Professional Documents
Culture Documents
CLASS-X
ASSESSMENT TEST-1- 2020-21
ENGLISH
Max. Marks: 25 Time allowed: 1hr
I. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
2. Reality television covers a wide range of television programming formats, from game or quiz shows
which resemble the frantic, often demeaning programmes, produced in Japan in the 1980s and 1990s (a
modern example is Gaki no Tsukai), to surveillance-or voyeurism-focused productions such as Big
Brother.
3. Critics say that the term ‘reality television’ is somewhat of a misnomer and that such shows frequently
portray a modified and highly influenced form of reality, with participants put in exotic locations or
abnormal situations, sometimes coached to act in certain ways by off-screen handlers, and with events on
screen manipulated through editing and other post-production techniques.
4. Part of reality television’s appeal is due to its ability to place ordinary people in extraordinary
situations. Reality television also has the potential to turn its participants into national celebrities,
outwardly in talent and performance programmes such as Pop Idol, though frequently Survivor and Big
Brother participants also reach some degree of fame.
5. Some commentators have said that the name ‘reality television’ is an inaccurate description for several
styles of programme included in the genre. In competition-based programmes such as Big Brother and
Survivor, and other special-living-environment shows like The Real World, the producers design the
format of the show and control the day-to-day activities and the environment, creating a completely
fabricated world in which the competition plays out. Producers specifically select the participants, and use
carefully designed scenarios, challenges, events, and settings to encourage particular behaviour and
conflicts.
On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer the following questions:
i. The word in Para 1 that means the same as ‘a category of literary or artistic work’ is
a. document.
b. unscripted.
c. genre.
d. artificial.
ii. In Para 3, a word that means the same as ‘unsuitable name for a thing’ is
a. misnomer.
b. modified.
c. abnormal.
d. manipulated.
iii. The phrase ‘capability or power to do something’ means the same as in Para 4.
a. extraordinary
b. potential
c. remarkable
d. ability
iv. The phrase ‘created by imagination’ means the same as in Para 5.
a. fabricated
b. reality
c. fantasy
d. designed
v. Reality television is far away from reality because
a. it is an artificial form of realism that is modified or influenced.
b. outcomes are often predetermined
c. participants can be coached to play a certain part.
d. All of the above
vi. Reality television is not considered healthy entertainment because
a. it can indulge in voyeurism and invade into people’s private space.
b. it has no element of art in it.
c. fabricated scenarios can put participants under stress to perform.
d. Options a. and c.
vii. Why do you think reality television has great appeal?
a. It gives us a glimpse of the lives of common people.
b. It is the most constructive way to pass our time.
c. It can place ordinary people in extraordinary situations.
d. It shows situations of conflict.
viii. In what ways can a reality show be influenced?
a. Participants can be asked to behave in a certain way.
b. The recording of the show can be edited later on.
c. Situations can be artificially created.
d. All of the above
ix. Why is a reality show considered an ‘artificial’ documentary?
a. It documents unscripted events.
b. There is no role of professional actors.
c. Although it is not totally realistic, it is not entirely scripted either.
d. It features only dramatic or humorous situations.
x. According to the author, what is wrong with competition-based programmes?
a. They are a misrepresentation of the actual abilities of participants.
b. They are fabricated to create sensationalism.
c. They predesign the format, scenarios and challenges to achieve desired outcomes.
d. All of the above
SECTION-B WRITING & COMPOSITION
II. Make an entry in your diary in 100-120 words on your hesitation to speak in English and you
wish to improve your English-speaking skills. (5 MARKS)
III.Read the following dialogue and convert the given blanks into reported speech:
Choose the correct options to fill in the blanks to complete the narration of the conversation below.
(3 × 1=3 MARKS)
Teacher: Govind! GOVIND!
Govind (opening his eyes): Y-yes, M-ma’am … Teacher: You are sleeping in my class!
Govind: No, Ma’am … er … yes, Ma’am … but really it is not my fault!
Teacher: Really? How so? Govind: Your voice is so sweet … like a lullaby … it lulled me to sleep.
Teacher: Oh! Then why are the others not sleeping? Govind: I am sure they aren’t listening to you,
Ma’am.
The teacher saw Govind sleeping in her class. When she confronted him, he admitted that he – i – but
protested that it was really not his fault. On being asked why, he said that her voice was so sweet that it –
ii –. The teacher asked if that were so, then – iii –. To this, Govind replied cheekily that the others were
not listening to her!
i. a. is sleeping
b. was sleeping
c. had been sleeping
d. had
ii. a. had lulled him to sleep
b. lulls him to sleep
c. lulled him asleep
d. lulled him to sleep
iii. a. why had the others not sleeping
b. why were others not sleeping
c. why were the others not sleeping
d. why was the others not sleeping
IV. Fill in the blanks with passive form of verbs given in the bracket by choosing the most
appropriate options given below. Write only the answers against the correct blank numbers.
(4*1=4 MARKS)
Numerous theories (a) ............................... (propound) regarding the formation of the earth. It is said
that the earth (b) .............................. (form) with the rest of the Solar System which
(c) .......................... (consolidate) our interstellar dust. Earth’s crust (d) .............................. (form)
with different layers.
(a) (i) are propounded (ii) have propounded
(iii) was propounded (iv) has propounded
(b) (i) is formed (ii) was formed
(iii) was being formed (iv) are formed
(c) (i) was consolidated (ii) had consolidated
(iii) were consolidated (iv) should be consolidated
(d) (i) is formed (ii) was formed
(iii) were formed (iv) will be formed
V. Choose the appropriate option to fill the gap: ANY 4 (4 x1=4 MARKS)
1. The teacher ____________ completed this chapter.
A. have
B. has
C. is
D. are
2. Ram and Shyam __________ business partners.
A. have
B. has
C. are
D. had
3. She ___________ her office by 9 a.m. daily.
A. reach
B. reaches
C. reached
D. reaching
4. This dress suits her style. She __________ definitely like it!
A. can
B. could
C. will
D. may
5. When Juan was two, he __________ already speak very well.
A. might
B. could
C. can
D. should
6. She __________ visit her grandparents’ house during holidays.
A. dare to
B. ought to
C. can
D. might
7. __________ I talk to the manager?
A. Might
B. May
C. Could
D. Shall
Ulhas Mandlik, 35, a power-loom owner from Ichalkaranji, Maharashtra, and his mother were homeward-
bound one evening when heavy rain forced them to take shelter beneath a bridge. Not far away, a small
group of labourers huddled together under a part of the cement housing above a 16 metre deep well used
to pump water for irrigation.
Suddenly, Mandlik and his mother heard the labourers scream. When the two got to the well, they were
told that a five year old boy named Hariya had fallen in through a side opening in the structure. Ignoring
his mother’s fears, Mandlik quickly knotted together lengths of flimsy rope belonging to the labourers
and asked them to lower him into the dark well. “I hope the rope holds,” he thought. As he descended,
Mandlik noticed the metal rungs on the wall of the well. He grabbed hold of one and started climbing
down, when he saw the boy clinging to a pipe running up the well’s centre. Grabbing the child, Mandlik
started to climb praying that the old rungs wouldn’t give away and plunge them both into the churning
water below. Their luck held and within a few minutes, Mandlik clambered to ground level and handed
over Hariya to his sobbing father.
The man fell at Mandlik’s feet and offered him some money as a reward. Refusing the cash, Mandlik took
Hariya and his family to a nearby eatery and offered them steaming tea to warm them up. Several
organisations have honoured Mandlik for his bravery and presence of mind on that wet day three years
ago. “I am happy I was at the right place at the right time,” he says,” and was able to return a little boy to
his family.”
Read the questions given below and write the option you consider the most appropriate in your answer
sheet.
Q1: What first drew Ulhas and his mother to the well?
(i) shelter from the heavy rain. (ii) the return journey home.
(iii) news of a small boy’s fall. (iv) the labourer’s screams.
Q4: Which of these expressions best describes Ulhas in view of this incident?
(i) disregard for an elder’s (ii) disbelief in one’s own abilities. warnings.
(iii) faith only in prayers for (iv) concern for others with no success. expectations.
Q5: Which of these did Hariya’s father express on receiving his son?
(i) gratitude. (ii) relief.
(iii) anxiety. (iv) peace.
New Delhi: Atithi Devo Bhavah. To make visitors to the city feel welcome during the Commonwealth
Games, India Tourism Development Corporation (ITDC) is set to train taxi and auto drivers, CISF
personnel posted at monuments, dhaba owners, hotel staff etc. Participants will be taught English as well
as courtesy and ways to communicate with tourists. At present, there is a shortage of trained guides in the
city and with Commonwealth Games drawing close, the issue has to be addressed promptly.
With hundreds of historical sites to visit and each monument boasting its own unique history, foreign
nationals are often left to fend for themselves and depend on tourist books and brochures for information.
Language is another problem. Quite a contrast to facilities offered in tourist sites in western countries,
where trained guides-proficient in several languages-are easily available to aid visitors apart from group-
guided trips at regular intervals. Although the Archeological Survey of India (ASI) plans to introduce
audio guide services in five languages at some world heritage sites our experts point that not a single
monument or tourist place in the city has an interpretation centre where tourists can come and get all
information pertaining to a particular site. ASI is also in the process of bringing out more brochures and
guides for foreign visitors in the city. Experts say such facilities are crucial if the government wants to
promote Delhi as a ‘heritage city’. Various agencies like INTACH are also involved in the plans.
Under ITDC’s plans, etiquette training for the Games will also be provided to residents who offer rooms
to foreigners under Delhi government’s bed and breakfast scheme. “House-owners will be given
hospitality related training and a brief of Indian tourism scenario. Most visitors generally question their
hosts on information about the city so they will be provided information on the golden triangle- Delhi,
Agra and Jaipur as well as where tourists should go visiting in Delhi,” said an official.
Read the questions given below and write the option you consider the most appropriate in your answer
sheet.
Q1: What are the initiatives to be taken up by the India Tourism Development Corporation to make the
visitors feel welcome during the Commonwealth Games?
(i) training of drivers, CISF personals, dhaba owners and hotel staff.
(ii) promoting the sale of tourist books and brochures.
(iii) arranging audio cassettes and tapes on tourism.
(iv) constructing more bed and breakfast homes.
Q2: How have the western countries managed to offer aid and better facilities to their tourists?
(i) by providing good tourist books and brochures.
(ii) by providing well-behaved and courteous guides.
(iii) by training guides in several languages and group-guided trips at regular intervals.
(iv) by allowing foreign nationals to fend for themselves.
Q3: Apart from the guides and the guided tours, Archeological Survey of India has expressed the need for
establishing ______________ at historical sites to help tourists.
(i) interpretation centres. (ii) rehabilitation centres.
(iii) cessation centres. (iv) training centres.
Q4: What steps have been taken by ASI to promote Delhi as a heritage site?
(i) making brochures very informative and training the residents.
(ii) bringing out more brochures and involving other agencies in planning and visitor management.
(iii) offering tourists all sources of comfort for their stay and visits to historical sites.
(iv) providing owners of bed and breakfast homes information about Delhi, Agra and Jaipur.
Q5: _________________ are to be provided to residents who offer rooms to foreigners under ITDC’s
plan.
(i) comfortable stay, friendly and hospitable treatment
(ii) etiquette training, hospitality treatment
(iii) better tourist guides and interpretation centres
(iv) visits to the golden triangle cities.
Q1. I __________ working all afternoon and have just finished the assignment.
A have been
B had been
C shall be
D am
Q2. Rohan __________ the movie before he read the review.
A watches
B have watched
C had watched
D was watching
Q3. He __________ in the States but he still does not have a command over the English language.
A have been living
B has been living
C have lived
D living
Q4. By the next month, we shall __________ the project.
A has completed
B completing
C completed
D have completed
Q5. Every boy and girl __________ in the class today.
A are present
B is present
C have present
D had present
Q6. He __________ daily for a year now.
A exercises
B was exercising
C has been exercising
D have been exercising
Q7. I __________ this book since morning.
A had been reading
B has been reading
C have had read
D shall be reading
Q8. Which tense is used to express general truths and facts?
A Present continuous tense
B Present perfect tense
C Past perfect tense
D Present indefinite tense
Q9. According to the prevailing rate, two dozen __________ rupees one hundred.
A costs
B cost
C costing
D costed
Q10. The Council __________ made its decision.
A have
B have had
C has
D having
Q11. What do tenses as the form of a verb help to determine?
A The time of the action
B The state of the action
C Both (A) and (B)
D The number of action
Q12. Which tense is used to show the completion of an action by a certain time in the future?
A Future perfect tense
B Present indefinite tense
C Future perfect continuous tense
D Both (A) and (C)
Q13. Identify the tense used in the following sentence. “When I reached the bookstore, all the copies
had already been sold.”
A Past perfect tense
B Past indefinite tense
C Present perfect tense
D Present indefinite tense
Q14. The wise leader and politician __________ assassinated.
A are
B has been
C have been
D have had been
Q15. Neither of the paintings __________ sold.
A have been
B were
C are
D was
Correct Ans. B
Q16. Sita or her brothers __________ to be blamed.
A is
B has
C are
D was
Q17. The Chief guest, with his wife, __________.
A has left
B are leaving
C have left
D left
Q18. The quality of products __________ over time.
A are degrading
B have been degrading
C have degrading
D were degraded
Correct Ans. B
Q19. The news __________ not updated timely.
A were
B have
C is
D are
Q20. They __________ into their cars and drove away.
A has got
B have got
C gets
D got
Q21. Choose the sentence with the future perfect tense.
A They shall have arrived by then.
B They shall be arriving by then.
C They shall arrive by then.
D They shall have been arriving by then.
Q22. Identify the tense used in the following sentence. “We are going to reach the destination as
scheduled.”
A Present continuous tense
B Future perfect continuous tense
C Future continuous tense
D Present perfect continuous tense
Q23. Which tense is used to express an action going at some point in the past?
A Past indefinite tense
B Past perfect continuous tense
C Past continuous tense
D Past perfect continuous tense
Q24. Each of the four army soldiers __________ for the mission.
A were ready
B are ready
C was ready
D have been ready
Q25. The thief and the eye-witness __________.
A has escaped
B has been escaping
C was escaping
D have escaped
Q26. Back in my native place, I __________ a smartphone.
A did not have
B do not have
C did not had
D do not had
Q27. Choose the correct sentence.
A When I woke up, he has already eaten breakfast.
B When I woke up, he had already eaten breakfast.
C When I had woken up, he had already ate breakfast.
D When I had woken up, he has already ate breakfast.
Q28. I __________ the medicine as prescribed by the doctor for a week now.
A takes
B have been taking
C would have taken
D have had been taking
Q29. You and I __________ the obligations.
A am fulfilled
B has been fulfilling
C have fulfilled
D has fulfilled
Q30. Identify the tense used in the sentence. “Her brother will walk her down the aisle.”
A Future indefinite tense
B Future perfect tense
C Present indefinite tense
D Present perfect tense
Q31. Choose the past perfect continuous tense form of the sentence. “The children played in the
park throughout the evening.”
A The children played in the park throughout the evening.
B The children have been playing in the park throughout the evening.
C The children had played in the park throughout the evening.
D The children had been playing in the park throughout the evening.
Q32. Identify the tense used in the sentence. “Here comes the soon-to-be bride!”
A Present continuous tense
B Present indefinite tense
C Future indefinite tense
D Present perfect tense
Q33. Identify the tense used in the underlined phrase. "The weatherman forecasted that it’s going
to rain."
A Present indefinite tense
B Future indefinite tense
C Future perfect continuous tense
D Future continuous tense
Q34. Two-thirds of the food supply __________ for the month.
A has been used
B were used
C have been using
D has been using
Q35. The technique of paraphrasing __________.
A are practised
B has to be practised
C have to be practised
D is practising
Q36. “Shyam and his brothers” __________ a famous sweet shop in our neighbourhood.
A are
B have been
C is
D have
Q37. Which tense is used to express that an action started in the past and is continuing till now?
A Present perfect tense
B Past perfect continuous tense
C Past continuous tense
D Present perfect continuous tense
Q38. Identify the tense used in the sentence. “While he was in the military, he still regularly wrote
to me.”
A Past indefinite tense
B Past perfect tense
C Present indefinite
D Past perfect continuous tense
Q39. Identify the tense used in the underlined phrase. “He is always found reading the newspaper.”
A Present indefinite tense
B Present perfect continuous tense
C Present continuous tense
D Present perfect tense
Q40. Fill in the blank with the present perfect tense form of the verb given in the bracket. “James
___________ to visit her grandmother.” (go)
A have been going
B had gone
C has gone
D has been going
Q41. Fill in the blank with the future perfect continuous tense form of the verb given in the bracket.
“We __________ for an hour now.” (wait)
Q42. Choose the present indefinite tense form of the sentence. “He had been sleeping.”
Q43. Identify the tense used in the underlined phrase. “He joined the cooking school late but only in
a few months had mastered the recipes.”
Q44. By the time she was fifteen, she __________ a beautiful singer.
i. shall become
ii. become
iii. had become
iv. has becoming
Q45. Fill in the blank with the present perfect continuous tense form of the verb given in the
bracket. “Adam __________ a health regime everyday.” (follow)
i. follows
ii. have been following
iii. has been following
iv. has followed
Q46. Neither she nor I __________ at home.
i. were
ii. was
iii. has been
iv. be
Q47. My friends and I __________ stuck there.
i. had been
ii. was
iii. has been
iv. have had been
Q48. Choose the correct sentence.
i. Sam have gone to buy some groceries.
ii. Sam had going to buy some groceries.
iii. Sam be going to buy some groceries.
iv. Sam is going to buy some groceries.
Q49. Which tense is used to express an action taking place in the future?
Q50. Chris __________ to attend the programme.
Q51. Meera __________ for the charitable cause.
i. came to contribute
ii. come to contributed
iii. came to contributed
iv. comes to contributed
Q52. Fill in the blank with the past continuous tense form of the verb given in the bracket. “Monica
__________ since last week.” (plan)
i. did plan
ii. has been planning
iii. had been planning
iv. was planning
Q53. The crowd that __________ due to the quarrel has dispersed now.
i. have gathered
ii. has been gathered
iii. had gathered
iv. has been gathering
Q54. Identify the tense used in the sentence. “Nick has purchased a new laptop.”
Q55. The stars __________ bright at night.
i. shines
ii. shine
iii. has shine
iv. shining
Q56. Identify the tense used in the sentence. “When shall our application be approved?”
Q57. Which tense is used to express an action completed in the immediate past?
Q58. Choose the past perfect continuous tense form of the sentence. “George travels around the
world.”
Q59. You should not __________ back with your teacher.
i. talk
ii. talks
iii. had talked
iv. talked
Q60. Pentagon __________ five sides.
i. have had
ii. had
iii. has
iv. have
Q61. Identify the tense used in the given sentence. “My father’s shop has been sold out.”
Q62. Identify the tense used in the given sentence. “I am visiting her now.”
Q63. Fill in the blank with the future perfect tense form of the verb given in the bracket. “Peter
__________ had it been possible.” (adjust)
i. would adjust
ii. would have adjusted
iii. has adjusted
iv. had adjusted
Q64. Choose the future perfect tense form of the given sentence. “He has a lot of experience.”
Q65. I probably __________ left.
i. should have
ii. will
iii. has
iv. having
Q66. Fill in the blank with the present perfect tense form of the verb given in the bracket. “I
__________ here for a month now.” (be)
i. had been
ii. would have been
iii. have been
iv. have had been
Q67. Identify the tense used in the underlined phrase. “By the time I was informed,
the registrations had been closed.”
Q68. Choose the correct sentence.
Q69. Has the itinerary __________ yet?
i. been deciding
ii. been decided
iii. decided
iv. be decided
Q70. It is a tradition that __________ ever since.
Q72. Identify the tense used in the given sentence. “Welcome to the ceremony.”
Q73. Fill in the blank with the past perfect continuous tense form of the verb given in the bracket.
“The area __________ from an earthquake.” (recover)
i. is recovering
ii. has been recovering
iii. had been recovering
iv. has recovered
Q74. Choose the present perfect tense form of the given sentence. “The manager shall be on leave.”
Q75. Mathematics __________ difficult by many students.
i. is found
ii. has found
iii. has been founding
iv. are found
Q76. I __________ you my last year’s books.
Q77. Identify the tense used in the underlined phrase. “As soon as I was ready to leave, it started to
pour.”
Q78. Identify the tense used in the given sentence. “Someone picked my pocket.”
i. Present indefinite tense
ii. Past indefinite tense
iii. Past perfect tense
iv. Present perfect tense
Q79. Choose the future perfect tense form of the given sentence. “Charlie is the headboy of our
school.”
Q80. Which tense is used to express a person's habitual or regular activities?
Q81. Joey __________ from the vacation just now.
i. has returned
ii. had returned
iii. had been returning
iv. returns
Q82. You should not __________ the worst.
i. assumed
ii. assuming
iii. assume
iv. assumes
Q83. Choose the future indefinite tense form of the given sentence. “The parcel has been delivered.”
Q84. Fill in the blank with the present perfect continuous tense form of the verb given in the
bracket. “Workers __________ day and night.” (work)
Q85. Fill in the blank with the past perfect tense form of the verb given in the bracket. “Vikram
__________ his job.” (do)
i. did
ii. was doing
iii. had done
iv. had been doing
Q86. Choose the correct sentence.
Q87. Identify the tense used in the given sentence. “Sasha scolds and asks her to go away.”
Last summer vacation you went to your friend’s village. His grandmother looked after you as if you were
her grandchild. Describe her in 100-150 words.
The traits of a musician are given in the box overleaf. Use these and write a short biography in about 100
-150 words. You may collect more information from the Internet, books in the library and other sources.