Contents

INTRODUCTION
PRACTICE TEST 1
PRACTICE TEST 2
PRACTICE TEST 3
PRACTICE TEST 4
PRACTICE TEST 5
ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS
PRACTICE TEST 1 - Answers
PRACTICE TEST 2 - Answers
PRACTICE TEST 3 - Answers
PRACTICE TEST 4 - Answers
PRACTICE TEST 5 - Answers
 INTRODUCTION

So, you want to pass your PMP certification on your first try? Good, you
have come to the right place!
Use these practice tests as the final step to get your certification. Before that,
you should follow these steps:
1st - Grab a book explaining the main PMP concepts in a "friendly" way. Do
the test at the end of each chapter. We recommend:
Rita Mulcahy´s PMP Exam Prep
PMP Project Management Professional Exam - Study Guide - Sybex -
Kim Heldman
The PMP Exam: How to Pass on Your First Try - Andy Crowe
McGraw-Hill Education PMP Project Management Professional Exam
- Henrique Moura
2nd - Then, read and study the PMBOK (be sure to take the latest
edition). Don´t try this first as you will get confused by so many new
processes, inputs, outputs, techniques, etc. (until you are an experienced
project manager...)
Try to do a mental map with all the processes (and their associated
knowledge area). Memorize the input/output for the most used processes.
3rd - Try as many practice tests as possible. Repeat and repeat until you get
over 90% in a consistent way.
Read carefully every explanation.
The practice tests in this book are based on latest PMBOK Edition (6th
Edition). You will find the same type of questions that in the real exam.
Following these steps you can be sure that you will get your PMP
certification on your first try!
Good luck !
JOHN MARKEY

CREDITS: Cover created by Freepik.

PRACTICE TEST 1
1. Herzberg identified factors, which, if present, will lead to increased
motivation. A typical factor would be:
A. Good supervision
B. Job security
C. Regular promotions
D. Good salary

2. Your customer ask for a small change in the project, which was not
budgeted in the project. It is a small effort as compared to the total project
and you need the goodwill for a multimillion dollar on the pipeline. You will
A. Refuse to do the work
B. Agree to do the work at no charge
C. Do the work and bill him later
D. Assess the cost and schedule impact and tell them you will formalize
the change request

3. Your project stakeholder has asked you to create a financial plan for your
project. Preparing a financial plan will require:
A. Program management skills
B. Industry specific skills
C. Financial subject matter expertise
D. Both project management and industry specific skills

4. You are a Project Manager working on a critical project. You track the
project schedule closely. While going through the critical path, you realize
that the project is showing negative float. What is your BEST response to the
situation?
A. Use a schedule compression technique
B. Reduce the number of resources from the project
C. Reduce the number of noncritical activities in the project
D. Revisit the risks and do a risk analysis of the project
5. A Project Manager is in the process of analysing activity sequences,
durations, resources requirements, and schedule constraints to create an
approved project schedule. What should the Project Manager do NEXT?
A. Determine Resource Requirement for each activity in the project
B. Use techniques like Critical Path method and What-if Analysis to
calculate optimum duration of the project
C. Use this approved schedule duration as a baseline and start tracking the
project
D. Create a Network diagram of the project using one of the diagramming
methods

6. To help manage stakeholders’ expectations and reduce scope creep, which

of the following actions can you take?
A. Send emails to stakeholders warning them not to make changes
B. Password protect the scope statement, with 128 bit encryption
C. Explicitly state what is out of scope for the project, in the scope
statement
D. Meet more often with stakeholders

7. As a Project Manager you are estimating the duration of your project

activities using PERT technique (Program Evaluation and Review technique).
For a particular project activity, your optimistic estimate is 41 days,
pessimistic estimate is 89 days, and most likely estimate is 60 days. What
would be the expected duration and range of the estimate for this activity?
A. 61.67 +/- 8.00
B. 31.27 +/-8.00
C. 61.67 +/-3.00
D. 31.27 +/-3.00

8. An AON (Activity on Node) diagram is also known as?

A. PDM
 B. Activity on Arrow
C. PERT
D. GERT

9. Which of the following is true statement about risks?

A. If a risk is identified in a risk response plan, then that means that risk
has already happened
B. Once a risk has happened, you refer to the risk management plan to
determine what action needs to be taken
C. A risk that was not planned but has happened is called a trigger
D. Risk identification happens in all the phases of the project.

10. Which of the following is not true about the Close Project or Phase
process?
A. Contract closeout must be performed after the Administrative
Closeout
B. The risk is the lowest at this stage of the project
C. The probability of completion is the highest at this stage of the project
D. Stakeholders have least amount of influence at this stage.

11. A project manager is confused about the perspective of the buyer-seller

relationship in the context of project procurement management. How would
your clarify this?
A. The buyer-seller relationship exists only between organizations
external to the acquiring organization
B. The buyer-seller relationship exists only between organizations
internal to the acquiring organization
C. The buyer-seller relationship is applicable only when a performing
organization is involved
D. The buyer-seller relationship can exist at many levels on one project,
and between organizations internal to and external to the acquiring
organization.
12. In a WBS (Work Breakdown Structure), what is the numbering system
(e.g. 1.1, 1.1.1, 1.1.4, etc.) called?
A. The Chart of Accounts
B. The Code of Accounts
C. The Requirements Traceability Matrix
D. Activity Attributes

13. Which of the following is an output of the Identify Risks process.

A. Lessons Learned
B. Checklists
C. Risk Register
D. SWOT Analysis

14. Project Governance refers to which of the following?

A. The inputs, tools and techniques and outputs used by the Project
Manager in order to create a unique product, service, or result to meet
organizational, strategic, and operational goals
B. The framework, functions, and processes that guide project
management activities in order to create a unique product, service, or
result to meet organizational, strategic, and operational goals
C. The policies, processes and procedures that guide project management
activities in order to create a unique product, service, or result to meet
organizational, strategic, and operational goals
D. The framework, functions, and processes that guide project
management offices to create a unique product, service, or result to
meet organizational, strategic, and operational goals.

15. Which Interpersonal and Team Skill is most likely required for the
Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?
A. Facilitation
B. Conflict management
C. Networking
D. Observation/conversation
16. In which process of Project Risk Management knowledge area are
numeric values assigned to probabilities and impact of risks
A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
C. Perform Numeric Risk Analysis
D. Plan Risk Response

17. In which type of organization is the Project Manager most likely to have
full-time project management administration staff?
A. Project-oriented
B. Organic
C. Balanced matrix
D. Hybrid

18. The PMO (Project Management Office) in your organization, directly

controls all projects by using PMO staff to manage them. What type of PMO
is this?
A. Controlling
B. Supportive
C. Commanding
D. Directive

19. A key output of the Identify Stakeholders process is

A. A Change log
B. An agreement
C. A risk management plan
D. A stakeholder register

20. Which of the following means the work performed to deliver a product,
service or result?
 A. Project charter
B. Statement of Work (SOW)
C. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
D. Project Scope

21. Who is responsible for ensuring that the information is received in its
entirety?
A. The Project Manager
B. The Knowledge Librarian
C. The information sender
D. The information receiver

22. Which of the below reflects the correct meaning of a sole source seller?
A. A single seller approaches the buyer with a high discount and the
buyer selects that seller
B. The vendor is just one person
C. Only one seller is asked to prepare the proposal, followed by
negotiation
D. The vendor sells just one product

23. You are the project manager of XYZ project. One of the risks that has
been identifies is attrition of team members. Mid-way through the project you
notice that the morale and motivation of the team members is going down.
You think that this is a precursor to people leaving the organization. For this
risk, low motivation is an example of
A. Work-around
B. Trigger
C. Risk monitoring
D. Risk planning

24. The customer of a large aerospace project that you are managing, calls an
urgent meeting with you. The project is intended to land a manned spaceship
on the surface of Venus. But during the meeting you are told that the project
timeline was planned as too long and has to be cut short by one month. What
should you do as project manager to meet the new date?
A. Ask the customer for more money
B. Discuss the situation with senior management
C. Fast track critical tasks
D. Use expert judgment to confirm the new date

25. The Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct has as its foundation four
values identified by practitioners from the global project management
community. They are:
A. Respect, fairness, transparency and freedom
B. Responsibility, transparency, fairness and honesty
C. Respect, freedom, honesty and transparency
D. Responsibility, respect, fairness and honesty

26. You are working on the project of painting of your house. You identify a
dependency that the painting of roof should begin only after two days of
completion of painting of walls. This is an example of:
A. Lag
B. Lead
C. Slack
D. Float

27. Which of the following is incorrect regarding a bidders conference?

A. Questions from each seller should be handled confidentially and not
shared with other sellers
B. No bidders should receive preferential treatment, even if they are part
of the company’s existing list of approved suppliers
C. Bidders conferences should not involve individual face-to-face
meetings
D. All prospective sellers should be allowed to have a common
understanding of the procurement.
28. You are fairly new to project management, but have been successfully
managing a small project and now management has given you another project
to manage, which you are excited about. However, the new project is
growing exponentially every day, you have also learned a project manager
you work with managed a similar project last year. What should you do?
A. Wait to see if the scope of the project continues to grow
B. Get the project assigned to the PM who managed the similar project
C. Obtain Historical Records and get guidance from the project manager
D. Speak to the other project manager to develop your project plans

29. You are the Project Manager of a car manufacturing company. As part of
Quality Control you decide to check only 5% of the cars generated for
environmental check. Which technique are you using?
A. Pareto Diagram
B. Control Charts
C. Statistical Sampling
D. Sample Selection

30. Richard is employed as a Project Manager with a software company, and

he is currently managing a project for the local police department. The
project will use Deep Learning to compare information from local, interstate
and international databases, some of which are external to the police, to build
a profile of people and uncover problems in their background. George is
somewhat preoccupied with making friends in the local community. He is
planning a testing phase for the project, and it suddenly occurs to him that he
could profile three of such friends without informing them, and that way he
could find one who has a good character. Is this a proper approach?
A. This is ok, he has to test the system, and these three people might have
been picked up on a random sample, anyway
B. This could be unethical as it might break the local privacy law
C. It’s ok as long as he doesn’t tell the people who failed the background
check
 D. This is unethical because a Project Manager should not be testing the
system. He should give the names to someone else to check them.

31. You are working with your team and are looking at the cost risks in the
project. You are your team are currently creating a tornado diagram for the
project risks. This is done as a part of which of the following processes?
A. Qualitative Risk Analysis
B. Risk Response Planning
C. Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Monitor Risks

32. Your current project phase has 8 activities, A - H. A and E can start at the
same time. A must finish before B starts. B must finish before C and F start.
C must finish before D starts. E must finish before F and G start. F and G
must finish before H starts. C and H must finish before D starts. Duration of:
A = 5 B = 8 C = 15 D = 10 E = 6 F = 9 G = 19 H = 5 What is the late start of
activity F?
A. 8
B. 23
C. 24
D. 33

33. The document that formally authorizes a project is the:

A. Project SOW
B. Project Plan
C. Project Charter
D. Project Scope Statement

34. An example of a hierarchical list of team and physical resources related

by category and resource type is known as:
A. Organizational Chart
B. Work Breakdown Structure
 C. Resource Breakdown Structure
D. RACI matrix

35. The organization’s Governance Framework does not include:

A. Policies and procedures
B. Relationships and norms
C. Rules, and penalties for breaking rules
D. Systems and Processes

36. During a presentation to management, you want to display the project

schedule with only the key deliverables displayed. What is the correct tool for
this purpose?
A. Project schedule network diagram
B. Critical path network
C. Milestone chart
D. Critical chain diagram

37. As part of your project, 100,000 steel pushrods are to be manufactured.

The rods are critically important and so they will require destructive testing.
What is the best way to accomplish this?
A. The quality is critical, so, you must test every rod.
B. Test one in each 100
C. Test the first 10 of each 1000
D. Test a statistical sample

38. The Risk Register contains details of all identified risks and current
status. It is a document containing the results of:
A. Plan Risk Responses
B. Identify Risks
C. Monitor Risks
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, Perform Quantitative Risk
Analysis and Plan Risk Responses
39. A collection of related projects that are managed in a coordinated way to
obtain benefits is called a:
A. Suite
B. Program
C. Portfolio
D. Colocation

40. What percentage of Project Manager's time is spent on communicating?

A. 30
B. 50
C. 70
D. 90

41. You are the Project Manager for ABC project. The scope of the project
has been completed. You receive a request for a new module to be developed
as part of this project. What should you do next?
A. You should approach the Project sponsor and ask her for a new
module to be developed as part of this project
B. You should approach the Senior Management and ask them for a new
module to be developed as part of this project
C. You should send the request to Change Control Board for approval
D. Since the project scope is completed you should inform the customer
that this change cannot be done as part of the project.

42. Which of the following suggests that you are a Theory Y manager?
A. You expect the team members to self-direct their work, and you
provide just general guidance
B. You micro-manage the team
C. You give the team a big pep-talk in the mornings
D. You are an expert in the product of the project
43. Which of these is not an example of a project?
A. Buying clothes from the market on a special sale
B. Planning for your friends wedding
C. Building a bridge across the Amazon river
D. Cleaning the office building every day.

44. Cost baseline is usually represented using which curve or line?

A. A Slanted line
B. An S-curve
C. A Z curve
D. A PQ curve

45. You are performing Earned Value Reporting for your project. The
project's CPI is 0.9 and the budget at completion is One thousand dollars.
What is the estimated cost at completion?
A. Nine hundred dollars
B. One thousand one hundred and eleven dollars
C. One thousand dollars
D. One thousand and one hundred dollars

46. Activity Attributes may be used for all of the following except?
A. To derive necessary sequence of activities
B. To include leads and lags
C. To indicate the control account
D. To derive the logical relationships

47. You are attending the first project status meeting and people are using the
term backlog frequently. What does this backlog contain?
A. The requirements of the agile prototype product
B. Description of various releases of the project
C. The high risk requirements of the product owner
D. The project requirements
48. Which of the below is a likely reason for conflict between portfolios,
programs, projects, and operations?
A. They often engage with the same stakeholders and may need to use the
same resources
B. They are led by managers who have competing aims
C. Portfolios can include programs, projects, and operations, and that
makes the program managers, project managers, and operations
managers feel unimportant
D. They usually come from various organizations

49. Which is not a tool & technique of Conduct Procurements?

A. Expert judgement
B. Proposal evaluation
C. Negotiation
D. Trend Analysis

50. Which of the following best describes Plan Stakeholder Management

process?
A. Creation and maintenance of relationships between the project team
and stakeholders
B. Preventing negative stakeholders from derailing the project
C. Striking a balance between stakeholder needs and project needs
D. Focuses on from the creation of the stakeholder management strategy

51. What is a work breakdown structure?

A. A hierarchically-organized depiction of the project organization
B. A hierarchical structure of resource categories
C. A hierarchical representation of project risks
D. A deliverables-oriented decomposition of the project work

52. What is the name of the diagram displayed below?

 A. Flowchart diagram
B. Ishikawa diagram
C. Wishywashy diagram
D. Fish diagram

53. You are using control charts to perform quality control. Which of these
situations does not indicate that the process is out of control and an
assignable cause needs to be assigned. Assume that the control limits have
been set to three sigma.
A. One of the point is more than the mean + (3*sigma)
B. Two points together are more than mean +(2*sigma), but less than
mean + (3*sigma)
C. Seven points together are on one side of the mean
D. Three points are on one side of the mean

54. The PMBOK® Guide is an example of which of the following?

A. A project management methodology
B. A standard
C. A regulation
D. A university textbook
55. You are a project manager in a strong matrix organization. A team
member on the project is consistently delivering her work packages late and
below the required quality standards. The issue has been discussed with her
several times already but no improvement has been visible. As the project
manager you decide that it is time to employ coercive power. What measure
will you implement?
A. You punish her by removing the privilege to work from home for two
days per week
B. You bargain with her to give her better assignments if she performs
C. You discuss the situation with her line manager
D. You ask the human resources department to step in

56. With respect to updates of project documents, which is true for the project
manager?
A. Updates the Project Management Plan, Project Documents and
Business Documents
B. Updates the Project Management Plan and Project Documents but not
the Business Documents
C. Updates the Project Management Plan, and Business Documents but
not the Project Documents
D. Updates the Business Documents and Project Documents, but not the
Project Management Plan.

57. While searching through a box of her company’s organizational process

assets, Chloe finds a recent fragment network. What is Florence most likely
to use a fragment network for while managing her project?
A. Holding incomplete sub-plans
B. Creating a PDM (Precedence Diagramming Method) chart
C. Creating a WBS
D. Creating a Gantt Chart

58. An outcome of actions, behaviours, products, services, or results that

provide value to the sponsoring organization, are called the:
A. Benefits
B. Advantages
C. Products, services or results
D. Values

59. You are managing a project and discover a small but extremely urgent
change that is required to improve project performance. Key team members
have confirmed that the change will not affect the baselines. You next action
will be:
A. As this is urgent and simple, you can authorise the change yourself,
because it will not impact the baselines
B. Raise a change request and wait for approval, because all changes must
be authorized by the CCB (Change Control Board)
C. Insist that the team works harder to improve performance
D. Ask the project Sponsor if you can make the change

60. Which one of the following is not a Tool & Technique of Monitor and
Control Project Work?
A. Earned value analysis
B. Root cause analysis
C. Variance analysis
D. Brainstorming

61. Mike needs to visit many countries as part of his job. He has learned that
he needs to avoid being ethno-centric. What does ethnocentrism mean?
A. Not being friendly to strangers
B. Unable to get adjusted to the food of a new place
C. Belief that ones culture is superior to others
D. Initial shock of landing in a new country.

62. You are working on a project to build a bridge. You have reached the
planned half way mark. The total planned cost at this stage is five hundred
dollars. The actual physical work that has been completed at this stage is
worth $400. You have already spent one thousand dollars on the project.
What is the Schedule Variance?
A. -100
B. 100
C. -600
D. 600

63. How many critical paths can a project have?

A. Only 1
B. Not more than 2
C. Not more than 3
D. Can be more than 3 also

64. A CPIF (cost-plus-incentive-fee) contract has an estimated cost to the

seller of $165,000, and an Incentive fee of $13,500 has been negotiated. By
the end of the contract, the seller's actual costs are $147,350. What is the
seller's profit if the share ratio is 70/30?
A. 18795
B. 25855
C. 18975
D. 166145

65. You are developing your project's Human Resource Management Plan.
Your sponsor asked you to take the historical information from previous
projects to determine this project's human resource roles and responsibilities.
Which of the following sources contains this information?
A. Organizational Process Assets
B. Enterprise Environmental Factors
C. Project Management Plan
D. Project Charter
66. You are currently determining the budget for your project. You have used
the Bottom-Up and PERT Three-Point cost estimation techniques to estimate
the costs of your project work packages. You have rolled up the costs of these
work packages into a total cost of $50 Million. Your management has
approved a $5 Million contingency reserve and a $3 Million management
reserve for this project. What is your project cost baseline?
A. $50 Million
B. $53 Million
C. $55 Million
D. $58 Million

67. The Delphi Method is best suited for:

A. Decision-making
B. Cost Control
C. Overhead rate estimating
D. Team discussions

68. Which of the following methods is least likely to be used for explaining
project planning guidelines to the team?
A. Project Office Memo
B. Project office directive
C. Project team meeting
D. Formal project report

69. Acquire Resources is “the process of obtaining team members, facilities,

equipment, materials, supplies, and other resources necessary to complete
project work.” What resources does Control Resources control?
A. Team members and physical resources
B. Just team resources
C. Just physical resources
D. Either, depending upon the project context.
70. You are planning to use screening system for source selection process to
select a vendor for supplying food for your company? Which of these is a
good example of screening system?
A. You interview all the vendors and decide based upon the interviews
B. You negotiate with all the vendors and select the one that provides the
best price
C. You only consider those vendors who have revenue of ten million
dollars in the last financial year
D. You select the vendor who responds first to your advertisement.

71. Mike is the project manager for an offshore drilling Project. The project is
behind schedule and he has requested approval to crash the critical path. This
process adds more of what?
A. Schedule
B. Cost
C. Risk
D. Resources

72. If a Project Manager is authentic, it means that they:

A. Always tell the truth, no matter what the circumstances
B. Accept others for what and who they are, and show open concern
C. Are a genuine PMP® certified Project Manager
D. Always perform highly accurate work

73. Which of the following may be used as a risk transference tool?

A. Benefits Management Plan
B. Memorandum of understanding
C. Quotation
D. Contract

74. Understanding the strategic objectives of a project to ensure the

alignment of the project objectives and results with those of the portfolio,
program, and business areas, and contributing to the execution of the
strategy, is a key part of which role?
A. Project Manager
B. Program manager
C. Project Board
D. Project Support

75. When undertaking a new project, a Project Manager should begin by:
A. Interviewing all prospective team members
B. Reviewing the Enterprise Environmental Factors and Organizational
Process Assets
C. Reviewing the vision, mission, and objectives of the organization, to
ensure the products are aligned.
D. Reviewing the project Management Plan

76. Projects are initiated in response of:

A. Stakeholder's pressure
B. Business needs
C. Technological obsolescence
D. All of the above

77. Which of the following is usually not one of the 4 categories of factors
for initiating projects?
A. Analyzing and deciding which project would be more profitable
among a set of projects
B. Satisfy stakeholder requests or needs
C. Implement or change business or technological strategies
D. Create, improve, or fix products, processes, or services.

78. The optimistic time estimate for an activity is 11 days, pessimistic is 25

days, and most likely is 15 days. What is the expected time for this activity?
 A. 16 days
B. 15 days
C. 21 days
D. 18 days

79. The party that needs the change resulting from the project, and who will
be its custodian on completion is the:
A. Owner
B. Sponsor
C. Customer
D. Client

80. There are a number of risks that have been identified in your project. The
team has elected not to change the project plan to deal with the risk, but they
have established a contingency reserve of money in the event some of these
risks are triggered. This is an example of what type of risk mitigation
technique?
A. Contingent Response Strategy
B. Active acceptance
C. Passive acceptance
D. Avoidance

81. Your team is attempting to improve the design of the product from a
reliability and safety perspective. Which of the below techniques would you
recommend?
A. Design of experiments
B. Product analysis
C. Alternatives analysis
D. Design for excellence

82. Which of these processes is NOT a Project Schedule Management

process?
 A. Create WBS
B. Develop Schedule
C. Define Activities
D. Sequence Activities

83. A knowledge fair is in progress in your project where discussions are on

in various stalls to share knowledge and create new knowledge. In the past,
job shadowing was used for the same purpose. What category of tools are
these part of?
A. Information management
B. Knowledge management
C. Knowledge café management
D. Knowledge fair management

84. Which of the following processes gives the project management team
insights into the health of the project?
A. Develop Project Management Plan
B. Perform Integrated Change Control
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Determine Budget

85. Which one of the following is not a valid evaluation criterion for source
selection?
A. Staff’s nationality
B. Capability and capacity of the seller
C. Product cost and life cycle cost
D. Key staff’s qualifications, availability, and competence

86. A project to build a road has a budget of $10M and is expected to be

completed in 10 months, with the expectation that the actual costs would be
the same each month, because is the similarity of the work each month.
However, at the end of the second month, 5% of the work has been
completed, and 1M has been spent. What is the total project now expected to
cost and how long should it take?
A. $10M and 10 months
B. $18M and 36 months
C. $19M and 38 months
D. $20M and 40 months

87. You are at work related social event and a colleague tells you another
project manager has just hired her son’s engineering firm for a city public
improvement project that you are managing. You know that this company’s
proposal did not meet the pre-defined selection criteria to be considered for
award. What do you do?
A. File a complaint with PMI
B. Escalate the issue to the appropriate management
C. Ask the project manager about what you have just heard. If your
suspicions are confirmed, escalate the issue to the appropriate
management
D. Do nothing.

88. You are managing a project for your company constructing an office
complex in another country. The construction work on 2 of the buildings is
complete and is ready for move-in. However, the construction foreman
informs you that a fee must be paid to a local government agency in order to
be issued an occupancy permit for all new construction in that country. What
should you do?
A. Pay the fee
B. Ask your legal department if this is legal
C. Notify project stakeholders that you have been asked to pay a bribe
D. Do not pay the fee.

89. You are the sponsor of a project that is designed to record phone calls for
quality control purposes. You are in the process of writing the charter, what is
NOT an input into this document?
 A. Organizational standard processes
B. Marketplace conditions
C. Government or industry standards
D. Project Scope Statement

90. The WBS structure can be created in a number of forms except which of
the following?
A. Using work packages as the second level of decomposition, with the
project deliverables inserted at the third level
B. Using major deliverables as the second level of decomposition
C. Using phases of the project life cycle as the second level of
decomposition, with the product and project deliverables inserted at the
third level
D. Using subcomponents which may be developed by organizations
outside the project team, such as contracted work.

91. A typical title for a Project Manager in a weak matrix structure is:
A. Project Coordinator
B. Project Manager
C. Project Leader
D. Program Manager

92. A Project Sponsor appointed a Project Manager to a new project and

asked him to get started immediately, even before the charter got approved.
What should the Project Manager do?
A. Push to create and approve the charter
B. Start with the team ramp-up and planning
C. Ask some other Project Manager to take over the project
D. Start the critical activities

93. A project team is working on initiating a project. Which of the following

options is NOT true about this situation?
 A. The Sponsor is developing the project charter
B. The Project Manager is developing the project charter
C. The Project manager is participating in the development of the project
charter
D. The Sponsor and the Project Manager together are developing the
project charter

94. One phase is planned at any given time, and the planning for the next is
carried out as work progresses on the current phase and deliverables. Which
of the following correctly defines the above text?
A. Overlapping relationship
B. Sequential relationship
C. Multi-phase relationship
D. Iterative relationship

95. Before committing to a larger portion of the project scope, the buyer of a
product or service will frequently implement a ...?
A. Logistics approach
B. Long lead time
C. Managed supply chain
D. Trial engagement

96. Which of the following is not a Tool & Technique of Define Activities?
A. Decomposition
B. Rolling Wave Planning
C. Milestones
D. Expert Judgment

97. The sender of a message is responsible for:

A. Confirming the message is understood
B. Ensuring the receiver agrees with the message
C. Scheduling communication exchange
 D. Presenting the message in the most agreeable manner

98. Change requests can occur due to:

A. An external event such as a change in government regulation.
B. An error or omission in defining the scope of the product.
C. An error or omission in defining the scope of the project.
D. all of the above

99. You are using straight line depreciation to compute the value of your
computer after three years. If the current cost is $1000, what will be the value
after three years assuming that the computer's life is five years.
A. $0
B. $400
C. $500
D. $600

100. You are the project manager in a company where you have maximum
authority. To which organizational structure does your company belong?
A. Functional
B. Weak Matrix
C. Strong Matrix
D. Projectized
PRACTICE TEST 2
1. A Project Manager is working on planning a project that requires review
and oversight for a number of technically complex tasks. Who should
identify the specific resources for performing the reviews?
A. The Project Manager
B. The Project Sponsor
C. Functional Managers
D. Customer

2. An output from the Develop Project Management Plan process is?

A. Project Schedule
B. Project management plan
C. Business Case
D. Activity List

3. As a project manager for a construction company, you are responsible to

Define Scope, Define Activities, Develop Schedule, and Determine Budget.
These responsibilities are performed as part of:
A. Closing
B. Initiating
C. Planning
D. Monitoring and Controlling

4. Which of the following statement is correct?

A. Process Groups are same as Project Phases
B. Each Process Group has a mapped Project Phase
C. Process Groups are not Project Phases
D. Monitoring and Control Process Group applies only in monitoring and
control phase

5. A project activity has the following values for the earliest and latest it can
start and the earliest and latest it can be completed. An activity's Late Start
(LS) is 5/day and Late Finish is (LF) 10/day. Similarly Early Start (ES) is
3/day and Early finish (EF) is 8/day. What is the float of this activity?
A. 0 days
B. 4 days
C. 2 days
D. -3 days

6. The project schedule network diagram is an input to creating the

A. Project schedule
B. Risk management plan
C. Project budget
D. Risk register

7. The purpose of the review of deliverables and project performance at the

conclusion of a project phase is to:
A. Determine how many resources are required to complete the project
according to the project baseline
B. Adjust the schedule and cost baselines based on past performance
C. Obtain customer acceptance of project deliverables
D. Determine whether the project should continue to the next phase

8. A project manager has to manage different stakeholder expectations.

Project sponsor and customer are two very important stakeholders in any
project. In this context, which of the following is NOT the responsibility of
both the project sponsor and the customer?
A. Take into account risk tolerance
B. Provide key events, milestones, and deliverable due dates
C. Formally accept the product of the project
D. Provide financial resources for the project

9. An activity cannot be started until the predecessor also starts. This is an

example of:
 A. Finish-to-Start
B. Finish-to-Finish
C. Start-to-Start
D. Start-to-Finish

10. The sending or conveying of information from one place to another is the
process of:
A. Networking
B. Transmitting
C. Encrypting
D. Promoting

11. In your organization, all big technical projects go through Initiate,

Analyze, Design, Implement, Test, and Closeout. In this context, a project
life cycle:
A. Defines the product life cycle
B. Defines the project phases
C. Contains several product life cycles
D. Has deliverables that must be completed before work starts on the
next phase

12. A Project Manager understands the information needs of important

stakeholders and documents how they would be met. Which document is
being prepared?
A. Stakeholder register
B. Stakeholder management plan
C. Human resources management plan
D. Communications management plan

13. The three major types of communication are:

A. Written and oral, and verbal and nonverbal.
B. Verbal, formal documentation, informal documentation.
 C. Verbal, written, and graphic.
D. Verbal, written, and electronic.

14. Which of the following statements is NOT true about a project life cycle?
A. All project life cycles are usually identical.
B. The level of risk is highest at the start of the project and decreases as
the project progresses.
C. The ability of the stakeholders to influence the final characteristics is
highest at the start and gets progressively lower as the project
continues.
D. Cost and staffing requirements usually peak during the intermediate
phases

15. Which of the following is not used to measure a project team's

performance?
A. Technical success according to agreed-upon project objectives
B. Performance as pertains to the project schedule
C. Technical success in obtaining necessary skill certifications for project
work
D. Performance as pertains to the project budget

16. According to the Herzberg's Motivation Hygiene Theory, which of the

following is a hygiene factor?
A. Achievement
B. Good Working Conditions
C. Recognition
D. Career Advancement

17. You are managing a project which would provide e-learning solutions to
your customer. The requirements of this project are not clearly defined in the
beginning, and there would be modifications based on customer feedback as
the project evolves. You decide to plan as much as you can and begin to
create work while continuing the planning. Which of the following
techniques would be the most helpful while defining activities for the
project?
A. Rolling Wave Planning
B. Templates
C. Extreme Programming
D. Just in Time

18. You are managing the project of planning a party for your company
employees. There is a risk that the employees will not come to the party. You
decide to not take any action against this as the likely-hood of this is low.
Which risk response strategy are you following?
A. Acceptance
B. Avoidance
C. Mitigation
D. Transference

19. The three major causes of change on a project are:

A. Replacement of the project manager or key project team members;
changes in priorities by senior management; and contractual
difficulties..
B. Changes in the relative importance of time, resources, or cost ; new
knowledge about the deliverable; and technological uncertainty
C. Errors in the initial assessment of how to achieve the goal of the
project; new information about the project deliverable; and a new
mandate
D. Unavailability of resources promised by the functional managers; cost
overruns; and changes in customer requirements

20. Which of the following is not an input to the Conduct Procurements

process?
A. Source selection criteria
B. Make-or-buy decisions
 C. Organizational process assets
D. WBS

21. According to Philip Crosby, which of the following is a correct statement

about quality?
A. Quality inspection and correction is preferable to defect prevention
B. The system of quality is Defect Control
C. The measurement of quality is the price of conformance
D. The quality standard is zero defects

22. You are the Project Manager of a project involving building a computer.
Your team members follow what you tell them because you have the
authority to provide negative feedback in their performance appraisal. This is
an example of which type of power?
A. Coercive
B. Referent
C. Formal
D. Reward

23. Which of the following best describes the purpose of a war room?
A. A war room is used for meetings between the Project Manager and
the customer
B. A war room is used for important meetings between the Project team
and the senior management
C. A war room is used for collocation
D. Whenever there is a resource conflict between different Project
Managers, they meet in a war room.

24. The process of Conduct Procurements is part of which phase?

A. Planning
B. Execution
C. Control
 D. Closure

25. Which of these is a tool for Develop Project Charter process?

A. Project selection methods
B. Project management methodology
C. Expert Judgment
D. Earned Value Technique

26. You are the Project Manager of ABC project. There was a conflict
between two key project members. The three of you meet and decide to use
compromise as the conflict resolution technique. Compromise generally leads
to
A. Win-win situation
B. Win-Lose situation
C. Lose-Lose situation
D. None of these

27. Bids, tenders and quotes are other names for what?
A. Proposals
B. Make-or-buy decisions
C. Buyer responses
D. Pre-bid conferences

28. You are in the process of Source Selection for a contract for your project.
You are planning to use weighing process for source selection. There are four
vendors being considered. There are two deciding factors price (weightage
40), quality (weightage 60). The scores of four vendors that your team has
computed are displayed in the table below. Which vendor will among these
four should be chosen?
A. Vendor 1
B. Vendor 2
C. Vendor 3
 D. Vendor 4

Vendor 1Vendor 2Vendor 3Vendor 4

Price 8 10 12 11
Quality 12 10 8 11

29. Which of the following indicate that the project is doing well? Select the
best option.
A. A negative Cost Variance
B. An SPI of less than one
C. A negative schedule variance
D. A CPI of greater than one.

30. In which form of contract will the cost risk lie with the seller?
A. CPIF
B. T and M
C. CPAF
D. FP

31. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Close

Procurements and the Close Project or Phase processes?
A. Procurement closure involves verification that all work and
deliverables are acceptable, where Close Project or Phase does not
B. Close Project or Phase is only a subset of Close Procurements
C. Procurement closure means verifying that the procured work is
complete or terminated. Close Project or Phase is the process of tying
up and closing all of the activities for every project management
process group
D. Procurement closure is performed by the seller. Close Project or Phase
is performed by the buyer
32. While responding to a procurement request, the seller outlined the
detailed technical solution, provided a handful of past customer references,
and also made a detailed commercial offer. Which procurement document
would the seller most likely respond to?
A. Request for Quotation
B. Request for Proposal
C. Invitation for Bid
D. Bidder conference invitation

33. Which of the following statements about critical path is TRUE?

A. It is the shortest path from start to finish
B. All the activities on the critical path do not have any float
C. A project will have only one critical path
D. A critical path takes into consideration logical as well as resource
dependencies

34. The estimating technique that uses the statistical relationship between the
historical data and other variables to calculate an estimate for an activity is
called:
A. Analogous Estimating
B. Parametric Estimating
C. Three Point Estimating
D. Monte Carlo technique

35. You are on a team that has five members including you. How many
communication channels do you personally have?
A. 5
B. 4
C. 10
D. 12

36. You are in the process of implementing approved changes, corrective

actions, preventive action, and defect repairs in the project. In which of the
following process groups are you in?
A. Initiation
B. Planning
C. Execution
D. Monitor and Control

37. You are a Project Manager in the early phase of estimating the cost of the
project. You use the analogous method of estimating and have come up with
the rough order of magnitude. While presenting it to your sponsor and
stakeholders, one of the stakeholders asks if you have also done lifecycle
costing for the project. What is your BEST response?
A. Project Cost estimating is primarily concerned with cost of the
resources needed to complete the project and needn't consider any
other costs
B. Since it is the initial stage of the project, cost details required for
lifecycle costing of the project are not available and hence it is not
relevant
C. Lifecycle costing provides the lowest long-term cost of ownership and
should be used as a management decision tool, in case of alternatives
D. Lifecycle costing should be done by the Project Sponsor as it impacts
long-term business decisions

38. Which of the following is an example of Lead?

A. Pillars for a structure can be started 7 days after the foundation to
allow for curing
B. Test lab preparation can start 5 days before a product is made available
for test
C. Both test planning and product development can start simultaneously
after the design is finalized
D. Crash tests cannot be carried out until a working final model is made
available
39. A Project Manager realizes that a lot of time and effort are spent by his
team in capturing the data during product testing. Which is the best option to
address the issue?
A. Stop capturing the data as it doesn't add any value to the project
activity
B. Allocate a time at the end of the day to update all the data together
C. Ask for an additional resource to capture project data
D. Automate the data capturing process

40. There is only one output to the Plan Risk Management process. Which of
the following is this output?
A. Risk Register
B. Risk Management Plan
C. Risk Related Contractual Agreements
D. Organizational Process Assets Updates

41. You are a Project Manager taking over a project midway. It is in the
execution phase. You would like to know more about project deliverables,
work required to complete those deliverables, project constraints,
assumptions, etc. Which of the following documents would be MOST useful?
A. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
B. Requirements Documentation
C. Activity List
D. Project Scope Statement

42. Which of the following is an output of the Direct and Manage project
work process?
A. Project Charter updates
B. Work performance information
C. Approved change requests
D. Change requests
43. According to Maslow's Hierarchy of needs, what comes HIGHEST on the
pyramid?
A. Social
B. Safety
C. Physiological
D. Hygiene Factors

44. A project is relying on a contractor to deliver a component. The

contractor informs the Project Manager about the likelihood of a 3-week
delay in the delivery date. What should the Project Manager do?
A. Meet with the team to discuss the issue
B. Escalate the matter to the senior management of the contractor as per
the escalation matrix
C. Issue a formal show-cause notice asking why the contract should not
be submitted
D. Inform the senior management and the customer about the possibility
of delay to the overall project due to the delayed component

45. You are managing a large project team that has some new members
joining. You would like to take the entire team through the project schedule
and update them on where the project stands with respect to the original plan.
Which of the following charts would be most helpful for this purpose?
A. Gantt Chart
B. Milestone Chart
C. Work Breakdown structure
D. Schedule Baseline

46. A Project Manager is going through the defect report reviewing the bugs
reported during the testing cycle of a software project. The report has
information on the severity of the bugs, origin of the bugs, and possible
resolutions, along with the owner and reporter of the bugs. The Project
Manager wants to prioritize the bug fixing activities by evaluating the three
most frequent reasons for the defects. Which of the following tools should the
Project Manager use?
A. Control chart
B. Fishbone diagram
C. Scatter diagram
D. Pareto chart

47. A team is complaining that every quality audit invariably audits its
module, but other modules are not audited at the same frequency. What is the
best explanation that can be provided?
A. A module gets audited more frequently because it has maximum issues
B. A module may get audited more because it is the most critical
C. Modules to be audited are picked up based on the quality management
plan
D. Next time, make sure that all modules get audited at the same
frequency

48. You are a Project Manager in a financial firm with multinational dealings.
You feel the financial meltdown in one of the client's countries could affect
your project adversely, and you want to hedge your risks. Although the
probability of occurrence of the event is low, you are advised to play it safe.
In terms of risk attitude, your organization could BEST be described as:
A. Risk Seeker
B. Risk Averse
C. Risk Neutral
D. Risk Mitigator

49. Which of the following is NOT a tool used in the perform of the
qualitative risk analysis process?
A. Probability and Impact Matrix
B. Risk Prioritization
C. Monte Carlo Simulation
D. Root cause identification
50. What is Quality according to the PMBOK® Guide?
A. The degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfill
requirements
B. The customer's need to be involved in the process
C. The process of identifying which quality standards are relevant to the
project
D. Quality is inspected not built into a result

51. You are managing a hotel construction project. You are doing great in
terms of the project schedule but you feel you may be over budget. You ask
your project team to calculate the current earned value metrics to determine
the project performance. Your team reports back that the project's TCPI
based on BAC is 0.9. Which of the following is true regarding your project's
current situation as reflected by this TCPI value?
A. You are within your budget
B. You are over budget
C. You are behind schedule
D. You are ahead of schedule

52. A Project Manager is planning a project, and he is creating a plan to

describe how human resource requirements in the project would be met. He is
using a bar chart tool called a Resource Histogram for charting this
requirement. However, he notices that some of the individual bars in the
Resource Histogram extend beyond the maximum allowed hours. What
should the Project Manager do to correct it?
A. Reduce Scope
B. Extend Working Hours
C. Resource Leveling
D. Schedule Compression

53. A project has the following earned value measurements: EV=100, CPI=1,
SV=80. How much is the Earned Value?
 A. 100
B. 1
C. 1.5
D. 0

54. Which of the following performance metrics measures project

performance against the project scope?
A. Schedule Performance Index
B. Cost Performance Index
C. Cost Variance
D. No metric is used

55. Which of the following would NOT be part of cost of conformance?

A. Prevention cost
B. Appraisal cost
C. Internal failure cost
D. Cost of training

56. You are performing Earned Value Management on your project. The Cost
Baseline in Earned Value Management is also a part of:
A. Cost Estimating Baseline
B. Performance Baseline
C. Cost Measurement Baseline
D. Budget Baseline

57. You are managing a construction project. You are required to build 50
bridges in a metropolitan city. Due to the complexity of the project, it is
divided into 10 sequential phases, with each phase requiring construction of
five bridges. You have just finished the first phase of your project and you
are about to kick off your second phase. Which PMBOK® Guide process
should you start to kick off the second phase of the project?
A. Develop Project Charter
 B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Direct and Manage Project Work
D. Monitor and Control Project Work

58. In order to determine the target fuel efficiency for a hybrid car being
designed, a Project Manager is looking at published statistics for similar
models in the industry. The technique being used is called:
A. Brainstorming
B. Benchmarking
C. Statistical sampling
D. Design of Experiments

59. A project management team consolidates a number of planning

documents to a collection called “project management plan” and ensures that
these documents are consistent among each other.
What documents could become part of the project management plan?
A. Resource calendars and project schedule
B. Management plans and baselines
C. Lessons learned register and quality report
D. Resource management plan

60. When does a project manager perform the integrated change control
process to make sure the effects of change requests are under control?
A. During the course of the project
B. When baselines need to be altered
C. While the cost baseline is being created
D. When the configuration management plan is developed

61. A project was planned to take 5 months. The team is currently 3 months
into it and has completed half of the work. Applying Earned schedule
technique, what are the performance data of the project?
A. SV: -0.5 months, SPI: 0.83
 B. SV: 1.5 months, SPI: 1.5
C. SV: -2,5 months, SPI: 0.83
D. SV: 0.5 months, SPI: 1.83

62. Conflict resolution techniques that may be used on a project include

confronting, smoothing, forcing, and:
A. Withdrawing
B. Directing
C. Organizing
D. Controlling

63. You have been called into a troubled time-critical project. You must
engage in schedule recovery to target slow activities on the critical and near-
critical paths. What should be your first step?
A. Re-baselining the project management plan
B. Firing non-performing resources
C. Get expert opinion
D. Perform root cause analysis for the slowness

64. You are planning a storage device migration in a data center. During this
phase of the project, who should be controlling the project?
A. Project Manager
B. SME’s
C. Sponsor
D. Management

65. Stakeholder analysis is useful in not only identifying stakeholders and

their interests, expectations, and influence, but can ensure expectation
alignment and gain support for the project. Which output documents details
related to identified stakeholders?
A. Stakeholder management plan
B. Project Charter
 C. Organizational Process Assets Updates
D. Stakeholder Register

66. Which tool & technique of Identify Stakeholders may use profile analysis
meetings?
A. Stakeholder Register
B. Analytical Techniques
C. Power/Interest Grid
D. Meetings

67. You have been asked to make an estimate for a project. The project
involves manufacturing 1000 toys. You expect that as the team manufactures
some toys, the time to make them will reduce. Which estimation technique
are you trying to use?
A. Analogous Estimation
B. Regression Analysis
C. Bottom up Estimating
D. Learning Curve

68. Which of the following is an input to Develop Project Charter and for
external projects can be received from the customer as part of a bid?
A. Project Statement of Work
B. Business Case
C. Business Plan
D. Project Charter

69. John is an excellent engineer. The management assumes that since he is a

good technical performer, he will be a good project manager too. Based upon
this, John was promoted to Project Manager. This is an example of
A. Halo Effect
B. Expectancy Theory
C. McGregory Theory of X and Y
 D. Herzberg Theory

70. The authority to approve or deny change request lies with

A. Project Manager
B. Customer
C. Project Sponsor
D. Configuration Control Board

71. You've been assigned to construct the charter, and have pulled all the
inputs together. You're coming up with some questions in the Statement of
Work (SOW); where / who do you go to for clarification?
A. The Project Initiator or Sponsor
B. The end users: business owner, client, functional organization
managers
C. Subject matter experts
D. Analysts who authored the business case

72. Which of the following is a technique of systematically gathering and

analyzing quantitative and qualitative information to determine whose
interests should be taken into account throughout the project.
A. Delphi Technique
B. Expert Judgement
C. Stakeholder Analysis
D. Risk Management

73. In your project, you can delay 'Activity 1' by three days without delaying
its successor 'Activity 2'. However, delaying 'Activity 1' will delay the project
by six days without delaying the overall project finish date. Which of the
following statements is correct in this scenario?
A. The Total Float is 6 days and the Free Float is 3 days
B. The Total Float is 3 days and the Free Float is 6 days
C. The Total Float is 3 days and the Free Float is zero
 D. The Free Float is 3 days and the Total Float is zero

74. Your project objective is to replace all of your internal photocopy

machines. You have been given a large set of requirements from the users.
Having evaluated solutions from four vendors you realize that not every
vendor can satisfy all the requirements. There is some risk involved and you
decide to use the Expected Monetary Value method to analyse the problem. If
you just used EMV, which of the following vendors would you select?
A. Vendor 1: 80% probability of success and a profit of $20,000
B. Vendor 2: 90% probability of success and a profit of $19,000
C. Vendor 3: 75% probability of success and a profit of $18,000
D. Vendor 4: 85% probability of success and a profit of $20,000

75. Which of the following is not a General management technique?

A. Make-or-buy analysis
B. Analysis of alternatives
C. Applying PMBOK concepts
D. Lateral thinking

76. You just took over the management of an industrial construction project,
which is in the execution phase. You determine that your team is
communicating directly with their client company's peers. According to the
Communications Management Plan, all client interaction should be
performed through the project manager. What is the potential reason for your
team's behaviour?
A. The Communications Management Plan is not comprehensive
B. The Project Management Plan has not been shared with the team
C. The previous project manager is not a PMP
D. The Communications Management Plan was later updated

77. Project Manager John wants to capture the details of activities he would
be doing to enhance the value of the process, including their inputs, outputs,
and interfaces with other processes. Which of the following documents would
be MOST helpful?
A. Project Management Plan
B. Quality Management Plan
C. Process Improvement Plan
D. Product Management Plan

78. You are managing a software development project. One month ago your
Software Development Team Lead resigned and you promoted your star
programmer to lead the development team. This person was a fantastic
software coder and you thought the promotion would mean that he could
share his expertise across the development team. However, you are surprised
to learn that the performance of your new team lead in his new role is not
meeting your expectations. Which empirical rule did you forget while
considering the promotion of this person?
A. Peter Principle
B. Murphy Principle
C. Pareto Principle
D. Cornelius Principle

79. You are managing a process improvement project for your organization.
During the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process you identified that
there are some risk categories missing in your Risk Breakdown Structure
(RBS). You need to document these new risk categories in your RBS. What
is the best way to do this?
A. Update the risk register with the new categories as part of the Perform
Qualitative Risk Analysis process and make any update required to the
RBS
B. Revisit the Identify Risks process to update the RBS
C. Revisit the Control Risks process to update the RBS
D. Update the RBS in the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process

80. A Project Manager has derived quality metrics along with tolerance limits
for his project. Which part of the quality management knowledge area is the
Project Manager in?
A. Plan Quality Management
B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Perform Quality Control
D. Define Scope

81. You are currently Performing Quality Assurance process on your project
by conducting a quality audit. Which of the following is not a specified
objective of a quality audit?
A. Sharing good practices introduced or implemented in similar projects
in the organization and/or industry
B. Document the effectiveness of the Risk Management process
C. Identifying good and best practices being implemented
D. Identify all nonconformity, gaps, and shortcomings

82. Margaret is managing a data migration project and the project is currently
in the executing phase. The project's current total earned value (EV) is
$25,000 and the current schedule variance (SV) is $5,000. What is the
project's current schedule performance index (SPI)?
A. 1
B. 1.25
C. 0.83
D. 0.2

83. A set of manual files made available to all team members is called:
A. A communication management plan
B. An information retrieval system
C. An information distribution system
D. A performance reporting system

84. As a Project Manager for the project in the planning stage, you have
derived the cost estimate by estimating the cost of individual work packages.
It is summarized to higher levels for reporting and tracking. What would be
the range of estimate from the actual?
A. -50 percent to +100 percent
B. -50 percent to +50 percent
C. -10 percent to +25 percent
D. -5 percent to +10 percent

85. Which of the following is not part of the Risk Register?

A. Root causes of the identified risks
B. Management reserve amount
C. List of identified risks
D. List of potential responses

86. You are managing a software development project. All of your project
deliverables are complete and you are ready to start your Close Project or
Phase process. Which of the following activities will not be performed during
Close Project or Phase process?
A. Making sure that all exit criteria have been met
B. Obtaining formal acceptance of all deliverables from all stakeholders
C. Moving the project's deliverables to the next phase or into production
D. Documenting lessons learned

87. Which of the following are the MOST important to derive the total
funding requirements and periodic funding requirements of the project?
A. Management Reserve and Contingency Reserve
B. Cost Baseline and Management Reserve
C. Funding Limit Reconciliation
D. Project Budget and Contingency Reserve

88. You are managing an amusement park development project. You

received the following duration estimates for site excavation. The most likely
estimate is 5 days, the optimistic estimate is 3.5 days, and the pessimistic
estimate is 8 days. What is the variance of the data?
A. 0.562 days
B. 5.5 days
C. 5.25 days
D. 0.75 days

89. Which of the following is a tool and technique for the Determine budget
process?
A. Monte Carlo analysis
B. Delphi technique
C. Funding Limit Reconciliation
D. Parametric estimation

90. Which of the following is an example of a Cause and Effect diagram?

A. Pareto Diagram
B. Matrix Diagram
C. Network Diagram
D. Why-Why Diagram

91. As a Project Manager, you are working with your team to explore
alternatives to decrease project cost without compromising on performance or
scope of the project. Which of the following techniques are you most
probably using?
A. Benchmarking
B. Reverse Engineering
C. Process Analysis
D. Value Analysis

92. The Work Breakdown Structure dictionary can be used for which purpose
from the below?
A. Check spellings in the WBS
 B. Decompose planning packages to their lowest level
C. Create the scope statement
D. Hold statements of work, responsible organizations, and a list of
schedule milestones.

93. The PMBOK Guide defines a Mega Project as one that is expected to:
A. Cost US$1billion or more, affect 1 million or more people
B. Cost US$500 million or more, affect 500,000 or more people, and run
for years
C. Cost US$1billion or more, affect 1 million or more people, and run for
years
D. Cost US$1billion or more, affect 500,000 or more people, and run for
years

94. You are managing a critical project with frequent changes in

requirements. You are in the testing phase of the project, and the customer
has requested an additional new feature. You have assessed the impact of the
change on the triple constraints with your team. What should be your NEXT
step?
A. Raise a change request form and send it for approval to the change
control board
B. Look for alternative options including schedule compression
techniques like crashing and fast tracking
C. Analyze the impact of the change on project quality objectives and
quality planning
D. Update the project management plans and other project documents
including project baselines

95. What does the common law principle of privity mean in relation to a
contract?
A. The buyer and seller names are to be kept private
B. A contract cannot confer rights nor impose obligations upon any
person who is not a party to the contract
 C. This type of contract can only be used for private sales and not for a
business
D. No one else is entitled to know any of the contract details

96. A Project Manager wants to determine the variance for an activity

estimate using a three-point estimate with the following data. Pessimistic=14,
Optimistic=2, and Realistic=5. What is the variance?
A. 5
B. 2
C. 4
D. Not enough information

97. Which of the below is not a project constraint?

A. Something that limits your ability to manage the project
B. Recorded in the Assumption Log
C. Something that may or may not happen
D. Identified at a high level in the business case before the project is
initiated

98. A project manager has asked his team to implement a change. Which of
the following is mandatory before it, in case the change has impacted a
baseline?
A. Baseline should have been updated
B. Change should have been communicated to concerned stakeholders
C. Change control board should have discussed the change
D. Change should have been raised

99. In project management, scope, quality, schedule, budget, resources, and

risks are referred to as:
A. The six core knowledge areas
B. Unimportant
C. Project phases
 D. Competing project constraints

100. You are the project manager of a process improvement project for a
factory operation. Which of the following activities will not be performed
during the Monitor and Control Project Work process of your project?
A. Comparing actual project performance against the Project Management
Plan
B. Identifying new risks and analyzing, tracking and monitoring existing
project risks
C. Analyzing change requests and either approving or rejecting them
D. Monitoring implementation of approved changes as they occur
PRACTICE TEST 3
1. In which type of organization is team building likely to be most difficult?
A. Functional
B. Projectized
C. Matrix
D. Project expediter

2. Your project is in the final test stage, the user acceptance test. It meets all
the product specs and is under planned costs. In term of schedule, this project
is ahead. Your customer met you and requested that he will not accept the
product unless you make several changes. What you should do is:
A. Get the list of the changes and estimate all of them. If the total cost is
still within the baseline, you will do it
B. Estimate the costs and send this to your customer requesting contract
modification
C. Ask the customer to file a change request
D. Sit with the customer to review the product specs and tell him/her that
you have completed the project.

3. A tool which links the project roles and responsibilities to the project scope
definition is called:
A. Scope Definition Matrix
B. Responsibility Assignment Matrix
C. Roles Assignment Matrix
D. Project Scope and Roles Matrix

4. The method of examining work or a product to determine whether it

conforms to documented standards is called
A. Inspection
B. Statistical Sampling
C. Audit
 D. Verification

5. What two main knowledge areas are not listed in the execution process of
the project, but rather a part of the controlling process?
A. Schedule and cost
B. Cost and communication
C. Quality and risk
D. Risk and procurement

6. When managing a project, when would you expect the risk impacts
(amount at stake) to be lowest, yet the risks are greatest?
A. During implementation
B. Approaching the completion of the project
C. When a major deliverable is outsourced
D. In the concept phase

7. A planning package is defined as which of the following?

A. A WBS component below the control account level, but above the
work package level
B. A WBS component below the work package level
C. All roll up of all control accounts
D. A set of procurement planning documents

8. A project manager uses a networked project team with various points of

contacts within the organization. His authority is however limited. Which
type of project organization type is this?
A. Networked
B. Virtual
C. Linked
D. Organic or flexible

9. To which convention is the numbering system used for identifying all

items in a Work Breakdown structure mapped to?
A. Chart of Accounts
B. Code of Accounts
C. Control Accounts
D. Dewey Decimal System

10. Your software project is in the critical system testing stage when two of
the senior members of the team come to you with a conflict on usage of the
simulation software during testing. One senior member claims that the other
person keeps the software engaged for almost all the working hours of the
project. You decide to change their working schedules so that they no longer
overlap. Which of the following techniques for conflict resolution are you
using?
A. Compromising
B. Collaborating
C. Forcing
D. Smoothing

11. A project manager is using historical data to understand what has been
going on in the project with respect to number of defects in the software
program which is being developed over a period of time. What technique will
you use for this?
A. Variance analysis
B. Root cause analysis
C. Alternatives analysis
D. Trend Analysis

12. Which of the following is not a source selection analysis method?

A. Qualifications only
B. Sole source
C. Fixed budget
D. Statistical sampling
13. Which of these describes a transformational leader?
A. Allow team members to set their own goals and make their own
decisions
B. Focus on goals and accomplishment
C. Empower others to be innovative and creative
D. Focus on the team members’ growth, learning, development,
autonomy, and well-being

14. The Project Manager to build a concrete waterfall at a theme park likes to
plan everything up front and follow the waterfall method. However, the
customer doesn’t want everything fixed from the beginning, as she may
change her mind in a number of areas once the project is underway, and
needs to be sure that the Project Manager can allow for flow on effects. What
sort of project life cycle should the Project Manager use?
A. Adaptive
B. Predictive
C. Explicit
D. Tacit

15. Cost estimates:

A. Are usually presented at a detailed level
B. Can be presented in summary of detail
C. Are summarized for senior management
D. Are provided in detail for senior management

16. What is the most expensive form of Quality Management?

A. Create a culture throughout the organization that is aware and
committed to quality in processes and products
B. Detect and correct the defects before the deliverables are sent to the
customer
C. Use quality assurance to examine and correct the process itself and not
just special defects
 D. Let the customer find the defects, and save you the cost of testing

17. The difference between explicit knowledge and tacit knowledge is:
A. Explicit knowledge is shared by codifying, recording and circulating,
but tacit knowledge is shared by human interaction
B. Tacit knowledge is shared by codifying, recording and circulating, but
explicit knowledge is shared by human interaction
C. The human mind can retain only 7 pieces of tacit knowledge, but up to
700 pieces of explicit knowledge
D. The PMBOK® Guide is an example of explicit knowledge, but the
PMI® Practice Standards are examples of tacit knowledge.

18. Which of the following is correct according to Maslow’s hierarchy of

needs?
A. The top three levels are Social, Esteem, then Self-actualization
B. The top three levels are Safety, Social, then Esteem
C. The Bottom three levels are Safety, Social, then Esteem
D. The Bottom three levels are Physiological, Safety, then Self-
actualization.

19. Which of the following describes Configuration control?

A. It is focused on the specification of both the deliverables and the
processes
B. It is focused on identifying, documenting, and approving or rejecting
changes to the project documents, deliverables, or baselines
C. It happens at intervals throughout the project, as defined in the
Integration Management Plan
D. It is focused on verifying that the changes are registered, assessed,
approved, tracked and communicated to stakeholders.

20. You and your team are estimating costs, which of the following would
you not use?
 A. Requirements Traceability Matrix
B. Risk Register
C. Lessons learned register
D. Quality management plan

21. The Sponsor suggests that you should collocate your team during the
project. What is the main benefit of this?
A. Communication will be improved through the use of social media and
video conferencing
B. As the team would be dispersed, it will help some of them develop
their leadership skills
C. The project team is in the same physical location so they won’t need to
communicate
D. As the team members will be at the same location, it will enable them
to work better as a team

22. As a Project Manager you decide to create an issue log which captures
issue description, owner, and the target date for issue closure. All of the
following are common examples of issues in the project EXCEPT:
A. Differences in Opinion
B. Probable delay in the next delivery
C. Pending Root cause Analysis
D. Delay in receiving feedback from the customer

23. What is the standard deviation for a critical path having two activities
with their standard deviations being 3 and 4?
A. 7
B. 5
C. 12
D. -1

24. You are asked to describe the difference between QA (Quality Assurance)
and QC (Quality Control). The first thing you say is that:
A. QA involves planning, but QC involves checking
B. QA involves planning, but QC is a management function
C. QA is a management function, but QC involves planning
D. QA is performed by the team, but QC most be performed by senior
management

25. In the earned value management technique, the cost performance baseline
is referred to as:
A. Cost Measurement Baseline (CMB)
B. Performance Measurement Baseline (PMB)
C. Performance Base Value (PBV)
D. Performance Cost Baseline (PCB)

26. If you are influencing factors that create changes to the cost of the project,
which process are you using?
A. Negotiate Costs
B. Estimate Costs
C. Control Costs
D. Determine Budget

27. What is the best time to engage in team building activities?

A. In the beginning of the project
B. At the end of the project
C. Throughout the project
D. In the beginning for some projects and in the end for others

28. Which of these provides the framework for the cost management plan?
A. Project Scope
B. Product Scope
C. Work Breakdown Structure
D. Activity List
29. Visiting a construction site to ensure the work being done is the same
work called out in the requirements is called:
A. Milestone
B. Scope validation
C. Variance Analysis
D. Requirements traceability

30. A Project Manager is working on shortlisting, interviewing, and selecting

candidates for the open positions within a project as per the job descriptions.
Which process group is being worked on here?
A. Planning
B. Initiating
C. Controlling
D. Executing

31. A first-time project manager was of the opinion that all training activities
need to be planned. He discussed this with an experienced project manager,
and understood that some training was necessarily unplanned. Which of the
following correctly lists examples of unplanned training?
A. Training by observation, conversation, and project management
appraisals
B. Training by mentoring, on-the-job training, and online courses
C. Training by conversation, coaching, and classroom training
D. Training by mentoring, observation, and coaching

32. An organization may set aside a Management Reserve to allow for:

A. Risks that cannot be identified until they occur
B. Risks that have been avoided
C. Scope creep
D. Risks that are identified after the project begins, but before they occur
33. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a project?
A. Constrained by limited resources
B. Planned, executed, and controlled
C. Creates a unique product or service
D. Ongoing and repetitive

34. A project consists of 5 activities, A, B, C, D and E. B & C can’t start until

A has finished, D can’t start until C has finished, and E can’t start until B and
D have finished. The duration of A is 5, B is 8, C is 10, D is 19 and E is 15.
How many days can activity B be delayed, without delaying the whole
project, assuming the “Day 1” method?
A. 37
B. 21
C. 29
D. 38

35. According to James P. Lewis, which of the following is not provided by

the framework of a Work Breakdown structure?
A. Network diagram, illustrating task dependencies, can be constructed
B. All cost and resource allocations can be totalled to develop the overall
project budget
C. Performance can be tracked against the identified cost, schedule, and
resource allocations
D. Assignment of responsibility for each element can be made

36. Which of the following may not be considered an attribute of a project?

A. Repetitive elements may be present in some project deliverables
B. The impact of a project usually ends when the project ends
C. A project can involve a single person
D. There is uncertainty about the product that the project creates.

37. Which of the following models describes stakeholders based on their

power, urgency and legitimacy?
A. Influence / Impact grid
B. Power / influence grid
C. Power / Interest grid
D. Salience model

38. You are defining the schedule activities for your project and identifying
deliverables at the lowest level in the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).
You find that there is insufficient definition of the project scope to
decompose a branch of the WBS down to the work package level. You now
look at using the last component in that branch of the WBS to develop a high-
level project schedule for that component. Such a planning component is
called:
A. A planning packet
B. Control system
C. A planning package
D. Control element

39. You are interviewing candidates for a position in the project. When you
receive the resume of a distant relative who is desperately in need of a job,
what should you do?
A. Give the candidate the job, but insist on good performance
B. Ask the candidate to apply somewhere else
C. Declare your position and excuse yourself from the selection process
D. Do nothing and go with the panel decision

40. Close Project or Phase is the process of completing and concluding all
activities across all process groups to officially close the project. Which of
the following activities are NOT performed during this process?
A. Actions required to transfer completed products to operations
B. Actions required to archive project information
C. Actions required to audit project success or failure
 D. Actions required to accept the deliverables

41. A direct cost to a project could be:

A. Corporate salaries
B. Office cooling devices
C. Materials
D. Health insurance

42. While working on a contract, a supplier's factory was severely damaged

due to an earthquake, and the supplier could not deliver the contracted items
on time. The liability of the supplier to pay penalty for delays is probably
restricted due to:
A. Doctrine of Waiver
B. Privity
C. Dispute Resolution
D. Force Majeure

43. Which of the following method is not a depreciation method?

A. Units of production
B. Some of year’s digits
C. Declining balance
D. Straight line

44. As a Project Manager, you understand the importance of effective

communication with stakeholders. You want to present a project progress
report to the stakeholders in the next project meeting. What should be your
approach?
A. Make the report concise and restricted to specific technical details of
the project
B. Prepare a verbose report but filter the information to remove details
C. Focus on specific stakeholders with whom you have good personal
relationships
 D. Research and understand the experience level and expectations of
stakeholders

45. If you had an experience with a particularly good or poor performing

vendor, what is the correct way to document this experience for future
projects?
A. Create a seller performance evaluation
B. Call the vendor and talk to them about the experience
C. Tell all your friends about it
D. Vow to only work with that vendor from now on

46. You have recently finished an advanced project management training

course that was paid for by your project budget. Because the budget for your
project is not large enough to train any other resources on the project, your
manager has asked you to make copies of the course materials and distribute
them to the rest of the staff. What do you do?
A. Make the copies
B. Provide a single copy of the materials
C. Scan the materials and place them on the corporate intranet for easy
access
D. Refuse the request

47. Which of the following needs is at the lowest level of Maslow's

hierarchy?
A. Self actualization
B. Esteem
C. Social
D. Safety

48. A project team is working on constantly reviewing and making sure that
the right processes are being followed. Which process will the team use?
A. Perform Quality Assurance
 B. Control Quality
C. Plan Quality Management
D. Quality Metrics

49. Which element does a project charter contain?

A. Management reserves
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Stakeholder list
D. Stakeholder register

50. You are managing a project with project teams in different geographical
locations. There are approximately 25 team members in 3 different locations
each being led by a team lead. Additionally, there are 3 members from a
supporting group that are working part-time on the project. How many
communication channels are possible in your project?
A. 496
B. 992
C. 424
D. 32

51. The zero duration of milestones in project planning occurs because

milestones:
A. Are unpredictable and challenge the Plan Schedule Management
process
B. Occur at random times in the project plans
C. Represent a moment in time such as a significant project point or event
D. Represent both significant and insignificant points in the project and
are difficult to anticipate.

52. What is the definition of Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A. Integrating all planned activities
B. Performing the activities included in the plan
 C. Developing and maintaining the plan
D. Execution of deliverables

53. As a Project Manager, you need to estimate the regression testing for your
product. You would like to do 5 full testing cycles. Each cycle is estimated to
take 4 days. What is your estimated duration for the testing activity?
A. 25 days
B. 18 to 22 days
C. 18 days
D. 22 to 24 days

54. The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual

will withstand is
called risk:
A. Appetite
B. Tolerance
C. Threshold
D. Management

55. Which of the following is NOT a likely outcome of trying to fast track a
project?
A. Reduce the level of risk
B. Reduce the time taken
C. Increase the level of risk
D. Cause more rework

56. In execution phase, implementation of approved actions happens by

following risk management plan and risk register. For this action, which
option is correct?
A. Minimize the negative risk and take the opportunities
B. Minimize the opportunities and increase the negative risk
 C. Minimize only negative risk
D. Minimize only opportunities

57. A Project Manager is documenting the normal process for escalating the
issues on a project. Which document usually contains this information?
A. Risk management plan
B. Stakeholder management plan
C. Project Communication management plan
D. Quality management plan

58. A Project Manager is conducting a bidder conference to select the most

suitable sellers. Which of the following tools will NOT be helpful?
A. Independent Estimates
B. Analytical Techniques
C. Procurement Negotiations
D. Make-or-Buy analysis

59. A manager and the head of engineering discuss a change to a major work
package. After the meeting, the manager contacts you and tells you to
complete the paperwork to make the change. This is an example of:
A. Management attention to scope management
B. Management planning
C. A project expediter position
D. A change control system

60. During project executing, a team member comes to the project manager
because he is not sure of what work he needs to accomplish on the project.
Which of the following documents contain detailed descriptions of work
packages?
A. WBS Dictionary
B. Activity List
C. Project scope statement
 D. Scope management plan

61. Which of the following is NOT an input to the process Manage

stakeholder engagements?
A. Stakeholder Management Plan
B. Communication Management Plan
C. Change Log
D. Issue Log

62. An activity has an early start (ES) of day 3, a late start (LS) of day 13, an
early finish (EF) of day 9, and a late finish (LF) of day 19. The activity:
A. Is on the critical path
B. Has a lag
C. Is progressing well
D. Is not on the critical path

63. As a Project Manager you are worried about the continuous bad
performance of one of your team members. You have spoken to him over
coffee, but there seems to be no improvement. What is the MOST suitable
way to communicate your dissatisfaction to the concerned team member?
A. Informal Verbal
B. Formal Verbal
C. Formal Written
D. Informal Written

64. Stakeholder analysis is useful in not only identifying stakeholders and

their interests, expectations, and influence, but can ensure expectation
alignment and gain support for the project. Which output documents details
related to identified stakeholders?
A. Stakeholder Register
B. Project Charter
C. Organizational Process Assets Updates
 D. Stakeholder management plan

65. A schedule performance index, SPI, of 0.75 means:

A. Project is over budget
B. Project is ahead of schedule
C. Project is progressing at 75% of the rate originally planned
D. Project is progressing at 25% of the rate originally planned

66. You have the option of selecting to move either Project A or Project B
forward. Project A has an NPV of $250,000, with a payback period of 5
years. Project B has an NPV of $450,000, with a payback period of 7 years.
Which of the following do you do?
A. It depends: Selection criteria may differ depending on the supporting
organization(s)
B. Select A. It has a lower NPV, but the Payback Period is quicker
C. Select B. It has a higher NPV, regardless of the Payback period
D. Select A. NPV is based on high-level assumptions, and may not be
accurate

67. A key stakeholder expresses his concern over lack of project visibility
and progress and says that project status reports received lack information
relevant to the stakeholder's department. How should the Project Manager
respond?
A. Review the Project Communication Management Plan to determine the
stakeholder's needs
B. Relook at the Manage Communications process to identify the gaps
C. Raise a change request to address the stakeholder's feedback
D. Relook at the Control Communications process to understand the
problem

68. Conflict resolution techniques that may be used on a project include

confronting, smoothing, forcing, and:
 A. Withdrawing
B. Directing
C. Organizing
D. Controlling

69. You've been assigned to a new project, and are asked to finalize the
charter and submit for approval. Which input to Develop Project Charter will
help you in understanding high-level risk surrounding your project?
A. Stakeholder Register
B. Project Statement of Work
C. Project Charter
D. Business Case

70. In one of the project status meetings, two senior team members get into
an argument regarding the introduction of a new tool to automate time sheet
filling. Which of the following would provide you maximum insight on the
conversation?
A. The content and timing of the conversation
B. The content and timing of the conversation and the communication
technology used
C. Body Language and the words in the conversation
D. Body language and voice modulation including pitch and tone

71. A project manager is in the middle of creating a request for proposal

(RFP). What part of the procurement process is she in?
A. Conduct procurements
B. Plan Procurements
C. Control Procurements
D. Close Procurements

72. In which form of planning are tasks to be done in the near term planned in
detail, with later tasks planned in less detail, in the WBS?
 A. Rolling wave planning
B. GERT
C. Fast tracking
D. PERT

73. A Project Manager in an e-learning project is using free downloadable

tutorials via the Internet to reach out to large audiences. This communication
method is called:
A. Interactive Communication
B. Pull Communication
C. Push Communication
D. Personal communication

74. You want to group your project stakeholders based on their authority and
involvement in the project. Which of the following is appropriate model for
this?
A. Power/Interest Grid
B. Power/Influence Grid
C. Influence/Impact Grid
D. Salience Model

75. Which quality theorist advocated the popular iterative four-step approach
of Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA)?
A. Bill Cosby
B. Bill Gates
C. Joseph Juran
D. W. Edwards Deming

76. You are a Project Manager. You need to decide whether to buy insurance
for a temporary manufacturing facility. The likelihood of a mishap is
assessed at 10% and the likely impact is evaluated at $500,000. The cost of
insuring is $20,000 and has a $10,000 deductible. Would you buy insurance?
 A. Yes, because 50,000 > 21,000
B. Yes, because 50,000 > 30,000
C. No, because 30,000 < 500,000
D. No, because 21,000 < 50,000

77. After working as a Project Manager for more than 25 years, you want to
share your learning and best practices with your industry. You do this by
writing articles in international journals and giving interviews to share your
experience. This act can be BEST described as?
A. Enhancement of professional skills by learning project management
and technical skills
B. Contribution to project management knowledge base by virtue of vast
personal experience
C. Capturing professional stint in autobiography purely as a retrospection
exercise
D. Informing others about project management principles and helping the
profession grow

78. A project risk manager distributes anonymous questionnaires to project

team members to help identify risks. This is called.
A. Game Theory
B. The Consensus Method
C. Interviewing
D. The Delphi Technique

79. A project manager is considering risk in a project. When does risk come
into play in a project?
A. During the SWOT (strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats)
analysis
B. During the Identify Risks phase
C. As soon as the Plan Risk Management phase begins
D. As soon as a project is conceived
80. During a work breakdown structure meeting you have decomposed the
deliverables into work packages and created your WBS dictionary. However,
you now want to decompose the work packages to assist you in estimating,
executing and control the project. These decomposed work packages are
called?
A. Work Packages can’t be decomposed into smaller units
B. Activities
C. Milestones
D. Control Accounts

81. During project execution, the customer interprets a clause in the contract
differently and demands an elaborate design document as part of the next
deliverable. According to you, this is not included in the deliverable list.
What best can you do to resolve the situation?
A. Change the contract and continue with your project work
B. Accept the customer's demand as he is responsible for the project's
success
C. Talk to your Project sponsor about the issue and the implications of
accepting such a request on the schedule and cost of the project
D. Document the dispute and refer to the claims administration

82. When a project is performed under contract, the contractual provisions

will generally be considered as for the project.
A. Constraints
B. Exclusions
C. Deliverables
D. Provisions

83. Prioritization matrices are an important quality planning tool. They

provide a way of ranking a diverse set of problems and/or issues by order of
importance. How is this list usually generated?
A. Through control charts
B. Through PERT analysis
 C. Through brainstorming
D. Through variance analysis

84. A project has a CV of -$500 and SPI of 1.2. What can be said about the
project?
A. Your project is over budget and behind schedule
B. Your project is under budget and behind schedule
C. Your project is over budget and ahead of schedule
D. Your project is under budget and ahead of schedule

85. You are managing a project for a customer that has just gone bankrupt
and is subject to liquidation proceedings. There are several outstanding
invoices that this customer has not paid to your company. What should you
do now?
A. Go into alternate dispute resolution
B. Do nothing
C. Contact the appropriate management at your company for advice how
to proceed
D. Send the invoices to the bankruptcy attorneys

86. Earned value management is the tool and technique of which process?
A. Perform Integrated Change Control
B. Control Costs
C. Direct and Manage project work
D. Control Schedule

87. Peter, a project manager, is updating the status of his project. Based on
the performance indices, he expects the project to finish a month earlier than
the planned finish date. However, he expects the project to exceed the
budgeted costs. What can you say about the schedule performance index
(SPI) of the project?
A. The SPI is less than 1.0.
 B. The SPI equals the CPI.
C. The SPI is greater than 1.0.
D. The SPI is equal to 1.0.

88. A technique that calculates multiple project durations with different sets
of activity assumptions and variables is called:
A. Process analysis
B. Theoretical Analysis
C. Simulation
D. Effect Analysis

89. A project team with a CPI of 0.78 is looking for options to reduce cost.
Which of the following would be the BEST option to do so?
A. Reduce a test cycle in the system testing phase
B. Reduce scope by cutting down non-essential features
C. Add more resources to expedite the schedule
D. Revisit estimates and eliminate risks and then re-estimate

90. The project management plan can best be described as:

A. A list of tasks, activities, durations and resources in a software
program (e.g., Microsoft Project)
B. Coordinating changes across the entire project
C. Integrating and coordinating all project plans to create a consistent,
coherent document
D. Integrating and coordinating all project documents and stakeholder
expectations

91. Which of the following is the best use of Pareto charts?

A. To visualize a workflow
B. To prioritize issues
C. To perform deeper causal analysis
D. To examine trends
92. Which of the following is neither an input nor an output of the Direct and
Manage Project Work process?
A. Approved change requests
B. Change requests
C. Approved deliverables
D. Deliverables

93. As a Project Manager, you realize that the initial budget cost, Budget at
Completion (BAC), for your project is no longer viable. You need to develop
a new Estimate At Completion (EAC) forecast assuming that current
variances would continue in the future. Which of the following formulae
should you use to calculate EAC? Here, AC is the Actual Cost, EV is the
Earned Value, and PV is the Planned Value.
A. EAC = AC + ETC
B. EAC= AC+ (BAC - EV)
C. EAC = EV/PV
D. EAC = BAC/Cumulative CPI

94. You are assisting another project manager interview candidates for a
resource position on his project. While reviewing your interview notes
together, the other project manager sorts the candidate’s resumes into two
groups: one for further interviews, the other for candidates that did not meet
the requirements for the position. You notice that he has placed several of the
highly qualified candidates in the second pile, stating that those interviewees
“did not fit the corporate profile.” Upon further review, you discover that
these candidates are all of the same ethnic group. What do you do?
A. Excuse yourself from the interviewing process
B. Report this to the appropriate management
C. File a complaint with PMI
D. Do nothing

95. A Project Manager is working toward improving the competencies, team

interaction, and overall team environment to enhance project performance.
Which of the following tools and techniques would NOT be helpful here?
A. Training
B. Recognition and Rewards
C. Conflict Management
D. Co-location

96. A team is inspecting specific project deliverables to ensure that they are
in accordance with the specifications. Which process is being worked on?
A. Perform Quality Assurance
B. Validate Scope
C. Plan Quality Management
D. Control Quality

97. You are a Project Manager in the process of performing the work defined
in the project management plan to achieve the project objectives. Which
process are you in?
A. Develop Project Management Plan
B. Monitor and Control Project work
C. Direct and Manage project work
D. Execution process group

98. The customers are performing User Acceptance Tests on the product that
was delivered by the project team. Which process is likely being performed?
A. Control Quality
B. Control Schedule
C. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Validate Scope

99. Project performance reviews using earned value management would NOT
typically incorporate information from:
A. Variance Analysis
 B. Cost Benefit Analysis
C. Trend Analysis
D. Earned Value Technique

100. Projects are a means of achieving objectives within an organization's

strategic plan. Which of the following statements is NOT true about projects?
A. Every project creates a unique product, service or result
B. The duration of the project is short
C. Repetitive elements may be present in some project deliverables and
activities
D. A project can involve a single individual
PRACTICE TEST 4
1. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Cost and staffing levels are high at the start
B. The ability to influence the final characteristics of the product without
impacting the cost is highest at the start
C. Uncertainty is the least at the start of the project
D. Stakeholder influences increase over the life of the project

2. In a kick-off meeting for your project, you provided information to your

team members about the different process groups to be followed in the
project. According to PMI, which are the project management process
groups?
A. Conceptualizing, Initiating, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling,
and Closing
B. Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and
Closing
C. Initiating, Verifying, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and
Closing
D. Initiating, Planning, Executing, Controlling, and Administrative
Closure

3. You are the project manager for a CRM (Customer Relationship

Management) provider. Your current project will use machine learning to
reveal certain details about customers by cross-referencing with social media,
to offer services to them, along with a compelling argument for purchasing
the service, based on their background, computer activity and deleted emails.
However, a change has been announced to Privacy legislation that would
require changes to your project, otherwise your company could face legal
action and substantial fines. The actual changes to the project seem quite
simple. The FIRST thing you should do as project manager is:
A. Immediately make the changes, to protect your company from serious
legal action, fines and damage to the company reputation
 B. Halt all work on the project immediately until senior management
works out how to make the changes
C. Submit a change request
D. Cancel the project, because it is too risky to continue.

4. Which process of integrative project management documents the actions

necessary to define, prepare, integrate, and coordinate all subsidiary plans
into a project management plan?
A. Direct and Manage Project Work
B. Monitor and Control Project Work
C. Develop Project Charter
D. Develop Project Management Plan

5. Which of the following models of conflict resolution allows a cooling off

period, but seldom resolves the issue in the long term?
A. Problem solving
B. Withdrawal
C. Forcing
D. Smoothing

6. You are managing the release of a new drug in the market. Your role is
that of a:
A. Functional Manager, because you have good functional knowledge of
the pharmaceutical industry
B. Project Manager, because you are creating a unique product within
specific time schedules
C. Operations Manager, because you have to do several repetitive tasks
D. Program Manager, because you have to manage several projects to do
your job effectively

7. Which of the following is NOT TRUE for stakeholders?

A. Stakeholders can be customers, sponsors, and the performing
 organization
B. Stakeholders cannot exert influence over the project, its deliverables,
or team members
C. Stakeholder identification is a continuous process
D. A project can be perceived as having both positive and negative results
by the stakeholders

8. Two members of a team are disagreeing about the right electric parameters
for testing a newly designed chipset. Who is in the best position to help
resolve this issue?
A. Project Manager
B. Project Sponsor
C. Functional Manager
D. Customer

9. Where would you expect to find a list of items that will not be delivered by
the project?
A. Project scope statement
B. Exclusions register
C. Assumption log
D. Issue log

10. You are looking at various process improvement models. Which of the
following is not a process improvement model?
A. Malcolm-Baldrige
B. Organizational Project Management Maturity Model (OPM3)®
C. Capability Maturity Model Integrated (CMMI®)
D. Shewhart-Deming

11. You are managing a nationwide telecom network deployment project.

You learned that you are unable to start any civil works before obtaining a
government agency's permit, which could take months. The project deadlines
are aggressive and you might face penalties if you don't meet them. Obtaining
the government agency's permit prior to civil works on any site is an example
of which of the following?
A. Mandatory Dependency
B. External Dependency
C. Project Constraint
D. Project Requirement

12. In communication, the receiver decodes the messages based on all but the
following:
A. Culture
B. Semantics
C. Language
D. Distance

13. Performance reviews are held to:

A. Correct the project manager's mistakes.
B. Provide for answers for upper levels of management
C. To assess project status or progress
D. To apprise the project costs and cost trends of the project

14. A Project Manager is identifying relevant enterprise and environmental

factors in a project. Which of the following is NOT a valid example?
A. Organizational culture and processes
B. Stakeholder risk tolerances
C. Employee performance review records
D. Historical lessons learned knowledge base

15. Which of the following could be an appropriate WBS code for a work
package at the fourth level in a WBS where the top level code is 1.0?
A. 1.4
B. 1.1.1.1
 C. 1.2.3.4
D. B and C

16. Your company is responsible for developing an anti-virus software. You

are responsible for managing both the individual product releases and the
coordination of multiple releases. Your role is that of a:
A. Program manager
B. Project manager
C. Functional manager
D. Operations manager

17. A hospital is installing a new management system to computerize the

hospital functions. For this purpose, representatives from several departments
are selected to create a task force assigned to implement the project. This
organization structure is called:
A. Functional Organization
B. Projectized Organization
C. Composite Organization
D. Balanced Matrix Organization

18. The PMI talent triangle® focuses on which three key skill sets?
A. Leadership, Strategic and business management, and Technical project
management
B. Business management, Leadership, and Technical project management
C. Leadership, Strategic and business management, soft skills and
motivation
D. Leadership, Strategic project management and technical business
management.

19. While rating a proposal, one of the requirements was “The proposed
project manager needs to be a certified Project Management Professional,
PMP® ” This is an example of:
 A. Constraints
B. Source Selection Criteria
C. Assumptions
D. Good practice

20. Which of these is not a benefit measurement project selection method?

A. Integer Algorithm
B. Internal Rate of Return
C. Scoring model
D. Discounted cash flow

21. You are part of an expert committee deciding which project should be
implemented by your company. Your committee asks tough questions from
the project teams and helps decide which project your company should select.
Which project selection technique are you using?
A. Scoring Model
B. Committee Selection
C. Murder Board
D. Defined Benefit

22. Your project performance review shows that your project's current
planned value = 30,000 Euro and earned value = 29,000 Euro. Which of the
following statements is true about your project?
A. CPI = 0.96
B. The project is ahead of schedule
C. The project has a positive cost variance
D. The project is behind schedule

23. Which of the following Project Scope Management processes involves

subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable
components?
A. Plan Scope Management
 B. Define Scope
C. Validate Scope
D. Create WBS

24. You have reached the end of the design phase of your project. You decide
to call a "phase end review" for obtaining authorization to close the design
phase and initiate the next phase (i.e., execution phase) of your project. Your
manager disagrees with your suggestion. He wants a "kill point" to formally
end the design phase of the project. In this context, you should:
A. Disagree with your manager because you know that phase end
reviews should be used at the end of each phase of the project
B. Agree with your manager as kill point is a phase-end review
C. Escalate this issue to the project sponsor
D. Take advice from a senior project manager about what should
actually be done at the end of each phase of the project

25. As a Project Manager, you are in the process of establishing the total
scope of the effort in the project to define project objectives. For this purpose,
you include relevant stakeholders and explore all the aspects of scope, cost,
time, risk quality, etc. Which process group of the project are you currently
in?
A. Initiation
B. Planning
C. Execution
D. Monitor and Control

26. Risk identification is performed in which manner?

A. Iterative
B. Incremental
C. Mandatory
D. Quantitative
27. There are several communication methods used to share and distribute
information to stakeholders, team members and management. Which of the
following communication methods are used during execution phase to notify
the public about environmental changes your project is going to cause after
implementation?
A. Pull communication
B. Interactive communication
C. Informal communication
D. Push communication

28. You are managing a construction project and have two subcontractors
supplying you with materials based on a fixed price contract. Halfway
through the project, the first supplier says that he will not be able to supply
the stone chips originally agreed upon, as the cost of stone chips has gone up
drastically since the contract was signed. He offers to provide stone chips of
similar texture, but a cheaper variety. If the cheaper variety of stone chips is
used, then the second supplier who provides the stone chip crusher will have
to procure a new crusher for the project. What should you do in this case?
A. Terminate the contracts for both the suppliers and take up the supply of
stone chips yourself
B. Request the second supplier to procure the new crusher and have the
first supplier pay for the expenses of the new crusher
C. Decline to have the poorer variety of stone chips used. Politely
informer the first supplier that, as this is a fixed price contract, all
parties need to adhere to the original contract, and any changes in costs
are to be borne by the supplier
D. Request direction from senior management

29. Which of these is a process in the Scope Management knowledge area

A. Identify Scope
B. Clarify Scope
C. Control Scope
D. Close Scope
30. Who among the following is responsible for performing the scope
validation
A. Project Manager
B. Senior Management
C. The quality team
D. The customer

31. Your customer calls you on the phone and informs you of a minor change
to a requirement on the project. What is the first thing that should be done?
A. Analyze the request and its consequences to the project
B. Instruct your engineer to implement this minor change
C. Ask the customer to provide a formal change request
D. Note it in the weekly status report

32. You have just been made the Project Manager of the ABC project. You
are trying to read the WBS and are unable to understand some of the WBS
components. Which should be your first step to understand this?
A. Refer to the WBS dictionary
B. Refer to the scope statement
C. Refer to the Project charter
D. Contact the previous Project Manager

33. In one of your presentations to your project sponsor you mentioned the
Code of Accounts. She is unfamiliar with the term and asks for clarification.
Which of the following would you use to explain the Code of Accounts?
A. The management reserve notes in the Risk Register
B. Project budget
C. Work Breakdown Structure
D. Risk Breakdown Structure

34. Project scope is:

 A. All the work that must be done in order to deliver a product according
to the specified features and functions, only.
B. The features and functions that are to be included in a product or
service.
C. A narrative description of work to be performed under contract.
D. a and b

35. You are working in the Project Management Office (PMO) of your
organization. Your job responsibility is to:
A. Manage the operational activities in the company
B. Manage human resource and risk management issues for individual
projects
C. Provide support functions to project managers in the form of training,
providing software, standardizing policies, etc.
D. Provide subject matter expertise in the functional areas of the project

36. Project Manager John and his team have finished creating the Work
Breakdown Structure (WBS) and Work Breakdown Structure dictionary.
Then, he prepares a detailed and itemized documentation of all of the
schedule activities that are part of the project. What should he do NEXT?
A. Create Network Diagram for the project
B. Determine quality standards, processes, and metrics
C. Determine high-level project assumptions and constraints
D. Conduct project progress meeting

37. The only risk response strategy that can be used for both threats and
opportunities is?
A. Exploit
B. Avoid
C. Transfer
D. Accept
38. Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements
process?
A. Advertising
B. Selected Sellers
C. Independent Estimates
D. Expert Judgment

39. You are planning to use PERT for planning of your project. A task has
pessimistic estimate of 24 days, most likely estimate of 15 days and
optimistic estimate of 12 days. What is the mean using the PERT technique?
A. 18 days
B. 25.5 days
C. 15 days
D. 16 days

40. Oligopoly refers to which of these

A. There is only one qualified seller in the market
B. There are no sellers in the market, so you have to build the product
in-house
C. There are few sellers and action of one seller will have impact on
other sellers prizes
D. Your company prefers to contract with only one seller.

41. The total authorized budget for your IT project is $160,000 and
management reserves is $20,000. You want to measure cost performance to
see how the project is doing. In this context, the cost performance is against
measured which of the following budget amounts?
A. $180,000
B. $140,000
C. $20,000
D. $160,000
42. Which project management knowledge areas in the PMBOK® Guide do
not begin with a process related to management planning?
A. Integration Management and Scope Management
B. Scope Management and Quality Management
C. Stakeholder Management and Integration Management
D. Integration Management and Communications Management

43. Late in the project cycle, it was discovered that some of the project
human resources needed to have been trained on a specific methodology.
Ideally, where should these training needs have first been documented?
A. Staffing management plan
B. In the procurement contract
C. In the project scope statement
D. In the company HR policy

44. Which of the following is not true about analogous estimating.

A. Estimate is based on past projects
B. It is not very accurate
C. It uses bottom-up approach
D. It is a form of an expert judgment

45. You are working in a weak matrix organization. You are having problems
acquiring the project human resources you were promised earlier during the
planning phase of the project. The substitute resources being offered to you
do not have the skills required to perform the project work. What should you
do to resolve this problem?
A. You should issue a change request
B. You should use your legitimate power to obtain the required resources
C. You should convince your project sponsor to release the necessary
resources
D. You should negotiate with the functional manager
46. Which of the following is NOT an example of a type of schedule report?
A. Gantt chart
B. Milestone chart
C. Fishbone diagram
D. Network diagram

47. Which of the following is correct order for stages in Tuckman ladder?
A. Foaming, Steaming, Norming, Perfuming, Dispersing
B. Forming, Storming, Protecting, Norming, Adjourning
C. Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, Adjourning
D. Framing, Storming, Norming, Protecting, Adjourning

48. Which of the following exhibits greatest resistance to change?

A. Business requirements
B. Technology
C. People
D. Environment

49. A key stakeholder from the quality department wants to know more on
how the process tailoring was done by the project team. Additionally, the
stakeholder would like to know the rationale for selecting processes, their
implementation level details, and how they will be used to manage the
interdependencies. Which document should the Project Manager refer the
stakeholder to?
A. Project Statement of Work
B. Project Scope Statement
C. Project Management Plan
D. Work performance Information

50. You are trying to figure out if there is a correlation between the slack time
available in a shift and the number of rejected components produced during
the shift. Which is the tool that you will use to analyse this?
 A. Pareto charts
B. Ishikawa diagrams
C. Histograms
D. Scatter diagrams

51. A Project Manager wants to monitor the performance of a process. She

sets up thresholds for this purpose, and any observation beyond the threshold
would trigger a root cause analysis and corrective/preventive actions. This is
an example of:
A. Specification limits
B. Control limits
C. Pareto charts
D. Tolerances

52. A Project Manager has delivered a major deliverable of the project. The
customer comes back a week after the release saying that he is not entirely
satisfied with the deliverable. What should the Project Manager do NEXT?
A. Continue with the next deliverable as the project has to be finished on
time
B. Talk to the Senior Manager to discuss the customer concern and
resolution
C. Ensure that the next deliverables have the features that the customer
specified and exceed his expectations
D. Do a scope verification of this deliverable to check if it satisfies project
objectives

53. The ES of an activity is 2 days, and the duration of the activity is 5 days.
The LF for the activity is 8 days. What is the total float for this activity?
A. 6 days
B. 3 days
C. 1 day
D. 5 days
54. The decision to close a project is taken during which process group?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Controlling
D. Closing

55. A Project Manager is proactively managing the change through the scope
control process. Which of the following should he be MOST worried about?
A. Value Added Changes
B. Errors and Omissions
C. Risk Response
D. Verbal communication from key stakeholders

56. Which of the following is NOT an input to the Control Communications

process?
A. Issue Log
B. Work performance information
C. Work performance data
D. Project management plan

57. A Project Manager wants to perform some tests on the product that might
end up destroying the product. What technique can be used to get around this
problem?
A. Statistical sampling
B. Regression testing
C. Automated testing
D. Stability testing

58. In the PDCA cycle, C stands for?

A. Control
B. Check
 C. Card
D. Carryover

59. As part of the Develop Team process, the project manager of a project
has planned for some Team Building activities. Team Building Activities
should take place throughout the project life cycle, but have greater benefit
when conducted:
A. On a need-basis
B. At the end of the project life cycle
C. Early in the project life cycle
D. In the middle of the project life cycle

60. You are reviewing the control chart and observe that there are seven
points in a row that are below the mean. What does it mean?
A. The mean should be re-adjusted
B. Investigate the cause of it
C. Re-draw in control limit
D. It is common, nothing to worry about

61. Under which of the following scenarios would you not use a Decision
tree?
A. When some future scenarios are unknown
B. When you need to look at the implications of not choosing certain
alternatives
C. When the future scenarios are known
D. When the outcomes of some of the actions are uncertain.

62. Which of the following processes will determine the correctness of

deliverables?
A. Plan Quality Assurance
B. Plan Quality Management
C. Control Quality
 D. Manage Quality

63. After awarding contract to one of the sellers, you realize that you have
missed a clause for delay in the contract and want to modify it. How should
you proceed?
A. The contract is legally binding and cannot be changed once signed
B. The Project Manager should inform the seller about the change in the
next meeting
C. The Project Manager should inform the seller about the change through
a formal written communication
D. The Project Manager should proceed with Contract Change Control
System at his end

64. Adding features and functionality without addressing the effects on time,
costs, and resources or without customer approval is referred to as
A. Scope variation
B. Scope change
C. Scope growth
D. Scope creep

65. All of the following about communication models is true EXCEPT:

A. Sender encodes his thoughts and sends to receiver
B. Information is sent by the sender to receiver with the assistance of
medium
C. Receiver acknowledges if he agrees with the information he received
D. Message is decoded by the receiver into thoughts

66. A project manager had scheduled a number of training programs for his
team. However, he was aware that apart from planned training, unplanned
training also took place in a number of ways. Which of these is not one of the
ways in which unplanned training can happen?
A. Classroom
 B. Observation
C. Project performance appraisals
D. Conversation

67. Which of the following is typically NOT part of project closure?

A. Get formal sign off from the customer to confirm customer acceptance
of final deliverable
B. Measure customer satisfaction as it is a key performance indicator of
the project's success
C. Hand off completed project deliverables to operations and management
D. Use the findings of the project to plan future projects

68. Contingency reserves should be

A. Added to each project activity
B. Added to each project phase
C. Clearly identified in schedule documentation
D. avoided at all costs

69. A new CEO has come into your company and has promptly shut down
your project because it no longer met the business needs of the company.
While not pleased with the decision, you document the level and
completeness of the project to date. What activity or process is this part of?
A. Close Project or Phase
B. Manage Project Knowledge
C. Control Scope
D. Validate Scope

70. What is the difference between precision and accuracy?

A. You cannot be both precise and accurate
B. Accuracy is a measure of exactness; precision measures correctness
of the deliverable
C. Accuracy measures correctness; precision measures exactness
 D. The two terms are basically synonymous

71. Analogous estimating, parametric estimating, and three-point estimating

are all techniques used to:
A. Estimate cost
B. Estimate duration
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B

72. You are managing a project with a total budget of $36,000 to be finished
in one year. You are at the end of the 6th month and the project is currently
on schedule; however, the actual cost of the project is $20,000. What is the
cost variance on the project?
A. 2000
B. -2000
C. 16000
D. -6000

73. Free float can be determined

A. Any time after activity durations have been estimated
B. As soon as all activities are defined
C. Once the total float for a network path has been calculated
D. one of the above

74. During final payment for a contract, you were surprised to see two line
items in the invoice pertaining to features that were requested by some
members of your team. These items were not really necessary for your
project. What should you do about the invoice?
A. Ask the team members why they requested the unnecessary items
B. Pay only for the essential items
C. Pay as per the original contract and start arbitration proceedings for the
 rest
D. Pay for the additional items as well

75. Should historical information be used during resource planning?

A. No, since there is rarely any correlation between resource expectations
on one project when compared to another
B. Yes, as historical information is available can provide insight into what
type of resources were required on previous projects of similar nature
C. No, since historical information is usually misleading, given the cost of
resources have undoubtedly changed since the completion of the prior
project
D. Yes ,since historical information can be easily adjusted to accurately
determined current project costs

76. In cost monitoring, the s-curve depicts the relation between:

A. Schedule completion and time
B. Cumulative value and time
C. Schedule completion and value resources
D. Resources and time

77. Analogous estimating is a:

A. ”Bottom-up” estimating technique
B. ”Drop-down” estimating technique
C. More costly and more accurately estimating technique
D. Technique used when you have no subject matter experts available

78. An order of magnitude estimate is not also known as

A. A control estimate
B. A ball park estimate
C. A conceptual estimate
D. A preliminary estimate

79. Cost estimates may also be expressed in hours, days, etc, as long as
 A. It does not result in a misstatement of project cost
B. The program manager agrees
C. The unit of measure is consistent within the project
D. The project manager agrees

80. You have been asked to graphically depict 3 characteristics of your

project risks, namely probability, impact and category. Which of the below
will you use for this?
A. Distributions of uncertainty
B. Monte Carlo simulation
C. Sensitivity analysis
D. Hierarchical chart

81. In order to produce a cost baseline, the project manager requires

A. Work packages, work breakdown structure and project schedule
B. Cost estimates, work breakdown structure and the project schedule
C. Cost estimates, work packages and project schedule
D. Cost estimates, work packages and work breakdown structure

82. When the expected cash flow s –curve is above the cost performance base
line the project manager should
A. Investigate the variance to determine if corrective reaction is required
B. Bring the situation to the attention of senior management for action
C. Adjust the cost baseline to reflect the actual cost to this point
D. do nothing since the project is performing above plan

83. Which of the following is an indirect cost?

A. Units of Production
B. Lights in the Project War Room
C. Tax cost of Salary of project developers
D. Paper purchased by the project

84. A single-source seller means what?

 A. There is only one qualified seller
B. There is only one seller the company wants to do business with
C. There is a seller that can provide all aspects of the project procurement
needs
D. There is only one seller in the market

85. Which of the following is least likely to be a source of conflict in a matrix

environment?
A. Competing priorities between the project and functional manager
B. Competing for resources between the functional and project manager
C. Project team member working at a different site than the project
manager
D. Ambiguous lines of authority between the functional and project
manager

86. Which of the following is not provided by the framework of a Work

Breakdown structure?
A. All tasks to be performed can be identified and resources allocated to
them
B. Once resource levels have been allocated to tasks, estimates of task
duration can be made
C. A network diagram, illustrating task dependencies, can be constructed
D. All cost and resource allocations can be totalled to develop the overall
project Budget

87. A Project Manager working in a matrix project environment feels there is

some discontent in the team members related to their dual reporting and the
role of Project Manager on the project. The Project Manager wants to
communicate with the team to clarify their doubts. What is the BEST form of
communication for addressing this problem?
A. Formal Written mail
B. Informal chat with the team
C. Face-to-face-meeting
D. Informal written mail
88. As a project manager in a project organization you are constantly dealing
with conditions that breed conflict as you execute your project. Which of the
following is not a condition of conflict in a project organization?
A. High stress
B. Multiple bosses
C. Ambiguous roles
D. Low position power

89. You are in the implementation phase of a project. At this point, which of
the following is the lowest source of conflict for you?
A. Conflict over technical opinions
B. Conflict over schedule and cost
C. Conflict over personnel resources
D. Conflict over personality issues

90. According to John R. Adams Ph.D., there are five sources of power that
people have: legitimate, coercive, reward, expert and referent. If the team
knows that the project manager who is managing the project is reporting
straight up to the President, what type of power is most prevalent?
A. Legitimate
B. Coercive
C. Referent
D. Reward

91. Which of the following statements is true about the Point of Total
Assumption?
A. Above PTA, seller bears the cost
B. Above PTA, buyer bears the cost
C. Below PTA, buyer bears the full cost
D. Below PTA, seller bears the 50% of cost

92. Two weeks ago the project manager was fired for not managing the
project well. The project is behind schedule, over cost and the morale on the
team is very low. The new project manager is having a team meeting. She
starts out by telling the team about the last three projects she worked on, how
they were similar to this one and how she brought them in ahead of schedule
and on budget. What type of power is she establishing?
A. Legitimate
B. Expert
C. Referent
D. Reward

93. The BCWP is 65%, the BCWS is 70%. The project manager wants to
make up for the 5%. The project sponsor has set aside $5000 as a reserve to
remedy this situation. Instead of using it to hire temporary labour, or pay
overtime, the project manager is using it as an incentive for the team to catch
up in 60 days. If they do, the money will be used to take the team members
and their guests to Mike for an all expenses paid weekend. What type of
power is the project manager referencing?
A. Referent
B. Coercive
C. Reward
D. Expert

94. Project execution is very much an integrative process whereby all the
work that was planned is actually accomplished. During this integrative
process, what is the area that the project manager will spend the least amount
of time on?
A. Conflict resolution
B. Documentation and planning
C. Prioritization and removal of road blocks
D. Trade off among schedule, cost and scope

95. The CFO wants to know how the project is going. You put together a
presentation that shows the milestones, progress to date against schedule and
budget, and projected progress in the next 30 days. What type of power does
this demonstrate to senior management?
 A. Coercive
B. Reward
C. Legitimate
D. Expert

96. Six of the activities on your project must be performed sequentially, each
activity is scheduled to take one day and total float for each activity is one
day also. By the end of activity three, you are exactly on schedule, so how
much float is scheduled for the remaining three activities?
A. Three days
B. Zero, because these activities are on the critical path
C. Six days
D. One day

97. Coordinating changes across knowledge areas is a function of:

A. Scope change control
B. Project plan execution
C. Overall change control
D. Baseline management

98. Making need information available to project stakeholders in a timely

manner is called:
A. Performance reporting
B. Information distribution
C. Trend analysis
D. Variance analysis

99. A vendor has notified you that a shipment will be 3 weeks late. This will
also delay the manufacturing of several other items. Recognizing that you
will need to make some changes to the project, what is your next step?
A. Reference the penalty clause in the vendor contract
B. Coordinate the change across all impacted areas
C. Change the schedule baseline
 D. Ensure that the change is reflected in the product definition

100. In communication, which of the following is not a responsibility of the

sender?
A. Making sure that the information is clear
B. Making sure that the information is unambiguous
C. Making sure that the information is complete
D. Making sure that the information is received
PRACTICE TEST 5
1. As a software development manager in a boutique software shop that sells
custom solutions, you have designed a system that helps you control change.
This system identifies the version number of releases, identifies any unique
code, and has records of all the different variations and who the customer is.
This system is formally known as:
A. Overall change control
B. Subsidiary change control
C. Software management
D. Configuration management

2. You are currently performing planning for a construction project. Your

project sponsor asks you to send him your project's Resource Breakdown
Structure so that he can present it to his senior management during an
upcoming meeting. You have not yet developed the Resource Breakdown
Structure for your project. Which process do you need to start in order to
develop it?
A. Estimate Activity Resources
B. Plan Human Resource Management
C. Develop Project Management Plan
D. Acquire Project Team

3. In reviewing your earned value reports you notice that your application
integration testing is moving along 20% ahead of schedule. You realize that
you can have them test some of the enhancements, thereby improving the
quality of the product, while staying on schedule and within budget. This is
an example of:
A. Performance reporting
B. Overall change control
C. Schedule change control
D. Earned value

4. An ad hoc group that discusses variances to the baselines, a documented

process to manage variances, and procedures to update documents are all part
of:
A. Scope change control
B. Project plan execution
C. Configuration management
D. Change control system

5. Which of the following is an input to the information distribution process?

A. Communication skills
B. Work results
C. Performance reports
D. Change requests

6. The customer has decided that he wants blue walls instead of grey. You
have not painted the walls yet. What should you do?
A. Document the change order and buy blue paint
B. Change the scope document to reflect the change
C. Update the schedule to reflect the change
D. See if the contract allows a 15% surcharge for changes

7. What is a Workaround?
A. A response to unplanned threat
B. A response to identified threat
C. A response to low-priority risk
D. None of the above

8. All of the following are outputs of the close project process EXCEPT:
A. Formal acceptance documentation
B. Contract closure procedure
C. Administrative closure procedure
D. Deliverables
9. Which of the following statements are false regarding the records
management system?
A. A records management system defines the process by which the
contract can be modified
B. A records management system is a tool/ technique of contract
administration and contract closure
C. A records management system is used to manage contract
documentation and records
D. A records management system maintains an index of contract
documents and correspondence

10. Which of the following process is involved with the completion and
settlement of the contract?
A. Manage stakeholders
B. Contract closure
C. Contract administration
D. Performance reporting

11. Which of the following best describes the project integration

Management Knowledge Area?
A. Activity definition, activity sequencing, schedule control
B. Communications planning, information distribution, performance
reporting, manage stakeholders
C. Develop project management plan, direct and manage project
execution, integrated change control
D. Human resource planning, acquire project team, develop project team

12. Contract documentation are an input to the contract closure process.

Which of the following are NOT included as part of the contract
documentation?
A. Contract changes
B. Supporting schedules
 C. Invoices and payment records
D. Contract file

13. According to the PMI, early termination of a contract is considered a

special case of:
A. Contract cancellation
B. Contract severance
C. Contractual severance
D. Contract default

14. Which of the following statements are true regarding project endings?
A. Integration occurs when a project evolves into ongoing operations
B. Extinction occurs when resources are removed from the project, such
as due to funding/ resource cuts
C. None of the choices are correct
D. Addition occurs when the resources (personnel, equipment, property,
etc) of the project are reassigned to other areas within the organization
or other projects

15. The purpose of lessons learned documentation, that is an output of the

contract closure process, is all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Document acceptance of work results
B. Evaluate project goals and compare them to project deliverables
C. Review success and failure
D. Document possible improvements for future projects

16. Which of the following are not tools/techniques of the develop project
charter process?
A. Expert judgment
B. PMIS
C. Project management methodologies
D. Stakeholder analysis
17. You are a project manager at for an information technology division of a
large financial brokerage in the United States. Due to new regulatory
requirements enacted by Sarbanes-Oxley you have been assigned to audit all
I.T. systems to ensure compliance. You need to ensure that all data in the data
base in encrypted to ensure confidentially. You need to ensure that all users
are properly authenticated. You also need to verify that authorization to
confidential financial information follows the least-privilege principle. The
deadline to ensure compliance with Sarbanes-Oxley regulations is within 180
days. Failing to complete the result in 180 days will result in the significant
fines to your organization. You have been given a budget of $2 million
dollars. Due to the overall budget cuts this year, you have been told that
budget is fixed and cannot be increased by $1000 dollars. Which is the
primary constraint for this project?
A. Schedule
B. Budget
C. Scope
D. Quality

18. Which of the following statements are not true?

A. In a strong matrix organization, project managers have little or no
formal authority
B. Project managers have low to moderate level of authority in a
Balanced Matrix organization
C. Project managers have high level of authority in a projectized
organization
D. In a weak matrix organization, conflicts between functional managers
and project managers are common.

19. Ricky works for an international manufacturer of consumer electronics.

He has been recently assigned to supervise and manage the manufacturing of
a new model of flat-screen televisions. His supervisor congratulates Ricky on
his expanded responsibilities. He informs Ricky that his new assignment will
have the 1000 units of the new flat screen manufactured by September. What
of the following is true regarding Ricky’s new assignment?
A. His assignment cannot be considered a project since his flat-screen
televisions are not a unique product for the company
B. His assignment cannot be considered a project since his assignment is
to supervise the manufacturing of a new and unique line of products
C. His assignment cannot be considered a project since his project has no
clear end-date
D. His assignment cannot be considered a project because this product
line has never been manufactured by this company

20. Projects are typically authorized as a result of one or more of the

following needs:
A. Technological advance
B. Marketing needs
C. All of the choices are correct
D. Business needs

21. Which of the following is NOT considered an organizational process

asset?
A. Financial controls procedure
B. Project closure guidelines
C. Stakeholders risk tolerance
D. Performance measurement criteria’s

22. What is a Product Scope?

A. Features and functions that characterize a product
B. The work done to deliver the product
C. Both A & B
D. None of above

23. Your company develops large commercial and industry real estate. In you
current project, you have been asked to manage the construction of a 30-story
office building. Which document describes the business needs for this
project, identifies key deliverables, and gives you authority to begin the
project and start assigning resources?
A. Work break down structure
B. Executive summary
C. Project charter
D. Ishikawa document

24. Your company manufactures CPU for high-end workstation computers.

Your current project involves manufacturing a very high speed CPU
(~10GHZ). You worked on a similar project three years ago to manufacture a
lower speed CPU (~2GHZ). You are in the develop project charter process.
Which of the following inputs are LEAST helpful?
A. Historical information on the previous manufacturing 2GHZ chips.
This information could be helpful since this project is similar in nature
B. The project’s preliminary project scope statement which defines the
scope of the project
C. The project’s statement of work (SOW), which includes the product
scope description
D. The project constraints and assumptions to make sure that the any
significant project risks can be identified and mitigated

25. You are the project manager at Happy Coffee Café, a rapidly growing
franchise selling premium blended coffee. Currently, your company is
planning on opening additional stores through the United states. Your target
markets primarily include densely populated metropolitan areas. Your
company is evaluating different areas for expansion, including New York,
San Francisco, and Seattle. Based on your market analysis you have obtained
the following information:
New York-IRR (45%), payback period (1.5 years)
San Francisco-IRR (32%), payback period (1.1 years)
Seattle-IRR (36%), payback period (0.75 years)
Based on this data which area is best for Happy Coffee Café?
A. San Francisco since the IRR is the lowest
B. New York since IRR is highest
C. Seattle since payback period is shortest
D. New York since the payback period is the longest

26. According to the PMI, which of the following are NOT true with regards
to programs and projects?
A. Projects consists of one or more related programs
B. Programs often include elements of ongoing operations
C. Programs are groups of project managed together
D. Programs may involve a series of repetitive undertakings

27. According to PMI, application areas are categories of projects that have
common elements in the majority of project, but are NOT necessarily
required or applicable to all projects.
Application areas are NOT usually defined in terms of:
A. Industry groups
B. Management specializations
C. None of the choices are correct
D. Technical elements

28. In Rolling Wave Planning:

A. Near term work is planned in more detail
B. All planning is completed before starting the actual work
C. 50% of planning is completed before starting the actual work
D. None of the above

29. Which of the following is not a basic element of Earn Value Management
(EVM)?
A. Earned Value
 B. Planned Value
C. TCPI
D. Actual Cost

30. Which of the following statements are true?

A. The payback period calculations do not consider the time value of
money
B. IRR calculations do not consider the time value of money
C. Discounted cash flow calculation do not consider the time value of
money
D. NPV calculation do not consider the time value of money

31. Pareto Chart helps you find:

A. Minor sources creating the majority of problems
B. Majority of causes creating the minority of problems
C. Cause of variation
D. Cause of deviation

32. You are managing a project with a budget of 500,000 USD, and 250,000
USD has been spent. Upon review, you observe that only 40% of the work
has been completed; though, your schedule says that you should have
completed 50% of the work. What is the Actual Cost?
A. 500,000 USD
B. 200,000 USD
C. 300,000 USD
D. 250,000 USD

33. The client inspects the deliverables with you, and finds that it meets the
acceptance criteria. He signed off and formally approves the deliverables.
Which process is this?
A. Control Quality
B. Control Scope
 C. Validate Scope
D. Close Project

34. Which is an example of Triple Constraint?

A. Scope, Human Resource, Time
B. Quality, Scope, Human Resource
C. Cost, Human Resource, Time
D. Scope, Cost, Time

35. While inspecting, you find a defective component and you repaired it.
This act is known as:
A. Preventive Action
B. Corrective Action
C. Defect Repair
D. None of Above

36. In which phase will the risks be at the lowest level?

A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Execution
D. Closing

37. You are a project manager for a major information systems project.
Someone from the quality department comes to see you about beginning a
quality audit of your project. The team, already under pressure to complete
the project as soon as possible, objects to the audit. You should explain to the
team that the purpose of a quality audit is:
A. Part of an ISO 9000 investigation
B. To check if the customer is following its quality process
C. To identify inefficient and ineffective policies
D. To check the accuracy of costs submitted by the team
38. Which Conflict Resolution Technique leads to consensus and
commitment?
A. Withdraw
B. Accommodate
C. Compromise
D. Collaborative

39. You are the program level manager with several project activities
underway. In the executing process group, you begin to become concerned
about the accuracy of progress reports from the projects. What would BEST
support your opinion that there is a problem?
A. Quality Audits
B. Risk Quantification Reports
C. Regression Analysis
D. Monte Carlo Analysis

40. During every project team meeting, the project manager asks each team
member to describe the work he or she is doing, and the project manager
assigns new activities to team members. The length of these meetings has
increased because there are many different activities to assign. This could be
happening for all the following reasons EXCEPT:
A. Lack of a WBS
B. Lack of a responsibility assignment matrix
C. Lack of resource levelling
D. Lack of team involvement in project planning

41. A project manager is quantifying risk for her project. She needs expert
opinion in this process and related experts are spread over to different
geographical locations. How can she continue?
A. Using Monte Carlo analysis online
B. Applying the critical path method
C. Determine options for recommended corrective action
D. Applying the Delphi Technique
42. The project team is arguing about the prospective sellers who have
submitted proposals. One team member argues for a certain seller while
another team member wants the project to be awarded to a different seller.
The BEST thing the project manager should remind the team to focus on in
order to make a selection is the:
A. Procurement documents
B. Procurement audits
C. Evaluation criteria
D. Procurement management plan

43. Risk tolerance is determined in order to help:

A. The team ranks the project risks
B. The project manager estimates the project
C. The team schedules the project
D. Management knows how other managers will act on the project.

44. You are finding it difficult to evaluate the exact cost impact of risk. You
should evaluate on a(n) :
A. Quantitative basis
B. Numerical basis
C. Qualitative basis
D. Economic basis

45. A project manager is in the middle of creating a request for proposal

(RFP). What part of the procurement process is she in?
A. Conduct procurements
B. Plan Procurements
C. Control Procurements
D. Close Procurements
46. You want to group your project stakeholders based on their authority and
involvement in the project. Which of the following is appropriate model for
this?
A. Power/Interest Grid
B. Power/Influence Grid
C. Influence/Impact Grid
D. Salience Model

47. Assuming that the ends of a range of estimates are +/- 3 sigma from the
mean, which of the following range estimates involves the LEAST risk?
A. 30 days, plus or minus 5 days
B. 22 – 30 days
C. Optimistic = 26 days, most likely = 30 days, pessimistic = 33 days
D. Mean of 28 days

48. A software development team works with a product owner, who routes
influence by stakeholders on the software product. The product owner keeps
a list of the work to be done in order to build the desired product.
What is this list referred to?
A. Activity attributes
B. Increment
C. Iteration
D. Product backlog

49. Which of the following will not be performed when closing a project?
A. Initiate your next project which is extremely urgent and important for
the organization
B. Reassign project staff
C. Finalizing open contract claims
D. Collect project or phase records
50. A Project Manager works mainly in which Knowledge Area?
A. Schedule Management
B. Quality Management
C. Integration Management
D. Risk Management

51. Which of the following statements regarding the work breakdown

structure (WBS) is incorrect?
A. The WBS subdivides project work into smaller and more manageable
components
B. The WBS is a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the
project work
C. The WBS organizes and defines the total scope of the project
D. The WBS contains components representing higher levels of scope
decomposition called work packages

52. An important trend in the Project Stakeholder Engagement process is ...?

A. Identifying all stakeholders
B. Stakeholder diversity
C. Complexity of stakeholder relationships
D. Communication technology

53. The most long-lasting conflict resolution is caused by which of these

techniques?
A. Smoothing
B. Confrontation
C. Compromising
D. Forcing

54. A Project Manager is using AOA to perform critical path analysis. The
network diagram is represented as shown using below. Which of the
following represents the path:
 A. ABIR
B. CDHR
C. CDGIR
D. EFGIR

Activity Duration Dependent on

A 3 None
C 3 None
B 2 A
D 5 C
E 2 None
F 4 E
G 3 D,F
H 1 D,F
I 2 B,G
R 0 H,I

55. According to Herzberg which of these is not an example of hygiene

factors?
A. Job security
B. Salary
C. Safe working conditions
D. Appreciation of work

56. If EV = $100, AC = $90, PV = $110 and BAC = $400, how much is the
Cost Variance of a project?
A. $300
B. $40
C. $20
D. $10
57. All of the following are ALWAYS inputs to the risk management process
EXCEPT:
A. Historical information
B. Lessons learned
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Project status reports

58. Which of the following statements regarding project knowledge

management is correct:
A. Managing knowledge involves just documenting it so it can be shared
B. Managing knowledge involves just obtaining lessons learned at the end
of the project, in order to use it on future projects
C. Codified explicit knowledge lacks context and is open to different
interpretations
D. Tacit knowledge lacks context and is easy to codify

59. You are a consulting project manager. An investment bank has a contract
with you to run a large information technology project, which you expect to
last 15 months. While developing the project charter, you discover that it did
not address several regulatory requirements in the business case. Failure to
meet these requirements could result in legal action against the company.
However, implementing the technology to comply with these regulations
could exceed the project’s budget and scope, which could lead to the
project’s cancellation. What should you do?
A. Disclose the discovery to the project sponsor and stakeholders
immediately
B. Track this as a risk
C. Wait until the project is 25 percent complete, when you have a better
idea of what resources and funding could be allocated to addressing
these requirements
D. Write up a scope change request for the work
60. Linda is a project manager in charge of an online banking project. The
project has completed phase 1 and is moving into the next phase of the
project. What is the process Linda has to plan for to formalize acceptance of
the completed project deliverables so that the project can move to the next
phase?
A. Manage Quality
B. Validate Scope
C. Close Project or Phase
D. Control Quality

61. A project management team intends to develop a lifecycle for its new
software development project on a continuum between the extremes of highly
agile and highly predictive methods. What is a typical signal that the lifecycle
chosen is located between the two extremes?
A. Requirements are elaborated repeatedly
B. Requirements are developed upfront and kept static
C. Requirements are developed during the course of the project
D. Change is constrained as much as possible

62. You have been asked to calculate the internal rate of return (IRR) of a
project? What will you assess?
A. The time period needed to pay back the investment from a project
when future income is discounted
B. The inherent discount rate or investment yield rate produced by the
project's deliverables over a pre-defined period of time
C. The rate of negative risk that can be accepted for a project without
turning the expected net present value negative
D. The expected benefit from a project’s deliverable calculated as a
percentage of the original investment over a specified time period

63. Danny works as a project manager for a company that provides

outsourcing services to banks. Recently, he sent a proposal to a local bank for
a data warehouse project for which his company lacks expertise. Although
his company lacks expertise, it has a good working relationship with the bank
in all its other projects. Which of the following statements is correct
considering the proposal Danny submitted?
A. Danny has not violated the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional
Conduct
B. Danny has violated the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct
C. Danny has violated the Procurement Code but not the PMI code
D. None of the above

64. The critical path method (CPM) calculates the theoretical early start and
finish dates and late start and finish dates. If no scheduling constraints have
been applied to the critical activities, the critical activities will have:
A. Zero total float
B. Zero or positive total float
C. Positive total float
D. Positive or negative total float

65. You recently became the Project Manager for a project that is already
halfway through its execution. (The previous Project Manager is on a
different project.) As you begin to learn about the project, you discover no
one ever established a project charter. However, there is a comprehensive
project management plan, developed and approved by all the key
stakeholders. What should you do?
A. Complain about the incomplete project charter
B. Wait and see whether a project charter is necessary
C. Establish a project charter at the point when you enter the project
D. Assume it is too late and continue without a project charter

66. A large insurance company has chosen your company to develop a new
line of business. This is a large and prestigious project for the company, and
you have told the senior management you will create a team meeting room
for this project. This is one of the strategies for:
A. Co-location
B. Centralized Team
C. Project Control
D. Develop Team

67. During risk management activities, 236 risks have been identified which
are caused by 13 root causes. You could eliminate the 234 risks by your risk
management activities. For remaining 2 risks, you, together with your team,
could not find a way to mitigate or insure the risks. Also these 2 risks cannot
be outsourced or removed from project scope. What is the best solution?
A. Accept the risk
B. Mitigate the risk
C. Avoid the risk
D. Transfer the risk

68. Your boss advises you must have your final project schedule and budget
ready to present to the executive steering committee at a meeting later this
week. A draft schedule is complete based on estimates your team provided.
However, they have not yet had a chance to review the schedule to ensure
their estimates are appropriate and realistic. Timing constraints make it
impossible to complete this review before the meeting. What is the best
approach?
A. Pad the schedule estimate for completion
B. Present the schedule as is and add the lack of review to the risk register
C. Increase the schedule contingency reserve for the project based on
analogous estimates
D. Submit the schedule as is and change it later when the final review is
complete

69. You are in charge of a troubled project. The project includes producing
widgets for your customer. You collected production data to help identify the
causes of defects in the overall process. Which technique should you use to
analyze this data to determine the main source of defects?
A. Statistical sampling
B. Defect repair review
C. Fishbone diagram
D. Kaizen

70. Which of the following is an agile technique that regularly checks the
effectiveness of the quality process, looks for the root cause of issues, and
suggests trials of new approaches to improve quality?
A. Retrospectives
B. Sprints
C. Backlog
D. User stories

71. A project manager is approached by a team of software programmers who

work for her project. The team requests a certain person to be released from
other work to enhance the team with specific technical skills and enhance its
productivity. The team also offers to introduce the person to the progress of
development achieved so far and to the tasks that the person should take over
in order to get the project work done.
Which management principle is applied by the project manager and the team?
A. Self-organizing teams
B. Norming teams
C. Micro-managed teams
D. Competing teams

72. A company’s management is discussing a project request created by one

of its managers. But the managers are uncertain whether the project is worth
the investment. A project manager has been assigned to develop a document
to describe the potential benefits in monetary and other aspects. After
acceptance of the project request, this document will to be used to track the
realization of those benefits.
Which title will the project manager probably give to the document?
A. Project business case
B. Benefits management plan
C. Project chárter
D. Project statement of work

73. A project manager is performing a project with contract partners in

different countries. What should the person be aware of?
A. It is the seller’s responsibility to ensure that the procurement meets the
specific needs of the project
B. All differences in local laws can be overcome with clear contract
language
C. Local culture and laws may have influence upon the enforceability of a
contract
D. The use of contracts with appendices and annexes should generally be
avoided for projects

74. A project kick off meeting is usually conducted to:

A. Setup project team and announce the PM assignment
B. To draft project charter
C. Build up team spirit
D. Define project scope and develop WBS

75. Matrix organizations exhibit features of both projectized and functional

organizations. In a weak matrix organization, the role of a project manager
may be that of a:
A. Coordinator
B. Manager with considerable authority
C. Support person
D. Functional manager

76. You are a Project Manager of a highly visible and critical project in your
company. This project was initiated with much fanfare, and you have some of
the best technical experts as a part of the project team. You are in the process
planning and detailing the scope of the project when you hear the project is
being terminated. What could be the MOST likely cause?
A. The senior management didn't approve the project charter
B. The project team didn't have required technical expertise
C. The project sponsor failed to support the project
D. The project contract was not signed off by the customer

77. You are the Project Manager on a major construction project. You have to
install several miles of piping, and so you have decided to use parametric
modelling to estimate the activity. Which one of the following is an example
of parametric modelling?
A. A list of the activities required
B. Historical data from a similar project
C. 126 minutes per metre
D. Work Breakdown Structure Dictionary

78. A project needed to monitor the technical performance of the project and
capture data related to how many errors or defects had been identified, and
how many remained uncorrected. Which of the following techniques should
the project use?
A. Scatter diagram
B. Flowchart
C. Histogram
D. Control chart

79. Which process identifies the project manager?

A. Develop Project Management Plan
B. Develop Project Charter
C. Define Scope
D. Select Project Process
80. You are the Project Manager assigned to build a next generation vehicle.
You identify a dependency that the wheels must be designed and developed
before the assembly of the vehicle can be performed. This is an example of
which type of dependency?
A. External
B. Discretionary
C. Soft Logic
D. Mandatory

81. You are the Project Manager assigned to build a next generation vehicle.
You identify a dependency that before the vehicle can be sold, it must be
approved by the Government regulatory authority. This is an example of
which type of dependency?
A. External
B. Discretionary
C. Soft Logic
D. Mandatory

82. You are required to estimate the time to paint a large wall. You know it
takes two hours to paint one square foot of wall. The wall has an area of 30
square foot. So you estimate that it will take 60 hours to paint the wall.
Which estimation model are you using?
A. Bottom-up
B. Parametric modelling
C. Analogous
D. Expert judgment

83. You are managing a water supply network deployment project. During
project planning you are considering two approaches to lay the pipe network.
Approach A will most likely cost $50,000 (+/-5%). Approach B will most
likely cost $25,000 (+/-40%). Which approach will you select if your project
stakeholders' risk tolerances are low and if you want to select the less risky
approach?
A. Neither approach since they are not definitive estimates
B. Approach B since it ranges from $15,000 to $35,000
C. Approach A since it ranges from $47,500 to $52,500
D. A combination of approach A and B

84. You are managing a software development project. You want to create
the basis that will be used later on for estimating, scheduling, executing,
monitoring, and controlling the project work. Which process performs this
activity?
A. Create WBS
B. Define Scope
C. Define Activities
D. Create Project Management Plan

85. Which of the following is not an external-unpredictable risk?

A. Changes in government regulations
B. Natural hazards
C. Unexpected environmental side effects
D. Inflation

86. Maslow ranked Human needs from the highest to lowest:

A. Self actualization; self promotion; social; security and physiological
needs
B. Self esteem; self actualization; social; security and physiological
C. Self actualization; self esteem; social; security and physiological
D. Self fulfillment; self esteem; social; security and physiological

87. You have recently joined as a project manager in a company where they
follow a projectized organizational structure. All your team members work in
the same office where you have a lot of independence and authority. Which
of the following is NOT an advantage of a projectized organizational
structure?
A. Loyalty to the project
B. Home for the team members after the project is completed
C. Effective communication
D. Efficiency in project organization

88. A Project Manager is in the process of documenting and defining a

stakeholder's needs to meet project objectives. What is the output of this
process?
A. Stakeholder Register
B. Stakeholder Management Strategy
C. Requirements Documentation
D. Issue Log

89. Which of the following in not an indicator that the project has reached its
end?
A. Project funding is exhausted or no longer available
B. The project’s objectives have been achieved
C. All of the project's products have been created
D. The human or physical resources are no longer available

90. Factors that influence conflict resolution methods include EXCEPT:

A. Position taken by persons involved
B. Relative importance and intensity of the conflict
C. Political influence of the persons involved
D. Time pressure for resolving the conflict.

91. A project is performed by a company for another organization. The latter

organization pays the first for the work performed and deliverables provided.
What kind of agreement is used between the two companies?
A. Project contract
 B. Internal agreement
C. Memorandum of understanding
D. Gentlemen agreement

92. The level of accuracy for order of magnitude estimation is

A. -25% to +75%
B. -25% to +50%
C. -25% to +25%
D. -25% to +10%

93. Which of the following is not a Tuckman’s team development stage?

A. Confronting
B. Forming
C. Norming
D. Adjourning

94. What is the right sequence of leadership transition as per situational

leadership theory?
A. Direct, Support (facilitate), Coach, Delegate
B. Direct, Coach, Support (facilitate), Delegate
C. Coach, Support (facilitate), Delegate, Direct
D. Direct, Delegate, Coach, Support (facilitate)

95. A project manager is determining dependencies that will require a lead or

a lag to accurately define the logical relationship. Which of the following
correctly describes leads or lags?
A. A lead allows a successor activity to be delayed
B. B. A lag directs a delay in the predecessor activity
C. A lag allows an acceleration of the successor activity
D. A lead allows an acceleration of the successor activity.
96. “Do nothing”, “Do the minimum “ and “Do more than the minimum”,
could be options presented in the________________?
A. Quality Management Plan
B. Staff Motivation Plan
C. Activity List
D. Business Case

97. Project management is the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and

techniques to manage activities to meet the project requirements. Which of
the following is NOT true about managing a project?
A. It involves identifying requirements
B. It involves addressing the various needs, concerns, and expectations of
the stakeholders as the project is planned and carried out
C. It involves balancing the competing project constraints such as scope,
quality, schedule, budget, resources, and risk
D. The specific project will not influence the constraints on which the
Project Manager needs to focus

98. You are the project manager responsible for building a new web site. The
project is running late. To bring the project on schedule, you decide to add
additional resources to the critical path. This is an example of
A. Fast-tracking
B. Resource planning
C. Crashing
D. Schedule Management

99. Forecasting by analogy is a project forecasting method. Which of the

following forecasting categories does this method belong to?
A. Judgmental methods
B. Causal/econometric methods
C. Time series methods
D. Artificial intelligence methods
100. You are meeting with a customer for initial discussions about a software
implementation project. At the end of the day, the customer asks you for a
general estimate of the project duration. Based on your experience with three
similar past projects you estimate an 8-10 month implementation time frame.
What is this type of estimation technique called?
A. Three-Point Estimating
B. Bottom-Up Estimating
C. SWAG
D. Analogous Estimating
ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS
PRACTICE TEST 1
Answers
1. Herzberg identified factors, which, if present, will lead to increased
motivation. A typical factor would be:
E. Good supervision
F. Job security
G. Regular promotions
H. Good salary
ANSWER: C

2. Your customer ask for a small change in the project, which was not
budgeted in the project. It is a small effort as compared to the total project
and you need the goodwill for a multimillion dollar on the pipeline. You will
E. Refuse to do the work
F. Agree to do the work at no charge
G. Do the work and bill him later
H. Assess the cost and schedule impact and tell them you will formalize
the change request
ANSWER: D
Impact of every change must be assessed and should go through change
control.

3. Your project stakeholder has asked you to create a financial plan for your
project. Preparing a financial plan will require:
E. Program management skills
F. Industry specific skills
G. Financial subject matter expertise
H. Both project management and industry specific skills
ANSWER: D
Preparing a financial plan requires both project management and
industry specific skills. Although the project manager need not have the
industry-specific skills, she should talk with a person with industry-
specific skills in order to prepare the financial plan.

4. You are a Project Manager working on a critical project. You track the
project schedule closely. While going through the critical path, you realize
that the project is showing negative float. What is your BEST response to the
situation?
E. Use a schedule compression technique
F. Reduce the number of resources from the project
G. Reduce the number of noncritical activities in the project
H. Revisit the risks and do a risk analysis of the project
ANSWER: A
The best option is to compress the project schedule because the critical
path activities can be delayed thus resulting in a negative float. In this
case, the Project Manager should use a schedule compression technique
such as fast tracking or crashing.

5. A Project Manager is in the process of analysing activity sequences,

durations, resources requirements, and schedule constraints to create an
approved project schedule. What should the Project Manager do NEXT?
E. Determine Resource Requirement for each activity in the project
F. Use techniques like Critical Path method and What-if Analysis to
calculate optimum duration of the project
G. Use this approved schedule duration as a baseline and start tracking the
project
H. Create a Network diagram of the project using one of the diagramming
methods
ANSWER: C
The Project Manager is in the process develop schedule. Since the
project schedule has already been approved, it implies Option A, B, and
D are already completed as part of the processes estimate activity
resources, develop schedule, and sequence activities. The next step would
be to treat this estimate as a schedule baseline and start tracking the
project as part of the process control schedule.
6. To help manage stakeholders’ expectations and reduce scope creep, which
of the following actions can you take?
E. Send emails to stakeholders warning them not to make changes
F. Password protect the scope statement, with 128 bit encryption
G. Explicitly state what is out of scope for the project, in the scope
statement
H. Meet more often with stakeholders
ANSWER: C
“Project exclusions. Identifies what is excluded from the project.
Explicitly stating what is out of scope for the project helps manage
stakeholders’ expectations and can reduce scope creep.”

7. As a Project Manager you are estimating the duration of your project

activities using PERT technique (Program Evaluation and Review technique).
For a particular project activity, your optimistic estimate is 41 days,
pessimistic estimate is 89 days, and most likely estimate is 60 days. What
would be the expected duration and range of the estimate for this activity?
E. 61.67 +/- 8.00
F. 31.27 +/-8.00
G. 61.67 +/-3.00
H. 31.27 +/-3.00
ANSWER: A
PERT allows the estimator to include three estimates: optimistic,
pessimistic, and most likely, given by the equation Expected Duration =
[P + 4(ML) + O]/6. Range is +/- standard deviation = (P-O)/6, where P is
the pessimistic estimate, ML is the most likely estimate, and O is the
optimistic estimate. Using this method, the correct answers comes out to
be 61.67 days and range (+/-Standard Deviation) is 8.00.

8. An AON (Activity on Node) diagram is also known as?

E. PDM
 F. Activity on Arrow
G. PERT
H. GERT
ANSWER: A

9. Which of the following is true statement about risks?

E. If a risk is identified in a risk response plan, then that means that risk
has already happened
F. Once a risk has happened, you refer to the risk management plan to
determine what action needs to be taken
G. A risk that was not planned but has happened is called a trigger
H. Risk identification happens in all the phases of the project.
ANSWER: D

10. Which of the following is not true about the Close Project or Phase
process?
E. Contract closeout must be performed after the Administrative
Closeout
F. The risk is the lowest at this stage of the project
G. The probability of completion is the highest at this stage of the
project
H. Stakeholders have least amount of influence at this stage.
ANSWER: A

11. A project manager is confused about the perspective of the buyer-seller

relationship in the context of project procurement management. How would
your clarify this?
E. The buyer-seller relationship exists only between organizations
external to the acquiring organization
F. The buyer-seller relationship exists only between organizations
internal to the acquiring organization
G. The buyer-seller relationship is applicable only when a performing
 organization is involved
H. The buyer-seller relationship can exist at many levels on one project,
and between organizations internal to and external to the acquiring
organization.
ANSWER: D

12. In a WBS (Work Breakdown Structure), what is the numbering system

(e.g. 1.1, 1.1.1, 1.1.4, etc.) called?
E. The Chart of Accounts
F. The Code of Accounts
G. The Requirements Traceability Matrix
H. Activity Attributes
ANSWER: B
This is mapped to the Code of Accounts in the general ledger. There is
nothing called chart of accounts (A).

13. Which of the following is an output of the Identify Risks process.

E. Lessons Learned
F. Checklists
G. Risk Register
H. SWOT Analysis
ANSWER: C
Risk Register is the only output of the Risk identification process.

14. Project Governance refers to which of the following?

E. The inputs, tools and techniques and outputs used by the Project
Manager in order to create a unique product, service, or result to meet
organizational, strategic, and operational goals
F. The framework, functions, and processes that guide project
management activities in order to create a unique product, service, or
result to meet organizational, strategic, and operational goals
 G. The policies, processes and procedures that guide project management
activities in order to create a unique product, service, or result to meet
organizational, strategic, and operational goals
H. The framework, functions, and processes that guide project
management offices to create a unique product, service, or result to
meet organizational, strategic, and operational goals.
ANSWER: B

15. Which Interpersonal and Team Skill is most likely required for the
Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?
E. Facilitation
F. Conflict management
G. Networking
H. Observation/conversation
ANSWER: A
“Interpersonal and team skills that can be used for this process include
but are not limited to facilitation. A skilled facilitator is useful for
gathering input data during a dedicated risk workshop involving project
team members and other stakeholders."

16. In which process of Project Risk Management knowledge area are

numeric values assigned to probabilities and impact of risks
E. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
F. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
G. Perform Numeric Risk Analysis
H. Plan Risk Response
ANSWER: B
A numeric value is assigned to risks impact and probability during the
Quantitative Risk Analysis process.

17. In which type of organization is the Project Manager most likely to have
full-time project management administration staff?
 E. Project-oriented
F. Organic
G. Balanced matrix
H. Hybrid
ANSWER: A
In such an organization, projects are the reason for the existence of the
organization and Project Managers have high, to almost total, authority.
In this type of environment, the Project Manager requires maximum
support for project administration, and so full-time staff are required.

18. The PMO (Project Management Office) in your organization, directly

controls all projects by using PMO staff to manage them. What type of PMO
is this?
E. Controlling
F. Supportive
G. Commanding
H. Directive
ANSWER: D
Directive, in which the PMO performs project management for the given
project.

19. A key output of the Identify Stakeholders process is

E. A Change log
F. An agreement
G. A risk management plan
H. A stakeholder register
ANSWER: D

20. Which of the following means the work performed to deliver a product,
service or result?
E. Project charter
 F. Statement of Work (SOW)
G. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
H. Project Scope
ANSWER: D
The project scope is the work performed to create the product, service or
result. It includes the product scope.

21. Who is responsible for ensuring that the information is received in its
entirety?
E. The Project Manager
F. The Knowledge Librarian
G. The information sender
H. The information receiver
ANSWER: D
“As part of the communication process… The receiver is responsible for
ensuring that the information is received in its entirety, interpreted
correctly, and acknowledged or responded to appropriately.”

22. Which of the below reflects the correct meaning of a sole source seller?
E. A single seller approaches the buyer with a high discount and the
buyer selects that seller
F. The vendor is just one person
G. Only one seller is asked to prepare the proposal, followed by
negotiation
H. The vendor sells just one product
ANSWER: C
The buyer asks a specific seller to prepare the proposal, this is then
negotiated. There is no competition.

23. You are the project manager of XYZ project. One of the risks that has
been identifies is attrition of team members. Mid-way through the project you
notice that the morale and motivation of the team members is going down.
You think that this is a precursor to people leaving the organization. For this
risk, low motivation is an example of
E. Work-around
F. Trigger
G. Risk monitoring
H. Risk planning
ANSWER: B
A risk trigger is an indication that the risk is about to occur or has
occurred.

24. The customer of a large aerospace project that you are managing, calls an
urgent meeting with you. The project is intended to land a manned spaceship
on the surface of Venus. But during the meeting you are told that the project
timeline was planned as too long and has to be cut short by one month. What
should you do as project manager to meet the new date?
E. Ask the customer for more money
F. Discuss the situation with senior management
G. Fast track critical tasks
H. Use expert judgment to confirm the new date
ANSWER: C
Fast tracking means rescheduling serial tasks so that they are performed
with overlap (in parallel), thereby shortening the timeline.

25. The Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct has as its foundation four
values identified by practitioners from the global project management
community. They are:
E. Respect, fairness, transparency and freedom
F. Responsibility, transparency, fairness and honesty
G. Respect, freedom, honesty and transparency
H. Responsibility, respect, fairness and honesty
ANSWER: D
26. You are working on the project of painting of your house. You identify a
dependency that the painting of roof should begin only after two days of
completion of painting of walls. This is an example of:
E. Lag
F. Lead
G. Slack
H. Float
ANSWER: A
Lag is the amount of time after the completion of the predecessor
activity, when the successor activity can start.

27. Which of the following is incorrect regarding a bidders conference?

E. Questions from each seller should be handled confidentially and not
shared with other sellers
F. No bidders should receive preferential treatment, even if they are part
of the company’s existing list of approved suppliers
G. Bidders conferences should not involve individual face-to-face
meetings
H. All prospective sellers should be allowed to have a common
understanding of the procurement.
ANSWER: A

28. You are fairly new to project management, but have been successfully
managing a small project and now management has given you another project
to manage, which you are excited about. However, the new project is
growing exponentially every day, you have also learned a project manager
you work with managed a similar project last year. What should you do?
E. Wait to see if the scope of the project continues to grow
F. Get the project assigned to the PM who managed the similar project
G. Obtain Historical Records and get guidance from the project manager
H. Speak to the other project manager to develop your project plans
ANSWER: C

29. You are the Project Manager of a car manufacturing company. As part of
Quality Control you decide to check only 5% of the cars generated for
environmental check. Which technique are you using?
E. Pareto Diagram
F. Control Charts
G. Statistical Sampling
H. Sample Selection
ANSWER: C
Statistical Sampling is the standard technique that is used to test only a
small sample of products instead of all the products manufactured.

30. Richard is employed as a Project Manager with a software company, and

he is currently managing a project for the local police department. The
project will use Deep Learning to compare information from local, interstate
and international databases, some of which are external to the police, to build
a profile of people and uncover problems in their background. George is
somewhat preoccupied with making friends in the local community. He is
planning a testing phase for the project, and it suddenly occurs to him that he
could profile three of such friends without informing them, and that way he
could find one who has a good character. Is this a proper approach?
E. This is ok, he has to test the system, and these three people might have
been picked up on a random sample, anyway
F. This could be unethical as it might break the local privacy law
G. It’s ok as long as he doesn’t tell the people who failed the background
check
H. This is unethical because a Project Manager should not be testing the
system. He should give the names to someone else to check them.
ANSWER: B
This could be unethical and might break the local privacy law. The other
options are not suitable.
31. You are working with your team and are looking at the cost risks in the
project. You are your team are currently creating a tornado diagram for the
project risks. This is done as a part of which of the following processes?
E. Qualitative Risk Analysis
F. Risk Response Planning
G. Quantitative Risk Analysis
H. Monitor Risks
ANSWER: C

32. Your current project phase has 8 activities, A - H. A and E can start at the
same time. A must finish before B starts. B must finish before C and F start.
C must finish before D starts. E must finish before F and G start. F and G
must finish before H starts. C and H must finish before D starts. Duration of:
A = 5 B = 8 C = 15 D = 10 E = 6 F = 9 G = 19 H = 5 What is the late start of
activity F?
E. 8
F. 23
G. 24
H. 33
ANSWER: B
You need to perform forward pass for all paths starting with the critical
path followed by paths with decreasing lengths.

33. The document that formally authorizes a project is the:

E. Project SOW
F. Project Plan
G. Project Charter
H. Project Scope Statement
ANSWER: C
34. An example of a hierarchical list of team and physical resources related
by category and resource type is known as:
E. Organizational Chart
F. Work Breakdown Structure
G. Resource Breakdown Structure
H. RACI matrix
ANSWER: C
This is the only option which depicts both team and physical resources
by categories and types under those categories.

35. The organization’s Governance Framework does not include:

E. Policies and procedures
F. Relationships and norms
G. Rules, and penalties for breaking rules
H. Systems and Processes
ANSWER: C
The organization’s Governance Framework includes rules, but not
penalties. Relationships and norms are included apart from policies,
processes and procedures.

36. During a presentation to management, you want to display the project

schedule with only the key deliverables displayed. What is the correct tool for
this purpose?
E. Project schedule network diagram
F. Critical path network
G. Milestone chart
H. Critical chain diagram
ANSWER: C

37. As part of your project, 100,000 steel pushrods are to be manufactured.

The rods are critically important and so they will require destructive testing.
What is the best way to accomplish this?
E. The quality is critical, so, you must test every rod.
F. Test one in each 100
G. Test the first 10 of each 1000
H. Test a statistical sample
ANSWER: D
The test being destructive, only a sample should be tested.

38. The Risk Register contains details of all identified risks and current
status. It is a document containing the results of:
E. Plan Risk Responses
F. Identify Risks
G. Monitor Risks
H. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, Perform Quantitative Risk
Analysis and Plan Risk Responses
ANSWER: D

39. A collection of related projects that are managed in a coordinated way to

obtain benefits is called a:
E. Suite
F. Program
G. Portfolio
H. Colocation
ANSWER: B
The PMBOK® Guide defines a Program as: "a group of related
projects, subsidiary programs, and program activities managed in a
coordinated manner to obtain benefits not available from managing
them individually".

40. What percentage of Project Manager's time is spent on communicating?

E. 30
 F. 50
G. 70
H. 90
ANSWER: D
According to PMBOK 90% of Project Managers time is spent in
communicating.

41. You are the Project Manager for ABC project. The scope of the project
has been completed. You receive a request for a new module to be developed
as part of this project. What should you do next?
E. You should approach the Project sponsor and ask her for a new
module to be developed as part of this project
F. You should approach the Senior Management and ask them for a new
module to be developed as part of this project
G. You should send the request to Change Control Board for approval
H. Since the project scope is completed you should inform the customer
that this change cannot be done as part of the project.
ANSWER: D
As the scope is completed, the project is complete. Additional work
should be done as part of a new project.

42. Which of the following suggests that you are a Theory Y manager?
E. You expect the team members to self-direct their work, and you
provide just general guidance
F. You micro-manage the team
G. You give the team a big pep-talk in the mornings
H. You are an expert in the product of the project
ANSWER: A
You expect the team members to self-direct their work, and provide just
general guidance.
43. Which of these is not an example of a project?
E. Buying clothes from the market on a special sale
F. Planning for your friends wedding
G. Building a bridge across the Amazon river
H. Cleaning the office building every day.
ANSWER: D
Cleaning the building is a repetitive task that is done everyday. Hence it
is not an example of a project.

44. Cost baseline is usually represented using which curve or line?

E. A Slanted line
F. An S-curve
G. A Z curve
H. A PQ curve
ANSWER: B
An S-curve is typically used to represent a cost baseline. The cost is low
in the beginning and end, and high during the middle of the project.

45. You are performing Earned Value Reporting for your project. The
project's CPI is 0.9 and the budget at completion is One thousand dollars.
What is the estimated cost at completion?
E. Nine hundred dollars
F. One thousand one hundred and eleven dollars
G. One thousand dollars
H. One thousand and one hundred dollars
ANSWER: B
EAC = (BAC/CPI).

46. Activity Attributes may be used for all of the following except?
E. To derive necessary sequence of activities
F. To include leads and lags
 G. To indicate the control account
H. To derive the logical relationships
ANSWER: C
The indication of control account is for the work packages not activities.

47. You are attending the first project status meeting and people are using the
term backlog frequently. What does this backlog contain?
E. The requirements of the agile prototype product
F. Description of various releases of the project
G. The high risk requirements of the product owner
H. The project requirements
ANSWER: D
The backlog is a list of requirements of the project in the form of user
stories or features, which are prioritized and delivered over several
iterations or sprints. A release may have one or more sprints and there
may be multiple releases. The other options related to prototype
requirements, release description and high risk requirements do not
mean the backlog.

48. Which of the below is a likely reason for conflict between portfolios,
programs, projects, and operations?
E. They often engage with the same stakeholders and may need to use the
same resources
F. They are led by managers who have competing aims
G. Portfolios can include programs, projects, and operations, and that
makes the program managers, project managers, and operations
managers feel unimportant
H. They usually come from various organizations
ANSWER: A

49. Which is not a tool & technique of Conduct Procurements?

 E. Expert judgement
F. Proposal evaluation
G. Negotiation
H. Trend Analysis
ANSWER: D
This is a tool & technique of Control Procurements where performance
of the seller is reviewed, contract changes are triggered or contract is
closed.

50. Which of the following best describes Plan Stakeholder Management

process?
E. Creation and maintenance of relationships between the project team
and stakeholders
F. Preventing negative stakeholders from derailing the project
G. Striking a balance between stakeholder needs and project needs
H. Focuses on from the creation of the stakeholder management strategy
ANSWER: A
Stakeholder management is about the creation and maintenance of
relationships between the project team and stakeholders.

51. What is a work breakdown structure?

E. A hierarchically-organized depiction of the project organization
F. A hierarchical structure of resource categories
G. A hierarchical representation of project risks
H. A deliverables-oriented decomposition of the project work
ANSWER: D
A work breakdown structure (WBS) is a deliverable-oriented
hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed by the project
team to accomplish the project objectives and create the required
deliverables.
52. What is the name of the diagram displayed below?

E. Flowchart diagram
F. Ishikawa diagram
G. Wishywashy diagram
H. Fish diagram
ANSWER: B
Ishikawa diagrams (also called fishbone diagrams, herringbone
diagrams, or cause and effect diagrams) are causal diagrams that show
the causes of a certain event. Created by and named after Kaoru
Ishikawa, these diagrams are used in product design and quality defect
prevention to identify potential factors causing an overall effect.

53. You are using control charts to perform quality control. Which of these
situations does not indicate that the process is out of control and an
assignable cause needs to be assigned. Assume that the control limits have
been set to three sigma.
E. One of the point is more than the mean + (3*sigma)
F. Two points together are more than mean +(2*sigma), but less than
mean + (3*sigma)
G. Seven points together are on one side of the mean
 H. Three points are on one side of the mean
ANSWER: B

54. The PMBOK® Guide is an example of which of the following?

E. A project management methodology
F. A standard
G. A regulation
H. A university textbook
ANSWER: B
The PMBOK® Guide is generally recognized as a project management
framework, not as a methodology. It contains the globally recognized
standard and guide for the project management profession. A standard
is a formal document that describes established norms, methods,
processes, and practices.

55. You are a project manager in a strong matrix organization. A team

member on the project is consistently delivering her work packages late and
below the required quality standards. The issue has been discussed with her
several times already but no improvement has been visible. As the project
manager you decide that it is time to employ coercive power. What measure
will you implement?
E. You punish her by removing the privilege to work from home for two
days per week
F. You bargain with her to give her better assignments if she performs
G. You discuss the situation with her line manager
H. You ask the human resources department to step in
ANSWER: A
You are a project manager in a strong matrix organization and therefore
you have considerable authority and power over your project team
members, and also a full-time administrative staff. French & Raven
recognize five types of power: Coercive, Reward, Legitimate, Referent,
and Expert. Coercive power comes from the belief that a person can
punish others for noncompliance and is also known as penalty power.

56. With respect to updates of project documents, which is true for the project
manager?
E. Updates the Project Management Plan, Project Documents and
Business Documents
F. Updates the Project Management Plan and Project Documents but not
the Business Documents
G. Updates the Project Management Plan, and Business Documents but
not the Project Documents
H. Updates the Business Documents and Project Documents, but not the
Project Management Plan.
ANSWER: B
“The project sponsor is generally accountable for the development and
maintenance of the project business case document. The project
manager is responsible for providing recommendations and oversight to
keep the project business case, project management plan, project
charter, and project benefits management plan success measures in
alignment with one another and with the goals and objectives of the
organization.”

57. While searching through a box of her company’s organizational process

assets, Chloe finds a recent fragment network. What is Florence most likely
to use a fragment network for while managing her project?
E. Holding incomplete sub-plans
F. Creating a PDM (Precedence Diagramming Method) chart
G. Creating a WBS
H. Creating a Gantt Chart
ANSWER: B
Creating a precedence diagramming method chart. A fragment network
or a subnetwork is a portion of a network diagram which may be used as
a template in various projects.
58. An outcome of actions, behaviours, products, services, or results that
provide value to the sponsoring organization, are called the:
E. Benefits
F. Advantages
G. Products, services or results
H. Values
ANSWER: A
“A project benefit is defined as an outcome of actions, behaviours,
products, services, or results that provide value to the sponsoring
organization as well as to the project’s intended beneficiaries.”

59. You are managing a project and discover a small but extremely urgent
change that is required to improve project performance. Key team members
have confirmed that the change will not affect the baselines. You next action
will be:
E. As this is urgent and simple, you can authorise the change yourself,
because it will not impact the baselines
F. Raise a change request and wait for approval, because all changes must
be authorized by the CCB (Change Control Board)
G. Insist that the team works harder to improve performance
H. Ask the project Sponsor if you can make the change
ANSWER: A
As this is urgent and simple, you can authorise the change yourself,
because it will not impact the baselines. This option is possible only if the
baselines will not be impacted.

60. Which one of the following is not a Tool & Technique of Monitor and
Control Project Work?
E. Earned value analysis
F. Root cause analysis
G. Variance analysis
 H. Brainstorming
ANSWER: D
Brainstorming, as it is a technique for generating new ideas. Though it
can be used to generate solutions for issues, but other options are the
primary techniques for comparing progress with the plan and to analyse
issues as part of project monitoring and control.

61. Mike needs to visit many countries as part of his job. He has learned that
he needs to avoid being ethno-centric. What does ethnocentrism mean?
E. Not being friendly to strangers
F. Unable to get adjusted to the food of a new place
G. Belief that ones culture is superior to others
H. Initial shock of landing in a new country.
ANSWER: C
Ethnocentrism refers to belief that one culture is superior to other
cultures.

62. You are working on a project to build a bridge. You have reached the
planned half way mark. The total planned cost at this stage is five hundred
dollars. The actual physical work that has been completed at this stage is
worth $400. You have already spent one thousand dollars on the project.
What is the Schedule Variance?
E. -100
F. 100
G. -600
H. 600
ANSWER: A
SV=EV-PV. 400 minus 500 is -100.

63. How many critical paths can a project have?

E. Only 1
 F. Not more than 2
G. Not more than 3
H. Can be more than 3 also
ANSWER: D
There is no theoretical limit. If a project has more than one critical path,
then all critical paths must be exactly the same length and several critical
paths have to be closely monitored.

64. A CPIF (cost-plus-incentive-fee) contract has an estimated cost to the

seller of $165,000, and an Incentive fee of $13,500 has been negotiated. By
the end of the contract, the seller's actual costs are $147,350. What is the
seller's profit if the share ratio is 70/30?
E. 18795
F. 25855
G. 18975
H. 166145
ANSWER: A
Estimated Seller Costs = $165,000, Incentive fee = $13,500; Share Ratio =
70/30 (Buyer/Seller), Actual Seller Costs = $147,350, Savings = Estimated
Costs - Actual costs = $165,000 - $147,350 = $17,650, Seller's profit =
Incentive fee + (Savings * Seller's share ratio) = $13,500 + ($17,650 *
30%) = $13,500 + $5,295 = $18,795. Be careful not to choose C where the
numbers look almost the same.

65. You are developing your project's Human Resource Management Plan.
Your sponsor asked you to take the historical information from previous
projects to determine this project's human resource roles and responsibilities.
Which of the following sources contains this information?
E. Organizational Process Assets
F. Enterprise Environmental Factors
G. Project Management Plan
H. Project Charter
ANSWER: A
Organizational Process Assets contain historical information about
previous projects.

66. You are currently determining the budget for your project. You have used
the Bottom-Up and PERT Three-Point cost estimation techniques to estimate
the costs of your project work packages. You have rolled up the costs of these
work packages into a total cost of $50 Million. Your management has
approved a $5 Million contingency reserve and a $3 Million management
reserve for this project. What is your project cost baseline?
E. $50 Million
F. $53 Million
G. $55 Million
H. $58 Million
ANSWER: C
This question gives you three values and asks you to calculate the project
cost baseline. The three values given are:
$50 Million - Project Work Package Cost
$5 Million - Contingency Reserve
$3 Million - Management Reserve
If you add up these three values your total is $58 Million. This total
represents the total funds required for your project.
In order to calculate the project cost baseline you need to leave out the
management reserve.
The cost baseline is calculated by adding your project work package cost
plus the contingency reserves, i.e., $50 Million + $5 Million = $55 Million.

67. The Delphi Method is best suited for:

E. Decision-making
F. Cost Control
G. Overhead rate estimating
H. Team discussions
ANSWER: A

68. Which of the following methods is least likely to be used for explaining
project planning guidelines to the team?
E. Project Office Memo
F. Project office directive
G. Project team meeting
H. Formal project report
ANSWER: D
A report gives information about what happened and doesn't talk about
planning or give guidelines or directives.

69. Acquire Resources is “the process of obtaining team members, facilities,

equipment, materials, supplies, and other resources necessary to complete
project work.” What resources does Control Resources control?
E. Team members and physical resources
F. Just team resources
G. Just physical resources
H. Either, depending upon the project context.
ANSWER: C
“Control Resources - The process of ensuring that the physical resources
assigned and allocated to the project are available as planned, as well as
monitoring the planned versus actual use of resources, and performing
corrective action as necessary.”

70. You are planning to use screening system for source selection process to
select a vendor for supplying food for your company? Which of these is a
good example of screening system?
E. You interview all the vendors and decide based upon the interviews
F. You negotiate with all the vendors and select the one that provides the
best price
G. You only consider those vendors who have revenue of ten million
 dollars in the last financial year
H. You select the vendor who responds first to your advertisement.
ANSWER: C
Screening system are predefined criteria that are used to short-list
vendors for source selection.

71. Mike is the project manager for an offshore drilling Project. The project is
behind schedule and he has requested approval to crash the critical path. This
process adds more of what?
E. Schedule
F. Cost
G. Risk
H. Resources
ANSWER: D
Crashing is achieved by adding resources. According to the PMBOK®
Guide, it may increase cost or risk.

72. If a Project Manager is authentic, it means that they:

E. Always tell the truth, no matter what the circumstances
F. Accept others for what and who they are, and show open concern
G. Are a genuine PMP® certified Project Manager
H. Always perform highly accurate work
ANSWER: B

73. Which of the following may be used as a risk transference tool?

E. Benefits Management Plan
F. Memorandum of understanding
G. Quotation
H. Contract
ANSWER: D
In Risk Management, a contract can be used to transfer risk from the
buyer to the seller. This is called “Transference”.

74. Understanding the strategic objectives of a project to ensure the

alignment of the project objectives and results with those of the portfolio,
program, and business areas, and contributing to the execution of the
strategy, is a key part of which role?
E. Project Manager
F. Program manager
G. Project Board
H. Project Support
ANSWER: A
“Project managers play a key role in working with the project sponsor to
understand the strategic objectives and ensure the alignment of the
project objectives and results with those of the portfolio, program, and
business areas. In this way, project managers contribute to the
integration and execution of the strategy.”

75. When undertaking a new project, a Project Manager should begin by:
E. Interviewing all prospective team members
F. Reviewing the Enterprise Environmental Factors and Organizational
Process Assets
G. Reviewing the vision, mission, and objectives of the organization, to
ensure the products are aligned.
H. Reviewing the project Management Plan
ANSWER: C

76. Projects are initiated in response of:

E. Stakeholder's pressure
F. Business needs
G. Technological obsolescence
H. All of the above
ANSWER: D
All those factors contribute towards project initiation.

77. Which of the following is usually not one of the 4 categories of factors
for initiating projects?
E. Analyzing and deciding which project would be more profitable
among a set of projects
F. Satisfy stakeholder requests or needs
G. Implement or change business or technological strategies
H. Create, improve, or fix products, processes, or services.
ANSWER: A
Analyzing and deciding which project would be more profitable among a
set of projects. This is a portfolio task, and its result will decide which
project to initiate.

78. The optimistic time estimate for an activity is 11 days, pessimistic is 25

days, and most likely is 15 days. What is the expected time for this activity?
E. 16 days
F. 15 days
G. 21 days
H. 18 days
ANSWER: A
Expected time = (O + 4M + P)/6 = 16

79. The party that needs the change resulting from the project, and who will
be its custodian on completion is the:
E. Owner
F. Sponsor
G. Customer
H. Client
ANSWER: A
80. There are a number of risks that have been identified in your project. The
team has elected not to change the project plan to deal with the risk, but they
have established a contingency reserve of money in the event some of these
risks are triggered. This is an example of what type of risk mitigation
technique?
E. Contingent Response Strategy
F. Active acceptance
G. Passive acceptance
H. Avoidance
ANSWER: B

81. Your team is attempting to improve the design of the product from a
reliability and safety perspective. Which of the below techniques would you
recommend?
E. Design of experiments
F. Product analysis
G. Alternatives analysis
H. Design for excellence
ANSWER: D
Design for excellence (DfX) aims to improve reliability, safety,
performance and other parameters while attempting to improve
customer satisfaction and reduce cost.

82. Which of these processes is NOT a Project Schedule Management

process?
E. Create WBS
F. Develop Schedule
G. Define Activities
H. Sequence Activities
ANSWER: A

83. A knowledge fair is in progress in your project where discussions are on

in various stalls to share knowledge and create new knowledge. In the past,
job shadowing was used for the same purpose. What category of tools are
these part of?
E. Information management
F. Knowledge management
G. Knowledge café management
H. Knowledge fair management
ANSWER: B
Knowledge management connects people to share and create knowledge.

84. Which of the following processes gives the project management team
insights into the health of the project?
E. Develop Project Management Plan
F. Perform Integrated Change Control
G. Monitor and Control Project Work
H. Determine Budget
ANSWER: C

85. Which one of the following is not a valid evaluation criterion for source
selection?
E. Staff’s nationality
F. Capability and capacity of the seller
G. Product cost and life cycle cost
H. Key staff’s qualifications, availability, and competence
ANSWER: A
The nationality of staff should have no influence on source selection, as
long as they can do the job.

86. A project to build a road has a budget of $10M and is expected to be

completed in 10 months, with the expectation that the actual costs would be
the same each month, because is the similarity of the work each month.
However, at the end of the second month, 5% of the work has been
completed, and 1M has been spent. What is the total project now expected to
cost and how long should it take?
E. $10M and 10 months
F. $18M and 36 months
G. $19M and 38 months
H. $20M and 40 months
ANSWER: D
At the end of 2 months, PV = $1M x 2 = $2M, EV = $10M * 0.05 =
$0.5M, AC = $1M, CPI = EV/AC = 0.5/1 = 0.5, SPI = EV/PV = 0.5/2 =
0.25,EAC = BAC/CPI = 10/0.5 = $20M, Estimated total time to complete
= 10 months/SPI = 10/0.25 = 40 months.

87. You are at work related social event and a colleague tells you another
project manager has just hired her son’s engineering firm for a city public
improvement project that you are managing. You know that this company’s
proposal did not meet the pre-defined selection criteria to be considered for
award. What do you do?
E. File a complaint with PMI
F. Escalate the issue to the appropriate management
G. Ask the project manager about what you have just heard. If your
suspicions are confirmed, escalate the issue to the appropriate
management
H. Do nothing.
ANSWER: C
If your suspicions are confirmed, escalate the issue to the appropriate
management.

88. You are managing a project for your company constructing an office
complex in another country. The construction work on 2 of the buildings is
complete and is ready for move-in. However, the construction foreman
informs you that a fee must be paid to a local government agency in order to
be issued an occupancy permit for all new construction in that country. What
should you do?
E. Pay the fee
F. Ask your legal department if this is legal
G. Notify project stakeholders that you have been asked to pay a bribe
H. Do not pay the fee.
ANSWER: A

89. You are the sponsor of a project that is designed to record phone calls for
quality control purposes. You are in the process of writing the charter, what is
NOT an input into this document?
E. Organizational standard processes
F. Marketplace conditions
G. Government or industry standards
H. Project Scope Statement
ANSWER: D

90. The WBS structure can be created in a number of forms except which of
the following?
E. Using work packages as the second level of decomposition, with the
project deliverables inserted at the third level
F. Using major deliverables as the second level of decomposition
G. Using phases of the project life cycle as the second level of
decomposition, with the product and project deliverables inserted at
the third level
H. Using subcomponents which may be developed by organizations
outside the project team, such as contracted work.
ANSWER: A

91. A typical title for a Project Manager in a weak matrix structure is:
E. Project Coordinator
F. Project Manager
G. Project Leader
 H. Program Manager
ANSWER: B
In a weak matrix organization, a Project Manager typically performs the
coordination role.

92. A Project Sponsor appointed a Project Manager to a new project and

asked him to get started immediately, even before the charter got approved.
What should the Project Manager do?
E. Push to create and approve the charter
F. Start with the team ramp-up and planning
G. Ask some other Project Manager to take over the project
H. Start the critical activities
ANSWER: A
The charter is important because it formally authorizes a project. The
Project Manager must do whatever possible to get the charter issued.

93. A project team is working on initiating a project. Which of the following

options is NOT true about this situation?
E. The Sponsor is developing the project charter
F. The Project Manager is developing the project charter
G. The Project manager is participating in the development of the project
charter
H. The Sponsor and the Project Manager together are developing the
project charter
ANSWER: C
As per the new examination content outline, the Project Manager will
not develop the project charter and will only participate in developing
the project charter.

94. One phase is planned at any given time, and the planning for the next is
carried out as work progresses on the current phase and deliverables. Which
of the following correctly defines the above text?
E. Overlapping relationship
F. Sequential relationship
G. Multi-phase relationship
H. Iterative relationship
ANSWER: D
An iterative relationship is where one phase is planned at any given time
and the planning for the next is carried out as work progresses on the
current phase or deliverable.

95. Before committing to a larger portion of the project scope, the buyer of a
product or service will frequently implement a ...?
E. Logistics approach
F. Long lead time
G. Managed supply chain
H. Trial engagement
ANSWER: D

96. Which of the following is not a Tool & Technique of Define Activities?
E. Decomposition
F. Rolling Wave Planning
G. Milestones
H. Expert Judgment
ANSWER: C
Decomposition, Expert Judgment, and Rolling Wave planning are tools
and techniques of the Define Activities process group. A milestone is a
significant point or event in a project. It is not a T&T of Define Activities
process. Milestone list is one of its outputs.

97. The sender of a message is responsible for:

E. Confirming the message is understood
 F. Ensuring the receiver agrees with the message
G. Scheduling communication exchange
H. Presenting the message in the most agreeable manner
ANSWER: A
The objective of communication is to ensure that the message is
conveyed.

98. Change requests can occur due to:

E. An external event such as a change in government regulation.
F. An error or omission in defining the scope of the product.
G. An error or omission in defining the scope of the project.
H. all of the above
ANSWER: D

99. You are using straight line depreciation to compute the value of your
computer after three years. If the current cost is $1000, what will be the value
after three years assuming that the computer's life is five years.
E. $0
F. $400
G. $500
H. $600
ANSWER: B
Each year $200 gets removed from the value of computer. After three
years the value becomes $400.

100. You are the project manager in a company where you have maximum
authority. To which organizational structure does your company belong?
E. Functional
F. Weak Matrix
G. Strong Matrix
H. Projectized
ANSWER: D
Project managers have maximum authority in a company with a
projectized organizational structure.
PRACTICE TEST 2
Answers
1. A Project Manager is working on planning a project that requires review
and oversight for a number of technically complex tasks. Who should
identify the specific resources for performing the reviews?
E. The Project Manager
F. The Project Sponsor
G. Functional Managers
H. Customer
ANSWER: C
Since nothing is given about the organization structure, we have to
assume that it is a matrix or functional organization where the resources
are owned by the functional managers and they would provide and
identify these resources.

2. An output from the Develop Project Management Plan process is?

E. Project Schedule
F. Project management plan
G. Business Case
H. Activity List
ANSWER: B
A (Project schedule) is incorrect because it is just one of the 19
components of the project management plan. C and D are not part of the
project management plan.

3. As a project manager for a construction company, you are responsible to

Define Scope, Define Activities, Develop Schedule, and Determine Budget.
These responsibilities are performed as part of:
E. Closing
F. Initiating
G. Planning
H. Monitoring and Controlling
ANSWER: C
The processes of Define Scope, Define Activities, Develop Schedule, and
Determine Budget are part of the Planning Process Group.

4. Which of the following statement is correct?

E. Process Groups are same as Project Phases
F. Each Process Group has a mapped Project Phase
G. Process Groups are not Project Phases
H. Monitoring and Control Process Group applies only in monitoring and
control phase
ANSWER: C

5. A project activity has the following values for the earliest and latest it can
start and the earliest and latest it can be completed. An activity's Late Start
(LS) is 5/day and Late Finish is (LF) 10/day. Similarly Early Start (ES) is
3/day and Early finish (EF) is 8/day. What is the float of this activity?
E. 0 days
F. 4 days
G. 2 days
H. -3 days
ANSWER: C
Float for an activity can be calculated using any of the two formula (i.e.
Float = LS-ES or LF-EF). In this case, float = 5-3 or 10- 8 or 2 days.
Remember, float or slack is the amount of time a task in a project
network can be delayed without causing a delay to subsequent tasks (free
float) or the project completion date (total float).

6. The project schedule network diagram is an input to creating the

A. Project schedule
B. Risk management plan
C. Project budget
D. Risk register
ANSWER: A
7. The purpose of the review of deliverables and project performance at the
conclusion of a project phase is to:
E. Determine how many resources are required to complete the project
according to the project baseline
F. Adjust the schedule and cost baselines based on past performance
G. Obtain customer acceptance of project deliverables
H. Determine whether the project should continue to the next phase
ANSWER: D
Closure of a project phase is a point to reassess the ongoing project
progress and change or terminate the project if necessary.

8. A project manager has to manage different stakeholder expectations.

Project sponsor and customer are two very important stakeholders in any
project. In this context, which of the following is NOT the responsibility of
both the project sponsor and the customer?
E. Take into account risk tolerance
F. Provide key events, milestones, and deliverable due dates
G. Formally accept the product of the project
H. Provide financial resources for the project
ANSWER: D
A Sponsor is the person or group who provides resources and support
for the project and is accountable for enabling success. Customers are
the persons or organizations who will approve and manage the project`s
product or service, or result.

9. An activity cannot be started until the predecessor also starts. This is an

example of:
E. Finish-to-Start
F. Finish-to-Finish
G. Start-to-Start
H. Start-to-Finish
ANSWER: C
This is an example of a start-to-start dependency. It means that B can't
start before A starts, or in other words Activity B can start after Activity
A has started.

10. The sending or conveying of information from one place to another is the
process of:
E. Networking
F. Transmitting
G. Encrypting
H. Promoting
ANSWER: B

11. In your organization, all big technical projects go through Initiate,

Analyze, Design, Implement, Test, and Closeout. In this context, a project
life cycle:
E. Defines the product life cycle
F. Defines the project phases
G. Contains several product life cycles
H. Has deliverables that must be completed before work starts on the
next phase
ANSWER: B
A project life cycle is the series of phases that a project passes through
from its initiation to its closure. The phases are generally sequential, and
their names and numbers are determined by the management and
control needs of the organization or organizations involved in the
project, the nature of the project itself, and its area of application.

12. A Project Manager understands the information needs of important

stakeholders and documents how they would be met. Which document is
being prepared?
E. Stakeholder register
 F. Stakeholder management plan
G. Human resources management plan
H. Communications management plan
ANSWER: D
Communications management plan contains details of how the
communication needs of the project's stakeholders will be met.

13. The three major types of communication are:

E. Written and oral, and verbal and nonverbal.
F. Verbal, formal documentation, informal documentation.
G. Verbal, written, and graphic.
H. Verbal, written, and electronic.
ANSWER: A

14. Which of the following statements is NOT true about a project life cycle?
E. All project life cycles are usually identical.
F. The level of risk is highest at the start of the project and decreases as
the project progresses.
G. The ability of the stakeholders to influence the final characteristics is
highest at the start and gets progressively lower as the project
continues.
H. Cost and staffing requirements usually peak during the intermediate
phases
ANSWER: A
Although many projects may have similar phase names with similar
deliverables, few are identical.

15. Which of the following is not used to measure a project team's

performance?
E. Technical success according to agreed-upon project objectives
F. Performance as pertains to the project schedule
 G. Technical success in obtaining necessary skill certifications for project
work
H. Performance as pertains to the project budget
ANSWER: C
The performance of a successful project team is measured in terms of the
following:
Technical success according to agreed-upon project objectives
(including quality levels)
Performance on project schedule (finished on time)
Performance on project budget (finished within financial
constraints)
Although it may be important for each individual team member to
achieve technical success in obtaining necessary skill certifications for
project work, which may in turn improve the overall team's
performance, this type of measurement is at the individual performance
level rather than the team performance level.

16. According to the Herzberg's Motivation Hygiene Theory, which of the

following is a hygiene factor?
E. Achievement
F. Good Working Conditions
G. Recognition
H. Career Advancement
ANSWER: B
What Herzberg determined was that people need things like good
working conditions, a satisfying personal life, and good relations with
their boss and co-workers - things he labelled "hygiene factors." They
don't motivate you, but you need them before you can be motivated.
Until you have them, you don't really care about "motivational factors"
like achievement, recognition, personal growth, or career advancement.

17. You are managing a project which would provide e-learning solutions to
your customer. The requirements of this project are not clearly defined in the
beginning, and there would be modifications based on customer feedback as
the project evolves. You decide to plan as much as you can and begin to
create work while continuing the planning. Which of the following
techniques would be the most helpful while defining activities for the
project?
E. Rolling Wave Planning
F. Templates
G. Extreme Programming
H. Just in Time
ANSWER: A
Rolling wave planning is a form of progressive elaboration where work
to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail and future work
is planned at a higher level of the Work Breakdown Structure.
Therefore, work can exist at various levels of detail depending on where
it is in the project lifecycle. As more information is known about
upcoming events, the higher-level work packages can be decomposed
further.

18. You are managing the project of planning a party for your company
employees. There is a risk that the employees will not come to the party. You
decide to not take any action against this as the likely-hood of this is low.
Which risk response strategy are you following?
E. Acceptance
F. Avoidance
G. Mitigation
H. Transference
ANSWER: A
This is an example of Acceptance risk response strategy.

19. The three major causes of change on a project are:

E. Replacement of the project manager or key project team members;
 changes in priorities by senior management; and contractual
difficulties..
F. Changes in the relative importance of time, resources, or cost ; new
knowledge about the deliverable; and technological uncertainty
G. Errors in the initial assessment of how to achieve the goal of the
project; new information about the project deliverable; and a new
mandate
H. Unavailability of resources promised by the functional managers; cost
overruns; and changes in customer requirements
ANSWER: C
Scope change and estimation errors are the main causes.

20. Which of the following is not an input to the Conduct Procurements

process?
E. Source selection criteria
F. Make-or-buy decisions
G. Organizational process assets
H. WBS
ANSWER: D
WBS is not an input to the Conduct Procurements process.

21. According to Philip Crosby, which of the following is a correct statement

about quality?
E. Quality inspection and correction is preferable to defect prevention
F. The system of quality is Defect Control
G. The measurement of quality is the price of conformance
H. The quality standard is zero defects
ANSWER: D
Philip Crosby considered the following to be the Absolutes of Quality
Management:
1. Quality is conformance to requirements
2. Defect prevention is preferable to quality inspection and correction
 3. Zero Defects is the quality standard
4. Quality is measured in monetary terms

22. You are the Project Manager of a project involving building a computer.
Your team members follow what you tell them because you have the
authority to provide negative feedback in their performance appraisal. This is
an example of which type of power?
E. Coercive
F. Referent
G. Formal
H. Reward
ANSWER: A
When the team is afraid of the Project Manager, the power yielded is of
type coercive.

23. Which of the following best describes the purpose of a war room?
E. A war room is used for meetings between the Project Manager and
the customer
F. A war room is used for important meetings between the Project team
and the senior management
G. A war room is used for collocation
H. Whenever there is a resource conflict between different Project
Managers, they meet in a war room.
ANSWER: C
War room is used for collocation to facilitate communication within the
team.

24. The process of Conduct Procurements is part of which phase?

E. Planning
F. Execution
G. Control
H. Closure
ANSWER: B
Conduct Procurements is part of execution phase.

25. Which of these is a tool for Develop Project Charter process?

E. Project selection methods
F. Project management methodology
G. Expert Judgment
H. Earned Value Technique
ANSWER: C
Expert judgment is a tool for the Develop Project Charter process.

26. You are the Project Manager of ABC project. There was a conflict
between two key project members. The three of you meet and decide to use
compromise as the conflict resolution technique. Compromise generally leads
to
E. Win-win situation
F. Win-Lose situation
G. Lose-Lose situation
H. None of these
ANSWER: C
According to PMI, compromise is an example of a lose-lose situation.

27. Bids, tenders and quotes are other names for what?
E. Proposals
F. Make-or-buy decisions
G. Buyer responses
H. Pre-bid conferences
ANSWER: A

28. You are in the process of Source Selection for a contract for your project.
You are planning to use weighing process for source selection. There are four
vendors being considered. There are two deciding factors price (weightage
40), quality (weightage 60). The scores of four vendors that your team has
computed are displayed in the table below. Which vendor will among these
four should be chosen?
E. Vendor 1
F. Vendor 2
G. Vendor 3
H. Vendor 4

Vendor 1Vendor 2Vendor 3Vendor 4

Price 8 10 12 11
Quality 12 10 8 11

ANSWER: D
We need to compute the following for all the vendors - (0.4*Price +
0.6*Quality). The scores come out to be vendor 1 - 10.4, vendor 2 - 10,
vendor 3 - 9.6, and vendor 4's 11. Since vendor 4 has the highest score, it
should get selected.

29. Which of the following indicate that the project is doing well? Select the
best option.
E. A negative Cost Variance
F. An SPI of less than one
G. A negative schedule variance
H. A CPI of greater than one.
ANSWER: D
A CPI of greater than one indicates you are taking less money than
planned to do the project.

30. In which form of contract will the cost risk lie with the seller?
A. CPIF
 B. T and M
C. CPAF
D. FP
ANSWER: D
Cost risk lies with the seller in a Fixed price contract.

31. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Close

Procurements and the Close Project or Phase processes?
E. Procurement closure involves verification that all work and
deliverables are acceptable, where Close Project or Phase does not
F. Close Project or Phase is only a subset of Close Procurements
G. Procurement closure means verifying that the procured work is
complete or terminated. Close Project or Phase is the process of tying
up and closing all of the activities for every project management
process group
H. Procurement closure is performed by the seller. Close Project or Phase
is performed by the buyer
ANSWER: C
When you are performing the Close Procurements process, you are
closing out work performed by a seller for a contract. To do that there
are a few things for you to do:
1) You verify that all of the work and deliverables are acceptable
2) You finalize any open claims
3) In case of early termination, you follow the termination clause in the
contract.
On the other hand, when you are performing the Close Project or Phase
process, you are finalizing all of the various activities that you perform
across all of the process groups. You are also verifying that the work and
deliverables are complete.

32. While responding to a procurement request, the seller outlined the

detailed technical solution, provided a handful of past customer references,
and also made a detailed commercial offer. Which procurement document
would the seller most likely respond to?
E. Request for Quotation
F. Request for Proposal
G. Invitation for Bid
H. Bidder conference invitation
ANSWER: B
An RFP requests for a detailed proposal.

33. Which of the following statements about critical path is TRUE?

E. It is the shortest path from start to finish
F. All the activities on the critical path do not have any float
G. A project will have only one critical path
H. A critical path takes into consideration logical as well as resource
dependencies
ANSWER: B
Critical path activities do not have any float. If any activity on the
critical path is delayed, the completion of the project will be delayed by
an equal amount. To determine the critical path, you have to add the
amount of time estimated for the duration of each activity to the
previous activity.

34. The estimating technique that uses the statistical relationship between the
historical data and other variables to calculate an estimate for an activity is
called:
E. Analogous Estimating
F. Parametric Estimating
G. Three Point Estimating
H. Monte Carlo technique
ANSWER: B
Parametric estimating is an estimation technique which utilizes the
statistical relationship between a series of historical data and a
particular delineated list of other variables.

35. You are on a team that has five members including you. How many
communication channels do you personally have?
E. 5
F. 4
G. 10
H. 12
ANSWER: B
This question is trying to trick you into applying the communication
channel formula but it isn't needed. Only logic is needed. The question
isn't asking "How many communication channels are there on the
project?" Instead it is asking "How many communication channels do
you personally have?" Therefore, since the team has five members
including you, this means that you are personally communicating with
four other members on the team. Therefore, you personally have four
communication channels.

36. You are in the process of implementing approved changes, corrective

actions, preventive action, and defect repairs in the project. In which of the
following process groups are you in?
E. Initiation
F. Planning
G. Execution
H. Monitor and Control
ANSWER: C
The executing process group involves coordinating people and resources,
as well as integrating and performing the activities of the project in
accordance with the project management plan.

37. You are a Project Manager in the early phase of estimating the cost of the
project. You use the analogous method of estimating and have come up with
the rough order of magnitude. While presenting it to your sponsor and
stakeholders, one of the stakeholders asks if you have also done lifecycle
costing for the project. What is your BEST response?
E. Project Cost estimating is primarily concerned with cost of the
resources needed to complete the project and needn't consider any
other costs
F. Since it is the initial stage of the project, cost details required for
lifecycle costing of the project are not available and hence it is not
relevant
G. Lifecycle costing provides the lowest long-term cost of ownership and
should be used as a management decision tool, in case of alternatives
H. Lifecycle costing should be done by the Project Sponsor as it impacts
long-term business decisions
ANSWER: C
Lifecycle costing provides the lowest long-term cost of ownership and
should be used as a management decision tool. Although project cost
management is primarily concerned with the cost of the resources
needed to complete the project (Option A, partly true), it should also
consider the effect of project decisions on the subsequent recurring cost
of using, maintaining, and supporting the project. Hence, lifecycle cost
analysis can be used to assist management in the decision-making
process. Lifecycle costing looks at the entire cost of the product, not just
the cost of project.

38. Which of the following is an example of Lead?

E. Pillars for a structure can be started 7 days after the foundation to
allow for curing
F. Test lab preparation can start 5 days before a product is made available
for test
G. Both test planning and product development can start simultaneously
after the design is finalized
H. Crash tests cannot be carried out until a working final model is made
available
ANSWER: B
Lead means that the successor activity can start in advance of the
predecessor activity.

39. A Project Manager realizes that a lot of time and effort are spent by his
team in capturing the data during product testing. Which is the best option to
address the issue?
E. Stop capturing the data as it doesn't add any value to the project
activity
F. Allocate a time at the end of the day to update all the data together
G. Ask for an additional resource to capture project data
H. Automate the data capturing process
ANSWER: D
The best alternative is the one which eliminates the root cause of the
problem and prevents subsequent changes. Here the main problem is the
inefficient use of time and effort of team members in capturing the data.
The best way to address this is to automate the process thus reducing
both time and effort.

40. There is only one output to the Plan Risk Management process. Which of
the following is this output?
E. Risk Register
F. Risk Management Plan
G. Risk Related Contractual Agreements
H. Organizational Process Assets Updates
ANSWER: B
As a general rule, all planning processes have a plan as their output.

41. You are a Project Manager taking over a project midway. It is in the
execution phase. You would like to know more about project deliverables,
work required to complete those deliverables, project constraints,
assumptions, etc. Which of the following documents would be MOST useful?
 E. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
F. Requirements Documentation
G. Activity List
H. Project Scope Statement
ANSWER: D
The Project Manager should refer to the project scope statement as it
captures all the details related to the project scope including product
acceptance criteria, scope description, project deliverables, constraints,
assumptions, etc.

42. Which of the following is an output of the Direct and Manage project
work process?
E. Project Charter updates
F. Work performance information
G. Approved change requests
H. Change requests
ANSWER: D
Change request is one of the outputs of this process.

43. According to Maslow's Hierarchy of needs, what comes HIGHEST on the

pyramid?
E. Social
F. Safety
G. Physiological
H. Hygiene Factors
ANSWER: A
According to Maslow, there are five levels of human needs from bottom
to top. They are: physiological, safety, social, esteem, and self-
actualization. Option D Hygiene factors are part of Herzberg's theory.

44. A project is relying on a contractor to deliver a component. The

contractor informs the Project Manager about the likelihood of a 3-week
delay in the delivery date. What should the Project Manager do?
E. Meet with the team to discuss the issue
F. Escalate the matter to the senior management of the contractor as per
the escalation matrix
G. Issue a formal show-cause notice asking why the contract should not
be submitted
H. Inform the senior management and the customer about the possibility
of delay to the overall project due to the delayed component
ANSWER: A
The first thing to do is to understand the impact and find out how the
impact can be contained. Only after this is done, can other steps be
considered.

45. You are managing a large project team that has some new members
joining. You would like to take the entire team through the project schedule
and update them on where the project stands with respect to the original plan.
Which of the following charts would be most helpful for this purpose?
E. Gantt Chart
F. Milestone Chart
G. Work Breakdown structure
H. Schedule Baseline
ANSWER: A
A Gantt chart is a bar chart that shows the activities of a project, when
each must take place, and how long each will take. As the project
progresses, bars are shaded to show which activities have been
completed. People assigned to each task also can be represented. This is
the most effective tool to show the people assigned to the project where
they are with respect to the original plan.

46. A Project Manager is going through the defect report reviewing the bugs
reported during the testing cycle of a software project. The report has
information on the severity of the bugs, origin of the bugs, and possible
resolutions, along with the owner and reporter of the bugs. The Project
Manager wants to prioritize the bug fixing activities by evaluating the three
most frequent reasons for the defects. Which of the following tools should the
Project Manager use?
E. Control chart
F. Fishbone diagram
G. Scatter diagram
H. Pareto chart
ANSWER: D
Pareto charts works on the Pareto principal which states 80% of the
problems usually stem from 20% of the causes. Pareto charts can be
used for defect analysis by arranging defects data so that the few vital
factors that are causing most of the problems reveal themselves.
Concentrating improvement efforts on these few will have a greater
impact and be more cost-effective than undirected efforts.

47. A team is complaining that every quality audit invariably audits its
module, but other modules are not audited at the same frequency. What is the
best explanation that can be provided?
E. A module gets audited more frequently because it has maximum issues
F. A module may get audited more because it is the most critical
G. Modules to be audited are picked up based on the quality management
plan
H. Next time, make sure that all modules get audited at the same
frequency
ANSWER: C
The logic for selecting modules for audit should be outlined in the quality
management plan and should be followed.

48. You are a Project Manager in a financial firm with multinational dealings.
You feel the financial meltdown in one of the client's countries could affect
your project adversely, and you want to hedge your risks. Although the
probability of occurrence of the event is low, you are advised to play it safe.
In terms of risk attitude, your organization could BEST be described as:
E. Risk Seeker
F. Risk Averse
G. Risk Neutral
H. Risk Mitigator
ANSWER: B
Someone who doesn't want to take risks is called risk averse and the
Project Manager seems to be part of such an organization.

49. Which of the following is NOT a tool used in the perform of the
qualitative risk analysis process?
E. Probability and Impact Matrix
F. Risk Prioritization
G. Monte Carlo Simulation
H. Root cause identification
ANSWER: C
Monte Carlo Simulations are typically associated with the quantitative
risk analysis process. It generates the output as a range instead of a fixed
value and shows how likely the output value is to occur in the range.

50. What is Quality according to the PMBOK® Guide?

E. The degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfill
requirements
F. The customer's need to be involved in the process
G. The process of identifying which quality standards are relevant to the
project
H. Quality is inspected not built into a result
ANSWER: A
This is the definition that the PMBOK Guide provides referring to the
ISO 9000: Quality Management Systems.
51. You are managing a hotel construction project. You are doing great in
terms of the project schedule but you feel you may be over budget. You ask
your project team to calculate the current earned value metrics to determine
the project performance. Your team reports back that the project's TCPI
based on BAC is 0.9. Which of the following is true regarding your project's
current situation as reflected by this TCPI value?
E. You are within your budget
F. You are over budget
G. You are behind schedule
H. You are ahead of schedule
ANSWER: A
TCPI is not a schedule performance measurement. A TCPI value = 1
means you are right on budget and as long as you maintain the present
CPI you should not exceed the project budget. A TCPI value > 1 means
you need to take a stricter cost management approach or you will exceed
your budget at completion BAC. A TCPI value < 1 indicates you are well
within your budget and have done a good job of managing project costs.

52. A Project Manager is planning a project, and he is creating a plan to

describe how human resource requirements in the project would be met. He is
using a bar chart tool called a Resource Histogram for charting this
requirement. However, he notices that some of the individual bars in the
Resource Histogram extend beyond the maximum allowed hours. What
should the Project Manager do to correct it?
E. Reduce Scope
F. Extend Working Hours
G. Resource Leveling
H. Schedule Compression
ANSWER: C
Resource leveling is required whenever individual bars in the Resource
Histogram extend beyond the maximum allowed hours. Resource
leveling can be done by either adding more resources or modifying the
schedule.
53. A project has the following earned value measurements: EV=100, CPI=1,
SV=80. How much is the Earned Value?
E. 100
F. 1
G. 1.5
H. 0
ANSWER: A
The answer is actually embedded in the question itself. EV stands for
Earned Value. So if EV=100, then the correct answer is 100.

54. Which of the following performance metrics measures project

performance against the project scope?
E. Schedule Performance Index
F. Cost Performance Index
G. Cost Variance
H. No metric is used
ANSWER: D
SPI is Schedule Performance Index, CPI is Cost Performance Index.
None of these metrics measure the project performance against the
project scope.
In fact, there is no metric mentioned whatsoever in the PMBOK Guide
that measures this kind of performance. The performance can be
measured against the scope baseline but there is no metric for doing so.
The question is trying to trick you.

55. Which of the following would NOT be part of cost of conformance?

E. Prevention cost
F. Appraisal cost
G. Internal failure cost
H. Cost of training
ANSWER: C
Internal failure cost (including failure found by the project internally
like rework and scrap) is not part of the cost of conformance. All the
failure costs (including external failure costs) are referred to as the cost
of poor quality. The cost of conformance denotes the money spent during
the project to avoid failures.

56. You are performing Earned Value Management on your project. The Cost
Baseline in Earned Value Management is also a part of:
E. Cost Estimating Baseline
F. Performance Baseline
G. Cost Measurement Baseline
H. Budget Baseline
ANSWER: B
A Cost Baseline is a part of the Performance Baseline. The Performance
Baseline is an approved plan for the project work to which the project
execution is compared, and deviations are measured for management
control. The Performance Baseline typically integrates the scope,
schedule and cost parameters of a project.

57. You are managing a construction project. You are required to build 50
bridges in a metropolitan city. Due to the complexity of the project, it is
divided into 10 sequential phases, with each phase requiring construction of
five bridges. You have just finished the first phase of your project and you
are about to kick off your second phase. Which PMBOK® Guide process
should you start to kick off the second phase of the project?
E. Develop Project Charter
F. Develop Project Management Plan
G. Direct and Manage Project Work
H. Monitor and Control Project Work
ANSWER: A
The PMBOK Guide processes are applicable to the entire project if the
complete project is a single-phase project. In the case of multi-phase
projects, the PMBOK Guide recommends that you treat each phase of
the project as a sub-project and apply all the processes to each phase.
You are about to start a new project phase, and as a result, you should
start with the Develop Project Charter process.

58. In order to determine the target fuel efficiency for a hybrid car being
designed, a Project Manager is looking at published statistics for similar
models in the industry. The technique being used is called:
E. Brainstorming
F. Benchmarking
G. Statistical sampling
H. Design of Experiments
ANSWER: B
What the Project Manager is trying to do is essentially look at the
industry benchmark and make sure that the product is in line with it.
This is the benchmarking technique.

59. A project management team consolidates a number of planning

documents to a collection called “project management plan” and ensures that
these documents are consistent among each other.
What documents could become part of the project management plan?
E. Resource calendars and project schedule
F. Management plans and baselines
G. Lessons learned register and quality report
H. Resource management plan
ANSWER: B

60. When does a project manager perform the integrated change control
process to make sure the effects of change requests are under control?
E. During the course of the project
F. When baselines need to be altered
 G. While the cost baseline is being created
H. When the configuration management plan is developed
ANSWER: A

61. A project was planned to take 5 months. The team is currently 3 months
into it and has completed half of the work. Applying Earned schedule
technique, what are the performance data of the project?
E. SV: -0.5 months, SPI: 0.83
F. SV: 1.5 months, SPI: 1.5
G. SV: -2,5 months, SPI: 0.83
H. SV: 0.5 months, SPI: 1.83
ANSWER: A

62. Conflict resolution techniques that may be used on a project include

confronting, smoothing, forcing, and:
E. Withdrawing
F. Directing
G. Organizing
H. Controlling
ANSWER: A
Withdrawing, or in other words, avoiding. The other three are directing,
organizing, and controlling, are not types of conflict resolution
techniques.

63. You have been called into a troubled time-critical project. You must
engage in schedule recovery to target slow activities on the critical and near-
critical paths. What should be your first step?
E. Re-baselining the project management plan
F. Firing non-performing resources
G. Get expert opinion
H. Perform root cause analysis for the slowness
ANSWER: D
Perform root cause analysis for the slowness.

64. You are planning a storage device migration in a data center. During this
phase of the project, who should be controlling the project?
E. Project Manager
F. SME’s
G. Sponsor
H. Management
ANSWER: A

65. Stakeholder analysis is useful in not only identifying stakeholders and

their interests, expectations, and influence, but can ensure expectation
alignment and gain support for the project. Which output documents details
related to identified stakeholders?
E. Stakeholder management plan
F. Project Charter
G. Organizational Process Assets Updates
H. Stakeholder Register
ANSWER: D
Stakeholder register is the only output to Stakeholder register
identification. Project charter is an input, Stakeholder management plan
and Organizational Process Assets Updates are not used by this process.

66. Which tool & technique of Identify Stakeholders may use profile analysis
meetings?
E. Stakeholder Register
F. Analytical Techniques
G. Power/Interest Grid
H. Meetings
ANSWER: D
Meetings are a tool & technique of Identify Stakeholders. Profile analysis
meetings are designed to develop an understanding of major project
stakeholders. Other options are not tools and techniques; Power/Interest
Grid is used in Stakeholder Analysis.

67. You have been asked to make an estimate for a project. The project
involves manufacturing 1000 toys. You expect that as the team manufactures
some toys, the time to make them will reduce. Which estimation technique
are you trying to use?
E. Analogous Estimation
F. Regression Analysis
G. Bottom up Estimating
H. Learning Curve
ANSWER: D
Learning curve estimation uses the principal that the cost per unit will
decrease as more units of work are manufactured.

68. Which of the following is an input to Develop Project Charter and for
external projects can be received from the customer as part of a bid?
E. Project Statement of Work
F. Business Case
G. Business Plan
H. Project Charter
ANSWER: B
Business case provides necessary information from a business standpoint
to determine whether or not the project is worth the investment. Project
Charter is an output.

69. John is an excellent engineer. The management assumes that since he is a

good technical performer, he will be a good project manager too. Based upon
this, John was promoted to Project Manager. This is an example of
E. Halo Effect
 F. Expectancy Theory
G. McGregory Theory of X and Y
H. Herzberg Theory
ANSWER: A
The behaviour described is an illustration of Halo's effect.

70. The authority to approve or deny change request lies with

E. Project Manager
F. Customer
G. Project Sponsor
H. Configuration Control Board
ANSWER: D
The Configuration (or Change) Control Board has the authority to
approve or deny change requests.

71. You've been assigned to construct the charter, and have pulled all the
inputs together. You're coming up with some questions in the Statement of
Work (SOW); where / who do you go to for clarification?
E. The Project Initiator or Sponsor
F. The end users: business owner, client, functional organization
managers
G. Subject matter experts
H. Analysts who authored the business case
ANSWER: A
Questions may be answered by the author(s), the project sponsor or
initiator

72. Which of the following is a technique of systematically gathering and

analyzing quantitative and qualitative information to determine whose
interests should be taken into account throughout the project.
E. Delphi Technique
 F. Expert Judgement
G. Stakeholder Analysis
H. Risk Management
ANSWER: C
Stakeholder analysis also helps to identify stakeholder partnerships that
can be used to build coalitions and partnerships to enhance the projects
chances for success.

73. In your project, you can delay 'Activity 1' by three days without delaying
its successor 'Activity 2'. However, delaying 'Activity 1' will delay the project
by six days without delaying the overall project finish date. Which of the
following statements is correct in this scenario?
E. The Total Float is 6 days and the Free Float is 3 days
F. The Total Float is 3 days and the Free Float is 6 days
G. The Total Float is 3 days and the Free Float is zero
H. The Free Float is 3 days and the Total Float is zero
ANSWER: A
Free Float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without
delaying the successor activity. Total Float is the amount of time the
project can be delayed without delaying the project finish date.

74. Your project objective is to replace all of your internal photocopy

machines. You have been given a large set of requirements from the users.
Having evaluated solutions from four vendors you realize that not every
vendor can satisfy all the requirements. There is some risk involved and you
decide to use the Expected Monetary Value method to analyse the problem. If
you just used EMV, which of the following vendors would you select?
E. Vendor 1: 80% probability of success and a profit of $20,000
F. Vendor 2: 90% probability of success and a profit of $19,000
G. Vendor 3: 75% probability of success and a profit of $18,000
H. Vendor 4: 85% probability of success and a profit of $20,000
ANSWER: B
Multiplying the percentages by the cost will show that 0.9 x $19,000 =
$17,100. This solution provides the highest profit to the project.

75. Which of the following is not a General management technique?

E. Make-or-buy analysis
F. Analysis of alternatives
G. Applying PMBOK concepts
H. Lateral thinking
ANSWER: A

76. You just took over the management of an industrial construction project,
which is in the execution phase. You determine that your team is
communicating directly with their client company's peers. According to the
Communications Management Plan, all client interaction should be
performed through the project manager. What is the potential reason for your
team's behaviour?
E. The Communications Management Plan is not comprehensive
F. The Project Management Plan has not been shared with the team
G. The previous project manager is not a PMP
H. The Communications Management Plan was later updated
ANSWER: B
The Project Management Plan contains the Communications
Management Plan and this information was neither shared with the
team nor was it enforced.

77. Project Manager John wants to capture the details of activities he would
be doing to enhance the value of the process, including their inputs, outputs,
and interfaces with other processes. Which of the following documents would
be MOST helpful?
E. Project Management Plan
F. Quality Management Plan
G. Process Improvement Plan
 H. Product Management Plan
ANSWER: C
While Option B describes how the project management team will
implement the quality policy of their organization, the process
improvement plan is more focused on enhancing the value of the process
in a project. It includes determining process boundaries, process metrics,
targets for improved performances, etc.

78. You are managing a software development project. One month ago your
Software Development Team Lead resigned and you promoted your star
programmer to lead the development team. This person was a fantastic
software coder and you thought the promotion would mean that he could
share his expertise across the development team. However, you are surprised
to learn that the performance of your new team lead in his new role is not
meeting your expectations. Which empirical rule did you forget while
considering the promotion of this person?
E. Peter Principle
F. Murphy Principle
G. Pareto Principle
H. Cornelius Principle
ANSWER: A
The Peter Principle states, "In a hierarchy every employee tends to rise
to his/her level of incompetence". Most project team members are
motivated by an opportunity to grow, accomplish, and apply their
professional skills to meet new challenges. Their achievements
continuously promote them within an organization to a certain level until
they are unable to perform. Your team lead might have risen to his
incompetency level.

79. You are managing a process improvement project for your organization.
During the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process you identified that
there are some risk categories missing in your Risk Breakdown Structure
(RBS). You need to document these new risk categories in your RBS. What
is the best way to do this?
E. Update the risk register with the new categories as part of the Perform
Qualitative Risk Analysis process and make any update required to the
RBS
F. Revisit the Identify Risks process to update the RBS
G. Revisit the Control Risks process to update the RBS
H. Update the RBS in the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process
ANSWER: D
The RBS is a hierarchically-organized depiction of the identified project
risks arranged by risk category and subcategory that identifies the
various areas and causes of potential risks. The RBS is part of the Risk
Management Plan and can be updated as part of the Perform Qualitative
Risk Analysis process when new categories of risk can be added to both
the risk register and the risk breakdown structure.

80. A Project Manager has derived quality metrics along with tolerance limits
for his project. Which part of the quality management knowledge area is the
Project Manager in?
E. Plan Quality Management
F. Perform Quality Assurance
G. Perform Quality Control
H. Define Scope
ANSWER: A
Quality metrics are determined as an output to the process plan quality,
along with tolerance limits for each of them. A metric would give the
actual value or the measurement of a project or product attribute,
whereas a tolerance defines the allowable variations on the metrics. The
selection of these metrics in a project would heavily depend on the type
of the project and the objective of collecting the metrics.

81. You are currently Performing Quality Assurance process on your project
by conducting a quality audit. Which of the following is not a specified
objective of a quality audit?
 E. Sharing good practices introduced or implemented in similar projects
in the organization and/or industry
F. Document the effectiveness of the Risk Management process
G. Identifying good and best practices being implemented
H. Identify all nonconformity, gaps, and shortcomings
ANSWER: B
The Perform Quality Assurance process is conducted in the Quality
Management knowledge area, not the Risk Management knowledge
area. Although documenting the effectiveness of the Risk Management
process is an important activity, it is performed in the Risk Management
knowledge area, not the Quality Management area. All remaining
answer choices are specific objectives of the quality audit.

82. Margaret is managing a data migration project and the project is currently
in the executing phase. The project's current total earned value (EV) is
$25,000 and the current schedule variance (SV) is $5,000. What is the
project's current schedule performance index (SPI)?
E. 1
F. 1.25
G. 0.83
H. 0.2
ANSWER: B
The question is asking you to determine the schedule performance index
(SPI) given the earned value (EV) and the schedule variance (SV), but
you also need to know the planned value (PV) to correctly answer this
question. Following are the detailed calculations for the correct answer
to this question:
SPI = EV / PV
--------
EV = $25,000
SV = $5,000
PV = EV - SV
PV = $25,000 - $5,000
PV = $20,000
--------
SPI = EV / PV
SPI = $25,000 / $20,000
SPI = 1.25

83. A set of manual files made available to all team members is called:
E. A communication management plan
F. An information retrieval system
G. An information distribution system
H. A performance reporting system
ANSWER: B

84. As a Project Manager for the project in the planning stage, you have
derived the cost estimate by estimating the cost of individual work packages.
It is summarized to higher levels for reporting and tracking. What would be
the range of estimate from the actual?
E. -50 percent to +100 percent
F. -50 percent to +50 percent
G. -10 percent to +25 percent
H. -5 percent to +10 percent
ANSWER: D
This is the definitive range derived during the latter part of the project
when project information is available in sufficient detail. The estimate
could become more refined to a range of -5 percent to +10 percent from
the actual. This estimate is usually derived using the bottoms up
estimation technique.

85. Which of the following is not part of the Risk Register?

E. Root causes of the identified risks
 F. Management reserve amount
G. List of identified risks
H. List of potential responses
ANSWER: B
While the Risk Register may contain a budget for the identified risk
responses, the management reserve amount is not part of the Risk
Register.

86. You are managing a software development project. All of your project
deliverables are complete and you are ready to start your Close Project or
Phase process. Which of the following activities will not be performed during
Close Project or Phase process?
E. Making sure that all exit criteria have been met
F. Obtaining formal acceptance of all deliverables from all stakeholders
G. Moving the project's deliverables to the next phase or into production
H. Documenting lessons learned
ANSWER: B
By the time you start performing the Close Project or Phase process, you
should have already obtained formal, written acceptance of the
deliverables. Formal acceptance of the completed project deliverables
occurs during the Validate Scope process. Therefore, obtaining formal
acceptance of all deliverables from all stakeholders will not be performed
in the Close Project or Phase process but rather in the Validate Scope
process.

87. Which of the following are the MOST important to derive the total
funding requirements and periodic funding requirements of the project?
E. Management Reserve and Contingency Reserve
F. Cost Baseline and Management Reserve
G. Funding Limit Reconciliation
H. Project Budget and Contingency Reserve
ANSWER: B
The total funds required in the project are those included in cost
baseline, plus management reserve if any. Remember, the cost baseline
includes contingency reserves because the cost baseline will include
projected expenditures plus anticipated liabilities.

88. You are managing an amusement park development project. You

received the following duration estimates for site excavation. The most likely
estimate is 5 days, the optimistic estimate is 3.5 days, and the pessimistic
estimate is 8 days. What is the variance of the data?
E. 0.562 days
F. 5.5 days
G. 5.25 days
H. 0.75 days
ANSWER: A
PERT is a technique that relies on three point estimates and helps us
calculate a number of variables including: variance, standard deviation,
straight or triangular distribution and weighted or beta distributions.
This question is asking for the activity variance, so you want to use the
PERT Beta Activity Variance formula, which is ((Pessimistic -
Optimistic) / 6)^2. Following are the detailed calculations for the correct
answer to this question:
PERT Activity Variance = ((Pessimistic - Optimistic) / 6)^2
PERT Activity Variance = ((8 - 3.5) / 6)^2
PERT Activity Variance = ((4.5) / 6)^2
PERT Activity Variance = (0.75)^2
PERT Activity Variance = 0.562 days
Following is a list of each of the PERT formulas and when to use them:
PERT Activity Variance = ((Pessimistic - Optimistic) / 6)^2
PERT Activity Standard Deviation = (Pessimistic - Optimistic) / 6
PERT Simple Average (Expected Time Duration Based on Triangular
Distribution) = (Pessimistic + Most Likely + Optimistic) / 3
PERT Weighted Average (Expected Time Duration Based on Beta
Distribution) = (Pessimistic + (4*Most Likely) + Optimistic) / 6

89. Which of the following is a tool and technique for the Determine budget
process?
E. Monte Carlo analysis
F. Delphi technique
G. Funding Limit Reconciliation
H. Parametric estimation
ANSWER: C
Funding limit reconciliation is one of the techniques used in the
Determine budget process.

90. Which of the following is an example of a Cause and Effect diagram?

E. Pareto Diagram
F. Matrix Diagram
G. Network Diagram
H. Why-Why Diagram
ANSWER: D

91. As a Project Manager, you are working with your team to explore
alternatives to decrease project cost without compromising on performance or
scope of the project. Which of the following techniques are you most
probably using?
E. Benchmarking
F. Reverse Engineering
G. Process Analysis
H. Value Analysis
ANSWER: D
Value analysis is also referred to as value management or value
methodology (VM). It requires the systematic approach to identify
project functions and assign values to those functions to get the functions
at lowest overall cost without loss of performance.

92. The Work Breakdown Structure dictionary can be used for which purpose
from the below?
E. Check spellings in the WBS
F. Decompose planning packages to their lowest level
G. Create the scope statement
H. Hold statements of work, responsible organizations, and a list of
schedule milestones.
ANSWER: D
Choice B is incorrect as planning packages are those which have not
been decomposed into activities yet. C is incorrect as scope statement is
created before the WBS.

93. The PMBOK Guide defines a Mega Project as one that is expected to:
E. Cost US$1billion or more, affect 1 million or more people
F. Cost US$500 million or more, affect 500,000 or more people, and run
for years
G. Cost US$1billion or more, affect 1 million or more people, and run for
years
H. Cost US$1billion or more, affect 500,000 or more people, and run for
years
ANSWER: C
Cost US$1billion or more, affect 1 million or more people, and run for
years.

94. You are managing a critical project with frequent changes in

requirements. You are in the testing phase of the project, and the customer
has requested an additional new feature. You have assessed the impact of the
change on the triple constraints with your team. What should be your NEXT
step?
E. Raise a change request form and send it for approval to the change
 control board
F. Look for alternative options including schedule compression
techniques like crashing and fast tracking
G. Analyze the impact of the change on project quality objectives and
quality planning
H. Update the project management plans and other project documents
including project baselines
ANSWER: C
Analyze the impact of the change on project quality objectives and
quality planning. It is important to analyze the impact of the change not
only on the triple constraints but also on quality. The Project Manager
needs to determine whether the quality objectives and quality planning
need to be modified to address the changes. Option B is already
addressed as part of assessing the impact on the triple constraints.

95. What does the common law principle of privity mean in relation to a
contract?
E. The buyer and seller names are to be kept private
F. A contract cannot confer rights nor impose obligations upon any
person who is not a party to the contract
G. This type of contract can only be used for private sales and not for a
business
H. No one else is entitled to know any of the contract details
ANSWER: B
A contract cannot confer rights nor impose obligations upon any person
who is not a party to the contract. This is the meaning of privity of a
contract.

96. A Project Manager wants to determine the variance for an activity

estimate using a three-point estimate with the following data. Pessimistic=14,
Optimistic=2, and Realistic=5. What is the variance?
E. 5
F. 2
 G. 4
H. Not enough information
ANSWER: C
The formula for variance = [( Pessimistic-Optimistic)/6]squared. The
answer is 4.

97. Which of the below is not a project constraint?

E. Something that limits your ability to manage the project
F. Recorded in the Assumption Log
G. Something that may or may not happen
H. Identified at a high level in the business case before the project is
initiated
ANSWER: C
Something that may or may not happen, as this is a risk, but a constraint
is an existing limit.

98. A project manager has asked his team to implement a change. Which of
the following is mandatory before it, in case the change has impacted a
baseline?
E. Baseline should have been updated
F. Change should have been communicated to concerned stakeholders
G. Change control board should have discussed the change
H. Change should have been raised
ANSWER: A
Baseline should have been updated. Without this, a change should not be
implemented in case the baseline would be impacted due to the change.

99. In project management, scope, quality, schedule, budget, resources, and

risks are referred to as:
E. The six core knowledge areas
F. Unimportant
 G. Project phases
H. Competing project constraints
ANSWER: D
A key role of the project manager is to guide the project team to success
while balancing competing project constraints.

100. You are the project manager of a process improvement project for a
factory operation. Which of the following activities will not be performed
during the Monitor and Control Project Work process of your project?
E. Comparing actual project performance against the Project Management
Plan
F. Identifying new risks and analyzing, tracking and monitoring existing
project risks
G. Analyzing change requests and either approving or rejecting them
H. Monitoring implementation of approved changes as they occur
ANSWER: C
Comparing actual project performance against the Project Management
Plan, identifying new risks, analyzing, tracking and monitoring existing
project risks and monitoring the implementation of approved changes
are all activities that you need to perform during the Monitor and
Control Project Work process. However, you will not review change
requests during this process since this needs to be done during the
Perform Integrated Change Control process.
PRACTICE TEST 3
Answers
1. In which type of organization is team building likely to be most difficult?
A. Functional
B. Projectized
C. Matrix
D. Project expediter
ANSWER: C
The team members report to multiple managers in matrix organizations.

2. Your project is in the final test stage, the user acceptance test. It meets all
the product specs and is under planned costs. In term of schedule, this project
is ahead. Your customer met you and requested that he will not accept the
product unless you make several changes. What you should do is:
A. Get the list of the changes and estimate all of them. If the total cost is
still within the baseline, you will do it
B. Estimate the costs and send this to your customer requesting contract
modification
C. Ask the customer to file a change request
D. Sit with the customer to review the product specs and tell him/her that
you have completed the project.
ANSWER: C
All the change requests must be made formal.

3. A tool which links the project roles and responsibilities to the project scope
definition is called:
A. Scope Definition Matrix
B. Responsibility Assignment Matrix
C. Roles Assignment Matrix
D. Project Scope and Roles Matrix
ANSWER: B
4. The method of examining work or a product to determine whether it
conforms to documented standards is called
A. Inspection
B. Statistical Sampling
C. Audit
D. Verification
ANSWER: A
Inspection is the examination of work or a product to determine whether
it conforms to documented standards. It is also called peer reviews,
review audits, or walkthroughs. Inspection can be done at any level in
the project and can also be used to validate defect repairs.

5. What two main knowledge areas are not listed in the execution process of
the project, but rather a part of the controlling process?
A. Schedule and cost
B. Cost and communication
C. Quality and risk
D. Risk and procurement
ANSWER: A

6. When managing a project, when would you expect the risk impacts
(amount at stake) to be lowest, yet the risks are greatest?
A. During implementation
B. Approaching the completion of the project
C. When a major deliverable is outsourced
D. In the concept phase
ANSWER: D
Because there has been little invested in time and resources, but there
can be little certainly about the success of the project as it is yet to be
fully defined. However the impact of the risk will be low at this stage.

7. A planning package is defined as which of the following?

 A. A WBS component below the control account level, but above the
work package level
B. A WBS component below the work package level
C. All roll up of all control accounts
D. A set of procurement planning documents
ANSWER: A
A WBS component below the control account level, but above the work
package level.

8. A project manager uses a networked project team with various points of

contacts within the organization. His authority is however limited. Which
type of project organization type is this?
A. Networked
B. Virtual
C. Linked
D. Organic or flexible
ANSWER: C
A virtual organization is formed using a network of contact points in the
organization. Networked and linked organizations are not correct
terminology. In organic or flexible organizations, people work side by
side informally.

9. To which convention is the numbering system used for identifying all

items in a Work Breakdown structure mapped to?
A. Chart of Accounts
B. Code of Accounts
C. Control Accounts
D. Dewey Decimal System
ANSWER: B
The Chart of Accounts is for the organization’s General ledger. Control
accounts is grouping of work packages. The Dewey system is a library
book numbering system.
10. Your software project is in the critical system testing stage when two of
the senior members of the team come to you with a conflict on usage of the
simulation software during testing. One senior member claims that the other
person keeps the software engaged for almost all the working hours of the
project. You decide to change their working schedules so that they no longer
overlap. Which of the following techniques for conflict resolution are you
using?
A. Compromising
B. Collaborating
C. Forcing
D. Smoothing
ANSWER: B
The collaborating or problem solving approach is the best option as the
PM is solving the project problem by taking out the overlapping of
activities.

11. A project manager is using historical data to understand what has been
going on in the project with respect to number of defects in the software
program which is being developed over a period of time. What technique will
you use for this?
A. Variance analysis
B. Root cause analysis
C. Alternatives analysis
D. Trend Analysis
ANSWER: D
Trend analysis focuses detecting patterns in historical data. By doing
this, actions may be taken to either maintain, change or stop the current
trend as required. All other mentioned techniques have a totally
different meaning.

12. Which of the following is not a source selection analysis method?

 A. Qualifications only
B. Sole source
C. Fixed budget
D. Statistical sampling
ANSWER: D
This is a Quality Control method. Choices A, B and C are source
selection analysis methods.

13. Which of these describes a transformational leader?

A. Allow team members to set their own goals and make their own
decisions
B. Focus on goals and accomplishment
C. Empower others to be innovative and creative
D. Focus on the team members’ growth, learning, development,
autonomy, and well-being
ANSWER: C
Empower others to be innovative and creative. Choice A is laissez-faire,
choice B Transactional and choice D Servant-leader.

14. The Project Manager to build a concrete waterfall at a theme park likes to
plan everything up front and follow the waterfall method. However, the
customer doesn’t want everything fixed from the beginning, as she may
change her mind in a number of areas once the project is underway, and
needs to be sure that the Project Manager can allow for flow on effects. What
sort of project life cycle should the Project Manager use?
A. Adaptive
B. Predictive
C. Explicit
D. Tacit
ANSWER: A
“In an adaptive or agile life cycle, the deliverables are developed over
multiple iterations where a detailed scope is defined and approved for
each iteration when it begins.”

15. Cost estimates:

A. Are usually presented at a detailed level
B. Can be presented in summary of detail
C. Are summarized for senior management
D. Are provided in detail for senior management
ANSWER: B

16. What is the most expensive form of Quality Management?

A. Create a culture throughout the organization that is aware and
committed to quality in processes and products
B. Detect and correct the defects before the deliverables are sent to the
customer
C. Use quality assurance to examine and correct the process itself and not
just special defects
D. Let the customer find the defects, and save you the cost of testing
ANSWER: D
“Usually, the most expensive approach is to let the customer find the
defects. This approach can lead to warranty issues, recalls, loss of
reputation, and rework costs.”

17. The difference between explicit knowledge and tacit knowledge is:
A. Explicit knowledge is shared by codifying, recording and circulating,
but tacit knowledge is shared by human interaction
B. Tacit knowledge is shared by codifying, recording and circulating, but
explicit knowledge is shared by human interaction
C. The human mind can retain only 7 pieces of tacit knowledge, but up to
700 pieces of explicit knowledge
D. The PMBOK® Guide is an example of explicit knowledge, but the
PMI® Practice Standards are examples of tacit knowledge.
ANSWER: A
Choices B and C are incorrect statements. In choice D, the various PMI®
Practice Standards are also explicit knowledge.

18. Which of the following is correct according to Maslow’s hierarchy of

needs?
A. The top three levels are Social, Esteem, then Self-actualization
B. The top three levels are Safety, Social, then Esteem
C. The Bottom three levels are Safety, Social, then Esteem
D. The Bottom three levels are Physiological, Safety, then Self-
actualization.
ANSWER: A
The top three levels are Social, Esteem, then Self-actualization.

19. Which of the following describes Configuration control?

A. It is focused on the specification of both the deliverables and the
processes
B. It is focused on identifying, documenting, and approving or rejecting
changes to the project documents, deliverables, or baselines
C. It happens at intervals throughout the project, as defined in the
Integration Management Plan
D. It is focused on verifying that the changes are registered, assessed,
approved, tracked and communicated to stakeholders.
ANSWER: A
Configuration control is largely version control. B is change control and
D is true for change control and tracking. Note that C (integration
management plan) does not exist.

20. You and your team are estimating costs, which of the following would
you not use?
A. Requirements Traceability Matrix
B. Risk Register
C. Lessons learned register
 D. Quality management plan
ANSWER: A
Requirements Traceability Matrix, as this has the origin of requirements
and their acceptance scenarios.

21. The Sponsor suggests that you should collocate your team during the
project. What is the main benefit of this?
A. Communication will be improved through the use of social media and
video conferencing
B. As the team would be dispersed, it will help some of them develop
their leadership skills
C. The project team is in the same physical location so they won’t need to
communicate
D. As the team members will be at the same location, it will enable them
to work better as a team
ANSWER: D
As the will at the same location, it will enable them to work better as a
team.

22. As a Project Manager you decide to create an issue log which captures
issue description, owner, and the target date for issue closure. All of the
following are common examples of issues in the project EXCEPT:
A. Differences in Opinion
B. Probable delay in the next delivery
C. Pending Root cause Analysis
D. Delay in receiving feedback from the customer
ANSWER: B
Probable delay in the next delivery represents a project risk and is not
an issue as the event is uncertain. This may or may not happen in future.

23. What is the standard deviation for a critical path having two activities
with their standard deviations being 3 and 4?
A. 7
B. 5
C. 12
D. -1
ANSWER: B
The calculation is: square root[ (square(3) + square(4) ] = 5

24. You are asked to describe the difference between QA (Quality Assurance)
and QC (Quality Control). The first thing you say is that:
A. QA involves planning, but QC involves checking
B. QA involves planning, but QC is a management function
C. QA is a management function, but QC involves planning
D. QA is performed by the team, but QC most be performed by senior
management
ANSWER: A
QA involves planning, but QC involves checking. The details pertaining
to QC will have to be planned in advance but essentially QC as such is a
checking activity in the forms of tests, inspections, evaluations, etc.

25. In the earned value management technique, the cost performance baseline
is referred to as:
A. Cost Measurement Baseline (CMB)
B. Performance Measurement Baseline (PMB)
C. Performance Base Value (PBV)
D. Performance Cost Baseline (PCB)
ANSWER: B

26. If you are influencing factors that create changes to the cost of the project,
which process are you using?
A. Negotiate Costs
 B. Estimate Costs
C. Control Costs
D. Determine Budget
ANSWER: C

27. What is the best time to engage in team building activities?

A. In the beginning of the project
B. At the end of the project
C. Throughout the project
D. In the beginning for some projects and in the end for others
ANSWER: C
Team building is an ongoing activity and must be planned throughout
the project.

28. Which of these provides the framework for the cost management plan?
A. Project Scope
B. Product Scope
C. Work Breakdown Structure
D. Activity List
ANSWER: C
“Organizational procedures links. The work breakdown structure
(WBS) provides the framework for the cost management plan, allowing
for consistency with the estimates, budgets, and control of costs."

29. Visiting a construction site to ensure the work being done is the same
work called out in the requirements is called:
A. Milestone
B. Scope validation
C. Variance Analysis
D. Requirements traceability
ANSWER: B
30. A Project Manager is working on shortlisting, interviewing, and selecting
candidates for the open positions within a project as per the job descriptions.
Which process group is being worked on here?
A. Planning
B. Initiating
C. Controlling
D. Executing
ANSWER: D
The process being worked on is Acquire project team, which is part of
the executing process group.

31. A first-time project manager was of the opinion that all training activities
need to be planned. He discussed this with an experienced project manager,
and understood that some training was necessarily unplanned. Which of the
following correctly lists examples of unplanned training?
A. Training by observation, conversation, and project management
appraisals
B. Training by mentoring, on-the-job training, and online courses
C. Training by conversation, coaching, and classroom training
D. Training by mentoring, observation, and coaching
ANSWER: A

32. An organization may set aside a Management Reserve to allow for:

A. Risks that cannot be identified until they occur
B. Risks that have been avoided
C. Scope creep
D. Risks that are identified after the project begins, but before they occur
ANSWER: A
These risks are referred to as “unknown unknowns” meaning that they
have not been identified in advance but some funds need to be set aside
to handle them if they occur.
33. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a project?
A. Constrained by limited resources
B. Planned, executed, and controlled
C. Creates a unique product or service
D. Ongoing and repetitive
ANSWER: D
A project is a temporary endeavour undertaken to create a unique
product, service, or result. The temporary nature of projects indicates
that a project has a definite beginning and end.

34. A project consists of 5 activities, A, B, C, D and E. B & C can’t start until

A has finished, D can’t start until C has finished, and E can’t start until B and
D have finished. The duration of A is 5, B is 8, C is 10, D is 19 and E is 15.
How many days can activity B be delayed, without delaying the whole
project, assuming the “Day 1” method?
A. 37
B. 21
C. 29
D. 38
ANSWER: B
To answer the question you need to build the CPM network. The "day
1" or "day 2" method will be required for date calculation and not for
float. The two paths are ACDE of length 49 and ABE with length 28. The
float of B will be 49-28=21.

35. According to James P. Lewis, which of the following is not provided by

the framework of a Work Breakdown structure?
A. Network diagram, illustrating task dependencies, can be constructed
B. All cost and resource allocations can be totalled to develop the overall
project budget
C. Performance can be tracked against the identified cost, schedule, and
 resource allocations
D. Assignment of responsibility for each element can be made
ANSWER: A

36. Which of the following may not be considered an attribute of a project?

A. Repetitive elements may be present in some project deliverables
B. The impact of a project usually ends when the project ends
C. A project can involve a single person
D. There is uncertainty about the product that the project creates.
ANSWER: B

37. Which of the following models describes stakeholders based on their

power, urgency and legitimacy?
A. Influence / Impact grid
B. Power / influence grid
C. Power / Interest grid
D. Salience model
ANSWER: D

38. You are defining the schedule activities for your project and identifying
deliverables at the lowest level in the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).
You find that there is insufficient definition of the project scope to
decompose a branch of the WBS down to the work package level. You now
look at using the last component in that branch of the WBS to develop a high-
level project schedule for that component. Such a planning component is
called:
A. A planning packet
B. Control system
C. A planning package
D. Control element
ANSWER: C
39. You are interviewing candidates for a position in the project. When you
receive the resume of a distant relative who is desperately in need of a job,
what should you do?
A. Give the candidate the job, but insist on good performance
B. Ask the candidate to apply somewhere else
C. Declare your position and excuse yourself from the selection process
D. Do nothing and go with the panel decision
ANSWER: C
The right thing to do is to declare your personal interest and excuse
yourself from the selection process.

40. Close Project or Phase is the process of completing and concluding all
activities across all process groups to officially close the project. Which of
the following activities are NOT performed during this process?
A. Actions required to transfer completed products to operations
B. Actions required to archive project information
C. Actions required to audit project success or failure
D. Actions required to accept the deliverables
ANSWER: D

41. A direct cost to a project could be:

A. Corporate salaries
B. Office cooling devices
C. Materials
D. Health insurance
ANSWER: C
Planning - Cost Management Raw material is the only item that is likely
to be a direct cost. Corporate salaries, office cooling devices, and health
insurance are known as general, indirect or overhead costs.
42. While working on a contract, a supplier's factory was severely damaged
due to an earthquake, and the supplier could not deliver the contracted items
on time. The liability of the supplier to pay penalty for delays is probably
restricted due to:
A. Doctrine of Waiver
B. Privity
C. Dispute Resolution
D. Force Majeure
ANSWER: D
The Force Majeure clause protects both parties from liabilities due to
unforeseen events on which nobody has control.

43. Which of the following method is not a depreciation method?

A. Units of production
B. Some of year’s digits
C. Declining balance
D. Straight line
ANSWER: B

44. As a Project Manager, you understand the importance of effective

communication with stakeholders. You want to present a project progress
report to the stakeholders in the next project meeting. What should be your
approach?
A. Make the report concise and restricted to specific technical details of
the project
B. Prepare a verbose report but filter the information to remove details
C. Focus on specific stakeholders with whom you have good personal
relationships
D. Research and understand the experience level and expectations of
stakeholders
ANSWER: D
Since a project's success is heavily dependent on the stakeholders'
favorable acceptance of the project, it is important to have effective
communication with the stakeholders, especially during project
meetings. For this purpose, the Project Manager should research and
understand the stakeholders' expectations before presenting project
progress reports.

45. If you had an experience with a particularly good or poor performing

vendor, what is the correct way to document this experience for future
projects?
A. Create a seller performance evaluation
B. Call the vendor and talk to them about the experience
C. Tell all your friends about it
D. Vow to only work with that vendor from now on
ANSWER: A

46. You have recently finished an advanced project management training

course that was paid for by your project budget. Because the budget for your
project is not large enough to train any other resources on the project, your
manager has asked you to make copies of the course materials and distribute
them to the rest of the staff. What do you do?
A. Make the copies
B. Provide a single copy of the materials
C. Scan the materials and place them on the corporate intranet for easy
access
D. Refuse the request
ANSWER: D

47. Which of the following needs is at the lowest level of Maslow's

hierarchy?
A. Self actualization
B. Esteem
C. Social
 D. Safety
ANSWER: D
Physiological needs is at the lowest level of the hierarchy. Among the
given choices, safety is at the lowest tier.

48. A project team is working on constantly reviewing and making sure that
the right processes are being followed. Which process will the team use?
A. Perform Quality Assurance
B. Control Quality
C. Plan Quality Management
D. Quality Metrics
ANSWER: A
Quality assurance focuses on the process and is done throughout the
project execution.

49. Which element does a project charter contain?

A. Management reserves
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Stakeholder list
D. Stakeholder register
ANSWER: D

50. You are managing a project with project teams in different geographical
locations. There are approximately 25 team members in 3 different locations
each being led by a team lead. Additionally, there are 3 members from a
supporting group that are working part-time on the project. How many
communication channels are possible in your project?
A. 496
B. 992
C. 424
D. 32
ANSWER: A
This is directly based on the formula n*( n-1 )/2. If n is the number of
stakeholders in the project, the total possible communication channels =
n*( n-1 )/2. The project has 25 team members, 3 team leads, 3 support
team members, and the Project Manager. That makes it 32 people and
496 possible communication channels.

51. The zero duration of milestones in project planning occurs because

milestones:
A. Are unpredictable and challenge the Plan Schedule Management
process
B. Occur at random times in the project plans
C. Represent a moment in time such as a significant project point or event
D. Represent both significant and insignificant points in the project and
are difficult to anticipate.
ANSWER: C

52. What is the definition of Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A. Integrating all planned activities
B. Performing the activities included in the plan
C. Developing and maintaining the plan
D. Execution of deliverables
ANSWER: B

53. As a Project Manager, you need to estimate the regression testing for your
product. You would like to do 5 full testing cycles. Each cycle is estimated to
take 4 days. What is your estimated duration for the testing activity?
A. 25 days
B. 18 to 22 days
C. 18 days
D. 22 to 24 days
ANSWER: B
The estimated duration for 5 testing cycles of 4 days each is 20 days. The
correct estimation range is 18 to 22 days.

54. The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual

will withstand is
called risk:
A. Appetite
B. Tolerance
C. Threshold
D. Management
ANSWER: B

55. Which of the following is NOT a likely outcome of trying to fast track a
project?
A. Reduce the level of risk
B. Reduce the time taken
C. Increase the level of risk
D. Cause more rework
ANSWER: A
Fast tracking (getting more tasks to go on in parallel) may reduce the
time taken but will likely increase risk and rework.

56. In execution phase, implementation of approved actions happens by

following risk management plan and risk register. For this action, which
option is correct?
A. Minimize the negative risk and take the opportunities
B. Minimize the opportunities and increase the negative risk
C. Minimize only negative risk
D. Minimize only opportunities
ANSWER: A
As per the new examination content outline, take advantage of
opportunities.

57. A Project Manager is documenting the normal process for escalating the
issues on a project. Which document usually contains this information?
A. Risk management plan
B. Stakeholder management plan
C. Project Communication management plan
D. Quality management plan
ANSWER: C
A project communication management plan would capture the details of
the escalation paths on a project.

58. A Project Manager is conducting a bidder conference to select the most

suitable sellers. Which of the following tools will NOT be helpful?
A. Independent Estimates
B. Analytical Techniques
C. Procurement Negotiations
D. Make-or-Buy analysis
ANSWER: D
The Project Manager is in the process of conducting procurements and
all of the above are tools and techniques that can be used in the process
except Make-or-buy analysis, which is part of the plan procurement
process.

59. A manager and the head of engineering discuss a change to a major work
package. After the meeting, the manager contacts you and tells you to
complete the paperwork to make the change. This is an example of:
A. Management attention to scope management
 B. Management planning
C. A project expediter position
D. A change control system
ANSWER: C
In this situation, project manager acts as the secretary of the project and
does the paper work. So this is an example of project expediter position
where project manager does not have any authority and power. Project
manager does only paper work.

60. During project executing, a team member comes to the project manager
because he is not sure of what work he needs to accomplish on the project.
Which of the following documents contain detailed descriptions of work
packages?
A. WBS Dictionary
B. Activity List
C. Project scope statement
D. Scope management plan
ANSWER: A
Work packages in a Work Breakdown Structure contain only nouns or a
couple of words regarding a work or deliverable. Detailed information
on what needs to be done, responsible, prerequisites, successors, due date
etc. are included in the Work Breakdown Structure Dictionary.

61. Which of the following is NOT an input to the process Manage

stakeholder engagements?
A. Stakeholder Management Plan
B. Communication Management Plan
C. Change Log
D. Issue Log
ANSWER: D
An issue log is the output of the process Manage stakeholder
engagements. All the other options are inputs to the process.
62. An activity has an early start (ES) of day 3, a late start (LS) of day 13, an
early finish (EF) of day 9, and a late finish (LF) of day 19. The activity:
A. Is on the critical path
B. Has a lag
C. Is progressing well
D. Is not on the critical path
ANSWER: D
It is not on the critical path. Because if you look to the early start and
late start values of the activity, you can find the float or the slack of
activity’s time by subtracting early start, 3 days, from the late start, 13
days. And it gives 10 days of float for this activity. You will find the same
result if you go through subtracting the early finish, 9 days, from the late
finish, 19 days. Since the float of activity or the slack of the activity is
greater than zero, it’s not on the critical path. Remember the critical
path activities was having zero float.

63. As a Project Manager you are worried about the continuous bad
performance of one of your team members. You have spoken to him over
coffee, but there seems to be no improvement. What is the MOST suitable
way to communicate your dissatisfaction to the concerned team member?
A. Informal Verbal
B. Formal Verbal
C. Formal Written
D. Informal Written
ANSWER: C
As this is the second notice to the team member for poor performance, it
should be communicated in a formal written manner.

64. Stakeholder analysis is useful in not only identifying stakeholders and

their interests, expectations, and influence, but can ensure expectation
alignment and gain support for the project. Which output documents details
related to identified stakeholders?
A. Stakeholder Register
B. Project Charter
C. Organizational Process Assets Updates
D. Stakeholder management plan
ANSWER: A
Stakeholder register is the only output to Stakeholder register
identification. Project charter is an input, Stakeholder management plan
and Organizational Process Assets Updates are not used by this process.

65. A schedule performance index, SPI, of 0.75 means:

A. Project is over budget
B. Project is ahead of schedule
C. Project is progressing at 75% of the rate originally planned
D. Project is progressing at 25% of the rate originally planned
ANSWER: C
Choice A is irrelevant because SPI is a schedule performance index. We
cannot derive any conclusion about budget performance of the project
with this index. Choice B is not correct because SPI is less than one,
therefore, the project is behind schedule. And choice D says that you
have completed 25% of the work that you have originally planned, so it’s
not correct. The correct answer here is choice C, because SPI 0.75
means, you have completed 75% of your work that you have originally
planned.

66. You have the option of selecting to move either Project A or Project B
forward. Project A has an NPV of $250,000, with a payback period of 5
years. Project B has an NPV of $450,000, with a payback period of 7 years.
Which of the following do you do?
A. It depends: Selection criteria may differ depending on the supporting
organization(s)
B. Select A. It has a lower NPV, but the Payback Period is quicker
 C. Select B. It has a higher NPV, regardless of the Payback period
D. Select A. NPV is based on high-level assumptions, and may not be
accurate
ANSWER: A
The Business Case is commonly used for decision-making above the
project level. Tools such as Payback period, NPV may or may not be
part of a functioning organization's project selection process.

67. A key stakeholder expresses his concern over lack of project visibility
and progress and says that project status reports received lack information
relevant to the stakeholder's department. How should the Project Manager
respond?
A. Review the Project Communication Management Plan to determine the
stakeholder's needs
B. Relook at the Manage Communications process to identify the gaps
C. Raise a change request to address the stakeholder's feedback
D. Relook at the Control Communications process to understand the
problem
ANSWER: A
The communication management plan determines the project
stakeholder information needs and defines the communication approach.
It is the document that needs to be referred to resolve the stakeholder's
issues. Since the stakeholder is receiving timely performance reports,
options B and C are not correct.

68. Conflict resolution techniques that may be used on a project include

confronting, smoothing, forcing, and:
A. Withdrawing
B. Directing
C. Organizing
D. Controlling
ANSWER: A
Withdrawing, or in other words, avoiding. The other three are directing,
organizing, and controlling, are not types of conflict resolution
techniques.

69. You've been assigned to a new project, and are asked to finalize the
charter and submit for approval. Which input to Develop Project Charter will
help you in understanding high-level risk surrounding your project?
A. Stakeholder Register
B. Project Statement of Work
C. Project Charter
D. Business Case
ANSWER: D
The business case may contain elements of risk that should be addressed.

70. In one of the project status meetings, two senior team members get into
an argument regarding the introduction of a new tool to automate time sheet
filling. Which of the following would provide you maximum insight on the
conversation?
A. The content and timing of the conversation
B. The content and timing of the conversation and the communication
technology used
C. Body Language and the words in the conversation
D. Body language and voice modulation including pitch and tone
ANSWER: D
Choice D includes non-verbal and paralingual forms which are critical
for effective communication and form more than 55% of all
communication.

71. A project manager is in the middle of creating a request for proposal

(RFP). What part of the procurement process is she in?
A. Conduct procurements
 B. Plan Procurements
C. Control Procurements
D. Close Procurements
ANSWER: B
She is in plan procurements process. Because
procurement statement of work, procurement
documents are prepared in plan procurements management process.
And RFP is a procurement document as well. Therefore, it is prepared in
plan procurements process. RFP was defining what the buyer is
requiring from the seller.

72. In which form of planning are tasks to be done in the near term planned in
detail, with later tasks planned in less detail, in the WBS?
A. Rolling wave planning
B. GERT
C. Fast tracking
D. PERT
ANSWER: A

73. A Project Manager in an e-learning project is using free downloadable

tutorials via the Internet to reach out to large audiences. This communication
method is called:
A. Interactive Communication
B. Pull Communication
C. Push Communication
D. Personal communication
ANSWER: B
This is an example of a pull communication method which is used for
large volumes of information or for large audiences that require the
recipients to access the communication content at their own discretion. It
is easier to recall pull communication as "pulling of information" as
desired by the receiver at his discretion.

74. You want to group your project stakeholders based on their authority and
involvement in the project. Which of the following is appropriate model for
this?
A. Power/Interest Grid
B. Power/Influence Grid
C. Influence/Impact Grid
D. Salience Model
ANSWER: B
Authority of a stakeholder represents power of the stakeholder and
involvement of a stakeholder represents the influence level of the
stakeholder.

75. Which quality theorist advocated the popular iterative four-step approach
of Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA)?
A. Bill Cosby
B. Bill Gates
C. Joseph Juran
D. W. Edwards Deming
ANSWER: D
PDCA (plan–do–check–act, or plan–do–check–adjust) is an iterative
four-step management method used in business for the control and
continuous improvement of processes and products. It is also known as
the Deming circle/cycle/wheel, Shewhart cycle, control circle/cycle, or
plan–do–study–act (PDSA).

76. You are a Project Manager. You need to decide whether to buy insurance
for a temporary manufacturing facility. The likelihood of a mishap is
assessed at 10% and the likely impact is evaluated at $500,000. The cost of
insuring is $20,000 and has a $10,000 deductible. Would you buy insurance?
A. Yes, because 50,000 > 21,000
 B. Yes, because 50,000 > 30,000
C. No, because 30,000 < 500,000
D. No, because 21,000 < 50,000
ANSWER: A
EMV when there is no insurance is -500,000 * 0.1 = $50,000. EMV when
there is insurance is -(20,000+ 0.1*10,000) = -21,000. Therefore, it makes
sense to buy insurance.

77. After working as a Project Manager for more than 25 years, you want to
share your learning and best practices with your industry. You do this by
writing articles in international journals and giving interviews to share your
experience. This act can be BEST described as?
A. Enhancement of professional skills by learning project management
and technical skills
B. Contribution to project management knowledge base by virtue of vast
personal experience
C. Capturing professional stint in autobiography purely as a retrospection
exercise
D. Informing others about project management principles and helping the
profession grow
ANSWER: B
The Project Manager is adding his lessons learned and best practices to
the project management knowledge base.

78. A project risk manager distributes anonymous questionnaires to project

team members to help identify risks. This is called.
A. Game Theory
B. The Consensus Method
C. Interviewing
D. The Delphi Technique
ANSWER: D
79. A project manager is considering risk in a project. When does risk come
into play in a project?
A. During the SWOT (strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats)
analysis
B. During the Identify Risks phase
C. As soon as the Plan Risk Management phase begins
D. As soon as a project is conceived
ANSWER: A

80. During a work breakdown structure meeting you have decomposed the
deliverables into work packages and created your WBS dictionary. However,
you now want to decompose the work packages to assist you in estimating,
executing and control the project. These decomposed work packages are
called?
A. Work Packages can’t be decomposed into smaller units
B. Activities
C. Milestones
D. Control Accounts
ANSWER: B

81. During project execution, the customer interprets a clause in the contract
differently and demands an elaborate design document as part of the next
deliverable. According to you, this is not included in the deliverable list.
What best can you do to resolve the situation?
A. Change the contract and continue with your project work
B. Accept the customer's demand as he is responsible for the project's
success
C. Talk to your Project sponsor about the issue and the implications of
accepting such a request on the schedule and cost of the project
D. Document the dispute and refer to the claims administration
ANSWER: D
In case of conflicting claims, it is best to refer them to claims
administration. Claims administration resolves claims according to the
contract's dispute resolution procedures when the buyer and seller
cannot resolve a claim on their own. Claims administration documents,
processes, monitors, and manages claims during the life of the contract,
usually according to the contract terms.

82. When a project is performed under contract, the contractual provisions

will generally be considered as for the project.
A. Constraints
B. Exclusions
C. Deliverables
D. Provisions
ANSWER: A

83. Prioritization matrices are an important quality planning tool. They

provide a way of ranking a diverse set of problems and/or issues by order of
importance. How is this list usually generated?
A. Through control charts
B. Through PERT analysis
C. Through brainstorming
D. Through variance analysis
ANSWER: C

84. A project has a CV of -$500 and SPI of 1.2. What can be said about the
project?
A. Your project is over budget and behind schedule
B. Your project is under budget and behind schedule
C. Your project is over budget and ahead of schedule
D. Your project is under budget and ahead of schedule
ANSWER: C
CV < 0 indicates that the project over budget; SPI > 1 indicates that
project is ahead of schedule.
85. You are managing a project for a customer that has just gone bankrupt
and is subject to liquidation proceedings. There are several outstanding
invoices that this customer has not paid to your company. What should you
do now?
A. Go into alternate dispute resolution
B. Do nothing
C. Contact the appropriate management at your company for advice how
to proceed
D. Send the invoices to the bankruptcy attorneys
ANSWER: C

86. Earned value management is the tool and technique of which process?
A. Perform Integrated Change Control
B. Control Costs
C. Direct and Manage project work
D. Control Schedule
ANSWER: B
Earned value management is a tool and technique of the Control Costs
process.

87. Peter, a project manager, is updating the status of his project. Based on
the performance indices, he expects the project to finish a month earlier than
the planned finish date. However, he expects the project to exceed the
budgeted costs. What can you say about the schedule performance index
(SPI) of the project?
A. The SPI is less than 1.0.
B. The SPI equals the CPI.
C. The SPI is greater than 1.0.
D. The SPI is equal to 1.0.
ANSWER: C
88. A technique that calculates multiple project durations with different sets
of activity assumptions and variables is called:
A. Process analysis
B. Theoretical Analysis
C. Simulation
D. Effect Analysis
ANSWER: C

89. A project team with a CPI of 0.78 is looking for options to reduce cost.
Which of the following would be the BEST option to do so?
A. Reduce a test cycle in the system testing phase
B. Reduce scope by cutting down non-essential features
C. Add more resources to expedite the schedule
D. Revisit estimates and eliminate risks and then re-estimate
ANSWER: D
Choice C wouldn't reduce cost. Choice A and B would have a negative
effect as they compromise on quality or scope. Of all the available
options, D is the one with minimum negative effect.

90. The project management plan can best be described as:

A. A list of tasks, activities, durations and resources in a software
program (e.g., Microsoft Project)
B. Coordinating changes across the entire project
C. Integrating and coordinating all project plans to create a consistent,
coherent document
D. Integrating and coordinating all project documents and stakeholder
expectations
ANSWER: C

91. Which of the following is the best use of Pareto charts?

A. To visualize a workflow
 B. To prioritize issues
C. To perform deeper causal analysis
D. To examine trends
ANSWER: B
Pareto charts based on the 80-20 rule are useful for prioritizing from
among a number of possible causes because it helps to focus on the 20%
causes that result in 80% of the issues.

92. Which of the following is neither an input nor an output of the Direct and
Manage Project Work process?
A. Approved change requests
B. Change requests
C. Approved deliverables
D. Deliverables
ANSWER: C

93. As a Project Manager, you realize that the initial budget cost, Budget at
Completion (BAC), for your project is no longer viable. You need to develop
a new Estimate At Completion (EAC) forecast assuming that current
variances would continue in the future. Which of the following formulae
should you use to calculate EAC? Here, AC is the Actual Cost, EV is the
Earned Value, and PV is the Planned Value.
A. EAC = AC + ETC
B. EAC= AC+ (BAC - EV)
C. EAC = EV/PV
D. EAC = BAC/Cumulative CPI
ANSWER: D
This method assumes current variances to be typical of the future. The
remaining work is assumed to be performed at the same cumulative cost
performance index (CPI) as what has been incurred by the project to
date.
94. You are assisting another project manager interview candidates for a
resource position on his project. While reviewing your interview notes
together, the other project manager sorts the candidate’s resumes into two
groups: one for further interviews, the other for candidates that did not meet
the requirements for the position. You notice that he has placed several of the
highly qualified candidates in the second pile, stating that those interviewees
“did not fit the corporate profile.” Upon further review, you discover that
these candidates are all of the same ethnic group. What do you do?
A. Excuse yourself from the interviewing process
B. Report this to the appropriate management
C. File a complaint with PMI
D. Do nothing
ANSWER: B

95. A Project Manager is working toward improving the competencies, team

interaction, and overall team environment to enhance project performance.
Which of the following tools and techniques would NOT be helpful here?
A. Training
B. Recognition and Rewards
C. Conflict Management
D. Co-location
ANSWER: C
The Project Manager is in the process of developing project teams.
Apart from conflict management, all the other options are tools and
techniques used in the process. Conflict management is part of "manage
project team."

96. A team is inspecting specific project deliverables to ensure that they are
in accordance with the specifications. Which process is being worked on?
A. Perform Quality Assurance
B. Validate Scope
C. Plan Quality Management
D. Control Quality
ANSWER: D
Quality control is the process of examining specific project deliverables
to ensure they are in accordance with the requirements/specifications.

97. You are a Project Manager in the process of performing the work defined
in the project management plan to achieve the project objectives. Which
process are you in?
A. Develop Project Management Plan
B. Monitor and Control Project work
C. Direct and Manage project work
D. Execution process group
ANSWER: C
The Project Manager is currently in the "direct and manage project
work" process that is a part of the execution process group.

98. The customers are performing User Acceptance Tests on the product that
was delivered by the project team. Which process is likely being performed?
A. Control Quality
B. Control Schedule
C. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Validate Scope
ANSWER: D
Scope validation is the process of accepting or rejecting the project's
deliverables.

99. Project performance reviews using earned value management would NOT
typically incorporate information from:
A. Variance Analysis
B. Cost Benefit Analysis
C. Trend Analysis
D. Earned Value Technique
ANSWER: B
Cost benefit analysis is a technique that compares positive factors or
benefits with negative ones to determine the net result of performing the
action. It is a popular technique for the project selection method, but will
not be useful during the project performance review.

100. Projects are a means of achieving objectives within an organization's

strategic plan. Which of the following statements is NOT true about projects?
A. Every project creates a unique product, service or result
B. The duration of the project is short
C. Repetitive elements may be present in some project deliverables and
activities
D. A project can involve a single individual
ANSWER: B
A project is a temporary endeavor; but, it does not necessarily mean the
duration of the project is short. Please note that repetitive elements may
be present in some project deliverables and activities; but, this repetition
does not change the fundamental, unique characteristics of the project
work. You also should understand a project can involve a single or
multiple individuals, a single organization or multiple organizations.
PRACTICE TEST 4
Answers
1. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Cost and staffing levels are high at the start
B. The ability to influence the final characteristics of the product without
impacting the cost is highest at the start
C. Uncertainty is the least at the start of the project
D. Stakeholder influences increase over the life of the project
ANSWER: B
Cost and staffing levels are low at the start. Uncertainty is greatest at the
start of the project. Stakeholder influences are greatest at the start of the
project and decrease over the life of the project.

2. In a kick-off meeting for your project, you provided information to your

team members about the different process groups to be followed in the
project. According to PMI, which are the project management process
groups?
A. Conceptualizing, Initiating, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling,
and Closing
B. Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and
Closing
C. Initiating, Verifying, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and
Closing
D. Initiating, Planning, Executing, Controlling, and Administrative
Closure
ANSWER: B
The five Process Groups are Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring
and Controlling, and Closing.

3. You are the project manager for a CRM (Customer Relationship

Management) provider. Your current project will use machine learning to
reveal certain details about customers by cross-referencing with social media,
to offer services to them, along with a compelling argument for purchasing
the service, based on their background, computer activity and deleted emails.
However, a change has been announced to Privacy legislation that would
require changes to your project, otherwise your company could face legal
action and substantial fines. The actual changes to the project seem quite
simple. The FIRST thing you should do as project manager is:
A. Immediately make the changes, to protect your company from serious
legal action, fines and damage to the company reputation
B. Halt all work on the project immediately until senior management
works out how to make the changes
C. Submit a change request
D. Cancel the project, because it is too risky to continue.
ANSWER: C
Any change to a project can be made only if authorized by the Perform
Integrated Change Control process. And the first step in this process is
to submit a change request.

4. Which process of integrative project management documents the actions

necessary to define, prepare, integrate, and coordinate all subsidiary plans
into a project management plan?
A. Direct and Manage Project Work
B. Monitor and Control Project Work
C. Develop Project Charter
D. Develop Project Management Plan
ANSWER: D

5. Which of the following models of conflict resolution allows a cooling off

period, but seldom resolves the issue in the long term?
A. Problem solving
B. Withdrawal
C. Forcing
D. Smoothing
ANSWER: B
Withdrawal is a temporary solution that evades problem-solving as
much as possible.

6. You are managing the release of a new drug in the market. Your role is
that of a:
A. Functional Manager, because you have good functional knowledge of
the pharmaceutical industry
B. Project Manager, because you are creating a unique product within
specific time schedules
C. Operations Manager, because you have to do several repetitive tasks
D. Program Manager, because you have to manage several projects to do
your job effectively
ANSWER: B
Every project creates a unique product, service, or result. A project can
create a service or a capability to perform a service (e.g., a business
function that supports production or distribution).

7. Which of the following is NOT TRUE for stakeholders?

A. Stakeholders can be customers, sponsors, and the performing
organization
B. Stakeholders cannot exert influence over the project, its deliverables,
or team members
C. Stakeholder identification is a continuous process
D. A project can be perceived as having both positive and negative results
by the stakeholders
ANSWER: B

8. Two members of a team are disagreeing about the right electric parameters
for testing a newly designed chipset. Who is in the best position to help
resolve this issue?
A. Project Manager
B. Project Sponsor
 C. Functional Manager
D. Customer
ANSWER: C
The issue requires functional expertise and hence the Functional
Managers are best able to assist in this matter.

9. Where would you expect to find a list of items that will not be delivered by
the project?
A. Project scope statement
B. Exclusions register
C. Assumption log
D. Issue log
ANSWER: A

10. You are looking at various process improvement models. Which of the
following is not a process improvement model?
A. Malcolm-Baldrige
B. Organizational Project Management Maturity Model (OPM3)®
C. Capability Maturity Model Integrated (CMMI®)
D. Shewhart-Deming
ANSWER: D

11. You are managing a nationwide telecom network deployment project.

You learned that you are unable to start any civil works before obtaining a
government agency's permit, which could take months. The project deadlines
are aggressive and you might face penalties if you don't meet them. Obtaining
the government agency's permit prior to civil works on any site is an example
of which of the following?
A. Mandatory Dependency
B. External Dependency
C. Project Constraint
D. Project Requirement
ANSWER: A
When we are talking about relationships between activities we are
talking about dependencies between the tasks. Obtaining the permits will
definitely be in your project's scope of work and will also be a part of
your contract. Therefore, it is considered a mandatory dependency.

12. In communication, the receiver decodes the messages based on all but the
following:
A. Culture
B. Semantics
C. Language
D. Distance
ANSWER: D
Distance isn't among the criteria for interpreting a message received.

13. Performance reviews are held to:

A. Correct the project manager's mistakes.
B. Provide for answers for upper levels of management
C. To assess project status or progress
D. To apprise the project costs and cost trends of the project
ANSWER: C

14. A Project Manager is identifying relevant enterprise and environmental

factors in a project. Which of the following is NOT a valid example?
A. Organizational culture and processes
B. Stakeholder risk tolerances
C. Employee performance review records
D. Historical lessons learned knowledge base
ANSWER: D
These are parts of the corporate knowledge base in organizational
process assets.
15. Which of the following could be an appropriate WBS code for a work
package at the fourth level in a WBS where the top level code is 1.0?
A. 1.4
B. 1.1.1.1
C. 1.2.3.4
D. B and C
ANSWER: D
Both B and C follow the correct format.

16. Your company is responsible for developing an anti-virus software. You

are responsible for managing both the individual product releases and the
coordination of multiple releases. Your role is that of a:
A. Program manager
B. Project manager
C. Functional manager
D. Operations manager
ANSWER: A
A program is defined as a group of related projects, subprograms, and
program activities managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not
available from managing them individually. Programs may include
elements of related work outside the scope of the discrete projects in the
program.

17. A hospital is installing a new management system to computerize the

hospital functions. For this purpose, representatives from several departments
are selected to create a task force assigned to implement the project. This
organization structure is called:
A. Functional Organization
B. Projectized Organization
C. Composite Organization
D. Balanced Matrix Organization
ANSWER: C
Many times, even a fundamentally functional organization may create a
special project team to handle a critical project. This may have many
characteristics of a project team in a projectized organization. The team
may include full-time staff from different functional departments, may
develop its own set of operating procedures, and may operate outside the
standard, formalized reporting structure.

18. The PMI talent triangle® focuses on which three key skill sets?
A. Leadership, Strategic and business management, and Technical project
management
B. Business management, Leadership, and Technical project management
C. Leadership, Strategic and business management, soft skills and
motivation
D. Leadership, Strategic project management and technical business
management.
ANSWER: A

19. While rating a proposal, one of the requirements was “The proposed
project manager needs to be a certified Project Management Professional,
PMP® ” This is an example of:
A. Constraints
B. Source Selection Criteria
C. Assumptions
D. Good practice
ANSWER: B

20. Which of these is not a benefit measurement project selection method?

A. Integer Algorithm
B. Internal Rate of Return
C. Scoring model
D. Discounted cash flow
ANSWER: A
The other three options are examples of benefit measurement method.

21. You are part of an expert committee deciding which project should be
implemented by your company. Your committee asks tough questions from
the project teams and helps decide which project your company should select.
Which project selection technique are you using?
A. Scoring Model
B. Committee Selection
C. Murder Board
D. Defined Benefit
ANSWER: C
Murder board is a process where a committee asks questions from
project representatives as part of the project selection process.

22. Your project performance review shows that your project's current
planned value = 30,000 Euro and earned value = 29,000 Euro. Which of the
following statements is true about your project?
A. CPI = 0.96
B. The project is ahead of schedule
C. The project has a positive cost variance
D. The project is behind schedule
ANSWER: D
If you calculate the schedule performance index (SPI), which = EV / PV,
you will find that it is 0.96. Any SPI less than 1 indicates that you are
behind schedule.

23. Which of the following Project Scope Management processes involves

subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable
components?
A. Plan Scope Management
 B. Define Scope
C. Validate Scope
D. Create WBS
ANSWER: D

24. You have reached the end of the design phase of your project. You decide
to call a "phase end review" for obtaining authorization to close the design
phase and initiate the next phase (i.e., execution phase) of your project. Your
manager disagrees with your suggestion. He wants a "kill point" to formally
end the design phase of the project. In this context, you should:
A. Disagree with your manager because you know that phase end
reviews should be used at the end of each phase of the project
B. Agree with your manager as kill point is a phase-end review
C. Escalate this issue to the project sponsor
D. Take advice from a senior project manager about what should
actually be done at the end of each phase of the project
ANSWER: B
A phase end represents a natural point to reassess the activities
underway and to change or terminate the project if necessary. This point
may be referred to as a stage gate, milestone, phase review, phase gate,
or kill point.

25. As a Project Manager, you are in the process of establishing the total
scope of the effort in the project to define project objectives. For this purpose,
you include relevant stakeholders and explore all the aspects of scope, cost,
time, risk quality, etc. Which process group of the project are you currently
in?
A. Initiation
B. Planning
C. Execution
D. Monitor and Control
ANSWER: B
26. Risk identification is performed in which manner?
A. Iterative
B. Incremental
C. Mandatory
D. Quantitative
ANSWER: A
Iterative - this means throughout the project life cycle.

27. There are several communication methods used to share and distribute
information to stakeholders, team members and management. Which of the
following communication methods are used during execution phase to notify
the public about environmental changes your project is going to cause after
implementation?
A. Pull communication
B. Interactive communication
C. Informal communication
D. Push communication
ANSWER: A

28. You are managing a construction project and have two subcontractors
supplying you with materials based on a fixed price contract. Halfway
through the project, the first supplier says that he will not be able to supply
the stone chips originally agreed upon, as the cost of stone chips has gone up
drastically since the contract was signed. He offers to provide stone chips of
similar texture, but a cheaper variety. If the cheaper variety of stone chips is
used, then the second supplier who provides the stone chip crusher will have
to procure a new crusher for the project. What should you do in this case?
A. Terminate the contracts for both the suppliers and take up the supply of
stone chips yourself
B. Request the second supplier to procure the new crusher and have the
first supplier pay for the expenses of the new crusher
 C. Decline to have the poorer variety of stone chips used. Politely
informer the first supplier that, as this is a fixed price contract, all
parties need to adhere to the original contract, and any changes in costs
are to be borne by the supplier
D. Request direction from senior management
ANSWER: C
The suppliers are required to do their work according to what is defined
in the contract.

29. Which of these is a process in the Scope Management knowledge area

A. Identify Scope
B. Clarify Scope
C. Control Scope
D. Close Scope
ANSWER: C

30. Who among the following is responsible for performing the scope
validation
A. Project Manager
B. Senior Management
C. The quality team
D. The customer
ANSWER: D
Scope Validation is the process of the customer accepting the project
deliverables.

31. Your customer calls you on the phone and informs you of a minor change
to a requirement on the project. What is the first thing that should be done?
A. Analyze the request and its consequences to the project
B. Instruct your engineer to implement this minor change
C. Ask the customer to provide a formal change request
 D. Note it in the weekly status report
ANSWER: C
All changes on a project must be documented and then formally
approved via the Perform Integrated Change Control process.

32. You have just been made the Project Manager of the ABC project. You
are trying to read the WBS and are unable to understand some of the WBS
components. Which should be your first step to understand this?
A. Refer to the WBS dictionary
B. Refer to the scope statement
C. Refer to the Project charter
D. Contact the previous Project Manager
ANSWER: A
WBS dictionary is the best option. WBS Dictionary identifies all the
components used in the WBS.

33. In one of your presentations to your project sponsor you mentioned the
Code of Accounts. She is unfamiliar with the term and asks for clarification.
Which of the following would you use to explain the Code of Accounts?
A. The management reserve notes in the Risk Register
B. Project budget
C. Work Breakdown Structure
D. Risk Breakdown Structure
ANSWER: C
The Code of Accounts is a numbering system that uniquely identifies
each component of the WBS.

34. Project scope is:

A. All the work that must be done in order to deliver a product according
to the specified features and functions, only.
B. The features and functions that are to be included in a product or
 service.
C. A narrative description of work to be performed under contract.
D. a and b
ANSWER: A
Project scope means all the work and only the work required to complete
the project successfully.

35. You are working in the Project Management Office (PMO) of your
organization. Your job responsibility is to:
A. Manage the operational activities in the company
B. Manage human resource and risk management issues for individual
projects
C. Provide support functions to project managers in the form of training,
providing software, standardizing policies, etc.
D. Provide subject matter expertise in the functional areas of the project
ANSWER: C
A project management office (PMO) is a management structure that
standardizes the project-related governance processes and facilitates the
sharing of resources, methodologies, tools, and techniques. The
responsibilities of a PMO can range from providing project management
support functions to actually being responsible for the direct
management of one or more projects.

36. Project Manager John and his team have finished creating the Work
Breakdown Structure (WBS) and Work Breakdown Structure dictionary.
Then, he prepares a detailed and itemized documentation of all of the
schedule activities that are part of the project. What should he do NEXT?
A. Create Network Diagram for the project
B. Determine quality standards, processes, and metrics
C. Determine high-level project assumptions and constraints
D. Conduct project progress meeting
ANSWER: A
37. The only risk response strategy that can be used for both threats and
opportunities is?
A. Exploit
B. Avoid
C. Transfer
D. Accept
ANSWER: D
Note that transfer and avoid are options only for threats, and exploit
only for opportunities.

38. Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements

process?
A. Advertising
B. Selected Sellers
C. Independent Estimates
D. Expert Judgment
ANSWER: B

39. You are planning to use PERT for planning of your project. A task has
pessimistic estimate of 24 days, most likely estimate of 15 days and
optimistic estimate of 12 days. What is the mean using the PERT technique?
A. 18 days
B. 25.5 days
C. 15 days
D. 16 days
ANSWER: D
Mean for PERT is defined as (P+4M+O)/6 which comes out to be 16
days.

40. Oligopoly refers to which of these

 A. There is only one qualified seller in the market
B. There are no sellers in the market, so you have to build the product
in-house
C. There are few sellers and action of one seller will have impact on
other sellers prizes
D. Your company prefers to contract with only one seller.
ANSWER: C
In oligopoly, the action of one seller has an impact on other sellers, as
there are very few sellers.

41. The total authorized budget for your IT project is $160,000 and
management reserves is $20,000. You want to measure cost performance to
see how the project is doing. In this context, the cost performance is against
measured which of the following budget amounts?
A. $180,000
B. $140,000
C. $20,000
D. $160,000
ANSWER: B
Cost performance of a project is measured against the cost baseline. The
cost baseline is the project budget minus management reserves, which in
this case is $160,000 - $20,000 = $140,000. Since the problem does not
mention the use of any management reserves, the cost baseline is
$140,000.

42. Which project management knowledge areas in the PMBOK® Guide do

not begin with a process related to management planning?
A. Integration Management and Scope Management
B. Scope Management and Quality Management
C. Stakeholder Management and Integration Management
D. Integration Management and Communications Management
ANSWER: C
These are the only 2 knowledge areas that do not begin with a process
related to management planning (Develop Project Charter, Identify
Stakeholders).

43. Late in the project cycle, it was discovered that some of the project
human resources needed to have been trained on a specific methodology.
Ideally, where should these training needs have first been documented?
A. Staffing management plan
B. In the procurement contract
C. In the project scope statement
D. In the company HR policy
ANSWER: A

44. Which of the following is not true about analogous estimating.

A. Estimate is based on past projects
B. It is not very accurate
C. It uses bottom-up approach
D. It is a form of an expert judgment
ANSWER: C
The others are true statements about analogous estimating.

45. You are working in a weak matrix organization. You are having problems
acquiring the project human resources you were promised earlier during the
planning phase of the project. The substitute resources being offered to you
do not have the skills required to perform the project work. What should you
do to resolve this problem?
A. You should issue a change request
B. You should use your legitimate power to obtain the required resources
C. You should convince your project sponsor to release the necessary
resources
D. You should negotiate with the functional manager
ANSWER: D
In a weak matrix organization the project manager's authority and
power is relatively low and the project manager typically acts as a
project coordinator or project expediter. In a weak matrix resource
availability is typically low and those resources and the project budget is
managed by a functional manager. Therefore in order to obtain the
resources required to execute the project successfully you must negotiate
with the functional manager who has control and authority over all the
resources.

46. Which of the following is NOT an example of a type of schedule report?

A. Gantt chart
B. Milestone chart
C. Fishbone diagram
D. Network diagram
ANSWER: C
A fishbone diagram is meant for cause and effect analysis.

47. Which of the following is correct order for stages in Tuckman ladder?
A. Foaming, Steaming, Norming, Perfuming, Dispersing
B. Forming, Storming, Protecting, Norming, Adjourning
C. Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, Adjourning
D. Framing, Storming, Norming, Protecting, Adjourning
ANSWER: C

48. Which of the following exhibits greatest resistance to change?

A. Business requirements
B. Technology
C. People
D. Environment
ANSWER: C
People exhibit greatest resistance to change.
49. A key stakeholder from the quality department wants to know more on
how the process tailoring was done by the project team. Additionally, the
stakeholder would like to know the rationale for selecting processes, their
implementation level details, and how they will be used to manage the
interdependencies. Which document should the Project Manager refer the
stakeholder to?
A. Project Statement of Work
B. Project Scope Statement
C. Project Management Plan
D. Work performance Information
ANSWER: C
The results of the process tailoring by the project team are captured in
the project management plan, along with all the other information
required by the stakeholder.

50. You are trying to figure out if there is a correlation between the slack time
available in a shift and the number of rejected components produced during
the shift. Which is the tool that you will use to analyse this?
A. Pareto charts
B. Ishikawa diagrams
C. Histograms
D. Scatter diagrams
ANSWER: D
Scatter diagrams are used to plot data between two variables to figure
out if there is a pattern or correlation between them.

51. A Project Manager wants to monitor the performance of a process. She

sets up thresholds for this purpose, and any observation beyond the threshold
would trigger a root cause analysis and corrective/preventive actions. This is
an example of:
A. Specification limits
 B. Control limits
C. Pareto charts
D. Tolerances
ANSWER: B
Tolerances or specification limits are customer-specified limitations.
These limits are meant for the purpose of controlling the process. Hence,
they are control limits.

52. A Project Manager has delivered a major deliverable of the project. The
customer comes back a week after the release saying that he is not entirely
satisfied with the deliverable. What should the Project Manager do NEXT?
A. Continue with the next deliverable as the project has to be finished on
time
B. Talk to the Senior Manager to discuss the customer concern and
resolution
C. Ensure that the next deliverables have the features that the customer
specified and exceed his expectations
D. Do a scope verification of this deliverable to check if it satisfies project
objectives
ANSWER: D
Verifying the project scope includes reviewing deliverables to ensure that
each is completed satisfactorily. If this is successful, it should provide
customer satisfaction. Option C is gold plating, i.e., providing the
customers something they didn't ask for and that wouldn't solve the
problem.

53. The ES of an activity is 2 days, and the duration of the activity is 5 days.
The LF for the activity is 8 days. What is the total float for this activity?
A. 6 days
B. 3 days
C. 1 day
D. 5 days
ANSWER: C
We can calculate float using the formula EF=ES+D=2+5=7 and LS=LF-
D=8-5=3. The formula for Total float is LS-ES or LF-EF. The answer is
1 day.

54. The decision to close a project is taken during which process group?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Controlling
D. Closing
ANSWER: C
The decision to close a project (normal or abnormal termination) is
taken during the controlling processes.

55. A Project Manager is proactively managing the change through the scope
control process. Which of the following should he be MOST worried about?
A. Value Added Changes
B. Errors and Omissions
C. Risk Response
D. Verbal communication from key stakeholders
ANSWER: D
Undocumented changes should never be allowed by the Project
Manager. He should ensure that whenever a change is requested, the
impact on features and functions of the product (including that on the
triple constraints) is documented with a change request. Only then
should the change continue through integrated change control.

56. Which of the following is NOT an input to the Control Communications

process?
A. Issue Log
B. Work performance information
 C. Work performance data
D. Project management plan
ANSWER: B
Work performance information is an output (not input) to the Control
communications process.

57. A Project Manager wants to perform some tests on the product that might
end up destroying the product. What technique can be used to get around this
problem?
A. Statistical sampling
B. Regression testing
C. Automated testing
D. Stability testing
ANSWER: A
In case the test is likely to prove destructive, it is typically performed on
a sample.

58. In the PDCA cycle, C stands for?

A. Control
B. Check
C. Card
D. Carryover
ANSWER: B
PDCA stands for Plan-Do-Check-Act.

59. As part of the Develop Team process, the project manager of a project
has planned for some Team Building activities. Team Building Activities
should take place throughout the project life cycle, but have greater benefit
when conducted:
A. On a need-basis
 B. At the end of the project life cycle
C. Early in the project life cycle
D. In the middle of the project life cycle
ANSWER: C

60. You are reviewing the control chart and observe that there are seven
points in a row that are below the mean. What does it mean?
A. The mean should be re-adjusted
B. Investigate the cause of it
C. Re-draw in control limit
D. It is common, nothing to worry about
ANSWER: B
A process is considered to be out of control if seven consecutive plot
points are either above or below the mean.

61. Under which of the following scenarios would you not use a Decision
tree?
A. When some future scenarios are unknown
B. When you need to look at the implications of not choosing certain
alternatives
C. When the future scenarios are known
D. When the outcomes of some of the actions are uncertain.
ANSWER: C

62. Which of the following processes will determine the correctness of

deliverables?
A. Plan Quality Assurance
B. Plan Quality Management
C. Control Quality
D. Manage Quality
ANSWER: C
63. After awarding contract to one of the sellers, you realize that you have
missed a clause for delay in the contract and want to modify it. How should
you proceed?
A. The contract is legally binding and cannot be changed once signed
B. The Project Manager should inform the seller about the change in the
next meeting
C. The Project Manager should inform the seller about the change through
a formal written communication
D. The Project Manager should proceed with Contract Change Control
System at his end
ANSWER: D
The Project Manager should proceed with Contract Change control
System at his end.

64. Adding features and functionality without addressing the effects on time,
costs, and resources or without customer approval is referred to as
A. Scope variation
B. Scope change
C. Scope growth
D. Scope creep
ANSWER: D

65. All of the following about communication models is true EXCEPT:

A. Sender encodes his thoughts and sends to receiver
B. Information is sent by the sender to receiver with the assistance of
medium
C. Receiver acknowledges if he agrees with the information he received
D. Message is decoded by the receiver into thoughts
ANSWER: C
Acknowledgement was saying that the receiver got the message, but it
does not mean that he or she agrees with the received message.
Acknowledgement means only that the message sent by the other party
has been received. Therefore, it does not mean an agreement.

66. A project manager had scheduled a number of training programs for his
team. However, he was aware that apart from planned training, unplanned
training also took place in a number of ways. Which of these is not one of the
ways in which unplanned training can happen?
A. Classroom
B. Observation
C. Project performance appraisals
D. Conversation
ANSWER: A

67. Which of the following is typically NOT part of project closure?

A. Get formal sign off from the customer to confirm customer acceptance
of final deliverable
B. Measure customer satisfaction as it is a key performance indicator of
the project's success
C. Hand off completed project deliverables to operations and management
D. Use the findings of the project to plan future projects
ANSWER: D
Documenting lessons learned is part of closure, but applying those
findings happens during the project planning (not closure) process.

68. Contingency reserves should be

A. Added to each project activity
B. Added to each project phase
C. Clearly identified in schedule documentation
D. avoided at all costs
ANSWER: C
69. A new CEO has come into your company and has promptly shut down
your project because it no longer met the business needs of the company.
While not pleased with the decision, you document the level and
completeness of the project to date. What activity or process is this part of?
A. Close Project or Phase
B. Manage Project Knowledge
C. Control Scope
D. Validate Scope
ANSWER: A

70. What is the difference between precision and accuracy?

A. You cannot be both precise and accurate
B. Accuracy is a measure of exactness; precision measures correctness
of the deliverable
C. Accuracy measures correctness; precision measures exactness
D. The two terms are basically synonymous
ANSWER: C
Accuracy is a measure of correctness; conformance to target values.
Precision is measured by exactness; standard deviation.

71. Analogous estimating, parametric estimating, and three-point estimating

are all techniques used to:
A. Estimate cost
B. Estimate duration
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
ANSWER: C

72. You are managing a project with a total budget of $36,000 to be finished
in one year. You are at the end of the 6th month and the project is currently
on schedule; however, the actual cost of the project is $20,000. What is the
cost variance on the project?
A. 2000
B. -2000
C. 16000
D. -6000
ANSWER: B
Cost variance = Earned Value (EV) - Actual Cost (AC). Here, Earned
Value is uniformly spread over the entire project duration. So earned
value at the 6th month = [(Total Cost)/ (Total Project months)] * Months
completed, i.e., ($36,000/12)*6 = $ 18,000. Cost Variance = $18,000-
$20,000 = -$2,000

73. Free float can be determined

A. Any time after activity durations have been estimated
B. As soon as all activities are defined
C. Once the total float for a network path has been calculated
D. one of the above
ANSWER: C

74. During final payment for a contract, you were surprised to see two line
items in the invoice pertaining to features that were requested by some
members of your team. These items were not really necessary for your
project. What should you do about the invoice?
A. Ask the team members why they requested the unnecessary items
B. Pay only for the essential items
C. Pay as per the original contract and start arbitration proceedings for the
rest
D. Pay for the additional items as well
ANSWER: D
Irrespective of whether they were necessary or not, it is a fact that they
were requested by your team members. Therefore you cannot escape the
liability to pay for them.

75. Should historical information be used during resource planning?

A. No, since there is rarely any correlation between resource expectations
on one project when compared to another
B. Yes, as historical information is available can provide insight into what
type of resources were required on previous projects of similar nature
C. No, since historical information is usually misleading, given the cost of
resources have undoubtedly changed since the completion of the prior
project
D. Yes ,since historical information can be easily adjusted to accurately
determined current project costs
ANSWER: B

76. In cost monitoring, the s-curve depicts the relation between:

A. Schedule completion and time
B. Cumulative value and time
C. Schedule completion and value resources
D. Resources and time
ANSWER: B

77. Analogous estimating is a:

A. ”Bottom-up” estimating technique
B. ”Drop-down” estimating technique
C. More costly and more accurately estimating technique
D. Technique used when you have no subject matter experts available
ANSWER: B

78. An order of magnitude estimate is not also known as

A. A control estimate
 B. A ball park estimate
C. A conceptual estimate
D. A preliminary estimate
ANSWER: A

79. Cost estimates may also be expressed in hours, days, etc, as long as
A. It does not result in a misstatement of project cost
B. The program manager agrees
C. The unit of measure is consistent within the project
D. The project manager agrees
ANSWER: A

80. You have been asked to graphically depict 3 characteristics of your

project risks, namely probability, impact and category. Which of the below
will you use for this?
A. Distributions of uncertainty
B. Monte Carlo simulation
C. Sensitivity analysis
D. Hierarchical chart
ANSWER: D
Hierarchical chart is used to represent more than 3 dimensions. In this
case, X axis for probability, Y for impact and the bubble colour or size
for category.

81. In order to produce a cost baseline, the project manager requires

A. Work packages, work breakdown structure and project schedule
B. Cost estimates, work breakdown structure and the project schedule
C. Cost estimates, work packages and project schedule
D. Cost estimates, work packages and work breakdown structure
ANSWER: B

82. When the expected cash flow s –curve is above the cost performance base
line the project manager should
A. Investigate the variance to determine if corrective reaction is required
B. Bring the situation to the attention of senior management for action
C. Adjust the cost baseline to reflect the actual cost to this point
D. do nothing since the project is performing above plan
ANSWER: A

83. Which of the following is an indirect cost?

A. Units of Production
B. Lights in the Project War Room
C. Tax cost of Salary of project developers
D. Paper purchased by the project
ANSWER: A

84. A single-source seller means what?

A. There is only one qualified seller
B. There is only one seller the company wants to do business with
C. There is a seller that can provide all aspects of the project procurement
needs
D. There is only one seller in the market
ANSWER: B
Executing - Procurement Management. A is incorrect as it describes a
“sole source” seller. C is incorrect. There may be multiple sellers that
can satisfy the project needs. D is incorrect. Just because there is only
one seller in the market does not mean the seller can adequately and
fully fill the project needs.

85. Which of the following is least likely to be a source of conflict in a matrix

environment?
A. Competing priorities between the project and functional manager
B. Competing for resources between the functional and project manager
C. Project team member working at a different site than the project
manager
 D. Ambiguous lines of authority between the functional and project
manager
ANSWER: C

86. Which of the following is not provided by the framework of a Work

Breakdown structure?
A. All tasks to be performed can be identified and resources allocated to
them
B. Once resource levels have been allocated to tasks, estimates of task
duration can be made
C. A network diagram, illustrating task dependencies, can be constructed
D. All cost and resource allocations can be totalled to develop the overall
project Budget
ANSWER: C

87. A Project Manager working in a matrix project environment feels there is

some discontent in the team members related to their dual reporting and the
role of Project Manager on the project. The Project Manager wants to
communicate with the team to clarify their doubts. What is the BEST form of
communication for addressing this problem?
A. Formal Written mail
B. Informal chat with the team
C. Face-to-face-meeting
D. Informal written mail
ANSWER: C
A face-to-face meeting is ideal for project communication. It gives the
Project Manager an avenue to understand the reasons for discontent and
clarify doubts. Face-to- face meetings have an added advantage of being
accompanied with non-verbal (body movements and physical
mannerisms) and paralingual (pitch and tone of voice) communication
methods.
88. As a project manager in a project organization you are constantly dealing
with conditions that breed conflict as you execute your project. Which of the
following is not a condition of conflict in a project organization?
A. High stress
B. Multiple bosses
C. Ambiguous roles
D. Low position power
ANSWER: D

89. You are in the implementation phase of a project. At this point, which of
the following is the lowest source of conflict for you?
A. Conflict over technical opinions
B. Conflict over schedule and cost
C. Conflict over personnel resources
D. Conflict over personality issues
ANSWER: D

90. According to John R. Adams Ph.D., there are five sources of power that
people have: legitimate, coercive, reward, expert and referent. If the team
knows that the project manager who is managing the project is reporting
straight up to the President, what type of power is most prevalent?
A. Legitimate
B. Coercive
C. Referent
D. Reward
ANSWER: C

91. Which of the following statements is true about the Point of Total
Assumption?
A. Above PTA, seller bears the cost
B. Above PTA, buyer bears the cost
C. Below PTA, buyer bears the full cost
D. Below PTA, seller bears the 50% of cost
ANSWER: A
Under the FPIF, you set a ceiling price; once this ceiling price is passed,
the seller bears all the cost. This point is known as Point of Total
Assumption.

92. Two weeks ago the project manager was fired for not managing the
project well. The project is behind schedule, over cost and the morale on the
team is very low. The new project manager is having a team meeting. She
starts out by telling the team about the last three projects she worked on, how
they were similar to this one and how she brought them in ahead of schedule
and on budget. What type of power is she establishing?
A. Legitimate
B. Expert
C. Referent
D. Reward
ANSWER: B

93. The BCWP is 65%, the BCWS is 70%. The project manager wants to
make up for the 5%. The project sponsor has set aside $5000 as a reserve to
remedy this situation. Instead of using it to hire temporary labour, or pay
overtime, the project manager is using it as an incentive for the team to catch
up in 60 days. If they do, the money will be used to take the team members
and their guests to Mike for an all expenses paid weekend. What type of
power is the project manager referencing?
A. Referent
B. Coercive
C. Reward
D. Expert
ANSWER: C

94. Project execution is very much an integrative process whereby all the
work that was planned is actually accomplished. During this integrative
process, what is the area that the project manager will spend the least amount
of time on?
 A. Conflict resolution
B. Documentation and planning
C. Prioritization and removal of road blocks
D. Trade off among schedule, cost and scope
ANSWER: B

95. The CFO wants to know how the project is going. You put together a
presentation that shows the milestones, progress to date against schedule and
budget, and projected progress in the next 30 days. What type of power does
this demonstrate to senior management?
A. Coercive
B. Reward
C. Legitimate
D. Expert
ANSWER: D

96. Six of the activities on your project must be performed sequentially, each
activity is scheduled to take one day and total float for each activity is one
day also. By the end of activity three, you are exactly on schedule, so how
much float is scheduled for the remaining three activities?
A. Three days
B. Zero, because these activities are on the critical path
C. Six days
D. One day
ANSWER: D
Total float is the amount that an activity can slip without delaying the
project. Therefore in this case if one activity slips by 1 day, the
subsequent activities will also slip by 1 day. Any further delay by another
activity in the sequence will delay the project.

97. Coordinating changes across knowledge areas is a function of:

A. Scope change control
B. Project plan execution
 C. Overall change control
D. Baseline management
ANSWER: C

98. Making need information available to project stakeholders in a timely

manner is called:
A. Performance reporting
B. Information distribution
C. Trend analysis
D. Variance analysis
ANSWER: B

99. A vendor has notified you that a shipment will be 3 weeks late. This will
also delay the manufacturing of several other items. Recognizing that you
will need to make some changes to the project, what is your next step?
A. Reference the penalty clause in the vendor contract
B. Coordinate the change across all impacted areas
C. Change the schedule baseline
D. Ensure that the change is reflected in the product definition
ANSWER: B

100. In communication, which of the following is not a responsibility of the

sender?
A. Making sure that the information is clear
B. Making sure that the information is unambiguous
C. Making sure that the information is complete
D. Making sure that the information is received
ANSWER: D
PRACTICE TEST 5
Answers
1. As a software development manager in a boutique software shop that sells
custom solutions, you have designed a system that helps you control change.
This system identifies the version number of releases, identifies any unique
code, and has records of all the different variations and who the customer is.
This system is formally known as:
A. Overall change control
B. Subsidiary change control
C. Software management
D. Configuration management
ANSWER: D

2. You are currently performing planning for a construction project. Your

project sponsor asks you to send him your project's Resource Breakdown
Structure so that he can present it to his senior management during an
upcoming meeting. You have not yet developed the Resource Breakdown
Structure for your project. Which process do you need to start in order to
develop it?
A. Estimate Activity Resources
B. Plan Human Resource Management
C. Develop Project Management Plan
D. Acquire Project Team
ANSWER: A
The Resource Breakdown structure (RBS) is a hierarchical structure of
the identified resources, broken down by resource category and resource
type. The RBS is developed during the Estimate Activity Resources
process and is one of its outputs.

3. In reviewing your earned value reports you notice that your application
integration testing is moving along 20% ahead of schedule. You realize that
you can have them test some of the enhancements, thereby improving the
quality of the product, while staying on schedule and within budget. This is
an example of:
 A. Performance reporting
B. Overall change control
C. Schedule change control
D. Earned value
ANSWER: B

4. An ad hoc group that discusses variances to the baselines, a documented

process to manage variances, and procedures to update documents are all part
of:
A. Scope change control
B. Project plan execution
C. Configuration management
D. Change control system
ANSWER: D

5. Which of the following is an input to the information distribution process?

A. Communication skills
B. Work results
C. Performance reports
D. Change requests
ANSWER: B

6. The customer has decided that he wants blue walls instead of grey. You
have not painted the walls yet. What should you do?
A. Document the change order and buy blue paint
B. Change the scope document to reflect the change
C. Update the schedule to reflect the change
D. See if the contract allows a 15% surcharge for changes
ANSWER: A

7. What is a Workaround?
A. A response to unplanned threat
 B. A response to identified threat
C. A response to low-priority risk
D. None of the above
ANSWER: A
When an unidentified risk occurs, you will take prompt action to handle
it. This activity is called a workaround.

8. All of the following are outputs of the close project process EXCEPT:
A. Formal acceptance documentation
B. Contract closure procedure
C. Administrative closure procedure
D. Deliverables
ANSWER: D

9. Which of the following statements are false regarding the records

management system?
A. A records management system defines the process by which the
contract can be modified
B. A records management system is a tool/ technique of contract
administration and contract closure
C. A records management system is used to manage contract
documentation and records
D. A records management system maintains an index of contract
documents and correspondence
ANSWER: A

10. Which of the following process is involved with the completion and
settlement of the contract?
A. Manage stakeholders
B. Contract closure
C. Contract administration
D. Performance reporting
ANSWER: B

11. Which of the following best describes the project integration

Management Knowledge Area?
A. Activity definition, activity sequencing, schedule control
B. Communications planning, information distribution, performance
reporting, manage stakeholders
C. Develop project management plan, direct and manage project
execution, integrated change control
D. Human resource planning, acquire project team, develop project team
ANSWER: C

12. Contract documentation are an input to the contract closure process.

Which of the following are NOT included as part of the contract
documentation?
A. Contract changes
B. Supporting schedules
C. Invoices and payment records
D. Contract file
ANSWER: D

13. According to the PMI, early termination of a contract is considered a

special case of:
A. Contract cancellation
B. Contract severance
C. Contractual severance
D. Contract default
ANSWER: B

14. Which of the following statements are true regarding project endings?
A. Integration occurs when a project evolves into ongoing operations
 B. Extinction occurs when resources are removed from the project, such
as due to funding/ resource cuts
C. None of the choices are correct
D. Addition occurs when the resources (personnel, equipment, property,
etc) of the project are reassigned to other areas within the organization
or other projects
ANSWER: C

15. The purpose of lessons learned documentation, that is an output of the

contract closure process, is all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Document acceptance of work results
B. Evaluate project goals and compare them to project deliverables
C. Review success and failure
D. Document possible improvements for future projects
ANSWER: A

16. Which of the following are not tools/techniques of the develop project
charter process?
A. Expert judgment
B. PMIS
C. Project management methodologies
D. Stakeholder analysis
ANSWER: D

17. You are a project manager at for an information technology division of a

large financial brokerage in the United States. Due to new regulatory
requirements enacted by Sarbanes-Oxley you have been assigned to audit all
I.T. systems to ensure compliance. You need to ensure that all data in the data
base in encrypted to ensure confidentially. You need to ensure that all users
are properly authenticated. You also need to verify that authorization to
confidential financial information follows the least-privilege principle. The
deadline to ensure compliance with Sarbanes-Oxley regulations is within 180
days. Failing to complete the result in 180 days will result in the significant
fines to your organization. You have been given a budget of $2 million
dollars. Due to the overall budget cuts this year, you have been told that
budget is fixed and cannot be increased by $1000 dollars. Which is the
primary constraint for this project?
A. Schedule
B. Budget
C. Scope
D. Quality
ANSWER: A

18. Which of the following statements are not true?

A. In a strong matrix organization, project managers have little or no
formal authority
B. Project managers have low to moderate level of authority in a
Balanced Matrix organization
C. Project managers have high level of authority in a projectized
organization
D. In a weak matrix organization, conflicts between functional managers
and project managers are common.
ANSWER: A

19. Ricky works for an international manufacturer of consumer electronics.

He has been recently assigned to supervise and manage the manufacturing of
a new model of flat-screen televisions. His supervisor congratulates Ricky on
his expanded responsibilities. He informs Ricky that his new assignment will
have the 1000 units of the new flat screen manufactured by September. What
of the following is true regarding Ricky’s new assignment?
A. His assignment cannot be considered a project since his flat-screen
televisions are not a unique product for the company
B. His assignment cannot be considered a project since his assignment is
to supervise the manufacturing of a new and unique line of products
C. His assignment cannot be considered a project since his project has no
 clear end-date
D. His assignment cannot be considered a project because this product
line has never been manufactured by this company
ANSWER: B

20. Projects are typically authorized as a result of one or more of the

following needs:
A. Technological advance
B. Marketing needs
C. All of the choices are correct
D. Business needs
ANSWER: C

21. Which of the following is NOT considered an organizational process

asset?
A. Financial controls procedure
B. Project closure guidelines
C. Stakeholders risk tolerance
D. Performance measurement criteria’s
ANSWER: C

22. What is a Product Scope?

A. Features and functions that characterize a product
B. The work done to deliver the product
C. Both A & B
D. None of above
ANSWER: A
The Product Scope is the set of features or functions of a product. It is all
about the product; e.g. what it will look like, how it will perform, etc.

23. Your company develops large commercial and industry real estate. In you
current project, you have been asked to manage the construction of a 30-story
office building. Which document describes the business needs for this
project, identifies key deliverables, and gives you authority to begin the
project and start assigning resources?
A. Work break down structure
B. Executive summary
C. Project charter
D. Ishikawa document
ANSWER: C

24. Your company manufactures CPU for high-end workstation computers.

Your current project involves manufacturing a very high speed CPU
(~10GHZ). You worked on a similar project three years ago to manufacture a
lower speed CPU (~2GHZ). You are in the develop project charter process.
Which of the following inputs are LEAST helpful?
A. Historical information on the previous manufacturing 2GHZ chips.
This information could be helpful since this project is similar in nature
B. The project’s preliminary project scope statement which defines the
scope of the project
C. The project’s statement of work (SOW), which includes the product
scope description
D. The project constraints and assumptions to make sure that the any
significant project risks can be identified and mitigated
ANSWER: B

25. You are the project manager at Happy Coffee Café, a rapidly growing
franchise selling premium blended coffee. Currently, your company is
planning on opening additional stores through the United states. Your target
markets primarily include densely populated metropolitan areas. Your
company is evaluating different areas for expansion, including New York,
San Francisco, and Seattle. Based on your market analysis you have obtained
the following information:
New York-IRR (45%), payback period (1.5 years)
San Francisco-IRR (32%), payback period (1.1 years)
Seattle-IRR (36%), payback period (0.75 years)
Based on this data which area is best for Happy Coffee Café?
A. San Francisco since the IRR is the lowest
B. New York since IRR is highest
C. Seattle since payback period is shortest
D. New York since the payback period is the longest
ANSWER: B

26. According to the PMI, which of the following are NOT true with regards
to programs and projects?
A. Projects consists of one or more related programs
B. Programs often include elements of ongoing operations
C. Programs are groups of project managed together
D. Programs may involve a series of repetitive undertakings
ANSWER: A

27. According to PMI, application areas are categories of projects that have
common elements in the majority of project, but are NOT necessarily
required or applicable to all projects.
Application areas are NOT usually defined in terms of:
A. Industry groups
B. Management specializations
C. None of the choices are correct
D. Technical elements
ANSWER: C

28. In Rolling Wave Planning:

A. Near term work is planned in more detail
B. All planning is completed before starting the actual work
C. 50% of planning is completed before starting the actual work
 D. None of the above
ANSWER: A
In rolling wave planning, near term work is planned in more detail,
while the distant work is planned broadly.

29. Which of the following is not a basic element of Earn Value Management
(EVM)?
A. Earned Value
B. Planned Value
C. TCPI
D. Actual Cost
ANSWER: C
Earned Value, Planned Value, and Actual Cost are three basic elements
of Earn Value Management.

30. Which of the following statements are true?

A. The payback period calculations do not consider the time value of
money
B. IRR calculations do not consider the time value of money
C. Discounted cash flow calculation do not consider the time value of
money
D. NPV calculation do not consider the time value of money
ANSWER: A

31. Pareto Chart helps you find:

A. Minor sources creating the majority of problems
B. Majority of causes creating the minority of problems
C. Cause of variation
D. Cause of deviation
ANSWER: A
Pareto Chart helps you identify the minor number of sources causing
most of the troubles.

32. You are managing a project with a budget of 500,000 USD, and 250,000
USD has been spent. Upon review, you observe that only 40% of the work
has been completed; though, your schedule says that you should have
completed 50% of the work. What is the Actual Cost?
A. 500,000 USD
B. 200,000 USD
C. 300,000 USD
D. 250,000 USD
ANSWER: D
Actual Cost is the amount of money that has been spent on the project to
date.

33. The client inspects the deliverables with you, and finds that it meets the
acceptance criteria. He signed off and formally approves the deliverables.
Which process is this?
A. Control Quality
B. Control Scope
C. Validate Scope
D. Close Project
ANSWER: C
Accepted Deliverables is the output of the Validate Scope process.

34. Which is an example of Triple Constraint?

A. Scope, Human Resource, Time
B. Quality, Scope, Human Resource
C. Cost, Human Resource, Time
D. Scope, Cost, Time
ANSWER: D
Scope, Cost and Time are considered Triple Constraints.

35. While inspecting, you find a defective component and you repaired it.
This act is known as:
A. Preventive Action
B. Corrective Action
C. Defect Repair
D. None of Above
ANSWER: C
Defect Repair is a process where you correct a defective component.
Preventive Action is an action that is taken to avoid any anticipated
future defects that may appear in the component. Corrective Action is a
future response to the defect repair process or the correction, so that the
cause of error or non-conformity will not occur again.

36. In which phase will the risks be at the lowest level?

A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Execution
D. Closing
ANSWER: D
Risk will be at its highest point at the Initiating Process group and at the
minimum at the Closing Process group.

37. You are a project manager for a major information systems project.
Someone from the quality department comes to see you about beginning a
quality audit of your project. The team, already under pressure to complete
the project as soon as possible, objects to the audit. You should explain to the
team that the purpose of a quality audit is:
A. Part of an ISO 9000 investigation
B. To check if the customer is following its quality process
C. To identify inefficient and ineffective policies
 D. To check the accuracy of costs submitted by the team
ANSWER: C
B and D are irrelevant options because quality audit is done in order to
check whether you are meeting the quality standards, whether you are
following the quality procedures of your company. Therefore, it’s not
related whether the customer is following its quality processes. Or it is
not related about accuracy of costs submitted by the team.

38. Which Conflict Resolution Technique leads to consensus and

commitment?
A. Withdraw
B. Accommodate
C. Compromise
D. Collaborative
ANSWER: D
Collaborative approach incorporates viewpoints of all parties involved in
the conflict.

39. You are the program level manager with several project activities
underway. In the executing process group, you begin to become concerned
about the accuracy of progress reports from the projects. What would BEST
support your opinion that there is a problem?
A. Quality Audits
B. Risk Quantification Reports
C. Regression Analysis
D. Monte Carlo Analysis
ANSWER: A
In order to check whether the standards of your organization have been
applied in the projects that you are responsible of, you can conduct a
quality audit and find out whether there is really a problem. Therefore,
here the best answer is A, Quality Audits.
40. During every project team meeting, the project manager asks each team
member to describe the work he or she is doing, and the project manager
assigns new activities to team members. The length of these meetings has
increased because there are many different activities to assign. This could be
happening for all the following reasons EXCEPT:
A. Lack of a WBS
B. Lack of a responsibility assignment matrix
C. Lack of resource levelling
D. Lack of team involvement in project planning
ANSWER: C
Here the problem is the activities or the tasks that need to be performed
in the project are not clear. So, the reasons of these ambiguities, or these
unclear points about the tasks that will be performed can be lack of a
WBS. If you could not decompose your project activities and creation of
WBS, then this might be causing the ambiguities in your project tasks.
Also, if you do not have a clear and concise responsibility assignment
matrix, then the resources of your project will have unclarity about who
will do what in the project. Also, if the team was not involved in project
planning, maybe you could not have identified the required steps,
required tasks, activities that need to be performed in the project. So,
options A, B, and D are the possible reasons for this case mentioned in
the question. However, lack of resource leveling might be causing a
scheduling problem. Resource leveling is a technique used in schedule
management knowledge area, which was enabling the uniform
distribution of tasks and activities in a project.

41. A project manager is quantifying risk for her project. She needs expert
opinion in this process and related experts are spread over to different
geographical locations. How can she continue?
A. Using Monte Carlo analysis online
B. Applying the critical path method
C. Determine options for recommended corrective action
D. Applying the Delphi Technique
ANSWER: D
Delphi technique asks the experts opinion on a topic or on a problem and
collect their feedback anonymously and then send back the results back
to the experts again, and recollect their responses again. And this process
is repeated until a consensus is reached by all participants. Therefore,
since expert opinion is important for this case and experts are spread
over different geographical locations, we can use Delphi Technique.

42. The project team is arguing about the prospective sellers who have
submitted proposals. One team member argues for a certain seller while
another team member wants the project to be awarded to a different seller.
The BEST thing the project manager should remind the team to focus on in
order to make a selection is the:
A. Procurement documents
B. Procurement audits
C. Evaluation criteria
D. Procurement management plan
ANSWER: C
The source selection criteria, or evaluation criteria defined in plan
procurement management process actually defines, in an objective way,
how quantitatively, the potential sellers will be evaluated in conduct
procurements process. Therefore, if you have applied specific metrics,
specific categories to evaluate, or assess a potential seller in conduct
procurement process, then you have to use that metrics, use that
categories to evaluate each seller one by one. And the sellers, which got
the highest scores should be awarded with contract. Therefore, the team
members should not go in argument about the selection of the sellers.
Because you have already a quantitative metric to evaluate which seller
is best matching to your source selection criteria.

43. Risk tolerance is determined in order to help:

A. The team ranks the project risks
B. The project manager estimates the project
 C. The team schedules the project
D. Management knows how other managers will act on the project.
ANSWER: A
If you know the tolerance of the stakeholders, you can predict how they
might react to different situations and risk events. This information can
help assign levels of risk on each work package activity.

44. You are finding it difficult to evaluate the exact cost impact of risk. You
should evaluate on a(n) :
A. Quantitative basis
B. Numerical basis
C. Qualitative basis
D. Economic basis
ANSWER: C
If you cannot determine an exact cost impact to the event, use qualitative
estimates such as Low, Medium, and High.

45. A project manager is in the middle of creating a request for proposal

(RFP). What part of the procurement process is she in?
A. Conduct procurements
B. Plan Procurements
C. Control Procurements
D. Close Procurements
ANSWER: B
Because procurement statement of work, procurement documents are
prepared in plan procurements management process. And RFP is a
procurement document as well. Therefore, it is prepared in plan
procurements process. RFP was defining what the buyer is requiring
from the seller.

46. You want to group your project stakeholders based on their authority and
involvement in the project. Which of the following is appropriate model for
this?
A. Power/Interest Grid
B. Power/Influence Grid
C. Influence/Impact Grid
D. Salience Model
ANSWER: B
Authority of a stakeholder represents power of the stakeholder and
involvement of a stakeholder represents the influence level of the
stakeholder. Therefore, answer is B. Power/Influence Grid.

47. Assuming that the ends of a range of estimates are +/- 3 sigma from the
mean, which of the following range estimates involves the LEAST risk?
A. 30 days, plus or minus 5 days
B. 22 – 30 days
C. Optimistic = 26 days, most likely = 30 days, pessimistic = 33 days
D. Mean of 28 days
ANSWER: C
The estimate with the smallest range is less risky.

48. A software development team works with a product owner, who routes
influence by stakeholders on the software product. The product owner keeps
a list of the work to be done in order to build the desired product.
What is this list referred to?
A. Activity attributes
B. Increment
C. Iteration
D. Product backlog
ANSWER: D

49. Which of the following will not be performed when closing a project?
 A. Initiate your next project which is extremely urgent and important for
the organization
B. Reassign project staff
C. Finalizing open contract claims
D. Collect project or phase records
ANSWER: A
Initiating a new project is not part of project closure.

50. A Project Manager works mainly in which Knowledge Area?

A. Schedule Management
B. Quality Management
C. Integration Management
D. Risk Management
ANSWER: C.
The Project Manager manages the Project Integration Management
area.

51. Which of the following statements regarding the work breakdown

structure (WBS) is incorrect?
A. The WBS subdivides project work into smaller and more manageable
components
B. The WBS is a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the
project work
C. The WBS organizes and defines the total scope of the project
D. The WBS contains components representing higher levels of scope
decomposition called work packages
ANSWER: D
The WBS contains increasing levels of scope decomposition called WBS
components. Only the planned work contained within the lowest levels of
the WBS components are called work packages.
52. An important trend in the Project Stakeholder Engagement process is ...?
A. Identifying all stakeholders
B. Stakeholder diversity
C. Complexity of stakeholder relationships
D. Communication technology
ANSWER: A

53. The most long-lasting conflict resolution is caused by which of these

techniques?
A. Smoothing
B. Confrontation
C. Compromising
D. Forcing
ANSWER: B
Problem-solving or Confrontation is the best solution for resolving
conflicts and leads to long-lasting conflict resolution.

54. A Project Manager is using AOA to perform critical path analysis. The
network diagram is represented as shown using below. Which of the
following represents the path:
A. ABIR
B. CDHR
C. CDGIR
D. EFGIR

Activity Duration Dependent on

A 3 None
C 3 None
B 2 A
D 5 C
E 2 None
 F 4 E
G 3 D,F
H 1 D,F
I 2 B,G
R 0 H,I

ANSWER: C
CDGIR represents the critical path. It is the longest path through the
network with the duration of 13.

55. According to Herzberg which of these is not an example of hygiene

factors?
A. Job security
B. Salary
C. Safe working conditions
D. Appreciation of work
ANSWER: D
Appreciation at work is not a hygiene factor, but instead a motivating
factor.

56. If EV = $100, AC = $90, PV = $110 and BAC = $400, how much is the
Cost Variance of a project?
A. $300
B. $40
C. $20
D. $10
ANSWER: D
The formula to calculate Cost Variance (CV) is: CV = EV - AC.
Therefore, CV = 100 - 90 = 10.
57. All of the following are ALWAYS inputs to the risk management process
EXCEPT:
A. Historical information
B. Lessons learned
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Project status reports
ANSWER: D
Project Status report can be an input to risk management. However,
when completing risk management for the first time, you wouldn’t have
the project status report yet. Therefore, the project status report is not
always an input to risk management.

58. Which of the following statements regarding project knowledge

management is correct:
A. Managing knowledge involves just documenting it so it can be shared
B. Managing knowledge involves just obtaining lessons learned at the end
of the project, in order to use it on future projects
C. Codified explicit knowledge lacks context and is open to different
interpretations
D. Tacit knowledge lacks context and is easy to codify
ANSWER: C
Codified explicit knowledge lacks context and is open to different
interpretations, so even though it can easily be shared, it isn’t always
understood or applied in the right way. The rest of the statements are
incorrect.

59. You are a consulting project manager. An investment bank has a contract
with you to run a large information technology project, which you expect to
last 15 months. While developing the project charter, you discover that it did
not address several regulatory requirements in the business case. Failure to
meet these requirements could result in legal action against the company.
However, implementing the technology to comply with these regulations
could exceed the project’s budget and scope, which could lead to the
project’s cancellation. What should you do?
A. Disclose the discovery to the project sponsor and stakeholders
immediately
B. Track this as a risk
C. Wait until the project is 25 percent complete, when you have a better
idea of what resources and funding could be allocated to addressing
these requirements
D. Write up a scope change request for the work
ANSWER: A
Notifying the stakeholders immediately that there has been a significant
oversight in the business case is the appropriate response. Project
managers are required by PMI's Code of Ethics to comply with all laws
and regulations. Failure to immediately and actively disclose that a
regulatory requirement has not been addressed could put the company
and the project manager in the position of breaking the law.

60. Linda is a project manager in charge of an online banking project. The

project has completed phase 1 and is moving into the next phase of the
project. What is the process Linda has to plan for to formalize acceptance of
the completed project deliverables so that the project can move to the next
phase?
A. Manage Quality
B. Validate Scope
C. Close Project or Phase
D. Control Quality
ANSWER: B
Validate Scope is the process periodically performed throughout the
project to confirm that the project is continuing to meet its requirements.
It leads to a formal acceptance of the project deliverables.
61. A project management team intends to develop a lifecycle for its new
software development project on a continuum between the extremes of highly
agile and highly predictive methods. What is a typical signal that the lifecycle
chosen is located between the two extremes?
A. Requirements are elaborated repeatedly
B. Requirements are developed upfront and kept static
C. Requirements are developed during the course of the project
D. Change is constrained as much as possible
ANSWER: A

62. You have been asked to calculate the internal rate of return (IRR) of a
project? What will you assess?
A. The time period needed to pay back the investment from a project
when future income is discounted
B. The inherent discount rate or investment yield rate produced by the
project's deliverables over a pre-defined period of time
C. The rate of negative risk that can be accepted for a project without
turning the expected net present value negative
D. The expected benefit from a project’s deliverable calculated as a
percentage of the original investment over a specified time period
ANSWER: B

63. Danny works as a project manager for a company that provides

outsourcing services to banks. Recently, he sent a proposal to a local bank for
a data warehouse project for which his company lacks expertise. Although
his company lacks expertise, it has a good working relationship with the bank
in all its other projects. Which of the following statements is correct
considering the proposal Danny submitted?
A. Danny has not violated the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional
Conduct
B. Danny has violated the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct
C. Danny has violated the Procurement Code but not the PMI code
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B
One of the mandatory standards for a project manager is to behave
responsibly and bid on only those projects for which his or her employer
has relevant expertise and skills. Since Danny bid on a project for which
his company lacks expertise, he violated the PMI code of ethics and
professional conduct. There is no procurement code in project
management.

64. The critical path method (CPM) calculates the theoretical early start and
finish dates and late start and finish dates. If no scheduling constraints have
been applied to the critical activities, the critical activities will have:
A. Zero total float
B. Zero or positive total float
C. Positive total float
D. Positive or negative total float
ANSWER: A
The critical path method (CPM) calculates the theoretical early start and
finish dates and late start and finish dates. Critical path activities
typically have zero total float. However, the critical paths may have
positive or negative total floats if scheduling constraints are applied.

65. You recently became the Project Manager for a project that is already
halfway through its execution. (The previous Project Manager is on a
different project.) As you begin to learn about the project, you discover no
one ever established a project charter. However, there is a comprehensive
project management plan, developed and approved by all the key
stakeholders. What should you do?
A. Complain about the incomplete project charter
B. Wait and see whether a project charter is necessary
C. Establish a project charter at the point when you enter the project
D. Assume it is too late and continue without a project charter
ANSWER: D
The project charter is a document that formally authorizes the existence
of a project. Since the project is already in execution and a
comprehensive project management plan has been developed, there is no
need to develop the project charter at this stage.

66. A large insurance company has chosen your company to develop a new
line of business. This is a large and prestigious project for the company, and
you have told the senior management you will create a team meeting room
for this project. This is one of the strategies for:
A. Co-location
B. Centralized Team
C. Project Control
D. Develop Team
ANSWER: A
Collocation brings all the team members together in a single physical
location, such as a team meeting room. Collocation is highly
recommended as a good project management practice.

67. During risk management activities, 236 risks have been identified which
are caused by 13 root causes. You could eliminate the 234 risks by your risk
management activities. For remaining 2 risks, you, together with your team,
could not find a way to mitigate or insure the risks. Also these 2 risks cannot
be outsourced or removed from project scope. What is the best solution?
A. Accept the risk
B. Mitigate the risk
C. Avoid the risk
D. Transfer the risk
ANSWER: A
The project manager tried first to eliminate the risk, then tried to
mitigate or insure the risk. But all these options did not work. And the
last step is the risk should be accepted by the project team and
continuous reserves should be allocated in order to accommodate risks
or in order to overcome the bad impacts of these risks when they occur.
Therefore, the best answer here is accepting the risk and also planning
contingency reserves.

68. Your boss advises you must have your final project schedule and budget
ready to present to the executive steering committee at a meeting later this
week. A draft schedule is complete based on estimates your team provided.
However, they have not yet had a chance to review the schedule to ensure
their estimates are appropriate and realistic. Timing constraints make it
impossible to complete this review before the meeting. What is the best
approach?
A. Pad the schedule estimate for completion
B. Present the schedule as is and add the lack of review to the risk register
C. Increase the schedule contingency reserve for the project based on
analogous estimates
D. Submit the schedule as is and change it later when the final review is
complete
ANSWER: C
The appropriate choice is to increase the contingency reserve based on
historical data from prior similar projects. Padding the schedule or using
other methods to hide from stakeholders the fact that the schedule has
not yet been completed is unprofessional and dishonest. Project
managers must provide honest and accurate information at all times; to
do otherwise runs counter to the PMI code of ethics.

69. You are in charge of a troubled project. The project includes producing
widgets for your customer. You collected production data to help identify the
causes of defects in the overall process. Which technique should you use to
analyze this data to determine the main source of defects?
A. Statistical sampling
B. Defect repair review
C. Fishbone diagram
D. Kaizen
ANSWER: C
Cause-and-effect diagrams, also known as fishbone diagrams, why-why
diagrams, or Ishikawa diagrams, break down the causes of the problem
statement into discrete branches, helping to identify the main or root
cause of the problem.

70. Which of the following is an agile technique that regularly checks the
effectiveness of the quality process, looks for the root cause of issues, and
suggests trials of new approaches to improve quality?
A. Retrospectives
B. Sprints
C. Backlog
D. User stories
ANSWER: A
Recurring retrospectives regularly check on the effectiveness of the
quality process. They look for the root cause of issues then suggest trials
of new approaches to improve quality.

71. A project manager is approached by a team of software programmers who

work for her project. The team requests a certain person to be released from
other work to enhance the team with specific technical skills and enhance its
productivity. The team also offers to introduce the person to the progress of
development achieved so far and to the tasks that the person should take over
in order to get the project work done.
Which management principle is applied by the project manager and the team?
A. Self-organizing teams
B. Norming teams
C. Micro-managed teams
D. Competing teams
ANSWER: A

72. A company’s management is discussing a project request created by one

of its managers. But the managers are uncertain whether the project is worth
the investment. A project manager has been assigned to develop a document
to describe the potential benefits in monetary and other aspects. After
acceptance of the project request, this document will to be used to track the
realization of those benefits.
Which title will the project manager probably give to the document?
A. Project business case
B. Benefits management plan
C. Project chárter
D. Project statement of work
ANSWER: A

73. A project manager is performing a project with contract partners in

different countries. What should the person be aware of?
A. It is the seller’s responsibility to ensure that the procurement meets the
specific needs of the project
B. All differences in local laws can be overcome with clear contract
language
C. Local culture and laws may have influence upon the enforceability of a
contract
D. The use of contracts with appendices and annexes should generally be
avoided for projects
ANSWER: C

74. A project kick off meeting is usually conducted to:

A. Setup project team and announce the PM assignment
B. To draft project charter
C. Build up team spirit
D. Define project scope and develop WBS
ANSWER: A
A kick-off meeting gets the project team onboard and announces the
manager.
75. Matrix organizations exhibit features of both projectized and functional
organizations. In a weak matrix organization, the role of a project manager
may be that of a:
A. Coordinator
B. Manager with considerable authority
C. Support person
D. Functional manager
ANSWER: A
Weak matrix organizations maintain many of the characteristics of a
functional organization, and the role of the project manager is more of a
coordinator or expediter.

76. You are a Project Manager of a highly visible and critical project in your
company. This project was initiated with much fanfare, and you have some of
the best technical experts as a part of the project team. You are in the process
planning and detailing the scope of the project when you hear the project is
being terminated. What could be the MOST likely cause?
A. The senior management didn't approve the project charter
B. The project team didn't have required technical expertise
C. The project sponsor failed to support the project
D. The project contract was not signed off by the customer
ANSWER: C
The answer to this question can be reached by the process of elimination.
Since the project is already initiated and is in the planning stage options
A, and D can't be true. There is no evidence to believe option B, and the
most probable explanation could be the failure to support the project by
the sponsor.

77. You are the Project Manager on a major construction project. You have to
install several miles of piping, and so you have decided to use parametric
modelling to estimate the activity. Which one of the following is an example
of parametric modelling?
 A. A list of the activities required
B. Historical data from a similar project
C. 126 minutes per metre
D. Work Breakdown Structure Dictionary
ANSWER: C
“Parametric estimating is an estimating technique in which an algorithm
is used to calculate cost or duration or resources based on historical data
and project parameters. Parametric estimating uses a statistical
relationship between historical data and other variables (e.g., square
footage in construction) to calculate an estimate for activity parameters,
such as cost, budget, and duration.”

78. A project needed to monitor the technical performance of the project and
capture data related to how many errors or defects had been identified, and
how many remained uncorrected. Which of the following techniques should
the project use?
A. Scatter diagram
B. Flowchart
C. Histogram
D. Control chart
ANSWER: C

79. Which process identifies the project manager?

A. Develop Project Management Plan
B. Develop Project Charter
C. Define Scope
D. Select Project Process
ANSWER: B
Project Manager is identified as part of the Develop Project Charter
process.

80. You are the Project Manager assigned to build a next generation vehicle.
You identify a dependency that the wheels must be designed and developed
before the assembly of the vehicle can be performed. This is an example of
which type of dependency?
A. External
B. Discretionary
C. Soft Logic
D. Mandatory
ANSWER: D
Mandatory dependency represents dependencies due to nature of work.

81. You are the Project Manager assigned to build a next generation vehicle.
You identify a dependency that before the vehicle can be sold, it must be
approved by the Government regulatory authority. This is an example of
which type of dependency?
A. External
B. Discretionary
C. Soft Logic
D. Mandatory
ANSWER: A
This is an example of dependency to an external (outside) body.

82. You are required to estimate the time to paint a large wall. You know it
takes two hours to paint one square foot of wall. The wall has an area of 30
square foot. So you estimate that it will take 60 hours to paint the wall.
Which estimation model are you using?
A. Bottom-up
B. Parametric modelling
C. Analogous
D. Expert judgment
ANSWER: B
83. You are managing a water supply network deployment project. During
project planning you are considering two approaches to lay the pipe network.
Approach A will most likely cost $50,000 (+/-5%). Approach B will most
likely cost $25,000 (+/-40%). Which approach will you select if your project
stakeholders' risk tolerances are low and if you want to select the less risky
approach?
A. Neither approach since they are not definitive estimates
B. Approach B since it ranges from $15,000 to $35,000
C. Approach A since it ranges from $47,500 to $52,500
D. A combination of approach A and B
ANSWER: A
The question asks you to identify the approach that has the lower risk.
The larger the range of an estimate, the larger the risk. Since approach B
is a wide range estimate, it is more risky. Approach A has a narrow
estimate, which makes this approach less risky.

84. You are managing a software development project. You want to create
the basis that will be used later on for estimating, scheduling, executing,
monitoring, and controlling the project work. Which process performs this
activity?
A. Create WBS
B. Define Scope
C. Define Activities
D. Create Project Management Plan
ANSWER: C
Activities form a basis for estimating, scheduling, executing, and
monitoring and controlling the project work. This is performed in the
Define Activities process.

85. Which of the following is not an external-unpredictable risk?

A. Changes in government regulations
B. Natural hazards
 C. Unexpected environmental side effects
D. Inflation
ANSWER: D
Inflation rate is known and predictable.

86. Maslow ranked Human needs from the highest to lowest:

A. Self actualization; self promotion; social; security and physiological
needs
B. Self esteem; self actualization; social; security and physiological
C. Self actualization; self esteem; social; security and physiological
D. Self fulfillment; self esteem; social; security and physiological
ANSWER: C

87. You have recently joined as a project manager in a company where they
follow a projectized organizational structure. All your team members work in
the same office where you have a lot of independence and authority. Which
of the following is NOT an advantage of a projectized organizational
structure?
A. Loyalty to the project
B. Home for the team members after the project is completed
C. Effective communication
D. Efficiency in project organization
ANSWER: B
In a projectized organization, most of the organizational resources are
involved in the project work. The project team members do not belong to
a specific functional group and hence do not have any "home" once the
project is over.

88. A Project Manager is in the process of documenting and defining a

stakeholder's needs to meet project objectives. What is the output of this
process?
 A. Stakeholder Register
B. Stakeholder Management Strategy
C. Requirements Documentation
D. Issue Log
ANSWER: C
The Project Manager is in the process of "collect requirements" which
has the output requirements documentation. This document describes
how individual requirements meet the business need for the project. It is
important that the requirements documented are unambiguous
(measurable and testable), traceable, and acceptable to key stakeholders.

89. Which of the following in not an indicator that the project has reached its
end?
A. Project funding is exhausted or no longer available
B. The project’s objectives have been achieved
C. All of the project's products have been created
D. The human or physical resources are no longer available
ANSWER: C
All of the project's products have been created. It is possible that all the
products have been created, but have not yet been accepted.

90. Factors that influence conflict resolution methods include EXCEPT:

A. Position taken by persons involved
B. Relative importance and intensity of the conflict
C. Political influence of the persons involved
D. Time pressure for resolving the conflict.
ANSWER: C

91. A project is performed by a company for another organization. The latter

organization pays the first for the work performed and deliverables provided.
What kind of agreement is used between the two companies?
 A. Project contract
B. Internal agreement
C. Memorandum of understanding
D. Gentlemen agreement
ANSWER: A

92. The level of accuracy for order of magnitude estimation is

A. -25% to +75%
B. -25% to +50%
C. -25% to +25%
D. -25% to +10%
ANSWER: A
The order of magnitude is preferred during initiation phase, and it has
an accuracy range of -25% to 75%

93. Which of the following is not a Tuckman’s team development stage?

A. Confronting
B. Forming
C. Norming
D. Adjourning
ANSWER: A

94. What is the right sequence of leadership transition as per situational

leadership theory?
A. Direct, Support (facilitate), Coach, Delegate
B. Direct, Coach, Support (facilitate), Delegate
C. Coach, Support (facilitate), Delegate, Direct
D. Direct, Delegate, Coach, Support (facilitate)
ANSWER: B
This is as per Ken Blanchard and Paul Hersey's Situational Leadership
Theory II.
95. A project manager is determining dependencies that will require a lead or
a lag to accurately define the logical relationship. Which of the following
correctly describes leads or lags?
A. A lead allows a successor activity to be delayed
B. B. A lag directs a delay in the predecessor activity
C. A lag allows an acceleration of the successor activity
D. A lead allows an acceleration of the successor activity.
ANSWER: D

96. “Do nothing”, “Do the minimum “ and “Do more than the minimum”,
could be options presented in the________________?
A. Quality Management Plan
B. Staff Motivation Plan
C. Activity List
D. Business Case
ANSWER: D
A business case could present the following three options:
- Do nothing. This is also referred to as the “business as usual” option.
Selection of this option results in the project not being authorized.
- Do the minimum work possible to address the problem or opportunity.
The minimum may be established by identifying the set of documented
criteria that are key in addressing the problem or opportunity.
- Do more than the minimum work possible to address the problem or
opportunity. This option meets the minimum set of criteria and some or
all of the other documented criteria.
There may be more than one of these options documented in the business
case.

97. Project management is the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and

techniques to manage activities to meet the project requirements. Which of
the following is NOT true about managing a project?
A. It involves identifying requirements
B. It involves addressing the various needs, concerns, and expectations of
the stakeholders as the project is planned and carried out
C. It involves balancing the competing project constraints such as scope,
quality, schedule, budget, resources, and risk
D. The specific project will not influence the constraints on which the
Project Manager needs to focus
ANSWER: D

98. You are the project manager responsible for building a new web site. The
project is running late. To bring the project on schedule, you decide to add
additional resources to the critical path. This is an example of
A. Fast-tracking
B. Resource planning
C. Crashing
D. Schedule Management
ANSWER: C
Crashing involves adding extra resources to reduce the project duration.

99. Forecasting by analogy is a project forecasting method. Which of the

following forecasting categories does this method belong to?
A. Judgmental methods
B. Causal/econometric methods
C. Time series methods
D. Artificial intelligence methods
ANSWER: A
Judgmental forecasting methods incorporate intuitive judgement,
opinions and subjective probability estimates, and is used in cases where
there is lack of historical data or during completely new and unique
market conditions. Examples of methods in this category are composite
forecasts, surveys, Delphi method, scenario building, technology
forecasting and forecast by analogy.

100. You are meeting with a customer for initial discussions about a software
implementation project. At the end of the day, the customer asks you for a
general estimate of the project duration. Based on your experience with three
similar past projects you estimate an 8-10 month implementation time frame.
What is this type of estimation technique called?
A. Three-Point Estimating
B. Bottom-Up Estimating
C. SWAG
D. Analogous Estimating
ANSWER: D
Analogous estimating uses parameters such as budget, duration, size,
weight, and complexity, from a previous, similar project, as the basis for
estimating the parameter or measure for a future project.