented above, how many moles of
Fe(0H)3 can be formed?
1. Draining a pipet by touching the tip to the side
of the container used for the titration (A) 2
II. Rinsing the buret with distilled water just before (B) 3
(C) 4
filling it with the liquid to be titrated
III. Swirling the solution frequently during the titra- (D) 5
tion (E) 6
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III
72. The nuclide 2::Cm is radioactive and decays by the 74. A solution of calcium hypochlorite, a common
loss of one beta (~-) particle. The product nuclide is additive to swimming-pool water, is
(A) basic because of the hydrolysis of the OCI- ion
(A) 2:~PU (B) basic because Ca(01-n2 is a weak and insoluble
base
(B) 245
A
95 m (C) neutral if the concentration is kept below
0.1 molar
(C) 248C
96 m (D) acidic because of the hydrolysis of the Ca2+
ions
(D) ~~Cm (E) acidic because the acid HOCI is formed
(E) 249
97 B
k
75. A direct-current power supply of low voltage (less
than 10 volts) has lost the markings that indicate
which output terminal is positive and which is
negative. A chemist suggests that the power supply
When 0.40 mole of S02 and 0.60 mole of O2 are
terminals be connected to a pair of platinum elec-
placed in an evacuated 1.00-liter flask, the reaction
trodes that dip into O.l-molar KI solution. Which
represented above occurs. After the reactants
of the following correctly identifies the polarities of
and the product reach equilibrium and the initial
the power supply terminals?
temperature is restored, the flask is found to contain
0.30 mole of S03. Based on these results, the equi- (A) A gas will be evolved only at the positive elec-
librium constant, Kc, for the reaction is trode.
(B) A gas will be evolved only at the negative elec-
(A) 20.
trode.
(B) 10.
(C) A brown color will appear in the solution near
(C) 6.7
the negative electrode.
(D) 2.0
(D) A metal will be deposited on the positive elec-
(E) 1.2
trode.
(E) None of the methods above will identify the
polarities of the power supply terminals.

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION.
DO NOT GO ON TO SECTION IT UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.
 Chapter III .

Answers to the
1994 AP Chemistry Examination

answered an individual question in this section also

Listed below are the correct answers to the multiple- achieved a higher mean score on the test as a whole
choice questions and the percentage of AP candidates than candidates who did not answer that question
who attempted each question and answered it cor- correctly. An answer sheet gridded with the correct
rectly. As a general rule, candidates who correctly responses appears on the next page.

Section I Answer Key and Percent Answering Correctly

Item Correct Percent Item Correct Percent Item Correct Percent

No. Answer Correct No. Answer Correct No. Answer Correct
1 C 26 C 51 D
2 E 27 C 52 B
3 B 28 E 53 E
4 A 29 A 54 D
5 A 30 D 55 C
6 B 31 C 56 B
7 B 32 D 57 A
8 C 33 C 58 B
9 D 34 E 59 D
10 C 35 D 60 B
11 C 36 C 61 B
12 D 37 D 62 A
13 A 38 C 63 B
14 C 39 C 64 D
15 E 40 C 65 A
16 B 41 D 66 D
17 D 42 D 67 E
18 E 43 A 68 A
19 B 44 E 69 C
20 D 45 C 70 A
21 D 46 E 71 C
22 E 47 D 72 E
23 B 48 A 73 A
24 C 49 B 74 A
25 D 50 E 75 B