Life Science Quest: Biology Quiz - The Eliminations

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Tertiary Category
Undergraduate

DIRECTIONS: Read and analyze the questions carefully, and choose the letter of the BEST
answer. Each item is worth 1 point. The maximum possible score is 40/40.

TIME LIMIT: 60 minutes

1. Testosterone is a steroid hormone that promotes the growth of male sex organs. It is also
responsible for the secondary male characteristics during puberty. Provided below is the
structure of testosterone. Which of the following hormones will be synthesized if the shaded ring
undergoes aromatization?

A. Progesterone C. Aldosterone
B. Estradiol D. Cortisol

2. The cross-section of the female reproductive structure of flower is illustrated below. Which of
the following is most likely the locule?

A. A C. C
B. B D. D

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3. Tingirin grows bacteria X in a test tube containing differential medium. The oxygen concentration
decreases as you go deeper the solution. If bacteria X can grow both in high and low O 2
concentration, which of the following samples is most likely Tingirin dealing with?

A. A C. C
B. B D. D

4. The overall reactions in oxidative phosphorylation are represented by the following equations:

How many ATP molecules will be produced if 15 molecules of NADH and 3 molecules of FADH 2
are obtained?

A. 18 C. 51
B. 36 D. 54

5. Which of the following equations best represents the totality of light-independent reactions in
photosynthesis?

1
A. H2O + ADP + PO43- + NADP+ + energy → O2 + ATP + NADPH + H+
2
1
B. NADH + 3 ADP + 2O2 + 3PO4 + 3- H+ → NAD+ + 3 ADP + H2O
1
C. FADH2 + 2 ADP + 2O2 + 2PO43- + → FAD + 2 ADP + H2O
D. CO2 + ATP + NADPH + H+ → (CH2O)n + ADP + PO43- + NADP+

6. Which of the following components of mitochondrial membranes resemble(s) the chain of

redox enzymes in chloroplasts?

I. Cytochrome
II. Iron-sulfur complexes

A. I only C. Both I and II

B. II only D. Neither I nor II

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7. When the level of blood glucose in the body increases, insulin is released to the bloodstream
signaling the liver to take up the excess. The process is cyclic to maintain homeostasis. Which
of the following is/are true when a person has Type I diabetes mellitus?

I. The immune system destroys pancreatic beta cells causing the inability to produce
insulin.
II. There is a reduced response of target cells caused by alterations in insulin receptors.

A. I only C. Both I and II

B. II only D. Neither I nor II

8. Chlorophyll is the central part of a complex machinery in photosynthesis. The molecular structure
of chlorophyll is given below. Which of the following best describes the function of the highlighted
portion?

A. Serves as a catalyst to activate enzymatic systems in plants.

B. Functions as central component to absorb energy from light source.
C. Strips electrons and protons from water to form oxygen, ATP, NADPH, and H +.
D. Carries phosphorus in plants which is essential in metabolic processes.

9. Which of the following is/are true when glycolysis is partnered with fermentation?

I. O2 is not present.
II. Phosphorylation is utilized instead of ETC.
III. Sulfate is used as an oxidizing agent.

A. I only C. II and III

B. I and II D. I, II, and III

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10. Production of ATP through chemiosmotic pump is governed by the chemical equation below:
ATPase
ADP + Pi ATP + H2O

Cross-section of mitochondrion is shown below. Which of the following conditions will drive the
synthesis of ATP?

A. H+ concentration in region A is higher than in region B.

B. H+ concentration in region B is higher than in region A.
C. PO43- concentration in region A is higher than in region B.
D. PO43- concentration in region B is higher than in region A.

11. Carbohydrates play a significant role in the human diet. These macromolecules act as the main
source of energy. In some cases, consumption of carbohydrates or its derivatives can be
problematic. It is important for infants to undergo newborn screening to diagnose metabolic
abnormalities. A genetic defect renders some of the infants unable to utilize galactose – a
monosaccharide constituent of lactose. Absence of a certain enzyme triggers the condition. In
effect, an alcohol derived from galactose is produced, causing detrimental effects to the body.
Provided below is the simplified pathway that illustrates the case, which of the following disorders
is most likely being referred to?

A. Lactose intolerance C. Galactosuria

B. Hypolactasia D. Galactosemia

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12. In developmental biology, growth and maturation of plants and animals are being studied. One
branch of this field is embryology, which focuses on development of embryo itself. The process
of early animal embryogenesis is illustrated below. At which stage does blastocoel starts to
allow cell migration?

A. A C. C
B. B D. D

13. Tentacles of cnidarians are bound with specialized cells that function in predation and defense.
Within these cells are organelles that emits stinging thread. Which of the following is referred
to those organelles?

A. Neurotoxicants C. Mesoglea
B. Cnidocytes D. Nematocysts

14. Suppose there are 500 megasporocytes that will undergo meiotic division. How many
degenerate megaspores will be produced?

A. 500 C. 1500
B. 1000 D. 2000

15. Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding the central dogma of molecular
biology?

I. Small scale mutations affect the DNA at the genetic level, whereas large scale mutations
affect the DNA at the chromosomal level.

II. Transcription ends when RNA polymerase encounters a stop (termination) sequence in
the gene.

III. Transversion mutation results when one purine-pyrimidine base pair is replaced by
another (AT is replaced by GC or vice versa).

IV. One example of a disease caused by a deletion mutation is cystic fibrosis.

A. I and II C. II, III, and IV

B. III and IV D. I and III

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16. Some strains of this bacterium are used in recombinant DNA because they have been genetically
well-characterized and are easily grown in laboratory fermenters.

A. Bacillus thuringiensis C. pBR322

B. EcoR1 D. E. coli

17. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the proponents of the classification
system?

I. Thomas Cavalier-Smith published a version of six kingdoms classification adding

Kingdoms Protozoa and Kingdom Chromista to Empire Eukaryota and remain
Archaebacteria and Eubacteria on Kingdom Bacteria under Empire Prokaryota.
II. Robert Whittaker developed the 5-kingdom system by adding Kingdom Fungi to the mix.
III. The International Society of Protistologist in 2007 advocated an eight kingdom system,
namely: the Bacteria and Archaea kingdoms, under domains Bacteria and Archaea
respectively, and divided the domain Eukarya into six kingdoms namely: Amoebazoa,
Opisthokonta, Rhizaria, Archaeplastida (Primoplantae), Chromalvaolata and Excavata.
IV. Herbert Copeland added the Kingdom Fungi to the previous 3-kingdom system.

A. I and II C. I, III, and IV

B. III and IV D. All choices are correct.

18. What is the right sequence in performing genetic recombination technology?

I. In the process called transformation, the recombinant DNA is introduced into a recipient
host cell, mostly a bacterial cell.
II. Amplify the cut fragments of DNA using polymerase chain reaction then ligated with the
cut vector.
III. Isolate the desired DNA in its pure form (free from other macromolecules).
IV. The cut fragment of the DNA and the cut vector will now join using the DNA ligase in the
process called ligation.
V. The restriction enzymes cut the DNA at specific locations.
VI. Marker gene of plasmid vector is employed in the isolation of recombinant cells from non-
recombinant cells.

A. III, V, II, IV, I, VI C. VI, III, I, V, II, IV

B. III, VI, V, II, I, VI D. VI, I, V, IV, II, III

19. What fraction of the offspring can be predicted to express one of the dominant alleles, but not
both, in a cross of AaBb x aaBb?

A. ¼ C. 3/16
B. ½ D. 3/8

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20. A template strand of DNA in a gene reads:

3’ ATG GAC ACC CAC GTA GCT TAG GTC ATA ACT 5’

What is the amino acid sequence that is created after translation?

A. Tyr – Leu – Val – Pro – Gln – Val – Ala- Gln – Arg – Stop
B. Tyr – Leu – Trp – Val – His – Arg – Ile – Gln – Tyr – Stop
C. Tyr – Trp – Leu – Pro – His – Arg – Ala – Glu – Ser – Stop
D. Tyr – Trp – Val – Ala – Ile – His – Gly – Asp – Tyr – Stop

21. Which of the following is not true regarding the Darwin’s reasoning in his proposed theory
(theory of natural selection)?

A. Darwin realized that the environment limits the populations of some organisms by causing
deaths or by limiting births.
B. Individuals have distinct characteristics within a population, and new characteristics may
appear occasionally.
C. In order to survive, individuals must compete each other in what he called the “struggle for
existence.”
D. Darwin concluded that organisms are most likely to survive and reproduce with the best
adaptations, and will become more frequent in the population through inheritance.

22. In sunflowers, the allele for tall plants (T) is completely dominant to the allele for dwarf plants
(t) and the allele for yellow flower color (Y) is completely dominant to the allele for red flower
color (y). In a cross between two tall yellow plants, with a genotype of TtYy, which of the
following phenotypic ratios of the progeny would be expected?

A. 9 tall yellow: 3 tall red: 3 dwarf yellow: 1 dwarf red

B. 3 tall yellow: 1 dwarf red
C. 1 tall yellow: 3 tall red: 1 dwarf yellow
D. 1 tall yellow: 1 tall red: 1 dwarf yellow: 1 dwarf red

23. Some organisms have abnormal sex chromosomes such as X (only have one X chromosome) or
XXY (extra X chromosome). What is the most likely cause of the abnormal sex chromosome?

A. An error occurred in mitosis of the fertilized egg.

B. A normal egg was fertilized by a haploid sperm.
C. Nondisjunction occurred during meiosis.
D. Sex chromosomes in gametes are lost during fertilization.

24. This is based on the idea that species are unchanging, distinct, and natural types. The type
specimen was an individual of the species that best displayed the characteristics of that species.
When another specimen was found that varies significantly from the type specimen, it was
classified as a different species.

A. Genotypic Cluster Species Concept C. Phylogenic Species Concept

B. Morphological Species Concept D. Typological Species Concept
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25. Which of the following pairs of parents is most likely to produce a daughter with red-green
colorblindness?

A. A carrier mother and an unaffected father.

B. An unaffected, non-carrier mother and a colorblind father.
C. A colorblind mother and an unaffected father.
D. A carrier mother and a colorblind father.

26. It is the development of a similar trait in related, but distinct, species descending from the same
ancestor, but from different clades.

A. Coevolution C. Parallel Evolution

B. Convergent Evolution D. Divergent Evolution

27. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. Cell modification has four known types namely: lateral, basal, apical, and transversal.
II. Examples of basal modification are cilia, flagella, villi, and microvilli.
III. There are three types of junctions falling under apical modification.
IV. Desmosomes or hemidesmosomes is an example of apical modification.

A. I only C. I, II, III, and IV

B. II and IV D. None of these

28. This place is where the cell is being checked for its growth during the G1 phase in the cycle. The
cell’s DNA is also monitored here for damages before it proceeds to the S phase for duplication?

A. M check point C. G2 checkpoint

B. G1 check point D. G0 checkpoint

29. Lateral modification is found on the basal surface of the cell. Which among the diagrams shown
below illustrates how cells were hold together and turned into a leakproof sheet in order to limit
the leakage of different substances inside the cells?

A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4

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30. A model of cell membrane is described as a lipid bilayer, where proteins are globular entities
floating within the lipid bilayer. What refers to the protein that helps attach the cytoskeleton and
components of extracellular matrix to the membrane itself and is involved in moving substances
in and outside the cell?

A. 2 – Transmembrane Protein C. 1 – Integral Proteins

B. 3 – Membrane Transport Protein D. 3 – Peripheral Proteins

31. Which of the following statements about Rudolph Virchow’s Cell Theory is/are least likely to be
false?

I. Normal cells can be produced from damaged or diseased cells. This process is more likely
to be accepted as some of the damaged cells can still do activities and multiply.
II. Cells exist due to the nature of its surrounding. They can be produced even without
previously existing animals, and are able to arise from inorganic matter.
III. Cells exist spontaneously through crystallization. They suddenly appear through process
of free transformation.
IV. Cells exist as they are continuously being passed from generation to generation. They
can only be produced from pre-existing cells.

A. I only C. III and II

B. II and IV D. I and IV

32. The shape of the cell varies depending on its function. Which of the following statement shows
the correlation between its shape and physiology?

A. Nerve cells resemble a branch-like structure, as nerve cells help in transferring energy from
one nerve to another in order for the human body to function.
B. The human white blood cells can change its form, as it helps in protecting our body from
pathogens that may enter.
C. The human red blood cells resemble biconvex disk, as it can easily pass through the capillaries
and facilitates transfer of oxygen and carbon dioxide.
D. Amoeba cannot change its shape, for it only consumes food to survive.

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33. Which of the following is/are least likely to be true regarding epithelial cells?

I. Epithelial cells are resident cells that are essential in reabsorption of filtrating the
glucose, amino acids and other substance in the urine.
II. Epithelial cells come from the surface of the body which can be in our skin or blood
vessels, and serve as a barrier from viruses in coming inside the main body system.
III. Epithelial cells are tightly bond in each other as the cover up the interior hollow organs
of the human body. These cells help in protecting and digesting food in our stomach.

A. I only C. I and III

B. II only D. II and III

34. The sodium-potassium pump is mainly involved in the process of active transport. Which of the
following statements regarding the pump are correct?

I. It involves the hydrolysis of ATP molecules.

II. It is referred to as Na+/K+ ATPase
III. Potassium (K+) and sodium (Na+) ions are found inside the cell membrane.
IV. It involves moving of sodium and potassium ions across the cell membrane.

A. I, III, and III C. II, III, and IV

B. II and IV D. None of these

35. This type of cell collectively acts as a mail, functioning as either doer or receiver. It sends signals
to our body parts for them to mechanize. It can receive different sensory information, and you
will be rendered unable to access your body functions when these cells are not present.

A. Body cells C. Nerve cells

B. Muscle cells D. Epithelial cells

36. A scientist decided to create his own microscope that looks like a tiny paddle with a sunglass
lens. After creating the microscope, he then used it to study bacteria formerly referred as
animalcules due to its form. Where did the scientist find those microorganisms?

A. Mud Paddle C. Dental Scrapping

B. Flower D. Trash

37. At this phase, spindle fibers are dissolved, and nuclear membrane forms around the
chromosomes of the daughter cells. The furrow eventually produces a pair of daughter cells with
a haploid set of chromosomes. Which of the following is referred to?

A. Telophase II C. Prophase II
B. Anaphase I D. Metaphase I

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38. The plasma membrane of cell is made up of phospholipid bilayer. Which of the following
combinations make up these layers?

A. nonpolar head and nonpolar tail C. polar head and polar tail
B. nonpolar head and polar tail D. polar head and nonpolar tail

39. This type of cell was discovered to exist 4 billion years ago, and accounts for a large number of
organisms. The subcellular structure lacks membrane, and the genetic material floats in the
gelatinous liquid inside this cell. Which of the following is most likely being referred to?

A. Eukaryotic cells C. Prokaryotic cells

B. Plant cells D. Epithelial cells

40. What part of a bacterial cell has a characteristic of a sticky outer layer that provides first
protection from its surroundings?

A. Plasma membrane C. Cell wall

B. Capsule D. Mesosome

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