Jet 2014

1. Which of the following statements is TRUE? (d) a set of all elements that are the negative of
(a) For all sets A, B, and C, A - (B - C) = (A - B) - the elements in a given set
C 7. Which among the following is TRUE regarding the
(b) For all sets A, B, and C, (A - B) ∩ (C - B) = (A differential equation?
∩ C) - B
(c) For all sets A, B, and C, (A - B) ∩ (C - B) = A -
(a) Linear and not separable
(B ∪ C)
(b) Not linear and not separable
(d) For all sets A, B, and C, if A ∩ C = B ∩ C then
(c) Both Separable and linear
A=B
(d) Separable but not linear
2. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
8. Two planes are perpendicular to one another.
(a) Every function from set A to set B is a relation
(b) Every relation from set A to set B is a function One of them contains vectors and and
(c) Some relations are functions and some another contains vectors and . Then, ( 
functions are not relations ).(  ) is equal to:
(d) Only one-to-one functions are relations (a) 1
3. Let A = {c, d, e} and let B = {a, b, c, d}. Determine (b) ( . )  ( . )
the sets contained in power set of set (B -A): (c) 0
(a) the sets {a, b, e}, {a, b}, {b, e}, {e, a}, {a}, (d) None of these
{b}, {e}, ∅ 9. , and are vectors. Then . {( + )  ( +
(b) the sets {a, b}, {a}, {b}, ∅ + )} is equal to:
(c) the sets {a}, ∅ (a) 0
(d) the null set ∅ only (b) The null vector
4. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
(c) [
(a) 2 ∈ A ∪ B implies that if 2 ∉ A then 2∈B
(b) {2,3} ⊆ A implies that 2 ∈ A and 3 ∈ A (d) [ ]
(c) A ∩ B ⊇ {2, 3} implies that {2, 3} ⊃ A and {2, 10. The planes 2x + y + p z = 0 and x + 2y - 2z = 0
3} ⊃ B are perpendicular to each others What is the value
(d) A - B ⊇ {3} and {2} ⊆ B implies that {2, 3} ⊆ of constant p?
A∪B (a) 2
5. Let R = {(x, y)| x2 + y2 = 1, x, y ∈ R} be a (b) 4
relation in R. Which among the following about (c) -2
relation R is true? (d) 0
(a) reflexive 11. A plane meets the coordinate axes at points A, B
(b) symmetric and C. (p, q, r) is the centroid of the triangle ABC.
(c) transitive What is the equation of the plane?
(d) equivalence (a)
6. What is the meaning of complement in set theory? (b)
(a) all the elements in the universal set that are
(c)
not identical
(b) a set of well defined elements that do not (d)
belong to universal set 12.
(c) all the elements of a universal set that do not (a) 0
belong to any subset of it (b) i
(c) 2i

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(d) None of these the class got increased by half (1/2). The number
13. If y(t) is the solution of the differential equation (1 of students in the class is:
+ t) ty = 1 and y(0) = -1; then y(l) is equal (a) 20
(b) 30
to:
(c) 40
(a) (-1/4)
(d) 73
(b) 0
20. The square of a number is decreased by 15. This
(c) 1/2
value is twice the original number. Find the
(d) (-1/2)
number(s):
14. The number u, different from 1, is a solution of
(a) (5, -3)
z3=l. Find the value of the determinant:
(b) (10, 5)
D= (c) (7, 8)
(d) (3, 5)
(a) 0 21. If the equation of two diameters of a circle are x -
(b) 1 y = 5 and 2x + y = 4 and the radius is 5, which of
(c) 2 the following is the equation of the circle?
(d) 3 (a) x2 + 2y2 -6x + 4y = 12
15. Which of the following is relative measure? (b) x2 + y2 - 6x + 4y = 12
(a) Mean (c) 2x2 + y2 - 6x + 4y = 12
(b) Standard deviation (d) x2 + y2 + 6x - 4y = 12
(c) Coefficient of variation 22. is equal to:
(d) Variance (a) 1
16. What is the probability of getting exactly two (b) 0
heads with 4 coin tosses? (c) -4
(a) 6/16 (d) -l
(b) 7/16 23. What is the derivative of y = 1n(sinh2x):
(c) 1/16 (a) coth-12x
(d) 1/2 (b) 2coth 2x
17. Out of 7 consonants and 4 vowels, how many (c) 2csch 2x
words of 3 consonants and 2 vowels can be
(d)
formed?
(a) 210 24. If [x] is the greatest integer not greater than x,
(b) 1050 then is:
(c) 25200 (a) 0
(d) 21400 (b) 1/2
18. What is the probability of 53 Sundays in a leap (c) 1
year? (d) does not exist
(a) 1/6 25. is equal to:
(b) 2/6
(c) 1/7 (a) 3sec-13x + C
(d) 2/7 (b) 3sin 3x + C
19. A student's marks were wrongly entered as 83 (c) sec- -1 3x+c
instead of 63. Due to that the average marks for (d) sin -1 3x+ C

2

Directions for Questions 26 to 30: Read the following
passage carefully and answer Questions given at the end of
passage.
Back in the eighteenth century, men in England, France,
and the United States conceived of a new type of regime
that would prevent the tyranny of the absolutist
monarchies that reigned at the time. They put their hopes
in a balance of power between various institutions of
government, and in the periodical recourse to election to
purge the system of excessive corruption and entrenched
power. The democratic form of government established
on those principles would work wonders for over two
centuries. But now, in its third century of existence, it is
producing dysfunctional and potentially self-destructive
forms of governance. The United States has been
deadlocked in the monumental issue of its budget deficit
and entitlements, unable to cut spending or raise taxes.
Europe as a whole is no less fiscally bankrupt, and
measures to restore its public finances are throwing the
continent into economic depression and political upheaval.
This is not the first test for democracies that, over the last
200 and some years, have weathered countless political
crises. Throughout that period, democracies were able to
mobilize. So many resources, human and financial, that
they won epochal wars against other regimes and were
emulated on all continents. Yet, the diagnostic today is
severe: with age, the democratic Welfare state as we
know it suffers from morbid obesity, and while the
remedy is not hard to conceive— rebalancing the
relationship between the public to private sector—it
seems impossible to administer. The etiology of the crisis
points at the very design of the regime: the patient will not
take the cure, voting out any government trying to cut
public spending. Foreign donors who bail out bankrupt
governments are often slapped in the face by the citizens
of those countries. The recent woes of Greece and
Cyprus show how the people can lack responsibility and
gratitude. Political theorists of ancient Greece were
ambivalent about democracy. The Greek elite liked to rule
its own affairs but, as a privileged minority in an expanding
society, it had much to lose if a populist tyrant were to
leverage the power of the masses. Accommodations were
made with monarchy, hoping for a king powerful enough
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to keep the mob in check, and wise enough to protect the
propertied classes.
These misgivings carried through the ages, and the
coalition of well-off merchants, clerks, and landowners in
Western Europe and the Americas, who unseated
monarchs to have another go at democracy, sheltered
their privileges behind the rule of law. They generally did
not conceive of democracy as an exercise open to
everyone, but rather as the prerogative of a propertied
class with stakes in the system. The door was left open to
the masses whose condition, no longer restricted by birth,
could be improved through work and chance.
Improvement would bring them into the franchise. Until
then, their place was at the periphery of the polity. Those
restrictions could not hold and, by the middle of the
twentieth century, suffrage had been opened to every
adult. The marriage of democracy and mass politics was
not a seamless affair, and it is good to remember that
leaders such as Mussolini, Hitler, and Juan Peron were
actually elected to office. But most democracies were able
to keep their people away from toxic demagogues by
setting up the largest state project ever conceived, other
than communism, since the Great Wall of China: collective
welfare.
Unlike communism, welfare state left space for the
market. Like communism, it aimed to cut off individuals
from their kin-based or ethno-religious communities,
binding them to the dual institutions of state and the
state-regulated market. Functions that were traditionally
performed by the extended family—care for the sick,
young, and elderly; primary and vocational education; job
placement; capital accumulation and transmission—were
moved to the state and the market. Welfare was to be the
social contract of democracies and the people signed on
because, at least at the time, the transition improved
standards of living. Welfare brought stability to cities
whose populations exceeded ten million inhabitants and to
countries whose populations were well into the hundreds
of millions. But the cost was phenomenal. The economic
viability of the model depended on continuous growth of
the private sector, from which taxes would flow. When
that was not enough—which would not be long—the
prospect of future taxes served as collateral for public
borrowing. GDP did grow, but spending and debt grew
 Jet 2014

even faster: the average OECD ratios to GDP are now their constituents absolved from responsibility for
around 50 percent for public expenditures and 80 percent unpopular but necessary measures.
for public debt. Democratically elected officials are failing to meet their
With growth structurally slowing down in the most end of the bargain. Respect for democratic institutions —
developed countries, appropriations have become a parliaments, heads of governments, and presidents alike
zero-sum game between those who get and those who — has plummeted along with voter turnout. The
will have to pay. Yet, familiarity with gigantic deficits—the re-elections of George Bush in 2004 and Barack Obama in
combined public debt of OECD countries exceeds 40 2012, which should have settled the matter of their
trillion dollars—gives confidence that the system still has leadership, did nothing to silence their detractors and
some give in it. Many have come to imagine the state as the mend the tears in the American polity.
custodian of an infinite supply of money, and their
democratic rights as a claim to financial entitlements. 26. What is the social contract of democracy?
While the seminal economist John Maynard Keynes has (a) Welfare
demonstrated that government speeding is not always a (b) Business
zero-sum game, it can be if it is not a remedy to a (c) Elections
temporary crisis of demand, but a way of life, as it has been (d) Government
in the Western world since the 1970s. And it is not just 27. What is producing dysfunctional form of
money, but also the interference of the state to favor a governance?
select few. Subsidies, scarcity-creating regulations, (a) Monarchies
intellectual property rights: there are hundreds of ways to (b) People of England and France
game the market. While some regulation is legitimate and (c) Democratic form of government
necessary, in some sectors, from healthcare to education, (d) Tyranny of absolutists
the business model is entirely dependent on the 28. Whose marriage was not a seamless affair in mid
state-sanctioned restriction of competition. The irony twentieth century?
here is that democracy has returned to the impasse from (a) Masses and classes
which it was born: the tyranny of corruption. (b) Government and citizens
Democracy never meant for elected officials to (c) Democracy and mass politics
micro-govern, a task for technocratic elite, shielded from (d) None of these
the pressure of special interests, with a holistic view on the 29. Who sheltered their privileges behind law?
long-term commonwealth—the modern version of the (a) Merchants and landowners
Ancient Greeks' philosopher king. Elected officials were (b) Bankrupt governments
tasked with other functions, such as keeping the (c) Foreign donors
technocracy nimble and accountable for producing results (d) Everyone
efficiently. Crucially, officials had to "sell" to the people 30. Government spending can be zero sum game:
policies designed technocratic ally (not democratically), (a) If it is insignificant percentage of GDP
mustering the kind of legitimacy that brings together a (b) If it is spent undemocratically
country around a common purpose. (c) If it is not a remedy to a short term crises of
This distribution of duties served as a buffer against demand
populism and kleptocracy. In the United States, this agent (d) None of these
of governance, the Supreme Court, has time and again
dampened the excesses of overreaching government. In Directions for Questions 31 to 35: In Questions a word
the European Union, the Council has forced national is given followed by four words. Select the option which
governments to limit their deficit to 3 percent of GDP per best expresses the meaning of the word given in the
annum. Such institutional constraints allow officials to go to question.

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38. The prime ministerial candidate found herself

31. Divaricate subject to intense public _____
(a) To discuss (a) Scrutiny
(b) To disagree (b) Manipulation
(c) To diverge (c) Hypothesis
(d) To explain (d) Optimism
32. Incipient 39. The idea of children’s literature _____ when
(a) Indifferent educators first decided that children needed
(b) Lazy special books of their own.
(c) Embryonic (a) Receded
(d) Affluent (b) Emerged
33. Tribulation (c) Pleased
(a) Adversity (d) Reduced
(b) Triangular 40. Mr. Sharma's lawyer thought a law suit would be
(c) Impossibility fruitless but Mr. Sharma wanted to _____
(d) Exhaustion (a) Surrender
34. Chagrin (b) Litigate
(a) Caustic (c) Mitigate
(b) Pleasant (d) Attack
(c) Impudent
(d) Annoyance Directions for Questions 41 to 45: In each of the
35. Belligerent Questions a word is followed by four words. Select the
(a) Aggressive alternative which is the correct antonym of the word given
(b) Beleaguered in question.
(c) Eccentric
(d) Sinister 41. Assiduous
(a) Diligent
Direction for Questions 36 to 40: In each of the (b) Lazy
Questions a sentence has been given with blanks. Fill in the (c) Attentive
blanks with the most suitable word from the given options. (d) Helpful
42. Laconic
36. His _____ plan was to build the biggest shopping (a) Verbose
centre on the earth. (b) Sarcastic
(a) Ambiguous (c) Terse
(b) Cautious (d) Humorous
(c) Grandiose 43. Livid
(d) Indigenous (a) Dull
37. A lot of people read novels and the novel is a (b) Nimble
_____ of literature. (c) Elated
(a) Genre (d) Hurt
(b) Critique 44. Listless
(c) Appreciation (a) Dull
(d) Shadow (b) Energetic
(c) Mobile

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(d) Dead and finally letter 'S' is suffixed, then in the resulting
45. Dithering sequence:
(a) Hesitant -
(b) Determined 51. Which vowel will have a consonant to the left but
(c) Formal a vowel to the right of it?
(d) Evasive (a) I
(b) O
Direction for Questions 46 to 50: In each of the (c) E
Questions on idiom followed by four meanings has been (d) A
given. You are to select the option which best expresses 52. Which letter will be exactly in the middle?
the meaning of the idiom given in the question. (a) L
(b) R
46. Beat a dead horse (c) D
(a) Forcing an already ended issue (d) E
(b) Avoiding the main topic 53. Which of the two vowels will be adjoining each
(c) To be in great difficulty other?
(d) To fail in an enterprise (a) IE
47. Dark horse (b) IO
(a) Someone unknown becoming prominent (c) AE
(b) A duplicate (d) AO
(c) An argumentative person 54. How many vowels will be to the left of the middle
(d) Someone unreliable letter?
48. A chip on your shoulder (a) 2
(a) Being upset for something that happened in the (b) 4
past (c) 1
(b) Not recognizing something which is good (d) 3
(c) Taking unnecessary risks 55. Name the letter sandwiched between two
(d) Being arrogant vowels:
49. An axe to grind (a) R and T
(a) To understand something with difficulty (b) C and L
(b) To be involved in trivial pursuits (c) R and L
(c) To have a dispute with someone (d) D and G
(d) To cut wood with difficulty
50. Cock and bull story Directions for Questions 56 to 60: Read the following
(a) A story with a moral data carefully and on the basis of this data answer
(b) A fairy tale questions.
(c) An unbelievable tale A Jeweller has five gold rings, each weighing differently.
(d) A real incident While calibrating, he writes following observations on his
note sheet.
Directions for Questions 51 to 55: Read the following I. Ring D weighs twice as much as ring E.
statements carefully for answering questions. II. Ring E weighs four and half times as much as ring F.
If in a word 'ELECTROCARDIOGRAPH' the first halves of III. Ring F weighs half as much as ring G.
the letters are reversed, last but one letter is then prefixed IV. Ring G weighs half as much as ring H.
V. Ring H weighs less than ring D but more than ring F.

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63. If XYZ = 480, which one of the following cannot

56. Which of the above statements is not necessary to be the value of Y?
determine the correct order of the rings (a) 0
according to weights? (b) I
(a) I (c) 4
(b) II (d) 5
(c) IV 64. If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the
(d) V first, third, fifth, eighth and tenth letters of the
57. Ring H is lighter in weight than which of the word DISTRIBUTE, which of the following will be
following rings ? the third letter of that word?
(a) G E (a) E
(b) DF (b) S
(c) DE (c) R
(d) GF (d) None of these
58. Ring H is heavier than which of the following rings? 65. If '*' means '+', '+' means '-', and '-' means '/', then
(a) GE what will be the value of 5 + 18 - 3*4?
(b) DF (a) -34
(c) DE (b) 6
(d) GF (c) 3
59. Which of the rings is the lightest in weight? (d) None of these
(a) D
(b) E Directions for Questions 66 to 70: The graph below
(c) F shows Mytag's Vision 2020 about the market potential for
(d) G home appliances. You are to study the graph and answer
60. Which of the following suggests a correct questions on the basis of data given in the graph.
descending order of weights of rings?
(a) DEGHF MYTAG'S VISION 2020
(b) EGHDF (Worldwide sales, Million)
(c) HFGDE
(d) DEHGF
61. Pointing to Neena, Reeta said, "She is my brother's
only sister's daughter". How is Neena related to
Reeta?
(a) mother
(b) aunt
(c) sister
(d) None of these
62. Which one of the following does not belong to the
series? Abz Bcy Cdx Dew Efr
(a) Abz
(b) Bey 66. If Mytag would be known by the appliances it sells
(c) Dew the highest number of units in 2020, it will be
(d) Efr called a:
(a) Television Company

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(b) Microwave Oven Company (c) VCRs

(c) VCR Company (d) Washing Machines
(d) None of these 70. If Mytag is able to achieve all projections, the total
67. As per the data, the highest growth rate is likely to of all appliances put together sold by Mytag would
be experienced by: grow approximately at:
(a) Monitors (a) 110%
(b) Washing Machines (b) 150%
(c) Refrigerators (c) 130%
(d) Microwave Ovens (d) None of these
68. In 2020, Mytag overachieves the sales of VCRs,
Monitors and Microwave Ovens by 10 %, which Directions for Questions 71 to 75: For answering
of the following appliances will be sold in highest questions, read the following instructions carefully.
number of units? The table below shows details of Middle Management
(a) Televisions Salaries for a few industries in India. Evaluate the pairs of
(b) Microwave Ovens statements in each question on the basis of the data given
(c) VCRs in the table.
(d) Washing Machines Mark:
69. If Mytag decides to be only in the highest growth (a) If only Statement (I) is correct.
rate appliances in order of priority, which of the (b) If only Statement (II) is correct.
following appliances will be the first one to be (c) If both the Statements are correct.
phased out? (d) If none of the Statements is correct.
(a) Refrigerators
(b) Televisions

Middle Management Salaries

Industry Average Maximum Minimum Projected percent change next

year
Automotive 24,02,898 33,49,350 15,61,320 15
Consumer Durables 38,04,552 45,39,372 14,33,016 12
Diversified 20,84,612 24,67,656 16,91,574 11
Engineering 28,08,732 50,00,004 17,30,508 9
Entertainment 42,95,646 84,18,420 16,66,884 15
FMCG 56,80,526 71,97,864 44,71,536 14
IT 27,98,459 42,64,380 16,63,476 12

Telecom 23,19,016 30,79,728 12,42,756 15

71. Statement - I: In absolute terms the highest
change in the average salary in the next year is likely
to be in the IT sector.
Statement - II: In absolute terms the lowest
change in the average salary in the next year is likely
to be in the automotive sector.
72. Statement - I: In absolute terms, the average
salary of the diversified industry will grow the
minimum.
Statement - II: In absolute terms, the average
salary of the Engineering industry will grow the
minimum.

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73. Statement - I: In the Entertainment industry, the (d) PNB
salary curve is skewed positively. 82. 'Kitchens of India' ready to eat food, is the product
Statement - II: In the Entertainment industry, the of:
salary curve is skewed negatively. (a) Hamdard
74. Statement - I: FMCG sector is likely to record the (b) ITC Limited
highest average salary in the next year. (c) Britannia
Statement - II: The lowest average salary is likely (d) MTR
to be recorded by engineering sector in the next 83. Which brand/company uses the tagline ‘We Know
year. India Better'?
75. Statement - I: The largest gap in the maximum (a) LIC
and minimum salary has been observed in FMCG (b) UT1
sector. (c) SB1
Statement - II: The consumer durables sector has (d) GIC
recorded largest maximum to minimum salary 84. Which of the following Indian Private Company is
ratio. the biggest employer?
76. The Allen Solly brand belongs to: (a) TCS
(a) Raymond (b) Reliance Industries
(b) Madura Garments (c) Wipro
(c) Arvind Mills (d) ITC
(d) Lee Cooper 85. Which of the following watch brands is not owned
77. Which brand would you associate with the famous by Swatch Group, the Swiss watch company?
tagline,' Come to where the flavour is'? (a) Tag Heuer
(a) Charminar (b) Rado
(b) Four Square (c) Omega
(c) Dunhill (d) Longines
(d) Marlboro 86. Rituals, Tankers, Gatsby, Aviator, Fugitive and
78. Who owns the cosmetic brand - Lakme? Sidestreet are models of:
(a) Procter & Gamble (a) Ray Ban Sunshades
(b) Cavin Klare (b) Trousers by Raymond
(c) Hindustan Unilever Ltd (c) Shirts by Reid & Taylor
(d) Wipro (d) Panasonic televisions
79. Who heads the Tata Group at present? 87. Which company sells low-priced television sets
(a) Ratan Tata under the brand name "Vardaan" in the rural and
(b) Russi Mody semi-rural markets?
(c) Cyrus Mistry (a) Videocon
(d) None of the above (b) Panasonic
80. 'Dettol' is a product of: (c) BPL
(a) Procter and Gamble (d) Philips
(b) Hindustan Unilever Ltd. 88. Galbani is one of the largest branded manufactures
(c) Johnson & Johnson of:
(d) Reckitt-Benckiser (a) Cheese
81. Which of the following is not a nationalized bank? (b) Ice cream
(a) Canara Bank (c) Perfume
(b) Allahabad Bank (d) Spaghetti
(c) IDBI Bank 89. Amjad Ali Khan is the name associated with:

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(a) Santoor (a) Austria
(b) Sitar (b) Spain
(c) Sarod (c) China
(d) Mohan Veena (d) Canada
90. What was the theme of the International Day for 96. Which company announced that it will open 100
Biological Diversity 2014? stores in India by 2016?
(a) Land Biodiversity (a) Wall Mark
(b) Island Biodiversity (b) Pepe
(c) Ocean Biodiversity (c) Veromoda
(d) Water Biodiversity (d) Marks & Spencer
91. In 1999, as the previous century came to a close, 97. Which country has agreed to put a freeze on its
Fortune magazine identified the ______ as the nuclear program in exchange for food assistance
'Product of the Century'. from the United States of America?
(a) Stapler (a) Iran
(b) Paper-clip (b) North Korea
(c) Eraser (c) Syria
(d) Pencil (d) Libya
92. What is the name of the production company set 98. Which of the following books is written by Chetan
by Shahrukh Khan? Bhagat?
(a) Balaji Telefilms (a) A Suitable Boy
(b) White Feather Films (b) A Bend in the River
(c) Dreamz Unlimited (c) Revolution 2020
(d) Percept Pictures (d) A House for Mr. Biswas
93. Which two companies have recently settled their 99. Which state has become the first state in the
Smart Phone Patent War? country to issue e-stamp papers in all
(a) Apple and Google denominations?
(b) Apple and Nokia (a) Delhi
(c) Samsung and Nokia (b) Gujarat
(d) Google and Nokia (c) Karnataka
94. Which of the following Awards is given for (d) Maharashtra
Outstanding Achievement in the Music Industry? 100. Heavy Water is used in:
(a) Tony (a) Pharmaceutical Industry
(b) Emmy (b) Textile industry
(c) Grammy (c) Cement Industry
(d) Academy (d) Nuclear Power
95. Which of the following countries is a member of
G8?

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Answer Key
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (a)
11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (a) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (b)
41. (b) 42. (a) 43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (b) 46. (a) 47. (a) 48. (a) 49. (c) 50. (c)
51. (a) 52. (d) 53. (b) 54. (d) 55. (b) 56. (d) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (c) 60. (d)
61. (d) 62. (d) 63. (a) 64. (c) 65. (c) 66. (a) 67. (c) 68. (a) 69. (c) 70. (b)
71. (d) 72. (a) 73. (b) 74. (a) 75. (d) 76. (b) 77. (d) 78. (c) 79. (c) 80. (d)
81. (c) 82. (b) 83. (a) 84. (a) 85. (a) 86. (a) 87. (d) 88. (a) 89. (c) 90. (b)
91. (b) 92. (c) 93. (a) 94. (c) 95. (d) 96. (d) 97. (b) 98. (c) 99. (a) 100. (d)

Explanatory Answers
1. (b) For all sets A, B and C. (A – B)∩(C – B) = (A and is a vector perpendicular to the plane
∩ C) – B of .
Since these planes are ⊥ to one another.
∴(
9. (a)

=0
10. (a) Two planes are perpendicular
2. (a) Every function from Set A to Set B is a relation i.e., a1a2 + b1b2 + c1c2 = 0
3. (b) B – A = {a, b} 2 × 1 + 1×2 – p × 2 = 0
P(B – A) = {a}, {b}, {a, b}, ϕ 4 – 2p = 0
4. (c) option (c) is incorrect. 4 = 2p
5. (b) R = {(x, y)|x2 + y2 = 1, x, y ∈ R} p=2
(x, y) ∈ R ⟹ x2 + y2 = 1 11. (a) The equation of the plane is
if (y, x) ∈ R ⟹ y2 + x2 = 1
∴ R is symmetric Relation
6. (c) All the elements of a universal set that do not 12. (d) i2012
belong to any subset of it. (i2)106 = (-1)106 = 1.
7. (c) The given equation is Separable and linear. 13. (d) (1 + t)
8. (c) is a vector perpendicular to the plane ⟹
of
I.F =
y. (1+t)e-t =

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y= (iv) Wednesday & Thursday
y(0) = -1 (v) Thursday & Friday
∴ -1 = -1 + C (vi) Friday & Saturday
(vii) Saturday & Sunday
C=0∴y= For having 53 Sundays in a leap year one of the
y(1) = remaining 2 days must be a Sunday
14. (a) The required answer is 0. n(S) = 7, n(E) = 2
15. (c) Coefficient of Variation is a relative measure P(E) = n(E)/n(S) = 2/7
16. (a) Sample Space for 4 coins. 19. (c) Difference of marks = 83 – 63
HHHH No. of students = x.
HHHT ∴
HHTH x = 40
HTHH 20. (a) Let the no. be x
THHH x2 – 15 = 2 × x
TTTT x2 – 2x – 15 = 0
THHH x2 + 3x – 5x – 15 = 0
HTHH x(x + 3) – 5(x + 3) = 0
HHTH (x – 5)(x + 3) = 0
HHHT x = 5, -3.
HHTT 21. (b) The required equation x2 + y2 – 6x + 4y = 12
TTHH
22. (d)
THTH
THHT Using L’ Hospital’s Rule.
HTTH
HTHT 23. (b) y = ln (sinh 2x)
P(Exactly two heads) = 6/16.
17. (c) 7 consonants 4 vowels
7 = 2 coth 2x
C3 × 7C2 =
24. (a) is 0 by definition.
=
25. (c)
= 35 × 6
= 210 =
Number of groups, each having 3 consonants and
2 vowels = 210. Let 3x = y ⟹3dx = dy
Each group contains 5 letters.
Number of ways of arranging 5 letters among
themselves = 5! = 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 = 120. Solutions for Questions 51 to 55:
∴ required no. of ways = (210 × 120) = 25200 According to the information provided we can
18. (d) A leap year has 366 days therefore 52 weeks arrange the word ELECTROCARDIOGRAPH in
2 days. the following way
∴ 52 Sundays and 2 days HACORTCELERDIOGRAPS
The remaining 2 days may be any of the following 51. (a) Letter ‘I’ has vowel ‘O’ on the right and
(i) Sunday & Monday consonant ‘D’ on the left side.
(ii) Monday & Tuesday 52. (d) ‘E’ will be exactly in the middle
(iii) Tuesday & Wednesday

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53. (b) ‘I’ and ‘O’ will be the two vowels which are 62. (d)
adjoining each other.
54. (d) ‘A’, ‘O’ and ‘E’ will be the three vowels to the
left of the middle letter.
55. (b) ‘C’ is between ‘A’ and ‘O’ and ‘L’ is between
two E’s.
‘Efr’ is wrong.
Solutions for Questions 56 to 60: 63. (a) y cannot be ‘0’ because if Y = 0 then XYZ = 0
According to the question we can conclude the 64. (d) D, S, R, U, E
following sequence. There is no such word which can formed with
Rings D>E>H>G>F the letters given in the question. Hence answer is
56. (d) Statement V is not necessary to determine None of these
the correct order of the rings. 65. (c) 5 – 18/3 + 4
57. (c) Ring H is lighter than Ring D and Ring E 5 – 6 + 4.
58. (d) Ring H is heavier than Ring G and Ring F 9 – 6 = 3.
59. (c) Ring ‘F’ is lightest in weight. 66. (a) Highest no. of units in 2020 is of Television
60. (d) Correct descending order of the rings is company.
D>E>H>G>F 67. (c) highest growth rate is of Refrigerators.
61. (d) Neena is Reeta’s daughter. 68. (a) Televisions will be sold in highest no. of units.
69. (c) VCR’s should be the first one to passed out.
70. (b) It will grow approximately 150%.

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