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Ultimate Pediatrics Exam Quiz: Trivia!

45 Questions  |  By Day4517 | Last updated: Dec 29, 2020 | Total Attempts: 3670

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1.  Which of the following can be found in the eyes during the physical
examination of a newborn?

A. Epstein pearls

B. Brushfield spots

C. Subgaleal hemorrhages

D. Adamson's fringe

2.  Which of the following immunizations is not given during the 6 month well
visit?

A. Hepatitis B

B. Hepatitis A

C. Rotavirus

D. Human influenza B

3.  Which of the following is a contraindication to immunization with MMR

vaccine?

A. Illness with low-grade fever

B. Low-dose corticosteroid treatment

C. Neomycin allergy

D. Egg allergy

4.  Which of the following de nes failure to thrive?

A. Weight curve has fallen by two major percentiles from previous rate of growth

B. Loss of 20% of either body weight, head circumference or height

C. Weight curve has fallen three major percentiles from previous growth rate

D. A child below the 2nd percentile all three categories

5.  Which of the following is passed to a baby during breastfeeding?

A. IgE

B. IgM

C. IgG

D. IgA

6.  What is the APGAR score of the following baby? Baby sneezes when a
catheter is placed in his nostril and is actively moving but not crying. 
Pulse 95.  Breathing slow and irregular.  The body is pink but the
extremities are blue.

A. 10

B. 9

C. 8

D. 7

7.  At what age can a baby rst make a "raspberry" sound?

A. 1-2 months

B. 3-5 months

C. 6-8 months

D. 9-11 months

8.  Which Tanner stage describes a male with a small amount of long downy
pubic hair and a testicular volume of 1.6-6mL, penile length 3cm?

A. Tanner I

B. Tanner II

C. Tanner III

D. Tanner IV

9.  At what age should a child have his/her rst formal visual screening
evaluation?

A. 18 months

B. 2 years

C. 3 years

D. 5 years

10. What is the most common cause of acute otitis media?

A. Haemophilis influenzae

B. Moraxella catarrhalis

C. Coxsackie virus

D. Streptococcus pneumoniae

11. What is the rst-line treatment for acute otitis media?

A. Augmentin x 5 days

B. Amoxicillin x 5 days

C. Augmentin x 10 days

D. Amoxicillin x 10 days

12. Which of the following is a preventative measure for otitis externa?

A. Removing pacifiers from infants

B. Administration of 1:1 solution of vinegar and 70% ethyl alcohol

C. Xylitol

D. Tympanostomy tubes

13. Which test is de nitive for mononucleosis?

A. Positive mono spot

B. Elevated IgM capsid antibody

C. Cultures positive for corynebacterium

D. More than 10% atypical lymphocytes on peripheral smear

14. What is the most common causative organism of croup?

A. H influenza

B. RSV

C. Parainfluenza virus

D. Rhinovirus

15. What is the most common cause of bronchiolitis?

A. RSV

B. Parinfluenza virus

C. H influenza

D. Rhinovirus

16. What is the causative organism of herpangina?

A. RSV

B. Coxsackie virus

C. Adenovirus

D. Coronavirus

17. What is the most common cause of emphysema in childhood?

A. Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency

B. Cystic fibrosis

C. Second hand smoke inhalation

D. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia

18. Which of the following is not a component of the tetralogy of Fallot?

A. Ventricular septal defect

B. Pulmonary stenosis

C. Overriding aorta

D. Left ventricular hypertrophy

19. What is the most common innocent murmur of early childhood?

A. Venous hum

B. Pulmonary ejection murmur

C. Still murmur

D. Peripheral arterial pulmonary stenosis

20. Which of the following presents with a blowing systolic murmur at the

upper left sternal border and a holosystolic murmur at the lower left
sternal border?

A. Patent ductus arteriosus

B. Ventricular septal defect

C. Tetralogy of Fallot

D. Pulmonary atresia

21. Which of the following is associated with bilious vomiting?

A. Volvulus

B. Intussusception

C. Intestinal obstruction

D. GERD

22. What is the most frequent cause of intestinal obstruction in the rst two
years of life?

A. Constipation

B. Intussusception

C. Volvulus

D. Low fiber diet

23. What is the most common cause of anal itching in children?

A. Diarrhea

B. Cleansing the area with hot water or strong soap

C. Yeast infection

D. Pinworms

24. A patient has an umbilical hernia with a fascial defect of about 1 cm and
no signs of strangulation.  If the hernia persists, at what age is surgery
indicated?

A. 2 years

B. 3 years

C. 4 years

D. 5 years

E. Surgery is not indicated

25. An African American newborn presents with jaundice at 48hours of age. 

TSB is 5.   Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. G6PD deficiency

B. Crigler-Najar syndrome

C. Physiologic jaundice

D. Hemolysis

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